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Thinka Jun 2023 AQA A Level-Style Mock — Psychology 7182 (Current)

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An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2023 AQA A Level Psychology 7182 (Current) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from AQA.

Paper 1 Section A

Answer all questions on Social Influence.
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PastPaper.question 1 · MCQ
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A small local group campaigns to make their town pesticide-free. They persist with their message for over a year and endure personal financial loss to fund leaflets, showing significant dedication. Gradually, local farmers adopt their views, but now when farmers discuss the pesticide ban, they claim it is 'just common sense' and no longer associate it with the campaign group. Which two of the following processes of minority influence and social change are illustrated in this scenario? Shade one box only.
  1. A.The augmentation principle and social cryptomnesia
  2. B.Compliance and the augmentation principle
  3. C.Social cryptomnesia and normative social influence
  4. D.Obedience and informational social influence
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

The correct option is A. The augmentation principle is demonstrated because the campaigners show significant dedication and commitment by enduring personal financial loss to fund leaflets, indicating they are willing to suffer for their cause. Social cryptomnesia is demonstrated because although the local farmers have adopted the pesticide-free views and social change has occurred, they no longer associate the original source of the ideas (the campaign group) with the change, referring to it instead as 'just common sense' without remembering how the change came about.

PastPaper.markingScheme

2 marks for selecting option A. 0 marks for selecting option B, C or D.
PastPaper.question 2 · Short Answer / Applied
6 PastPaper.marks
Maya wants to persuade the other students at her sixth-form college to stop buying single-use plastic water bottles and use reusable ones instead. Currently, she is the only student advocating for this change.

Explain how Maya could use her knowledge of minority influence research to achieve her goal. Refer to consistency, commitment, and flexibility in your answer.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

To gain 6 marks, the candidate must cover all three processes (consistency, commitment, and flexibility) and apply them directly to Maya's scenario (reducing single-use plastic bottles/promoting reusable ones).

- **Consistency**: The student should explain that Maya's message must remain unchanged over time. This shows she is confident and certain. Applied to the scenario: Maya should continuously advocate for reusable bottles at college assemblies, on posters, and on social media, never wavering from her core message.
- **Commitment**: The student should explain how showing dedication draws attention to the cause (the augmentation principle). Applied to the scenario: Maya might dedicate her free time to run a recycling campaign or use her own funds to provide free water bottle stickers, demonstrating personal sacrifice.
- **Flexibility**: The student should explain that being too rigid can be off-putting, so the minority must show a willingness to compromise. Applied to the scenario: Maya could compromise by agreeing to a gradual phase-out of plastic bottles in the college canteen rather than demanding an instant, absolute ban.

PastPaper.markingScheme

**Level 3 (5–6 marks):**
- Knowledge of all three processes of minority influence (consistency, commitment, flexibility) is clear, accurate, and detailed.
- Application to Maya’s scenario is highly appropriate, clear, and consistently woven throughout the answer.
- The answer is well-structured and uses appropriate psychological terminology.

**Level 2 (3–4 marks):**
- There is some knowledge of the three processes, or clear knowledge of two of them.
- There is some attempt to apply these to Maya’s scenario, though it may lack detail or be inconsistent across the processes.
- The answer is mostly clear, with some use of psychological terminology.

**Level 1 (1–2 marks):**
- Knowledge of minority influence processes is extremely limited, vague, or contains significant inaccuracies.
- Application to the scenario is weak, superficial, or absent.
- The answer lacks structure and psychological terminology.

**0 marks:**
- No relevant content.
PastPaper.question 3 · Essay
16 PastPaper.marks
A small group of residents in a town, calling themselves 'Green Action', want to encourage the rest of the town to adopt a new compost scheme. Initially, their ideas are ignored by the local council and the majority of residents. However, by consistently attending monthly council meetings, maintaining a clear and united message, and even organising a weekend protest where they cleared up a local park for free to demonstrate their commitment, people have started to listen. Now, more than half of the town's households have signed up for the compost scheme.

Discuss how minority influence leads to social change. Refer to the actions of the 'Green Action' group in your answer.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

### AO1: Description of Minority Influence and Social Change
Minority influence occurs when an individual or small group persuades others to adopt their beliefs, attitudes, or behaviours, leading to internalisation. This process is key to driving social change and relies on several distinct stages and factors:
* **Consistency**: The minority must keep the same beliefs over time (diachronic consistency) and between all members (synchronic consistency). This makes the majority reassess their own views.
* **Commitment**: The minority demonstrates dedication, often by making personal sacrifices or engaging in extreme activities (the augmentation principle). This shows they are not acting out of self-interest, forcing the majority to take them seriously.
* **Flexibility**: The minority must be prepared to compromise and adapt their point of view rather than being rigid and dogmatic, which can alienate the majority.
* **The Process of Social Change**: This starts with **drawing attention** to the issue, which creates **cognitive conflict** in the minds of the majority. Over time, more people convert from the majority to the minority view in what is known as the **snowball effect**, until the minority view becomes the new social norm. Eventually, **social cryptomnesia** occurs, where the majority forgets the origin of the new belief.

### AO2: Application to 'Green Action'
* **Consistency**: 'Green Action' demonstrated consistency by attending meetings monthly and 'maintaining a clear and united message'. This synchronic and diachronic consistency prevents the majority and council from dismissing their ideas as a temporary fad.
* **Commitment**: The group demonstrated the augmentation principle by 'clearing up a local park for free'. This unpaid, effortful, and visible physical activity showed their strong commitment and personal sacrifice, making the town residents take their message more seriously.
* **Snowball Effect**: The scenario notes that 'initially, their ideas are ignored', but gradually 'people have started to listen'. Now, 'more than half of the town's households have signed up'. This represents the tipping point where the minority view has become the majority view through the snowball effect.

### AO3: Evaluation of Minority Influence and Social Change
* **Research Support for Consistency**: Moscovici et al. (1969) demonstrated the importance of consistency in their blue-green slide study. They found that a consistent minority persuaded participants to say green on 8.42% of trials, whereas an inconsistent minority only achieved 1.25% persuasion. This supports the idea that the 'clear and united message' of 'Green Action' was crucial to their success.
* **Research Support for Flexibility**: Nemeth (1986) conducted a jury simulation experiment where a minority arguing for a lower compensation amount was much more successful when they showed flexibility and compromised, rather than remaining rigid. This suggests that while 'Green Action' must be consistent, they also need to show flexibility when negotiating with the council to achieve long-term change.
* **Methodological Criticisms**: Much of the research supporting minority influence (e.g., Moscovici) relies on highly artificial laboratory tasks (such as identifying slide colours). These tasks lack ecological validity and do not reflect the complex, emotionally charged real-life dynamics of social change, such as environmental campaigning, which involves deep-seated personal habits and values.
* **Barriers to Social Change**: Bashir et al. (2013) found that people are often resistant to social change even if they agree with the message because they do not want to be associated with negative stereotypes of 'environmentalists' or 'activists' (e.g., being called 'tree-huggers'). This shows that minority influence faces significant psychological barriers not fully accounted for by simple laboratory models.

