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Thinka Jun 2023 AQA A Level-Style Mock — Biology 7402

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An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2023 AQA A Level Biology 7402 paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from AQA.

Paper 1 Section A

Answer all questions in the spaces provided. Show all working.
10 PastPaper.question · 90.8 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
A scientist developed an indirect ELISA test to detect antibodies against virus X in human blood samples. Describe the steps involved in this indirect ELISA test. In your answer, explain why washing is necessary after each step, and how a standard curve can be used to determine the exact concentration of the antibody.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1. Coat the walls of a microtiter plate/well with the specific antigen of virus X. 2. Add the patient's blood/serum sample to the well. If complementary antibodies against virus X are present, they will bind to the antigen, forming antigen-antibody complexes. 3. Wash the well with buffer solution to remove any unbound primary antibodies, which prevents false positive results. 4. Add a secondary antibody that is conjugated to an enzyme. This secondary antibody is specific to the constant region of the human primary antibody and binds to it. 5. Wash the well again with buffer solution to remove any unbound secondary antibody-enzyme complexes. This is crucial because remaining unbound enzyme would react with the substrate and cause a false positive or overestimate the concentration. 6. Add the specific colorless substrate for the enzyme. The enzyme catalyses a reaction that converts the substrate into a colored product. 7. Measure the intensity of the color change (absorbance) using a spectrophotometer or colorimeter. 8. Construct a standard/calibration curve by repeating the ELISA with known, serial dilutions of the antibody and plotting absorbance against concentration. 9. Locate the absorbance value of the patient's sample on the curve to read off the exact concentration of the antibody.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Mark 1: Antigen of virus X is bound to the well. Mark 2: Patient sample (primary antibody) added, forming antigen-antibody complexes. Mark 3: First washing step removes unbound primary antibodies (prevents false positives). Mark 4: Secondary antibody with conjugated enzyme is added and binds to the primary antibody. Mark 5: Second washing step removes unbound secondary antibody-enzyme complexes (prevents false color change). Mark 6: Substrate is added, and the enzyme converts it to a colored product. Mark 7: Color intensity/absorbance is measured using a colorimeter/spectrophotometer. Mark 8: Standard curve is plotted using absorbance values of known antibody concentrations. Mark 9: Concentration of the patient's antibody is determined by reading the absorbance off the calibration curve. (Accept any 9 logical points, max 9.1 marks)
PastPaper.question 2 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
During exercise, the rate of aerobic respiration in muscle cells increases. Explain how this physiological change leads to an increase in heart rate. Describe the roles of receptors, the central nervous system, and the autonomic nervous system in this response.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1. During exercise, active muscle cells respire at a higher rate, producing more carbon dioxide (\(CO_2\)). 2. This carbon dioxide diffuses into the blood plasma and dissolves, forming carbonic acid, which dissociates into hydrogen ions (\(H^+\)) and lowers the blood pH. 3. This decrease in pH (or increase in carbon dioxide concentration) is detected by chemoreceptors located in the walls of the carotid arteries and the aorta. 4. The chemoreceptors increase the frequency of nerve impulses (action potentials) sent along sensory neurones to the cardiovascular centre located in the medulla oblongata of the brain. 5. The medulla oblongata processes this information and increases the frequency of impulses sent along the sympathetic nerve pathways to the heart. 6. At the sinoatrial node (SAN), the sympathetic nerve endings secrete the neurotransmitter noradrenaline. 7. Noradrenaline binds to receptors on the SAN, increasing the frequency of electrical impulses (waves of depolarisation) generated by the SAN across the atria. 8. This leads to an increase in heart rate. 9. The increased heart rate speeds up blood flow, allowing faster transport of oxygen and glucose to respiring tissues, and more rapid removal of carbon dioxide to be exhaled via the lungs.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Mark 1: Respiration produces more \(CO_2\), lowering blood pH. Mark 2: pH change detected by chemoreceptors. Mark 3: Chemoreceptors located in carotid arteries / aorta. Mark 4: Increased frequency of nerve impulses sent to the medulla oblongata. Mark 5: Medulla oblongata integrates signals and increases sympathetic nervous system activity. Mark 6: Impulses travel via sympathetic nerve pathways to the sinoatrial node (SAN). Mark 7: Noradrenaline neurotransmitter released at the SAN. Mark 8: SAN increases frequency of electrical depolarisation waves. Mark 9: Heart rate increases to accelerate \(CO_2\) removal and \(O_2\) delivery. (Max 9.1 marks)
PastPaper.question 3 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
To study the function of mitochondria, researchers must first isolate them from animal liver cells using cell fractionation and ultracentrifugation. Describe the preparation of the tissue, the conditions required for the homogenising medium, and the step-by-step centrifugation process required to obtain a pure pellet of mitochondria.
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PastPaper.workedSolution

1. The liver tissue is first cut/minced into small pieces and placed in an ice-cold, isotonic, and buffered solution. 2. The solution must be cold to reduce enzyme activity and prevent the hydrolytic digestion of organelles. 3. The solution must be isotonic (have the same water potential as the cytoplasm) to prevent osmotic movement of water into or out of the organelles, which would cause them to burst or shrink. 4. The solution must be buffered to maintain a constant pH, preventing the denaturation of organelle proteins and enzymes. 5. Homogenise the tissue using a homogeniser (blender) to break open the cell surface membranes and release the organelles, forming a homogenate. 6. Filter the homogenate through a gauze to remove any large pieces of unbroken tissue and cell debris. 7. Pour the filtrate into a centrifuge tube and spin it at a low speed. 8. The most dense organelles (nuclei) will form a pellet at the bottom of the tube. 9. Pour off the supernatant (liquid above the pellet) into a fresh tube and spin it at a higher speed. Mitochondria, being the second most dense organelle, will sediment to form a pellet at the bottom of this tube.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Mark 1: Chop tissue and place in cold, isotonic, buffered solution. Mark 2: Cold to reduce enzyme activity. Mark 3: Isotonic to prevent osmotic damage (bursting/shrinking of organelles). Mark 4: Buffered to maintain constant pH (prevent protein denaturation). Mark 5: Homogenise to break cell membranes. Mark 6: Filter to remove intact cells/large debris. Mark 7: Centrifuge at low speed to pellet nuclei. Mark 8: Remove supernatant and centrifuge at a higher speed. Mark 9: Mitochondria sediment at this higher speed as a pellet. (Max 9.1 marks)
PastPaper.question 4 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
Describe the mass flow hypothesis for the movement of organic substances in the phloem. Include the processes of active loading at the source, the movement of water, and unloading at the sink.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1. Sucrose is produced by photosynthesising cells (the source) and is actively transported into the companion cells. 2. Hydrogen ions (\(H^+\)) are actively pumped out of companion cells into cell walls, creating a concentration gradient. 3. \(H^+\) ions diffuse back into companion cells down their gradient via co-transporter proteins, carrying sucrose molecules with them against their concentration gradient. 4. Sucrose then diffuses from companion cells into the sieve tube elements via plasmodesmata. 5. This active loading of sucrose lowers the water potential inside the sieve tube elements. 6. Water moves from the adjacent xylem vessels into the sieve tubes by osmosis down a water potential gradient, generating a high hydrostatic pressure at the source. 7. At the sink (e.g., respiring roots or storage organs), sucrose is actively or passively unloaded from the sieve tube elements to be stored or used in respiration. 8. The loss of sucrose increases the water potential inside the sieve tube elements at the sink, causing water to move back out of the phloem into the xylem by osmosis, creating a low hydrostatic pressure. 9. This creates a hydrostatic pressure gradient between the source and the sink, which drives the mass flow of organic solutes down the sieve tube elements from source to sink.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Mark 1: Active transport of \(H^+\) out of companion cells / co-transport of sucrose into companion cells. Mark 2: Sucrose moves from companion cells into sieve tube elements. Mark 3: Sucrose loading lowers water potential in the sieve tube. Mark 4: Water moves from xylem into phloem by osmosis. Mark 5: This creates high hydrostatic pressure at the source. Mark 6: Sucrose is unloaded at the sink. Mark 7: Unloading increases water potential in phloem at the sink. Mark 8: Water moves out of the phloem at the sink by osmosis, lowering hydrostatic pressure. Mark 9: Pressure gradient is established, causing mass flow of solutes from source to sink. (Max 9.1 marks)
PastPaper.question 5 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
Describe how nitrogen-containing compounds in dead organic matter are converted into a form that can be absorbed by plant roots, and explain the biological processes that occur in a river following the leaching of these compounds from agricultural fields.
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PastPaper.workedSolution