PastPaper.markingScheme

### Mark Allocation
* **AO1 (Knowledge)**: 6 marks
* **AO2 (Application)**: 4 marks
* **AO3 (Evaluation)**: 6 marks

### Performance Descriptors

#### Level 4 (13-16 marks)
* **Knowledge**: Accurate, detailed, and comprehensive explanation of minority influence processes (consistency, commitment, flexibility) and how they lead to social change.
* **Application**: Clear, explicit, and highly appropriate application of psychological concepts to the 'Green Action' scenario.
* **Evaluation**: Thorough, effective, and well-structured evaluation using appropriate research evidence and theoretical limitations.
* **Organization**: The answer is well-structured, coherent, and uses precise psychological terminology throughout.

#### Level 3 (9-12 marks)
* **Knowledge**: Mostly accurate knowledge of minority influence and social change, though some details may be lacking.
* **Application**: Generally appropriate application to the scenario, though some points may be underdeveloped.
* **Evaluation**: Good evaluation, with at least two clear points discussed, though some arguments may lack depth.
* **Organization**: The answer is mostly organized and clear, with appropriate use of psychological terminology.

#### Level 2 (5-8 marks)
* **Knowledge**: Limited or basic knowledge of how minority influence leads to social change.
* **Application**: Weak or superficial application to the scenario.
* **Evaluation**: Limited evaluation, which may be descriptive or lack focus on the question.
* **Organization**: The answer lacks clarity and structure in places, with occasional misuse of terminology.

#### Level 1 (1-4 marks)
* **Knowledge**: Fragmented, highly inaccurate, or very brief knowledge of minority influence.
* **Application**: Minimal or no reference to the 'Green Action' scenario.
* **Evaluation**: Absent or highly generalized, lacking psychological relevance.
* **Organization**: Poorly structured, difficult to follow, and lacks psychological terminology.

Paper 1 Section B

Answer all questions on Memory.
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PastPaper.question 1 · Short Answer
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Sienna is explaining to her friend how to ride a bicycle. She then tells her friend about her first ever cycling trip in the Lake District. Identify the two types of long-term memory Sienna is demonstrating in this scenario.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Sienna is demonstrating two types of long-term memory: 1. Procedural memory: This is her memory for how to perform actions or skills, shown when she explains how to ride a bicycle. 2. Episodic memory: This is her memory for personal life events/experiences, shown when she recalls her first ever cycling trip in the Lake District.

PastPaper.markingScheme

1 mark for identifying procedural memory and applying it to explaining/riding a bicycle. 1 mark for identifying episodic memory and applying it to the first cycling trip in the Lake District. Maximum of 1 mark if both types are correctly identified but not applied to the scenario.
PastPaper.question 2 · Short Answer
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Martin goes upstairs to his bedroom to fetch his glasses. When he gets there, he forgets what he came for. However, when he returns downstairs to the kitchen where he first thought of his glasses, he instantly remembers. With reference to Martin's experience, briefly explain what is meant by 'context-dependent forgetting'.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Context-dependent forgetting is a type of cue-dependent forgetting where retrieval fails because the external environment (context) at retrieval does not match the context at encoding. In this scenario, the kitchen served as the context where the memory was encoded. Moving upstairs changed the context, leading to forgetting, while returning to the kitchen reinstated the external cues, allowing Martin to retrieve the memory.

PastPaper.markingScheme

1 mark for defining/explaining context-dependent forgetting (forgetting due to the absence of external/environmental cues present at learning/encoding). 1 mark for application to Martin's scenario (linking the kitchen to the encoding context/cues and the bedroom to the different context where cues were absent).
PastPaper.question 3 · application
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Jasmine has been learning French for two years. This term, she decides to start learning Spanish. During her first Spanish vocabulary test, she struggles to recall the new Spanish words because the French words she already knows keep coming to her mind.

Identify the explanation for forgetting shown in Jasmine's case and explain how Jasmine's experience fits this explanation.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

The explanation for forgetting shown in the scenario is proactive interference.

Proactive interference occurs when older, previously learned information/memories disrupt the recall of newer, more recently learned information/memories.

In Jasmine's case:
- The older information is the French vocabulary she has been learning for two years.
- The newer information is the Spanish vocabulary she is currently trying to retrieve.
- Jasmine's older memory of French words is interfering with and blocking the retrieval of her newer Spanish words during her vocabulary test, leading to her forgetting the Spanish.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Marks are awarded as follows:
- **1 mark** for identifying the correct explanation for forgetting as proactive interference (do not accept retroactive interference).
- **1 mark** for explaining/defining proactive interference (i.e., old memories interfering with the recall of new memories).
- **2 marks** for clear and coherent application to Jasmine's scenario:
- **1 mark** for identifying that French represents the older memory/information and Spanish represents the newer memory/information.
- **1 mark** for explaining that the older French words are disrupting or blocking the recall of the newer Spanish words.
PastPaper.question 4 · essay
16 PastPaper.marks
Elena is trying to learn Polish for her upcoming holiday, but she finds that she keeps accidentally using Spanish words that she learned last year at school. Her brother, Leo, is preparing for his driving theory test. He revised all the rules in his quiet bedroom, but during the actual exam in a busy, unfamiliar test centre, he struggled to recall the information.

Discuss interference and retrieval failure as explanations for forgetting. Refer to Elena and Leo in your answer.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

### AO1: Description of Interference and Retrieval Failure

**Interference Theory**
Interference suggests that forgetting occurs because memories conflict with and disrupt each other, particularly when they are similar.
* **Proactive interference** occurs when older memories disrupt the recall of newer memories.
* **Retroactive interference** occurs when newer memories disrupt the retrieval of older memories.
* Research (e.g., McGeoch and McDonald) indicates that interference is strongest when the memories are highly similar (e.g., learning two lists of similar adjectives).

**Retrieval Failure**
Retrieval failure suggests that information is stored in long-term memory but cannot be accessed due to the absence of appropriate cues. According to Tulving's **Encoding Specificity Principle (ESP)**, cues present at the time of learning (encoding) must also be present at the time of recall.
* **Context-dependent forgetting** occurs when the external environment (e.g., room, weather) during retrieval does not match the encoding environment.
* **State-dependent forgetting** occurs when an individual's internal state (e.g., mood, physiological state, alertness) during retrieval does not match their state during encoding.

---

### AO2: Application to Elena and Leo

* **Elena (Proactive Interference):** Elena is experiencing proactive interference because her previously learned Spanish vocabulary (old memory) is actively disrupting her attempts to recall Polish vocabulary (new memory). The similarity between the two foreign languages makes this interference particularly strong.
* **Leo (Retrieval Failure / Context-Dependent Forgetting):** Leo is experiencing context-dependent forgetting. He encoded the driving rules in a quiet, familiar bedroom environment. When taking the test in a busy, unfamiliar environment, he lacks the external environmental cues that were encoded alongside the information, resulting in retrieval failure.

---

### AO3: Evaluation of Explanations

* **Support for Retrieval Failure (Godden and Baddeley / Carter and Cassaday):** Godden and Baddeley's (1975) deep-sea divers study showed that recall was significantly better when the learning and recall environments matched (e.g., learn on land, recall on land) compared to mismatched environments. Carter and Cassaday (1998) found similar state-dependent effects using antihistamine drugs. This supports the validity of cue-dependent forgetting.
* **Support for Interference (McGeoch and McDonald):** Research supports the idea that similarity increases interference effects, showing that participants who learned a second list of synonyms had the worst recall of the original list. This validates the mechanism of interference.
* **Practical Applications:** Understanding retrieval failure has led to real-world applications, such as the 'mental reinstatement of context' stage in the Cognitive Interview used by police to improve eyewitness recall. Similarly, students are advised to revise in conditions that mimic their exams.
* **Methodological Criticisms of Explanations:** Many studies supporting these explanations are laboratory-based and use artificial materials (such as learning lists of nonsense syllables or word pairs), meaning they lack ecological validity. In real life, we learn meaningful, complex information, which may be less susceptible to basic interference or minor context changes. Furthermore, Baddeley points out that context effects are only really strong when the differences in environments are extreme (like underwater vs. on land), meaning everyday forgetting is rarely fully explained by context-dependent cue failure.

PastPaper.markingScheme

### Mark allocation:
* **AO1:** Description of interference and retrieval failure = 6 marks
* **AO2:** Application to Elena and Leo = 4 marks
* **AO3:** Evaluation of both explanations = 6 marks

### Level Descriptors:

* **Level 4 (13–16 marks):**
* Knowledge of both explanations is accurate and generally detailed.
* Application to Elena and Leo is clear, appropriate, and well-linked to the relevant theories.
* Evaluation is effective, showing critical analysis of both explanations.
* The answer is well-structured and uses appropriate psychological terminology.

* **Level 3 (9–12 marks):**
* Knowledge of both explanations is evident, though one may be more detailed than the other.
* Application to both characters is mostly appropriate, though there may be minor inaccuracies or lack of explicit links to terminology.
* Evaluation is mostly effective, though it may lack depth or balance.
* The answer is structured and clear.

* **Level 2 (5–8 marks):**
* Knowledge of one or both explanations is present but lacks detail/has some inaccuracies.
* Application is limited, perhaps only addressing one character or making weak connections to the scenario.
* Evaluation is basic or limited to a single point.
* Structure is present but lacks clarity.

* **Level 1 (1–4 marks):**
* Knowledge is fragmented, extremely brief, or highly inaccurate.
* Little to no application to the scenario.
* Evaluation is absent or highly superficial.
* Structure and use of terminology are poor.

Paper 1 Section C

Answer all questions on Attachment.
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PastPaper.question 1 · Short Answer
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Elena is 14 months old. When her mother leaves her in an unfamiliar playroom, Elena becomes extremely distressed and cries loudly. When her mother returns, Elena approaches her for comfort but then pushes her mother away and continues to cry. Identify the type of attachment Elena is displaying. Explain your answer with reference to the description of Elena's behaviour.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1 mark for identifying the attachment type as insecure-resistant (or Type C). 1 mark for identifying Elena's high separation anxiety from the scenario (extreme distress and loud crying when her mother leaves) as a characteristic of this attachment type. 1 mark for identifying Elena's ambivalent/resistant reunion behaviour from the scenario (seeking proximity/comfort but pushing the mother away) as a characteristic of this attachment type. 1 mark for a clear, coherent explanation linking both of these specific scenario behaviours to the features of insecure-resistant attachment.

PastPaper.markingScheme

1 mark: Correctly identifies the attachment type as insecure-resistant (accept Type C or anxious-resistant). 1 mark: Correctly identifies and applies the separation anxiety behaviour from the scenario ('becomes extremely distressed and cries loudly'). 1 mark: Correctly identifies and applies the reunion behaviour from the scenario ('approaches her for comfort but then pushes her mother away'). 1 mark: Explains clearly why these behaviours indicate insecure-resistant attachment (e.g., showing a conflict between seeking closeness and rejecting/resisting contact due to anger or lack of trust in the caregiver's responsiveness).
PastPaper.question 2 · Short Answer
4 PastPaper.marks
Outline how Harlow investigated the importance of contact comfort in infant monkeys and state one conclusion from this research.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

2 marks for outlining how the study was conducted: 1 mark for mentioning the two types of surrogate mothers (wire mother and cloth mother). 1 mark for explaining that one mother provided milk (usually the wire one) and that Harlow measured time spent with each mother or behavior when frightened. 2 marks for the conclusion: 1 mark for stating that contact comfort is the primary variable/more important than food in attachment formation. 1 mark for explaining the implication of this conclusion, such as how it refutes learning theory / 'cupboard love' explanations of attachment.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Outline of investigation (2 marks): 1 mark for stating infant monkeys were reared with two surrogate mothers: one made of wire and one covered in soft cloth. 1 mark for explaining that the wire mother provided food while the cloth mother offered comfort (or vice versa to test the variable), and time spent with each was measured. Conclusion (2 marks): 1 mark for stating that contact comfort is more important than food/nourishment in the development of attachment. 1 mark for drawing a clear psychological conclusion, such as stating that attachment is based on emotional security rather than physical survival needs, or that this contradicts the learning theory of attachment.
PastPaper.question 3 · essay
16 PastPaper.marks
Elena was adopted from a poorly funded orphanage abroad at the age of 4. When she first arrived at her new home, she was very friendly to everyone, including complete strangers, and did not show a preference for her adoptive parents. She also struggled with schoolwork and showed signs of cognitive delay. Ten years later, her adoptive mother notices that Elena has made significant progress but still struggles to form deep, long-lasting friendships.

Discuss research into the effects of institutionalisation. Refer to Elena in your answer.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

### AO1: Knowledge of Research into the Effects of Institutionalisation
* **Rutter’s English and Romanian Adoptees (ERA) study:** Tracked 165 Romanian orphans adopted in the UK to test if good care could make up for poor early experiences. Physical, cognitive, and emotional development were assessed at ages 4, 6, 11, 15, and 22-25. A control group of 52 British children adopted before 6 months was used.
* **Findings:** At adoption, Romanian orphans showed signs of delayed intellectual development and severe undernourishment. By age 11, recovery rates depended on adoption age: those adopted before 6 months had a mean IQ of 102; those adopted between 6 months and 2 years had a mean IQ of 86; those adopted after 2 years had a mean IQ of 77.
* **Disinhibited Attachment:** Children adopted after 6 months frequently displayed disinhibited attachment, characterized by attention-seeking, clinginess, and social friendliness directed indiscriminately towards familiar and unfamiliar adults alike.
* **The Bucharest Early Intervention Project (Zeanah et al., 2005):** Assessed attachment in 95 Romanian children aged 12-31 months who had spent most of their lives in institutional care, comparing them to a control group who had never lived in an institution. They found 74% of the control group were securely attached compared to only 19% of the institutional group. 44% of the institutional group met the criteria for disinhibited attachment.