1. Nitrogen-containing compounds (such as proteins, DNA, and urea) in dead organic matter are broken down by saprobionts (decomposers like bacteria and fungi). This extracellular digestion releases ammonium ions (\(NH_4^+\)) into the soil in a process called ammonification. 2. Nitrifying bacteria (specifically Nitrosomonas) oxidise the ammonium ions into nitrite ions (\(NO_2^-\)). 3. Other nitrifying bacteria (specifically Nitrobacter) oxidise the nitrite ions into nitrate ions (\(NO_3^-\)) in a process called nitrification. These nitrification steps require aerobic conditions. 4. Nitrate ions are highly soluble and are absorbed by plant roots via active transport. 5. Leaching occurs when rain dissolves these soluble nitrates and washes them out of the soil into nearby rivers or lakes. 6. The rapid increase in nitrate concentration in the water body causes an algal bloom (rapid growth of algae on the surface). 7. This thick layer of algae blocks sunlight from reaching submerged plants at lower depths, preventing them from photosynthesising and causing them to die. 8. Saprobiontic bacteria decompose the dead submerged plants. As these bacteria reproduce rapidly and respire aerobically, they consume large quantities of dissolved oxygen from the water. 9. The concentration of dissolved oxygen in the water drops drastically, causing aerobic organisms (such as fish and macroinvertebrates) to suffocate and die due to a lack of oxygen for respiration.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Mark 1: Saprobionts decompose proteins/DNA/urea to produce ammonium ions (ammonification). Mark 2: Nitrifying bacteria oxidise ammonium to nitrites. Mark 3: Nitrifying bacteria oxidise nitrites to nitrates (nitrification). Mark 4: Nitrates are absorbed by plant roots by active transport. Mark 5: Leaching washes excess nitrates into rivers/lakes. Mark 6: High nitrate levels cause rapid algal growth / algal bloom on the water surface. Mark 7: Algae block light, preventing photosynthesis and causing submerged plants to die. Mark 8: Saprobiontic bacteria decompose the dead plants, using up dissolved oxygen in aerobic respiration. Mark 9: Oxygen depletion causes death of fish / aerobic organisms. (Max 9.1 marks)
PastPaper.question 6 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
Explain how enzymes speed up chemical reactions, and distinguish between the mechanisms of competitive and non-competitive enzyme inhibition, explaining their different effects on the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{max}\)).
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur. 2. They do this by binding to the substrate to form an enzyme-substrate complex (ESC), which stabilizes the transition state, holds substrates in the correct orientation, or puts physical strain on bonds, making them easier to break. 3. Competitive inhibitors have a molecular shape that is highly similar to that of the normal substrate. 4. They bind directly to the active site of the enzyme, blocking the substrate from entering and forming an ESC. 5. Competitive inhibition can be overcome by increasing the substrate concentration, as the substrate is more likely to collide with and bind to the active site than the inhibitor. Thus, the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{max}\)) can still be achieved. 6. Non-competitive inhibitors bind to an alternative site on the enzyme known as the allosteric site (a site other than the active site). 7. Binding of a non-competitive inhibitor alters the tertiary structure of the enzyme, changing the shape of the active site. 8. Consequently, the active site is no longer complementary to the substrate, preventing the formation of ESCs. 9. Because non-competitive inhibitors render affected enzymes non-functional, increasing the substrate concentration has no effect on overcoming the inhibition, and the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{max}\)) is permanently reduced.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Mark 1: Enzymes lower activation energy. Mark 2: They form enzyme-substrate complexes (ESCs) to stabilize transition states / strain bonds. Mark 3: Competitive inhibitors have a similar shape to the substrate. Mark 4: Competitive inhibitors bind to the active site. Mark 5: Competitive inhibition is overcome by increasing substrate concentration, maintaining original \(V_{max}\). Mark 6: Non-competitive inhibitors bind to the allosteric site. Mark 7: Non-competitive binding changes the tertiary structure and shape of the active site. Mark 8: Substrate can no longer bind / active site is no longer complementary (ESCs cannot form). Mark 9: Non-competitive inhibition cannot be overcome by substrate concentration, lowering \(V_{max}\). (Max 9.1 marks)
PastPaper.question 7 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
Adrenaline and glucagon regulate blood glucose concentration via the second messenger model. Describe this molecular mechanism, detailing how the binding of these hormones leads to glycogenolysis, and explain how negative feedback restores normal blood glucose levels after a meal high in carbohydrates.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1. Adrenaline or glucagon acts as the first messenger and binds to a specific, complementary transmembrane receptor protein on the cell surface membrane of a liver cell (hepatocyte). 2. The binding of the hormone causes the receptor protein to change shape on the inside of the membrane, which activates a G-protein (transducer). 3. The activated G-protein activates the transmembrane enzyme adenylate cyclase. 4. Adenylate cyclase converts ATP molecules into cyclic AMP (cAMP) inside the cytoplasm. cAMP acts as the second messenger. 5. cAMP binds to and activates an inactive protein kinase A enzyme. 6. Activated protein kinase A initiates a cascade of enzymatic reactions that ultimately activates phosphorylase enzymes. 7. These active enzymes catalyse the hydrolysis of glycogen into glucose-1-phosphate, which is converted to glucose (glycogenolysis). This glucose diffuses out of the liver cells into the blood, increasing blood glucose concentration. 8. After a meal high in carbohydrates, blood glucose concentration rises above the normal set point, which is detected by the beta (\(\beta\)) cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. 9. Beta cells secrete insulin, which binds to liver and muscle receptors, stimulating the translocation of GLUT4 transport proteins to the cell membranes to increase glucose uptake, and activating enzymes for glycogenesis (converting glucose to glycogen). This returns blood glucose levels back to the normal range, demonstrating negative feedback (where a deviation from the norm triggers a response that opposes the deviation).

PastPaper.markingScheme

Mark 1: Hormone (first messenger) binds to a specific receptor on the cell-surface membrane. Mark 2: This binding activates a G-protein. Mark 3: G-protein activates adenylate cyclase. Mark 4: Adenylate cyclase converts ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP). Mark 5: cAMP acts as a second messenger to activate protein kinase A. Mark 6: Protein kinase A triggers a cascade that hydrolyses glycogen to glucose (glycogenolysis). Mark 7: Meal high in carbohydrates increases blood glucose, detected by pancreatic beta cells. Mark 8: Beta cells secrete insulin, promoting glucose uptake (GLUT4 translocation) and glycogenesis. Mark 9: Negative feedback is defined/achieved as the response opposes the initial change to restore the set point. (Max 9.1 marks)
PastPaper.question 8 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
Describe the sequence of events at a neuromuscular junction that leads to the depolarisation of the sarcolemma, and explain how this depolarisation initiates muscle contraction via the sliding filament theory.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1. An action potential arrives at the presynaptic membrane of the motor neurone, causing voltage-gated calcium ion (\(Ca^{2+}\)) channels to open. 2. Calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic knob down their electrochemical gradient. 3. This influx of \(Ca^{2+}\) causes synaptic vesicles containing the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) to fuse with the presynaptic membrane, releasing ACh into the synaptic cleft by exocytosis. 4. ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to specific nicotinic receptors on the sarcolemma (postsynaptic membrane of the muscle fibre). 5. This binding opens chemically-gated sodium ion (\(Na^+\)) channels, causing an influx of sodium ions into the sarcoplasm, which depolarises the sarcolemma. 6. This wave of depolarisation spreads across the sarcolemma and down deep invaginations called T-tubules (transverse tubules). 7. The depolarisation of the T-tubules triggers the release of stored calcium ions (\(Ca^{2+}\)) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. 8. These calcium ions bind to troponin proteins, causing a conformational change that pulls tropomyosin away, exposing the myosin-binding sites on the actin filament. 9. Myosin heads bind to these exposed sites to form actin-myosin cross-bridges. The myosin heads then undergo a power stroke, pulling the actin filaments over the myosin filaments, releasing ADP and inorganic phosphate. ATP then binds to detach the head, hydrolysing to reset its position and repeat the cycle.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Mark 1: Action potential opens voltage-gated calcium channels in presynaptic membrane. Mark 2: Calcium influx triggers exocytosis of acetylcholine (ACh). Mark 3: ACh diffuses across the cleft and binds to receptors on the sarcolemma. Mark 4: Sodium channels open, causing sodium influx and depolarisation of the sarcolemma. Mark 5: Depolarisation spreads down T-tubules to the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Mark 6: Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions into the sarcoplasm. Mark 7: Calcium binds to troponin, causing tropomyosin to move and expose myosin-binding sites on actin. Mark 8: Myosin heads bind to actin, forming actin-myosin cross-bridges. Mark 9: Myosin heads undergo a power stroke (pulling actin), and ATP binding/hydrolysis allows detachment and resetting. (Max 9.1 marks)
PastPaper.question 9 · Structured
9 PastPaper.marks
Human immunodeficiency and other viral pathogens can be diagnosed using immunological techniques.