### AO2: Application to Elena
* **Disinhibited Attachment:** Elena’s behavior of being "very friendly to everyone, including complete strangers" and showing "no preference for her adoptive parents" represents disinhibited attachment. According to Rutter, this occurs because children in institutions have multiple rotating caregivers during the sensitive period, preventing them from forming a single secure primary attachment.
* **Cognitive Delay/Intellectual Underfunctioning:** Elena’s "cognitive delay" and "struggled with schoolwork" align with the low IQ scores identified by Rutter in children adopted late (after 6 months). Since Elena was adopted at age 4, she fell well past the critical 6-month window, making cognitive recovery slower and less complete.
* **Long-term Relationship Issues:** Her ongoing struggle "to form deep, long-lasting friendships" ten years later (at age 14) reflects the enduring socio-emotional effects of late adoption. The lack of a primary attachment figure in the first 4 years likely damaged her internal working model, impacting her peer relations in adolescence.

### AO3: Evaluation
* **Real-world Application:** Research into Romanian orphans has led to valuable improvements in the way children are cared for in institutions. For example, orphanages and children’s homes now avoid having large numbers of rotating staff. Instead, they assign one or two "key workers" to a child so they can form a normal attachment, preventing disinhibited attachment.
* **Fewer Confounding Variables:** Unlike previous orphan studies where children had often experienced trauma, neglect, or bereavement before being institutionalized, the Romanian orphans were placed in care from birth. This made it easier to study the effects of institutionalisation in isolation, without confounding variables.
* **Methodological Limitations - The Romanian Orphanages were Atypical:** The conditions in the Romanian orphanages were exceptionally dire, with extremely low levels of cognitive stimulation, poor hygiene, and harsh physical environments. Therefore, the findings might lack external validity as they cannot easily be generalized to modern, higher-quality foster or institutional care.
* **Lack of Adult Data:** Although recent follow-ups have looked at participants in their mid-twenties, we still do not have a complete picture of the lifelong effects of institutionalisation (e.g., whether these individuals can successfully maintain long-term romantic relationships or parent their own children).

PastPaper.markingScheme

### Mark Bands:

* **Level 4 (13–16 marks):** Focus is clear and highly structured. Specialist terminology is used accurately and consistently. Knowledge of institutionalisation research is accurate and detailed. Application to Elena is highly effective and integrated throughout. Evaluation is thorough, balanced, and well-developed.
* **Level 3 (9–12 marks):** Mostly accurate knowledge of institutionalisation research is demonstrated. Application to Elena is clear, though some points may be superficial. Evaluation is present and mostly structured, addressing at least two distinct points.
* **Level 2 (5–8 marks):** Some knowledge of research is present, but lacks detail or contains inaccuracies. Application to Elena is limited or basic. Evaluation is weak, disorganized, or extremely brief.
* **Level 1 (1–4 marks):** Very basic or disorganized response. Knowledge of institutionalisation is fragmented. Minimal or absent application to Elena. No meaningful evaluation.

### Mark Allocation:
* **AO1 (6 marks):** Selection and description of relevant research into institutionalisation (Rutter's ERA study, Zeanah's Bucharest Early Intervention project, effects such as disinhibited attachment and intellectual underfunctioning).
* **AO2 (4 marks):** Application of research findings and concepts to the scenario of Elena (linking her late adoption at age 4 to her disinhibited attachment, cognitive delays, and subsequent peer relationship struggles).
* **AO3 (6 marks):** Evaluation of research, highlighting strengths (e.g., practical applications, control of confounding variables) and limitations (e.g., lack of long-term adult data, atypical conditions of Romanian orphanages).

Paper 1 Section D

Answer all questions on Psychopathology.
5 PastPaper.question · 20 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · short_answer
3 PastPaper.marks
Chloe is experiencing depression. She believes she is a complete failure because she received a Grade B on her latest psychology essay, thinks her teacher hates her, and believes she will never pass her final A Level exams. With reference to Beck's negative triad, explain Chloe's thoughts.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

According to Aaron Beck's cognitive explanation of depression, vulnerable individuals develop a negative triad, which consists of negative automatic thoughts about the self, the world, and the future.

In Chloe's case:
1. Negative view of the self: Chloe views herself as a 'complete failure' simply because she achieved a Grade B, showing cognitive distortion/minimisation of her success.
2. Negative view of the world (current experiences): She believes her 'teacher hates her', interpreting her current environment and social interactions in an overwhelmingly negative, hostile way.
3. Negative view of the future: She believes she will 'never pass her exams', projecting hopeless and fatalistic expectations onto her future academic performance.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award 1 mark for each clear application of the three elements of the negative triad linked directly to Chloe's scenario:
- 1 mark for applying 'negative view of the self' to Chloe's belief that she is a 'complete failure' over a Grade B.
- 1 mark for applying 'negative view of the world' to Chloe's belief that her 'teacher hates her'.
- 1 mark for applying 'negative view of the future' to Chloe's belief that she will 'never pass her exams'.

Note: If the components of the triad are listed but not applied to Chloe, award a maximum of 1 mark overall.
PastPaper.question 2 · short_answer
3 PastPaper.marks
Marcus has a severe phobia of dogs. His therapist suggests using flooding to treat his phobia. Explain how flooding could be used to treat Marcus's phobia of dogs.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Flooding is a behavioural therapy used to treat phobias through immediate and direct exposure to the phobic stimulus without a gradual buildup.

1. Immediate Exposure: Marcus would be placed directly in a room or situation with a dog (the phobic stimulus) rather than building up to it gradually through a hierarchy.
2. Prevention of Avoidance: Marcus would not be allowed to leave or avoid the situation. This prevents the reinforcement of fear through escape behaviors.
3. Extinction: Marcus's physiological anxiety response (fight or flight) will eventually peak and decline due to physical exhaustion. Since no harm occurs, he will learn to associate the dog with relaxation rather than fear, leading to extinction of the conditioned fear response.

PastPaper.markingScheme

- 1 mark for explaining immediate, direct, or maximum exposure to the phobic stimulus (dogs) without a hierarchy.
- 1 mark for explaining that Marcus is unable to escape/avoid the situation.
- 1 mark for explaining the process of extinction (the adrenaline/anxiety response declines, leading to a new association between dogs and calm/relaxation).
PastPaper.question 3 · short_answer
3 PastPaper.marks
Jamil chooses to walk backwards everywhere he goes in public, which causes members of the public to stare and express concern. Explain how Jamil's behaviour could be defined as abnormal using the 'deviation from social norms' definition of abnormality.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

The 'deviation from social norms' definition defines abnormality as any behaviour that goes against the unwritten rules, expectations, and standards of acceptable behaviour established by a specific society or culture.

In Jamil's case:
1. Society has an implicit expectation/norm that people walk forwards in public spaces to ensure safety, efficiency, and social coordination.
2. By walking backwards everywhere, Jamil is violating this cultural norm.
3. The fact that members of the public stare and express concern indicates that his behaviour is perceived as unexpected and disruptive within that society, which categorises his behaviour as abnormal according to this definition.

PastPaper.markingScheme

- 1 mark for defining 'deviation from social norms' (behaviour that violates implicit or explicit societal rules/expectations of acceptable behaviour).
- 1 mark for applying this definition to Jamil's behavior (walking backwards in public deviates from the established way people move in public).
- 1 mark for linking his behaviour to the social reaction (public staring/concern as evidence that a social expectation has been broken, confirming abnormality).
PastPaper.question 4 · short_answer
3 PastPaper.marks
Dr. Vance is explaining to a patient that obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a polygenic condition. Explain what is meant by 'polygenic' in relation to genetic explanations of OCD.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

In genetic explanations of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), 'polygenic' means that OCD is not caused by a single, specific gene (a monogenic condition). Instead, it is caused by the combined action of multiple different genes.

Research indicates that up to 230 different genes may be involved in OCD vulnerability. These candidate genes often regulate neurotransmitter systems in the brain. For instance, genes like the COMT gene (which regulates dopamine) and the SERT gene (which regulates serotonin) are thought to work together to increase a person's risk of developing OCD.

PastPaper.markingScheme

- 1 mark for defining polygenic (that OCD is caused/influenced by multiple genes, not just a single gene).
- 1 mark for explaining that these multiple genes work together to increase genetic vulnerability/susceptibility to OCD.
- 1 mark for providing a relevant example of candidate genes or systems involved (e.g., genes regulating neurotransmitters like serotonin/dopamine, or mentioning specific genes like COMT/SERT).
PastPaper.question 5 · Essay
8 PastPaper.marks
Outline and evaluate systematic desensitisation as a treatment for phobias. (8 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

To achieve full marks (8/8) on this essay, students need to provide a balanced response split equally between description (AO1) and evaluation (AO3). For AO1 (4 marks), the answer must clearly outline the underlying mechanism of systematic desensitisation (counterconditioning and reciprocal inhibition) and describe the three steps: the construction of an anxiety hierarchy, relaxation training, and gradual exposure. For AO3 (4 marks), the student should offer at least two well-structured evaluation points. These could focus on research evidence showing effectiveness (e.g., Gilroy et al.), the suitability of the treatment for different patient groups (e.g., those with learning difficulties), or limitations such as its reduced efficacy for complex or evolutionary phobias compared to cognitive behavioral therapies.

PastPaper.markingScheme

AO1: 4 marks, AO3: 4 marks. Level 4 (7-8 marks): Knowledge of systematic desensitisation is accurate and detailed. Evaluation is highly effective, well-developed, and clearly explained. The answer is well-structured and uses appropriate psychological terminology throughout. Level 3 (5-6 marks): Knowledge of systematic desensitisation is mostly accurate with some detail. Evaluation is appropriate and clearly explained but may lack depth or balance. The structure is mostly clear and organized. Level 2 (3-4 marks): Some knowledge of systematic desensitisation is present, though there may be minor inaccuracies or omissions. Evaluation is limited, basic, or superficial. Level 1 (1-2 marks): Very basic, fragmented, or highly inaccurate knowledge of the treatment is shown. Minimal or no evaluation is present.

Paper 2 Section A

Answer all questions on Approaches.
5 PastPaper.question · 20 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · multiple-choice
3 PastPaper.marks
Dr. Vance is investigating how expectations influence perception. He shows two groups of participants the same ambiguous drawing (which looks like either a rat or a man's face). Group A is primed with pictures of animals, and Group B is primed with pictures of people. Group A perceives a rat, while Group B perceives a man's face. Which of the following best explains how a cognitive psychologist would account for the difference in perception between Group A and Group B?
  1. A.Group A has developed a biological predisposition to notice rodents due to evolutionary survival mechanisms, whereas Group B has not.
  2. B.Group A used schema-driven top-down processing influenced by recent environmental cues to interpret the ambiguous stimulus, whereas Group B used a different active schema.
  3. C.Both groups underwent classical conditioning where the ambiguous image acted as a conditioned stimulus triggering a learned response.
  4. D.Group A and Group B's perceptions are entirely determined by passive bottom-up sensory processing that bypassed cognitive mediation.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

The correct option is B. Cognitive psychologists explain perception using schemas—mental frameworks of information developed through experience. Priming participants with animals (Group A) or people (Group B) activated different schemas. These schemas led to top-down cognitive processing, which guided the active interpretation of the ambiguous sensory information, causing the same stimulus to be perceived differently. Option A describes an evolutionary biological explanation, Option C describes classical conditioning (behaviorist), and Option D incorrectly states that the processing bypassed cognitive mediation.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award 3 marks for selecting option B. Award 0 marks for selecting options A, C, or D.
PastPaper.question 2 · multiple-choice
3 PastPaper.marks
Toby is extremely angry at his teacher for giving him a low grade. Instead of expressing his anger towards the teacher, he goes home and aggressively kicks his football against the garden wall. According to psychodynamic theory, which of the following combinations correctly identifies the ego defence mechanism Toby is using, and the level of consciousness where this defence mechanism operates?
  1. A.Displacement; unconscious level
  2. B.Projection; preconscious level
  3. C.Denial; conscious level
  4. D.Repression; unconscious level
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

The correct option is A. Toby is using displacement. Displacement involves redirecting an impulse (anger) from its original target (the teacher, who represents a threat to the ego or is a source of anxiety) onto a neutral or less threatening substitute target (the football). According to psychodynamic theory, all ego defence mechanisms operate at the unconscious level of mind to protect the conscious ego from anxiety. Therefore, Option A is the correct combination.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award 3 marks for selecting option A. Award 0 marks for selecting options B, C, or D.
PastPaper.question 3 · multiple-choice
3 PastPaper.marks
Aliyah feels that her parents will only love and support her if she achieves straight A grades in her exams. This pressure makes her feel anxious and unhappy, creating a gap between her self-concept and her ideal self. According to the humanistic approach, which of the following terms correctly describes the parental pressure Aliyah is experiencing, and the state that results from the gap between her self-concept and her ideal self?
  1. A.Conditions of worth; incongruence
  2. B.Conditional positive regard; self-actualisation
  3. C.Unconditional positive regard; congruence
  4. D.External locus of control; incongruence
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