(a) Describe the steps involved in an indirect ELISA test to show that a patient has antibodies to a specific virus in their blood. (4 marks)

(b) In this ELISA test, washing steps are carried out. Explain the importance of washing after the addition of the secondary antibody. (2 marks)

(c) Monoclonal antibodies can be used as a treatment for viral infections. Describe how monoclonal antibodies can prevent viral replication and lead to the destruction of virus particles in the host. (3 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

### Part (a)
1. Attach the viral antigen to the bottom of the well in a microtiter plate.
2. Add the patient's blood/serum sample to the well. If the specific antibodies are present, they will bind to the antigen, forming antigen-antibody complexes.
3. Wash the well to remove any unbound primary antibodies.
4. Add an enzyme-linked secondary antibody, which binds specifically to the patient's primary antibody. Wash the well again to remove any unbound secondary antibody.
5. Add the substrate solution. If the enzyme is present, it will react with the substrate, causing a color change, indicating a positive result.

### Part (b)
1. Washing removes any unbound secondary antibodies that have the enzyme attached.
2. If not washed away, these unbound enzyme-linked antibodies would remain in the well and react with the substrate, producing a color change (a false-positive result) even if the patient's primary antibody was not present.

### Part (c)
1. Monoclonal antibodies have a highly specific tertiary structure with antigen-binding sites complementary to a specific viral surface antigen.
2. Binding of monoclonal antibodies to viral surface proteins blocks the virus from binding to and entering host cells (neutralisation).
3. They cause agglutination (clumping) of viral particles, making them easier targets for phagocytes to engulf and destroy via phagocytosis.

PastPaper.markingScheme

**Part (a) [4 marks maximum]**
- 1 mark for attaching the viral antigen to the well/surface.
- 1 mark for adding the patient's sample (serum/blood) containing the primary antibody, which binds to the antigen.
- 1 mark for adding an enzyme-linked secondary antibody that binds to the primary antibody.
- 1 mark for washing the well (at appropriate stages) to remove unbound antibodies.
- 1 mark for adding the substrate, which reacts with the enzyme to produce a color change.
*(Accept any 4 points)*

**Part (b) [2 marks maximum]**
- 1 mark for stating that it removes unbound secondary/enzyme-linked antibodies.
- 1 mark for explaining that without washing, the enzyme would react with the substrate anyway, leading to a false positive result.
*(Reject 'removes unbound primary antibody' as the sole answer for this specific step)*

**Part (c) [3 marks maximum]**
- 1 mark for stating that monoclonal antibodies have a specific tertiary structure / variable region that is complementary to and binds to viral surface antigens / proteins.
- 1 mark for explaining that binding prevents the virus from entering/infecting host cells (neutralisation).
- 1 mark for explaining that antibodies can cause agglutination OR mark the virus for destruction by phagocytes / stimulate phagocytosis.
PastPaper.question 10 · Structured
9 PastPaper.marks
Haemoglobin is an oligomeric protein responsible for oxygen transport in the blood of vertebrates.

(a) Explain how the cooperative binding of oxygen molecules to haemoglobin produces the characteristic sigmoidal (S-shaped) oxygen dissociation curve. (3 marks)

(b) The Rüppell's vulture (*Gyps rueppellii*) is a high-altitude bird that can fly at altitudes above 11,000 metres, where the partial pressure of oxygen (\(pO_2\)) is extremely low. The oxygen dissociation curve of its haemoglobin is shifted to the left compared to that of lowland bird species. Explain the physiological advantage of this adaptation. (3 marks)

(c) During strenuous flight, the active flight muscles of the vulture respire rapidly, producing high concentrations of carbon dioxide. Describe and explain the effect of increased carbon dioxide concentration on the oxygen affinity of haemoglobin. (3 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

### Part (a)
1. At low \(pO_2\), the shape of the haemoglobin molecule makes it difficult for the first oxygen molecule to bind to one of the four haem groups.
2. Once the first oxygen molecule binds, it alters the tertiary and quaternary structure of the haemoglobin molecule.
3. This conformational change uncovers/opens up the remaining binding sites, making it significantly easier for the second and third oxygen molecules to bind (cooperative binding), which causes a rapid increase in oxygen saturation (the steep part of the curve).

### Part (b)
1. A curve shifted to the left indicates that the vulture's haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen.
2. This allows haemoglobin to readily load/associate with oxygen at the very low partial pressures of oxygen (\(pO_2\)) present at high altitudes.
3. This ensures that the blood becomes fully saturated with oxygen in the lungs, maintaining a sufficient supply of oxygen to tissues for aerobic respiration.

### Part (c)
1. Increased carbon dioxide concentration lowers the pH of the blood (due to carbonic acid formation).
2. This acidic environment alters the shape/tertiary structure of the haemoglobin molecule, reducing its affinity for oxygen (the Bohr effect).
3. Consequently, haemoglobin unloads/dissociates from oxygen more readily at the respiring tissues, supplying them with the oxygen required for rapid aerobic respiration.

PastPaper.markingScheme

**Part (a) [3 marks maximum]**
- 1 mark for stating that binding of the first oxygen molecule causes a change in the tertiary/quaternary structure of haemoglobin.
- 1 mark for explaining that this conformational change makes it easier for subsequent oxygen molecules to bind (to the other haem groups).
- 1 mark for linking this to cooperative binding causing a rapid rise/steep gradient in the S-shaped curve.

**Part (b) [3 marks maximum]**
- 1 mark for identifying that a left-shifted curve means haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen.
- 1 mark for explaining that this allows oxygen to load / associate with haemoglobin at lower partial pressures of oxygen (\(pO_2\)) in the lungs/gills.
- 1 mark for stating this ensures sufficient oxygen is transported to tissues for aerobic respiration (or prevents anaerobic respiration/fatigue).

**Part (c) [3 marks maximum]**
- 1 mark for stating that high carbon dioxide concentrations lower the pH / make conditions more acidic.
- 1 mark for explaining that this changes the shape/tertiary structure of haemoglobin, reducing its affinity for oxygen (Bohr shift/shift to the right).
- 1 mark for stating that this causes oxygen to readily unload/dissociate at the respiring muscle tissues to support aerobic respiration.

Paper 2 Section A

Answer all questions in the spaces provided. Show all working.
10 PastPaper.question · 90.8 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
1. Explain how mechanical pressure applied to the Pacinian corpuscle leads to the establishment of a generator potential. (3 marks)
2. Explain why a minor, low-pressure stimulus fails to trigger an action potential at the first node of Ranvier. (2 marks)
3. Drug X is a local anaesthetic that selectively blocks voltage-gated sodium channels. Describe and explain the effect of Drug X on the electrical activity recorded at the first node of Ranvier when a high pressure is applied. (2.1 marks)
4. Explain how the resting potential of the axon is maintained. (2 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1. When mechanical pressure is applied, it deforms or stretches the lamellae of the Pacinian corpuscle. This stretching opens the stretch-mediated sodium ion channels in the sensory neurone membrane, allowing sodium ions to diffuse down their electrochemical gradient into the neurone, causing depolarisation (generator potential).
2. A low-pressure stimulus only produces a small generator potential that does not reach the threshold level required to trigger an action potential at the first node of Ranvier, as too few voltage-gated sodium channels are opened.
3. A generator potential will still be established at the Pacinian corpuscle because stretch-mediated channels are unaffected by Drug X. However, no action potential will be generated or propagated at the first node of Ranvier because Drug X blocks the voltage-gated sodium channels, preventing the massive influx of sodium ions required for depolarisation.
4. The resting potential is maintained by the sodium-potassium pump, which actively transports 3 sodium ions out of the axon for every 2 potassium ions transported in. In addition, the membrane is more permeable to potassium ions than sodium ions, allowing potassium to leak out via open potassium leak channels down its concentration gradient.