The correct option is A. Carl Rogers defined 'conditions of worth' as limits or boundaries placed on parental love and acceptance (e.g., 'I will only love you if you get straight As'). When there is a mismatch or gap between a person's self-concept (how they currently view themselves) and their ideal self (who they wish to be), they experience a state of 'incongruence'. Thus, Aliyah is experiencing conditions of worth, which leads to incongruence.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award 3 marks for selecting option A. Award 0 marks for selecting options B, C, or D.
PastPaper.question 4 · multiple-choice
3 PastPaper.marks
Which of the following statements best highlights a key theoretical difference in how the Behaviorist approach and Social Learning Theory (SLT) explain the process of learning?
  1. A.The Behaviorist approach argues that learning occurs solely through direct conditioning, whereas SLT proposes that learning can occur indirectly through observation and vicarious reinforcement.
  2. B.The Behaviorist approach emphasizes the role of internal cognitive meditational processes, whereas SLT completely rejects the existence of internal mental states.
  3. C.The Behaviorist approach views learning as a result of active self-actualisation, whereas SLT views learning as entirely determined by evolutionary biological drives.
  4. D.The Behaviorist approach argues that behavior is shaped by vicarious punishment, whereas SLT argues that behavior is shaped purely by classical association.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

The correct option is A. The classical behaviorist approach argues that learning occurs directly through classical and operant conditioning (direct association and consequences). In contrast, SLT, developed by Albert Bandura, expands on this by showing that learning can also occur indirectly through observing a model being reinforced or punished (vicarious reinforcement). Option B is incorrect because SLT accepts internal cognitive meditational processes while Behaviorists reject them. Option C incorrectly brings in humanistic and biological concepts. Option D reverses and confuses the concepts of both approaches.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award 3 marks for selecting option A. Award 0 marks for selecting options B, C, or D.
PastPaper.question 5 · essay
8 PastPaper.marks
Discuss the social learning theory approach in psychology. (8 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

AO1 (4 marks): Candidates should outline key assumptions of social learning theory. This includes: learning occurs indirectly through classical/operant conditioning but importantly through observation and imitation; role models are observed and individuals model behaviour (especially if they identify with the model due to shared characteristics like gender/status); vicarious reinforcement occurs when an observer sees a model rewarded for a behaviour, making them more likely to imitate it; mediational processes are cognitive factors that intervene in the learning process: attention (noticing the behaviour), retention (remembering it), motor reproduction (the ability to perform it), and motivation (the will to perform it, often determined by rewards/punishments). AO3 (4 marks): Candidates should evaluate the social learning theory. Strengths: SLT provides a more comprehensive explanation of human learning than classical or operant conditioning alone by recognizing the role of cognitive mediational processes. It has valuable real-world applications, such as explaining the transmission of cultural norms, aggression, and gender-role development, leading to practical interventions. Limitations: SLT relies heavily on laboratory studies, such as Bandura's Bobo doll experiments, which may lack ecological validity, suffer from demand characteristics (children might have behaved aggressively because they thought they were expected to), and do not reflect real-life long-term behavioural changes. Furthermore, the approach underemphasizes biological factors; for instance, Bandura consistently found boys were more aggressive than girls, which could be explained by biological differences such as testosterone levels rather than purely social learning.

PastPaper.markingScheme

AO1: 4 marks, AO3: 4 marks. Level 4 (7-8 marks): Knowledge of the social learning theory approach is accurate and detailed. Evaluation is effective and well-supported. The answer is clear, coherent, and uses accurate psychological terminology. Level 3 (5-6 marks): Knowledge of the social learning theory approach is mostly accurate with some detail. There is some effective evaluation. The answer is mostly clear and organized. Level 2 (3-4 marks): There is some basic/limited knowledge of the approach. Evaluation is limited, superficial, or absent. Level 1 (1-2 marks): Knowledge of the approach is extremely limited, vague, or contains significant inaccuracies. Evaluation is absent or highly flawed. AO1 points to credit: Imitation, identification, modelling, vicarious reinforcement, and the four mediational processes (attention, retention, motor reproduction, motivation). AO3 points to credit: Strengths (cognitive inclusion, real-world application) and limitations (artificial laboratory evidence/demand characteristics, underestimating biological influences).

Paper 2 Section B

Answer all questions on Biopsychology.
3 PastPaper.question · 24 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · Short Answer
4 PastPaper.marks
With reference to synaptic transmission, explain the process of summation. (4 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Summation refers to the process by which the postsynaptic neuron integrates all the incoming excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials to determine whether an action potential will be fired. There are two main types: temporal summation and spatial summation. Temporal summation occurs when a single presynaptic neuron releases neurotransmitter multiple times in rapid succession, allowing the potentials to add together over a short period. Spatial summation occurs when multiple different presynaptic neurons release neurotransmitter simultaneously at different locations on the postsynaptic membrane, combining their effects. If the overall net input (excitatory minus inhibitory) exceeds the postsynaptic neuron's threshold of excitation, an action potential is generated.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award 1 mark for each of the following points up to a maximum of 4 marks: 1 mark for defining summation as the combining/addition of excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials to determine if a threshold is met. 1 mark for explaining temporal summation as multiple impulses arriving in rapid succession from a single presynaptic neuron. 1 mark for explaining spatial summation as multiple impulses arriving simultaneously from different presynaptic neurons. 1 mark for stating that an action potential is generated only if the net sum of these inputs exceeds the excitation threshold of the postsynaptic neuron.
PastPaper.question 2 · Short Answer
4 PastPaper.marks
Eleanor suffered a stroke that damaged her left motor cortex, causing paralysis in her right arm. After intensive rehabilitation, she regained significant movement in that arm. Explain how functional recovery of the brain may account for Eleanor's recovery. (4 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Functional recovery is a form of plasticity where the brain redistributes or transfers functions from a damaged area to undamaged areas following trauma. In Eleanor's case, neural reorganization can occur to bypass the damaged left motor cortex. One key mechanism is axonal sprouting, where surviving neurons grow new nerve endings to connect with other undamaged cells, forming new neural pathways to restore control over her right arm. Another mechanism is the recruitment of homologous (similar) areas, meaning the equivalent motor cortex area in her undamaged right hemisphere takes over the functions previously performed by the damaged left hemisphere, allowing her to regain movement.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award marks as follows: 1 mark for defining functional recovery as the brain's ability to redistribute/transfer functions from damaged to undamaged areas. 1 mark for referring to neural plasticity, structural reorganization, or rebuilding of pathways. 1 mark for explaining a specific structural mechanism, such as axonal sprouting (undamaged axons growing new connections) or denervation supersensitivity. 1 mark for explaining the recruitment of homologous areas (using the corresponding area on the opposite, undamaged hemisphere, i.e., the right motor cortex). Note: Maximum of 3 marks if there is no explicit application to Eleanor (e.g., reference to her stroke, right arm, or regaining movement).
PastPaper.question 3 · Essay
16 PastPaper.marks
Elena suffered a stroke that damaged her left hemisphere, resulting in difficulties speaking and moving her right arm. Over several months of intensive physical and speech therapy, Elena showed significant recovery in both her speech and her motor skills. Discuss plasticity and functional recovery of the brain after trauma. Refer to Elena's case in your answer.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

AO1: Brain plasticity refers to the brain's ability to modify its own structure and function as a result of experience and learning. This includes synaptic pruning, where rarely used connections are deleted and frequently used connections are strengthened. Functional recovery is a form of plasticity that occurs following damage through trauma, such as a stroke. The brain is able to redistribute or transfer functions from damaged areas to undamaged areas. This occurs through structural changes including: 1) Axonal sprouting: the growth of new nerve endings which connect with other undamaged nerve cells to form new neuronal pathways. 2) Reformation of blood vessels to support the new pathways. 3) Recruitment of homologous (similar) areas on the opposite side of the brain to perform specific tasks.

AO2: Elena's left-hemisphere damage explains her initial symptoms. Speech centers (Broca's and Wernicke's areas) are typically located in the left hemisphere, which is why her speech was affected. The motor cortex in the left hemisphere controls voluntary movement on the right side of the body, explaining her right-arm weakness. Elena's recovery during physical and speech therapy is an example of functional recovery. This active rehabilitation stimulated her brain to reorganize. For her speech, homologous areas in her undamaged right hemisphere may have taken over speech production. For her arm movement, axonal sprouting and the recruitment of adjacent, undamaged areas in her left motor cortex likely helped rebuild the motor pathways.

AO3: Evaluation of plasticity and functional recovery: 1) Practical application: Understanding the mechanisms of functional recovery led to the development of neurorehabilitation. This includes therapies like constraint-induced movement therapy, helping patients like Elena recover. 2) Cognitive reserve: Schneider et al. (2014) found that patients with a college education (16+ years) were seven times more likely to be disability-free one year post-brain injury than those who did not finish high school, suggesting cognitive reserve plays a massive role in recovery. 3) Negative plasticity: Reorganization can sometimes have maladaptive consequences, such as phantom limb syndrome in amputees, or stroke-induced motor deficits worsening due to learned non-use. 4) Age differences: While younger brains show greater plasticity, research (e.g., Bezzola et al., 2011) shows that older adults can still demonstrate neural changes after intensive training, meaning recovery is possible at any age but may vary in rate.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Marks are awarded across three assessment objectives: AO1 (6 marks), AO2 (4 marks), and AO3 (6 marks).

Level 4 (13-16 marks): Knowledge of plasticity and functional recovery is accurate and detailed. Application to Elena is appropriate and explicitly linked to biological processes. Evaluation is thorough, balanced, and effective. The essay is well-structured and uses specialist terminology appropriately.

Level 3 (9-12 marks): Knowledge is mostly accurate. Application to Elena is mostly appropriate, though there may be minor omissions. Evaluation is mostly effective. Some evidence of organization and appropriate terminology.

Level 2 (5-8 marks): Knowledge is limited or basic. Application to Elena is limited, superficial, or lacks biological depth. Evaluation is limited and may lack focus. Terminology may be missing or used incorrectly.

Level 1 (1-4 marks): Knowledge is disjointed and anecdotal. Application and evaluation are extremely limited or absent.

Paper 2 Section C

Answer all questions on Research Methods.
15 PastPaper.question · 48 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · multiple_choice
3 PastPaper.marks
A psychologist investigates whether there is a correlation between the number of text messages sent per day and self-esteem scores (measured on a scale of 1 to 50, which is treated as ordinal data). Which statistical test should the psychologist use to analyse this data?
  1. A.Chi-Square test of association
  2. B.Spearman's rho
  3. C.Wilcoxon signed-ranks test
  4. D.Pearson's r
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

To select the correct statistical test, the researcher must identify: 1. The hypothesis type (test of relationship/correlation). 2. The experimental design (not applicable here as it is a correlation). 3. The level of measurement (ordinal data). A Spearman's rank correlation coefficient (Spearman's rho) is the appropriate non-parametric test for determining a correlation between two variables when at least one variable is measured at the ordinal level.

PastPaper.markingScheme

3 marks for the correct option (B).
0 marks for any incorrect option.
PastPaper.question 2 · multiple_choice
3 PastPaper.marks
A researcher conducts a study on a new cognitive therapy and finds a statistically significant improvement in anxiety levels (p < 0.05). However, in reality, the therapy has no actual effect on anxiety. Which of the following is correct regarding the type of error made?
  1. A.The researcher made a Type I error because they rejected a true null hypothesis.
  2. B.The researcher made a Type II error because they accepted a false null hypothesis.
  3. C.The researcher made a Type I error because they accepted a false null hypothesis.
  4. D.The researcher made a Type II error because they rejected a true null hypothesis.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

A Type I error occurs when a researcher rejects a null hypothesis that is actually true (also known as a false positive). In this scenario, the researcher claimed there was a significant effect (rejecting the null hypothesis) when in reality the therapy has no effect (the null hypothesis is true).

PastPaper.markingScheme

3 marks for the correct option (A).
0 marks for any incorrect option.
PastPaper.question 3 · multiple_choice
3 PastPaper.marks
A researcher wants to obtain a sample of 50 students from a college containing 1000 students. She obtains an alphabetical list of all students, assigns each a number from 1 to 1000, and uses a random number generator to select 50 numbers. Which type of sampling is this, and what is a limitation of this method?
  1. A.Systematic sampling; it can be biased if there is a recurring pattern in the population list.
  2. B.Stratified sampling; it is highly time-consuming to calculate the exact proportions of subgroups.
  3. C.Random sampling; it may still result in an unrepresentative sample of key subgroups by chance.
  4. D.Opportunity sampling; it lacks population validity because it only selects those available at the time.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Using a random number generator to select participants from a complete target population list is random sampling. While it is unbiased, a key limitation is that by chance, the final sample may still not be representative of key subgroups within the population (e.g., electing too many students from one year group).

PastPaper.markingScheme

3 marks for the correct option (C).
0 marks for any incorrect option.
PastPaper.question 4 · multiple_choice
3 PastPaper.marks
A researcher studies children's sharing behaviour in a nursery. She watches the play area for 10 minutes every hour and records every single instance of sharing that occurs during those 10-minute blocks. What combination of observational sampling methods is she using?
  1. A.Event sampling during specific time sampling intervals
  2. B.Continuous time sampling only
  3. C.Unstructured event sampling
  4. D.Questionnaire-based time sampling
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

The researcher is using time sampling because observations only take place at specific, pre-determined time intervals (10 minutes every hour). Within those intervals, she is using event sampling because she records every occurrence of the target behavior (sharing) as it happens.