PastPaper.markingScheme

1. (Max 3 marks)
- Pressure deforms/stretches the lamellae / Pacinian corpuscle membrane (1 mark)
- Opens stretch-mediated sodium (ion) channels (1 mark)
- Sodium ions diffuse / move into the neurone (causing depolarisation/generator potential) (1 mark)

2. (Max 2 marks)
- Generator potential is below the threshold level (1 mark)
- Not enough voltage-gated sodium channels open (1 mark)

3. (Max 2.1 marks)
- Generator potential is still produced (at the corpuscle) (0.1 mark)
- No action potential generated/propagated at the first node of Ranvier (1 mark)
- Because voltage-gated sodium channels are blocked, preventing sodium influx/depolarisation (1 mark)

4. (Max 2 marks)
- Active transport of 3 sodium ions out and 2 potassium ions in via sodium-potassium pump (1 mark)
- Membrane is more permeable to potassium ions (as potassium leak channels are open) (1 mark)
PastPaper.question 2 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
1. Describe the sequence of events by which the hormone adrenaline stimulates the breakdown of glycogen (glycogenolysis) inside liver cells via a second messenger mechanism. (4 marks)
2. Explain how the activation of this pathway raises blood glucose levels and describe how this is an example of a negative feedback mechanism. (3 marks)
3. A student investigated the effect of a high-carbohydrate meal on blood glucose levels in a healthy person. The blood glucose levels peaked after 45 minutes and returned to normal after 120 minutes. Explain the role of insulin in returning blood glucose levels to normal. (2.1 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1. Adrenaline (the first messenger) binds to a specific, complementary transmembrane receptor on the liver cell-surface membrane. This binding changes the shape of the receptor, activating the enzyme adenylate cyclase on the inside of the membrane. Activated adenylate cyclase converts ATP into cyclic AMP (cAMP), which acts as the second messenger. cAMP then binds to and activates protein kinase A, which initiates a cascade of reactions that activates glycogen phosphorylase, catalysing the hydrolysis of glycogen to glucose.
2. The glucose produced via glycogenolysis diffuses down its concentration gradient out of the liver cells and into the bloodstream via facilitated diffusion, which directly increases blood glucose concentration. This is part of negative feedback because when blood glucose levels deviate above the normal set-point, insulin is released from beta cells in the pancreas to lower it, returning the system to its optimum range.
3. Insulin binds to specific receptors on target cells (muscle and liver cells). This triggers intracellular chemical signals that cause vesicles containing GLUT4 glucose transporter proteins to fuse with the cell-surface membrane, increasing its permeability to glucose. Insulin also activates enzymes that catalyse glycogenesis (the conversion of glucose to glycogen).

PastPaper.markingScheme

1. (Max 4 marks)
- Adrenaline binds to specific / complementary receptor on membrane (1 mark)
- Activates adenylate cyclase (1 mark)
- Converts ATP to cyclic AMP / cAMP (second messenger) (1 mark)
- cAMP activates protein kinase A (which activates enzymes for glycogenolysis) (1 mark)

2. (Max 3 marks)
- Glucose diffuses out of liver cells into blood (facilitated diffusion) raising blood glucose (1 mark)
- Deviation from the normal level triggers a response (insulin secretion) to reverse the change (1 mark)
- Returns blood glucose levels back to the normal/optimum range (1 mark)

3. (Max 2.1 marks)
- Insulin binding to target receptors causes GLUT4 / transport proteins to fuse with the membrane (1.1 marks)
- Activates enzymes for glycogenesis / conversion of glucose to glycogen (1 mark)
PastPaper.question 3 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
1. Describe the roles of calcium ions (\(\text{Ca}^{2+}\)) and ATP in the contraction of a myofibril. (4 marks)
2. A mutation in the gene for the ryanodine receptor (calcium-release channel) causes it to remain open continuously, allowing calcium ions to constantly leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. Suggest and explain the effect this mutation would have on the state of the skeletal muscles of an affected individual. (3 marks)
3. Explain why ATP is required for muscle relaxation as well as muscle contraction. (2.1 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1. Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and bind to troponin on the actin filament. This causes a conformational change that moves tropomyosin, exposing the myosin-binding sites on the actin. Myosin heads bind to these sites, forming actinomyosin cross-bridges. ATP binds to the myosin head, causing it to detach from actin. ATP is hydrolysed by ATPase to provide the energy needed for the myosin head to cock / rotate (the power stroke) and pull the actin filament.
2. The skeletal muscles would remain in a state of continuous contraction / muscle spasm / rigidity. Because calcium ions continuously leak into the sarcoplasm, the troponin remains bound by calcium, and tropomyosin remains shifted. The binding sites on actin are always exposed, allowing continuous actinomyosin cross-bridge formation and power strokes as long as ATP is available.
3. During muscle relaxation, calcium ions must be actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum against their concentration gradient, which requires energy provided by ATP hydrolysis. ATP binding is also essential to break the actinomyosin cross-bridge so that myosin can detach from actin.

PastPaper.markingScheme

1. (Max 4 marks)
- Calcium ions bind to troponin, causing tropomyosin to move/shift (1 mark)
- Exposing myosin-binding sites on actin (1 mark)
- Actinomyosin cross-bridges form (1 mark)
- ATP hydrolysis provides energy for the myosin head to rotate / pull actin (power stroke) OR ATP binding causes detachment of the myosin head (1 mark)

2. (Max 3 marks)
- Continuous muscle contraction / muscle spasm / rigidity (1 mark)
- Calcium ions always present in sarcoplasm, keeping tropomyosin shifted / binding sites exposed (1 mark)
- Actinomyosin cross-bridges can continuously form (1 mark)

3. (Max 2.1 marks)
- ATP is required for the active transport of calcium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum (1 mark)
- ATP binding is needed to break the actinomyosin cross-bridges (1.1 marks)
PastPaper.question 4 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
1. Explain why the isolated mitochondria were suspended in an isotonic, buffered solution at \(37\ ^\circ\text{C}\) containing pyruvate, rather than glucose, to measure respiration. (3 marks)
2. Describe the role of coenzymes NAD and FAD in the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. (3 marks)
3. DNP is a chemical that acts as a proton ionophore, carrying protons (\(\text{H}^+\)) directly across the inner mitochondrial membrane, bypassing ATP synthase. Explain the effect of DNP on:
(a) the production of ATP via oxidative phosphorylation,
(b) the body temperature of an individual exposed to DNP. (3.1 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1. The solution must be isotonic to prevent water moving into or out of the mitochondria by osmosis, which would cause them to swell and burst or shrink. It must be buffered to maintain a constant pH, ensuring respiratory enzymes do not denature. Pyruvate is used because glucose cannot be metabolised directly by mitochondria; glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm, and only pyruvate can be transported into the mitochondrial matrix.
2. In the Krebs cycle, coenzymes NAD and FAD act as hydrogen acceptors. They are reduced (forming NADH and \(\text{FADH}_2\)) when they gain hydrogen atoms (protons and electrons) from respiratory substrates. In oxidative phosphorylation, they carry these high-energy electrons and protons to the inner mitochondrial membrane (cristae), where they are oxidised, releasing electrons to the electron transport chain and protons into the matrix.
3. (a) ATP production decreases significantly because protons bypass ATP synthase, destroying/collapsing the proton gradient (chemiosmotic gradient) required for ATP synthesis. (b) Body temperature increases because the potential energy of the proton gradient is dissipated / released as heat energy rather than being used to synthesise ATP.

PastPaper.markingScheme

1. (Max 3 marks)
- Isotonic: prevents osmotic damage / swelling / bursting / shrinking of mitochondria (1 mark)
- Buffered: maintains pH so respiratory enzymes do not denature (1 mark)
- Pyruvate: glucose is broken down in cytoplasm (glycolysis) / cannot cross mitochondrial membrane / mitochondria lack glycolysis enzymes (1 mark)

2. (Max 3 marks)
- NAD and FAD are reduced / accept hydrogen (protons and electrons) in the Krebs cycle (1 mark)
- They carry electrons/protons to the electron transport chain on the inner mitochondrial membrane (1 mark)
- They are oxidised / lose hydrogen, releasing electrons to the electron transport chain to provide energy (1 mark)

3. (Max 3.1 marks)
- ATP production decreases because proton gradient / electrochemical gradient is collapsed / fewer protons pass through ATP synthase (1.1 marks)
- Body temperature increases (1 mark)
- Energy from electron transport chain / proton gradient is released as heat instead of ATP (1 mark)
PastPaper.question 5 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
1. Explain how carbon dioxide is converted into glycerate 3-phosphate (GP) in the light-independent reaction of photosynthesis. (2 marks)
2. In an experiment, the light source was suddenly turned off. Explain why the concentration of GP initially increased, while the concentration of RuBP decreased. (3 marks)
3. Describe the role of reduced NADP and ATP, produced in the light-dependent reaction, in the synthesis of triose phosphate (TP). (4.1 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1. Carbon dioxide (1C) enters the stroma and combines with ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP, 5C). This reaction is catalysed by the enzyme Rubisco, producing an unstable 6-carbon intermediate which immediately splits into two molecules of glycerate 3-phosphate (GP, 3C).
2. In the dark, the light-dependent reaction stops, so no ATP or reduced NADP are produced. Consequently, GP cannot be reduced/converted to triose phosphate (TP), leading to an accumulation (increase) of GP. Meanwhile, RuBP continues to react with any remaining carbon dioxide to form GP, but RuBP cannot be regenerated from TP because regeneration requires ATP. Thus, the concentration of RuBP decreases.
3. In the synthesis of triose phosphate (TP), reduced NADP acts as a reducing agent, providing the hydrogen atoms (electrons and protons) required to reduce GP to TP. ATP is hydrolysed, providing the energy needed for this reduction reaction. Additionally, ATP provides the phosphate and energy required to regenerate RuBP from the remaining triose phosphate molecules.

PastPaper.markingScheme

1. (Max 2 marks)
- Carbon dioxide reacts with ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) (1 mark)
- Catalysed by Rubisco to produce two molecules of GP (1 mark)

2. (Max 3 marks)
- In the dark, no ATP or reduced NADP are produced (1 mark)
- GP cannot be converted to TP, so GP accumulates / increases (1 mark)
- RuBP is still converted to GP but cannot be regenerated (as regeneration requires ATP), so RuBP decreases (1 mark)

3. (Max 4.1 marks)
- Reduced NADP provides hydrogen / electrons to reduce GP to TP (1.1 marks)
- ATP hydrolysis provides energy for the reduction of GP to TP (1 mark)
- ATP provides phosphate/energy (1 mark)
- For the regeneration of RuBP from TP (1 mark)
PastPaper.question 6 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
1. Define 'epigenetics' and explain how increased methylation of DNA can inhibit the transcription of a gene. (3 marks)
2. Explain how decreased acetylation of associated histones can also lead to the inhibition of transcription. (3 marks)
3. Small interfering RNA (siRNA) can regulate gene expression after transcription. Describe how siRNA prevents the translation of a specific target mRNA. (3.1 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1. Epigenetics refers to heritable changes in gene function/expression without altering the underlying base sequence of DNA. Increased methylation involves the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases in the promoter region of DNA. This physically blocks the binding of transcription factors and RNA polymerase to the promoter, preventing transcription from being initiated.
2. Acetyl groups are negatively charged. Decreased acetylation increases the positive charge on histone proteins. This increases the electrostatic attraction between the positively charged histones and the negatively charged DNA phosphate backbone. Consequently, the DNA binds more tightly to the histones (chromatin becomes more condensed/closed), making the gene promoter inaccessible to transcription factors and RNA polymerase.
3. Double-stranded RNA is cleaved into small interfering RNA (siRNA) by an enzyme. One strand of the siRNA then associates with an enzyme complex (RISC). The siRNA guide strand binds to a complementary base sequence on the target mRNA molecule by complementary base pairing. Once bound, the associated enzyme cuts/cleaves the mRNA, preventing its translation into a protein.

PastPaper.markingScheme

1. (Max 3 marks)
- Epigenetics: heritable changes in gene function/expression without altering DNA base sequence (1 mark)
- Methyl groups added to cytosine bases in DNA/promoter (1 mark)
- Prevents binding of transcription factors / RNA polymerase (1 mark)

2. (Max 3 marks)
- Decreased acetylation increases positive charge on histones (1 mark)
- Increases attraction between histones and DNA / DNA binds more tightly (1 mark)
- Transcription factors / RNA polymerase cannot access the gene / template (1 mark)

3. (Max 3.1 marks)
- siRNA becomes single-stranded and associates with an enzyme (1.1 marks)
- siRNA binds to target mRNA via complementary base pairing (1 mark)
- Enzyme cleaves / cuts mRNA, preventing translation (1 mark)
PastPaper.question 7 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
1. Explain how geographical isolation of two populations of a species can lead to the formation of two distinct species (allopatric speciation). (5 marks)
2. Describe how a researcher could determine whether the two populations have evolved into two separate species. (2 marks)
3. A geneticist calculated the allele frequencies in one population and found that a dominant allele for wing colour had a frequency (\(p\)) of 0.6. Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, calculate the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the population. Show your working. (2.1 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1. Geographical isolation prevents gene flow / interbreeding between the two populations. Each environment has different selection pressures (e.g. food source, climate, predators). Random mutations occur independently in each population, creating new alleles. In each population, individuals with advantageous alleles are more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass on these alleles (natural selection). This leads to changes in allele frequencies over many generations. Eventually, the populations diverge so much genetically, morphologically, or behaviourally that reproductive isolation is established.
2. The researcher should attempt to breed individuals from both populations together under controlled conditions. If they are unable to mate, or if they produce offspring that are infertile, then they have evolved into two separate species.
3. Let \(p = 0.6\) (frequency of dominant allele). Since \(p + q = 1\), the frequency of the recessive allele is \(q = 1 - 0.6 = 0.4\). The frequency of the heterozygous genotype is given by \(2pq\). Therefore, \(2pq = 2 \times 0.6 \times 0.4 = 0.48\). Expressed as a percentage, this is \(48\%\).

PastPaper.markingScheme

1. (Max 5 marks)
- Geographical isolation prevents gene flow / interbreeding (1 mark)
- Different selection pressures / abiotic / biotic factors in each area (1 mark)
- Mutations occur independently in each population (1 mark)
- Natural selection occurs, with beneficial alleles passed on (1 mark)
- Leads to changes in allele frequencies over time until reproductive isolation occurs (1 mark)

2. (Max 2 marks)
- Breed/mate individuals from both populations together (1 mark)
- If they cannot produce fertile offspring, they are separate species (1 mark)

3. (Max 2.1 marks)
- Correct identification of \(q = 0.4\) (1 mark)
- Correct calculation of \(2pq = 2 \times 0.6 \times 0.4 = 0.48\) (0.1 mark)
- Correct final answer of \(48\%\) (1 mark)
PastPaper.question 8 · Structured
9.1 PastPaper.marks
1. Describe the roles of different types of soil bacteria in recycling nitrogen from dead organic matter back into a form that plants can readily absorb. (4 marks)
2. Waterlogged soils often have very low concentrations of nitrate ions. Explain why, referring to the activities of specific bacteria and the environmental conditions. (3 marks)
3. Explain why the use of chemical fertilisers containing ammonium nitrate can lead to a reduction in species diversity in nearby aquatic ecosystems (eutrophication). (2.1 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1. Saprobiontic bacteria (decomposers) secrete extracellular enzymes to break down nitrogen-containing compounds (such as proteins, urea, and nucleic acids) in dead organic matter, releasing ammonium ions into the soil (ammonification). Nitrifying bacteria (e.g., Nitrosomonas) then oxidise these ammonium ions into nitrite ions (\(\text{NO}_2^-\)), and other nitrifying bacteria (e.g., Nitrobacter) oxidise the nitrites into nitrate ions (\(\text{NO}_3^-\)) in a process called nitrification.
2. Waterlogged soils have filled air spaces, meaning they lack oxygen and become anaerobic. Under these anaerobic conditions, denitrifying bacteria thrive. These bacteria use nitrates as an electron acceptor in respiration, converting soil nitrates into gaseous nitrogen (\(\text{N}_2\)) which escapes into the atmosphere, thus reducing the concentration of nitrate ions in the soil.
3. Chemical fertilisers are highly soluble and can leach into nearby water bodies, leading to eutrophication. This causes rapid growth of algae (algal bloom) at the surface, which blocks sunlight from reaching submerged plants. Submerged plants die because they cannot photosynthesise. Saprobiontic bacteria feed on the dead plant matter and multiply rapidly, using up dissolved oxygen for aerobic respiration. This results in anoxia, killing fish and other aquatic organisms, thus reducing species diversity.

PastPaper.markingScheme

1. (Max 4 marks)
- Saprobionts break down proteins / DNA / urea in dead organic matter (1 mark)
- Releasing ammonia / ammonium ions (1 mark)
- Nitrifying bacteria convert ammonium ions into nitrite ions (1 mark)
- Nitrifying bacteria convert nitrite ions into nitrate ions (nitrification) (1 mark)

2. (Max 3 marks)
- Waterlogged soil is anaerobic / lacks oxygen (1 mark)
- Denitrifying bacteria thrive / active (1 mark)
- Convert nitrate ions into nitrogen gas (1 mark)

3. (Max 2.1 marks)
- Leaching of fertiliser leads to algal bloom which blocks sunlight, killing submerged plants (1.1 marks)
- Saprobionts decompose dead plants and use up oxygen in respiration (1 mark)
- Aquatic organisms die due to lack of oxygen, reducing diversity (1 mark)
PastPaper.question 9 · Structured
9 PastPaper.marks
During exercise, the body regulates cardiac output to meet the metabolic demands of respiring tissues. (a) Explain how a rise in blood pressure results in a decrease in heart rate. (4 marks) (b) Propranolol is a drug known as a beta-blocker. It binds to and blocks beta-adrenergic receptors on the sinoatrial node (SAN). These receptors normally bind to noradrenaline released by sympathetic neurones. Suggest and explain how Propranolol affects the heart rate of an individual during exercise. (3 marks) (c) A student investigated the resting heart rate of 15 athletes who regularly exercise and 15 sedentary individuals. State the statistical test the student should use to determine if there is a significant difference between the mean resting heart rates of the two groups. Explain your choice. (2 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

a) High blood pressure is detected by baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinuses. They send more frequent impulses along sensory neurones to the cardiovascular inhibitory centre in the medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata then transmits more frequent impulses via the parasympathetic vagus nerve (and fewer via the sympathetic nerve) to the sinoatrial node (SAN). Acetylcholine is released, decreasing the frequency of electrical impulses generated by the SAN, which reduces heart rate. b) Normal exercise triggers sympathetic stimulation of the SAN via noradrenaline, increasing heart rate. Propranolol blocks these beta-adrenergic receptors, preventing noradrenaline from binding. Thus, the frequency of electrical impulses from the SAN does not increase, resulting in a lower heart rate during exercise. c) The Student's t-test is used to compare the means of two independent, distinct groups (athletes vs. sedentary individuals) where the dependent variable (resting heart rate) is continuous.

PastPaper.markingScheme

a) Max 4 marks: 1. Baroreceptors in the wall of the aorta or carotid arteries detect high blood pressure (1 mark). 2. More impulses or action potentials sent to the cardiovascular centre / medulla oblongata (1 mark). 3. More impulses or action potentials sent via the parasympathetic nervous system / vagus nerve (or fewer via sympathetic) to the sinoatrial node (SAN) (1 mark). 4. Acetylcholine released, which decreases the frequency of electrical impulses from the SAN (1 mark). [Reject: 'signals' / 'messages']. b) Max 3 marks: 1. Heart rate remains lower / does not increase as much during exercise (1 mark). 2. Noradrenaline cannot bind to beta-receptors due to competitive blocking by Propranolol (1 mark). 3. SAN is not stimulated to increase frequency of depolarisation / electrical impulses (1 mark). c) Max 2 marks: 1. Student's t-test / unpaired t-test (1 mark). 2. Comparing the means of two independent/separate groups with continuous data (1 mark).
PastPaper.question 10 · Structured
9 PastPaper.marks
A student used a simple respirometer to measure the rate of oxygen consumption of germinating peas (Pisum sativum) at \(20^\circ\text{C}\). The respirometer consisted of a boiling tube containing the germinating peas on a mesh platform, above a solution of potassium hydroxide (KOH). The tube was sealed with a rubber bung through which a capillary tube containing a drop of coloured dye was inserted. (a) Explain the purpose of the potassium hydroxide solution in this respirometer. (1 mark) (b) During the experiment, the coloured dye moved along the capillary tube towards the boiling tube. Explain why. (3 marks) (c) The capillary tube has an internal diameter of \(0.8\text{ mm}\). During a 15-minute period, the coloured dye moved a distance of \(45\text{ mm}\). Calculate the rate of oxygen consumption by the germinating peas in \(\text{mm}^3\,\text{min}^{-1}\). Use the formula: Volume of a cylinder \(V = \pi r^2 h\). Take \(\pi\) to be 3.14. Show your working. Give your answer to 2 decimal places. (3 marks) (d) The student included a control tube containing glass beads of equal volume to the peas. Explain why this control was necessary. (2 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

a) Potassium hydroxide (KOH) absorbs any carbon dioxide gas produced during the respiration of the germinating peas. b) As the germinating peas respire aerobically, they absorb oxygen from the air inside the tube. The carbon dioxide they produce is absorbed by the KOH. This causes a net reduction in the volume of gas (and therefore the gas pressure) inside the tube. Since the pressure outside the tube is higher, atmospheric pressure pushes the coloured liquid along the capillary tube towards the boiling tube. c) 1. Find the radius: radius \(r = 0.8 / 2 = 0.4\text{ mm}\). 2. Calculate the volume of oxygen consumed: \(V = \pi r^2 h = 3.14 \times (0.4)^2 \times 45 = 22.608\text{ mm}^3\). 3. Calculate the rate: \(22.608\text{ mm}^3 / 15\text{ minutes} = 1.5072\text{ mm}^3\,\text{min}^{-1}\). Rounding to 2 decimal places gives \(1.51\text{ mm}^3\,\text{min}^{-1}\). d) The glass beads act as a control to show that the movement of the dye is due solely to the respiration of the living peas. It controls for changes in volume and pressure of gas inside the tube caused by external temperature or atmospheric pressure fluctuations, allowing the student to subtract these physical changes from the experimental results.

PastPaper.markingScheme

a) 1 mark: To absorb carbon dioxide (produced during respiration). b) Max 3 marks: 1. Oxygen is taken up/used by the peas during (aerobic) respiration (1 mark). 2. Carbon dioxide produced is absorbed by the KOH (1 mark). 3. This reduces pressure / volume of gas inside the tube, so atmospheric pressure pushes the dye in (1 mark). c) Max 3 marks: 1. Correct calculation of radius: r = 0.4 mm (1 mark). 2. Correct calculation of volume: V = 3.14 x 0.16 x 45 = 22.608 cubic millimetres (1 mark). 3. Correct calculation of rate to 2 decimal places: 1.51 cubic millimetres per minute (1 mark). (Allow 2 marks total for error carried forward if radius was taken as 0.8 mm, yielding 6.03 cubic millimetres per minute). d) Max 2 marks: 1. To show that any change in volume is due to respiration / to control for changes in temperature or atmospheric pressure (1 mark). 2. Allows results to be adjusted / corrected for these abiotic fluctuations (1 mark).

Paper 3 Section A

Answer all questions in this section. Spend no more than 1 hour and 15 minutes.
6 PastPaper.question · 52.98 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · structured
8.83 PastPaper.marks
Researchers developed a monoclonal antibody called mAb-Tr2 which binds to a glycoprotein receptor, GP-120, which is overexpressed on the surface of some ovarian cancer cells.

(a) Explain how mAb-Tr2 can be used to specifically target and deliver a cytotoxic drug to ovarian cancer cells, while minimizing damage to healthy cells. (3 marks)

(b) Describe how an indirect ELISA test could be used to detect the presence of antibodies to GP-120 in a patient's blood sample. (4 marks)

(c) Suggest one reason why detecting these anti-GP-120 antibodies in a patient's blood might not definitively prove the patient currently has active ovarian cancer. (2 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

(a) mAb-Tr2 has a specific tertiary structure / variable region that is complementary only to the GP-120 antigen overexpressed on cancer cells. The cytotoxic drug is attached to the antibody, so it is only delivered to and enters the cancer cells, leaving healthy cells without GP-120 undamaged.

(b) GP-120 antigen is adsorbed to the bottom of a well. The patient's blood sample is added; any complementary anti-GP-120 antibodies bind to form antigen-antibody complexes. The well is washed to remove unbound antibodies. A second, enzyme-linked antibody is added, which binds to the first antibody. The well is washed again to remove unbound enzyme-linked antibodies. The substrate is added, and the enzyme catalyzes a reaction producing a color change, indicating a positive result.

(c) The patient may have had ovarian cancer in the past and successfully cleared it, but memory cells and circulating antibodies persist. Alternatively, the antibody might cross-react with a different, structurally similar antigen present in a non-cancerous condition.

PastPaper.markingScheme

(a)
1. mAb-Tr2 has a specific tertiary structure / variable region;
2. (This structure) is complementary to the GP-120 antigen (which is overexpressed on ovarian cancer cells);
3. The cytotoxic drug is attached to the antibody, so it is only delivered to / kills the cancer cells (sparing normal cells).
[Maximum 3 marks]

(b)
1. GP-120 antigen is bound/fixed to the bottom of the well;
2. Patient's blood sample is added and any complementary (anti-GP-120) antibodies bind to the antigen;
3. Wash the well to remove any unbound (primary) antibodies;
4. Add a secondary antibody with an enzyme attached, which binds to the primary antibody, followed by a wash (to remove unbound secondary antibody);
5. Add substrate and observe a color change/color development.
[Maximum 4 marks]

(c)
1. The patient may have had the cancer in the past / has recovered, but the antibodies/memory cells remain in the blood;
2. The test may detect a structurally similar antigen (cross-reactivity) that is not related to ovarian cancer.
[Maximum 2 marks]
PastPaper.question 2 · structured
8.83 PastPaper.marks
A student investigated the changes in heart rate before, during, and after exercise. During exercise, cellular respiration in muscle cells increases, resulting in an increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood.

(a) Describe the pathway by which an increase in blood carbon dioxide concentration leads to an increase in heart rate. (5 marks)

(b) Explain how the parasympathetic nervous system restores the resting heart rate after exercise has stopped. (3 marks)

(c) State the location of the baroreceptors (pressure receptors) involved in the control of blood pressure. (1 mark)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

(a) Increased carbon dioxide lowers blood pH. This change is detected by chemoreceptors in the carotid arteries, aorta, and medulla. These receptors send more frequent nerve impulses to the cardiorespiratory center in the medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata then sends more frequent impulses along the sympathetic nervous system to the sinoatrial node (SAN), increasing the rate of depolarization of the SAN and increasing heart rate.

(b) When exercise stops, blood carbon dioxide levels return to normal, reducing chemoreceptor stimulation. The medulla oblongata sends more frequent impulses down the parasympathetic (vagus) nerve to the SAN. Acetylcholine is released, which decreases the rate of depolarization of the SAN, slowing the heart rate back to resting levels.

(c) Baroreceptors are located in the walls of the carotid arteries and the aorta.

PastPaper.markingScheme

(a)
1. Carbon dioxide dissolves to lower the pH of the blood;
2. This is detected by chemoreceptors in the carotid arteries / aorta / medulla oblongata;
3. More frequent impulses / action potentials are sent to the medulla oblongata / cardiovascular center;
4. Medulla oblongata / cardiovascular center sends more frequent impulses along the sympathetic nervous system;
5. To the sinoatrial node (SAN), which increases the frequency of depolarisations / electrical impulses across the heart.
[Maximum 5 marks]

(b)
1. Chemoreceptors detect return to normal blood pH / decrease in carbon dioxide;
2. Medulla oblongata / cardiovascular center sends more frequent impulses along the parasympathetic / vagus nerve (to SAN);
3. Acetylcholine (neurotransmitter) is released at the SAN, which decreases the frequency of depolarisations.
[Maximum 3 marks]

(c)
1. In the walls of the carotid arteries / aorta.
[1 mark]
PastPaper.question 3 · structured
8.83 PastPaper.marks
In mammalian skeletal muscle cells, glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm. Under anaerobic conditions, glycolysis is the only source of ATP, and pyruvate is converted into lactate by the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase.

(a) Explain how the conversion of pyruvate to lactate allows glycolysis to continue in the absence of oxygen. (3 marks)

(b) Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate is actively transported from the cytoplasm into the mitochondrial matrix. Suggest and explain why a chemical inhibitor that prevents this transport of pyruvate leads to an accumulation of lactate in the cytoplasm, even when oxygen is plentiful. (4 marks)

(c) Identify the stage of aerobic respiration that directly utilizes oxygen, and explain the precise role of oxygen in this stage. (2 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

(a) Pyruvate acts as a hydrogen acceptor and is reduced to lactate using hydrogen from reduced NAD (NADH). This regenerates oxidized NAD, which is essential to accept hydrogen during glycolysis, allowing glycolysis to continue to produce ATP via substrate-level phosphorylation.

(b) If pyruvate cannot enter the mitochondrion, the link reaction and Krebs cycle cannot occur. Consequently, NADH produced in glycolysis cannot be oxidized via the electron transport chain (which requires mitochondrial products). To keep glycolysis functioning, the cell must regenerate oxidized NAD by converting the excess cytoplasmic pyruvate to lactate.

(c) The stage is oxidative phosphorylation (or the electron transport chain). Oxygen acts as the final/terminal electron and proton acceptor, combining with electrons and protons to form water, which keeps the electron transport chain flowing.

PastPaper.markingScheme

(a)
1. Pyruvate is reduced to lactate using hydrogen from reduced NAD (NADH);
2. This regenerates oxidized NAD;
3. Oxidized NAD is required for glycolysis to continue / to produce ATP (by substrate-level phosphorylation).
[Maximum 3 marks]

(b)
1. Pyruvate accumulates in the cytoplasm because it cannot enter the mitochondrion / cannot undergo the link reaction;
2. The link reaction and Krebs cycle do not take place;
3. NADH produced in glycolysis cannot be reoxidized by the electron transport chain / mitochondria;
4. Therefore, pyruvate is converted to lactate to regenerate oxidized NAD (to allow glycolysis to continue).
[Maximum 4 marks]

(c)
1. Oxidative phosphorylation / electron transport chain;
2. Oxygen acts as the final / terminal electron (and proton) acceptor to form water.
[Maximum 2 marks]
PastPaper.question 4 · structured
8.83 PastPaper.marks
A person consumes a highly salted meal without drinking water, leading to a decrease in the water potential of their blood plasma.

(a) Explain how this decrease in blood water potential leads to the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) into the blood. (3 marks)

(b) Describe how ADH acts on the cells of the collecting duct in the kidney to increase their permeability to water. (4 marks)

(c) Explain how the changes described in part (b) affect the volume and concentration of urine produced, and why this is homeostatically important. (2 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

(a) The lower blood water potential causes water to leave osmoreceptor cells in the hypothalamus by osmosis. This causes the osmoreceptors to shrink and depolarize, generating nerve impulses that travel along secretory neurones to the posterior pituitary gland, triggering the release of ADH into the bloodstream.

(b) ADH binds to specific protein receptors on the cell-surface membrane of the collecting duct cells. This activates an enzyme inside the cell to produce cAMP (a second messenger). cAMP stimulates vesicles containing aquaporins (water channel proteins) to move to and fuse with the luminal cell-surface membrane, inserting aquaporins and increasing permeability to water.

(c) It results in a smaller volume of highly concentrated (hypertonic) urine being produced. This conserves water within the body, preventing the blood water potential from falling further and helping to restore it to its normal homeostatic level.

PastPaper.markingScheme

(a)
1. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus lose water by osmosis (due to low blood water potential);
2. This causes osmoreceptors to shrink / depolarize, generating action potentials / nerve impulses;
3. Impulses travel to the posterior pituitary gland, stimulating the release of ADH (by exocytosis).
[Maximum 3 marks]

(b)
1. ADH binds to complementary receptors on the membrane of collecting duct cells;
2. This activates an intracellular enzyme / adenyl cyclase, producing cAMP (second messenger);
3. Vesicles containing aquaporins / water channels move to and fuse with the (luminal) cell-surface membrane;
4. This increases the density of water channels, making the membrane more permeable to water.
[Maximum 4 marks]

(c)
1. A smaller volume of more concentrated / hypertonic urine is produced;
2. This conserves water, preventing a further decrease in blood water potential / returning blood water potential to normal.
[Maximum 2 marks]
PastPaper.question 5 · structured
8.83 PastPaper.marks
Estrogen is a steroid hormone that plays a vital role in regulating gene expression.

(a) Explain how estrogen initiates the transcription of a target gene. (4 marks)

(b) Once mRNA has been transcribed, its translation can be regulated by small interfering RNA (siRNA). Describe how siRNA prevents the translation of a specific mRNA molecule. (4 marks)

(c) Suggest how siRNA could be used as a therapeutic tool to treat a genetic disease caused by a dominant mutation that results in an overactive, toxic protein. (1 mark)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

(a) Estrogen is lipid-soluble, allowing it to diffuse through the phospholipid cell membrane. It binds to a specific receptor on an inactive transcription factor in the cytoplasm. This binding changes the tertiary structure of the transcription factor, releasing an inhibitor and exposing its DNA-binding site. The transcription factor-estrogen complex then enters the nucleus, binds to a promoter region on DNA, and stimulates RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene.

(b) Double-stranded siRNA is cleaved into single-stranded fragments. One strand binds to an enzyme complex (RISC). The single-stranded siRNA guides this enzyme to the target mRNA by complementary base pairing. Once bound, the enzyme cleaves the mRNA, preventing it from being translated by ribosomes into a protein.

(c) Synthesize or introduce siRNA that has a complementary base sequence to the mutated mRNA. This degrades the mutant mRNA, preventing the translation of the toxic protein.

PastPaper.markingScheme

(a)
1. Estrogen diffuses through the phospholipid bilayer (as it is lipid-soluble);
2. Estrogen binds to a specific receptor on the transcription factor (in the cytoplasm);
3. This changes the tertiary structure / shape of the transcription factor, exposing the DNA-binding site / releasing inhibitor;
4. The complex enters the nucleus and binds to the promoter / specific DNA sequence, initiating transcription (by RNA polymerase).
[Maximum 4 marks]

(b)
1. Double-stranded siRNA is cut/separated into single-stranded fragments;
2. One siRNA strand associates with an enzyme (RISC complex);
3. The siRNA binds to the target mRNA by complementary base pairing (A-U and C-G);
4. The associated enzyme cleaves/cuts the mRNA, preventing translation.
[Maximum 4 marks]

(c)
1. Synthesise / introduce siRNA complementary to the mutated mRNA to degrade it / prevent its translation (into the toxic protein).
[1 mark]
PastPaper.question 6 · structured
8.83 PastPaper.marks
Hemoglobin is a globular protein with a quaternary structure that is specialized for the transport of oxygen.

(a) Explain why the oxygen dissociation curve of hemoglobin is S-shaped (sigmoidal) rather than a straight line. (3 marks)

(b) Explain the physiological significance of the Bohr effect during intense physical exercise. (4 marks)

(c) Lugworms are marine worms that live in muddy, low-oxygen burrows on the seashore. Describe how the oxygen dissociation curve of lugworm hemoglobin differs from that of human hemoglobin, and explain how this represents an adaptation to their habitat. (2 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

(a) The initial binding of the first oxygen molecule is difficult because the polypeptide chains are closely bound. However, when the first oxygen binds, it alters the quaternary structure of hemoglobin (cooperative binding), making it much easier for the second and third oxygen molecules to bind, causing a steep rise in the curve. Binding of the fourth is harder because most binding sites are already full, causing the curve to plateau.

(b) During exercise, high rates of respiration release large amounts of carbon dioxide. This lowers blood pH, which alters the tertiary/quaternary structure of hemoglobin, reducing its affinity for oxygen. The oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the right, enabling hemoglobin to release more oxygen to actively respiring tissues.

(c) The lugworm curve is shifted to the left compared to humans, meaning it has a higher affinity for oxygen. This allows it to load/bind oxygen even at the very low partial pressures of oxygen found in its muddy environment.

PastPaper.markingScheme

(a)
1. Initial binding of the first oxygen molecule is difficult / slow because subunits are closely bound;
2. Binding of the first oxygen changes the shape / quaternary structure of hemoglobin (cooperative binding);
3. This uncovers/exposes other binding sites, making it easier for subsequent oxygen molecules to bind (causing a steep rise in the curve);
4. The curve plateaus because it is statistically less likely for a fourth oxygen molecule to find an empty binding site.
[Maximum 3 marks]

(b)
1. Respiring tissues produce carbon dioxide, which forms carbonic acid and lowers pH;
2. Low pH changes the shape of hemoglobin, reducing its affinity for oxygen;
3. The oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the right;
4. This means hemoglobin releases / unloads oxygen more readily to tissues that are actively respiring.
[Maximum 4 marks]

(c)
1. The curve is shifted to the left / has a higher affinity for oxygen;
2. This allows the lugworm to load / bind oxygen at very low partial pressures of oxygen in its environment.
[Maximum 2 marks]

Paper 3 Section B

Write an essay on one of the topics provided. Spend no more than 45 minutes.
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PastPaper.question 1 · essay
25 PastPaper.marks
Write an essay on one of the following topics:

**Option A:** The biological importance of phosphorylation and phosphate groups in organisms.

**Or**

**Option B:** The importance of interactions between different species in ecosystems and communities.
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### Option A: The biological importance of phosphorylation and phosphate groups in organisms

**Introduction:**
Introduce phosphate groups (\(\text{PO}_4^{3-}\)) and phosphorylation (the addition of a phosphate group to an organic molecule). Highlight that this modification alters protein charge, structure, and activity, and plays an essential role in genetic storage, energy transfers, and cell signaling.

**Possible Areas of Syllabus Coverage:**
1. **Nucleic Acids and DNA Replication (Chapters: Nucleic acids, DNA and protein synthesis)**
* Nucleotides consist of a pentose sugar, nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group.
* Phosphodiester bonds form via condensation reactions to build the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA and RNA.
* Importance: Essential for structural stability of genetic material and high-fidelity transmission of genetic code.

2. **Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) (Chapter: ATP)**
* ATP contains three phosphate groups. Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and inorganic phosphate (\(\text{P}_i\)) by ATP hydrolase releases energy.
* Coupling of ATP hydrolysis to energy-requiring reactions (e.g., active transport, protein synthesis).
* Importance: Serves as the universal energy currency in cells.

3. **Photosynthesis (Chapter: Photosynthesis)**
* Photophosphorylation (cyclic and non-cyclic) in the light-dependent reaction.
* Role of NADP phosphorylation to form reduced NADP.
* Phosphorylation of glycerate 3-phosphate (GP) to triose phosphate (TP) using ATP in the light-independent reaction.

4. **Respiration (Chapter: Respiration)**
* Glycolysis: Phosphorylation of glucose to glucose phosphate (using ATP) to make it more reactive and trap it inside the cell, followed by splitting into triose phosphate.
* Oxidative phosphorylation in the electron transport chain: Chemiosmotic theory, protons flowing through ATP synthase to phosphorylate ADP to ATP.
* Substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.

5. **Structure and Function of Membranes (Chapters: Lipids, Transport across cell membranes)**
* Phospholipids contain a hydrophilic phosphate head and two hydrophobic fatty acid tails.
* Formation of the selectively permeable bilayer, allowing cells to maintain internal environments.
* Active transport utilizing phosphorylation of carrier proteins to induce conformational changes.

6. **Muscle Contraction (Chapter: Skeletal muscles)**
* Role of phosphocreatine (PCr) in providing a phosphate group to rapidly regenerate ATP from ADP under anaerobic conditions.

7. **Homeostasis and Cell Signaling (Chapter: Homeostasis)**
* Second messenger model: Adrenaline or glucagon binds to receptors, activating adenylate cyclase to produce cAMP. This activates protein kinase enzymes via phosphorylation, leading to glycogenolysis.

---

### Option B: The importance of interactions between different species in ecosystems and communities

**Introduction:**
Define communities and ecosystems. Introduce the concept that species do not live in isolation; their survival, reproduction, and evolutionary trajectory depend on mutualistic, competitive, predatory, and symbiotic relationships.

**Possible Areas of Syllabus Coverage:**
1. **Pathogens and the Immune System (Chapter: Cell recognition and the immune system)**
* Host-pathogen interactions. Pathogens (bacteria, viruses, fungi) possess non-self antigens.
* Immune response: Phagocytosis, cellular response (T-cells), and humoral response (B-cells producing antibodies) to neutralise the foreign species.
* Evolutionary pressure: Antigenic variation in pathogens vs. host immune memory.

2. **Nutrient Cycles and Mutualism (Chapter: Nutrient cycles)**
* Mycorrhizae: Mutualistic relationship between fungi and the roots of plants. Fungi increase surface area for water and ion absorption; plants provide organic compounds (carbohydrates) to the fungi.
* Nitrogen-fixing bacteria: *Rhizobium* in the root nodules of leguminous plants converts gaseous nitrogen into ammonia, receiving carbohydrates in return.
* Saprobionts: Decomposers digesting dead organic matter extracellularly, returning mineral ions to the soil.

3. **Populations in Ecosystems: Competition and Predation (Chapter: Populations in ecosystems)**
* Predator-prey dynamics: Cyclic fluctuations in population sizes of both species.
* Interspecific competition: Organisms of different species competing for the same limited resources (niche overlap), leading to competitive exclusion or adaptation.

4. **Ecological Succession (Chapter: Populations in ecosystems)**
* Pioneer species colonise hostile environments, changing abiotic conditions (e.g., forming soil with organic matter).
* This makes the environment less hostile and more suitable for subsequent species, which may outcompete the pioneer species.
* Climax community reached when stable interspecific dynamics are established.

5. **Natural Selection and Speciation (Chapter: Evolution may lead to speciation)**
* Interspecific interactions act as selection pressures. Predators select for faster or better-camouflaged prey.
* Co-evolution: Close ecological interactions over time causing reciprocal evolutionary changes (e.g., plants and their specific pollinators).

6. **Biodiversity and Human Impact (Chapter: Biodiversity within a community)**
* High species diversity leads to more complex food webs and more stable ecosystems.
* Impact of farming, deforestation, or monoculture on reducing species interactions and destabilising local communities.

PastPaper.markingScheme

### AQA A Level Biology Essay Marking Rubric

Total: 25 Marks

#### 1. Scientific Content (Maximum 16 marks)
* **14–16 marks:** Highly detailed, accurate, and comprehensive. The candidate shows an excellent depth of understanding of biological principles across the breadth of the essay. Very few, if any, minor errors.
* **11–13 marks:** Good understanding of the chosen topic. Most material is accurate and detailed, though some minor omissions or errors may be present.
* **8–10 marks:** Solid factual knowledge showing a reasonable grasp of key concepts. Some lack of depth or detail, with some errors in technical explanation.
* **5–7 marks:** Limited biological knowledge. Explanations are superficial, with several conceptual errors and omissions.
* **1–4 marks:** Very poor scientific content, major misconceptions, or highly brief/fragmented responses.
* **0 marks:** No creditworthy scientific content.

#### 2. Breadth of Knowledge (Maximum 3 marks)
* **3 marks:** Candidate discusses at least 4 or 5 distinct areas of the specification in appropriate depth, successfully linking different biological concepts to the main title.
* **2 marks:** Candidate discusses 3 distinct areas of the specification in appropriate depth.
* **1 mark:** Candidate discusses only 1 or 2 areas of the specification, limiting the scope of the essay.

#### 3. Relevance (Maximum 3 marks)
* **3 marks:** All content presented is highly relevant to the essay title. No significant digressions or unnecessary 'padding'.
* **2 marks:** The essay is mostly relevant, but contains minor digressions or irrelevant details that do not support the theme.
* **1 mark:** Significant portions of the essay are irrelevant to the title.

#### 4. Quality of Language and Structure (Maximum 3 marks)
* **3 marks:** The essay is excellently structured, written in a clear, logical sequence with outstanding flow. Biological terminology is used accurately and confidently throughout.
* **2 marks:** The essay is reasonably well-structured with clear paragraphs, but flow could be improved. Most terminology is used correctly.
* **1 mark:** Poorly structured, difficult to read, with frequent errors in the use of scientific terminology.

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