PastPaper.markingScheme

3 marks for the correct option (A).
0 marks for any incorrect option.
PastPaper.question 5 · multiple_choice
3 PastPaper.marks
An experimenter wants to compare the effectiveness of two memory strategies. To control for individual participant variables without requiring a very large participant pool, which of the following experimental designs would be most appropriate, and what is its main limitation?
  1. A.Independent groups design; the main limitation is the risk of order effects.
  2. B.Repeated measures design; the main limitation is the risk of order effects.
  3. C.Matched pairs design; the main limitation is the need for a very small sample size.
  4. D.Repeated measures design; the main limitation is the requirement of extensive participant pre-testing.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

A repeated measures design uses the same participants in both conditions, which perfectly controls for individual participant variables (like baseline memory ability) and requires fewer participants than an independent groups design. However, its main limitation is order effects (fatigue, practice, or boredom), as participants perform both tasks.

PastPaper.markingScheme

3 marks for the correct option (B).
0 marks for any incorrect option.
PastPaper.question 6 · multiple_choice
3 PastPaper.marks
A psychologist designs a new questionnaire to measure stress. To assess its reliability, they administer the questionnaire to the same group of 30 participants on two occasions, two weeks apart, and find a correlation coefficient of r = +0.85. What type of reliability is being assessed, and what does this coefficient indicate?
  1. A.Inter-observer reliability; the coefficient indicates low reliability.
  2. B.Test-retest reliability; the coefficient indicates high reliability.
  3. C.Split-half reliability; the coefficient indicates acceptable reliability.
  4. D.Concurrent validity; the coefficient indicates high validity.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Administering the same test to the same participants on two separate occasions is the test-retest method. A correlation coefficient of +0.80 or higher indicates high, acceptable reliability. Therefore, a coefficient of +0.85 shows that the stress questionnaire has high reliability.

PastPaper.markingScheme

3 marks for the correct option (B).
0 marks for any incorrect option.
PastPaper.question 7 · multiple_choice
3 PastPaper.marks
Which of the following best describes the 'empirical method' in psychological research?
  1. A.The process of developing abstract theories based purely on logical reasoning and philosophical debate.
  2. B.The collection of data through direct, sensory observation and measurement rather than belief or argument.
  3. C.The practice of keeping researcher expectations secret from the participants to reduce investigator effects.
  4. D.The statistical verification of qualitative data by translating it into numerical scores.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Empiricism refers to the belief that knowledge should be acquired through direct, objective observation and physical measurement rather than through unfounded beliefs, intuition, or logical argument alone.

PastPaper.markingScheme

3 marks for the correct option (B).
0 marks for any incorrect option.
PastPaper.question 8 · multiple_choice
3 PastPaper.marks
A researcher wants to conduct a content analysis of representations of mental illness in popular newspapers over the last decade. Which of the following lists the correct order of steps the researcher should take?
  1. A.Collect the newspapers, decide on coding categories, read the material, tally the occurrences of categories, and analyse the quantitative data.
  2. B.Formulate a hypothesis, interview newspaper editors, transcribe the interviews, perform thematic analysis, and write a report.
  3. C.Choose a statistical test, gather the raw data, calculate the mean and standard deviation, and accept or reject the null hypothesis.
  4. D.Select the media, perform a pilot study to establish reliability, conduct a thematic analysis, and convert all data into a case study.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

The correct process for content analysis involves: 1. Identifying and collecting the media/material. 2. Developing coding categories based on the material. 3. Systematically reading/watching the material and tallying the occurrences of these categories (quantitative data). 4. Analysing the resulting data to draw conclusions.

PastPaper.markingScheme

3 marks for the correct option (A).
0 marks for any incorrect option.
PastPaper.question 9 · multiple choice
3 PastPaper.marks
A psychologist wants to investigate the effect of sleep deprivation on reaction times. Group A stays awake for 24 hours, while Group B is allowed to sleep for their normal 8 hours. Both groups are then tested on a computerised reaction time task. Which of the following correctly identifies the independent variable (IV), the dependent variable (DV), and the experimental design of this study?
  1. A.IV = reaction times on the computerised task; DV = amount of sleep (deprived vs normal sleep); Design = repeated measures.
  2. B.IV = amount of sleep (deprived vs normal sleep); DV = reaction times on the computerised task; Design = independent groups.
  3. C.IV = amount of sleep (deprived vs normal sleep); DV = reaction times on the computerised task; Design = matched pairs.
  4. D.IV = reaction times on the computerised task; DV = amount of sleep (deprived vs normal sleep); Design = independent groups.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

The independent variable (IV) is the variable manipulated by the researcher, which is the amount of sleep (deprived vs normal sleep). The dependent variable (DV) is what is measured to assess the effect of the IV, which is the reaction times on the computerised task. The experimental design is independent groups because different participants are allocated to two separate conditions (Group A and Group B).

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award 3 marks for selecting option b. Award 0 marks for any other option.
PastPaper.question 10 · multiple choice
3 PastPaper.marks
A researcher wants to test for a correlation between the number of hours spent on social media per day and self-reported anxiety scores (measured on an interval scale of 1 to 50) in a sample of 30 university students. The data is found to be normally distributed. Which statistical test is the most appropriate for this data, and why?
  1. A.Spearman's rho, because the study is investigating a relationship and the data is non-parametric.
  2. B.Pearson's r, because the study is investigating a relationship, uses interval-level data, and satisfies the assumption of normality.
  3. C.Chi-square, because the researcher is looking for an association between nominal categories of social media use and anxiety.
  4. D.Related t-test, because the study is looking for a difference between two related conditions using interval data.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Pearson's r is the most appropriate statistical test because the researcher is investigating a relationship/correlation between two co-variables (hours on social media and anxiety scores), the data meets the criteria for interval-level measurement, and because the data is normally distributed, it satisfies the requirements for a parametric test.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award 3 marks for selecting option b. Award 0 marks for any other option.
PastPaper.question 11 · multiple choice
3 PastPaper.marks
An educational psychologist wants to assess the reliability of a new reading comprehension test she has designed for primary school children. Which of the following methods describes the best way to assess the external reliability of this test, and how should she interpret the results?
  1. A.Use the split-half method by comparing scores on the first half of the test to the second half; a correlation of +0.30 or above indicates high reliability.
  2. B.Administer the test to the same group of children on two separate occasions (test-retest); a correlation coefficient of +0.80 or above indicates high reliability.
  3. C.Have two different teachers mark the same test (inter-rater reliability); a negative correlation coefficient indicates high consistency.
  4. D.Conduct a pilot study with a different age group and look for a face validity coefficient of +0.50.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

External reliability refers to the consistency of a measure over time. The test-retest method assesses this by administering the same test to the same participants on two separate occasions. If the test is reliable, there should be a strong positive correlation between the two sets of scores. In psychological testing, a correlation coefficient of \(r \ge +0.80\) is typically required to indicate high reliability.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award 3 marks for selecting option b. Award 0 marks for any other option.
PastPaper.question 12 · multiple choice
3 PastPaper.marks
A researcher is planning a naturalistic, covert observation of helping behaviour in a busy city centre. To ensure the study is ethical, which of the following actions should the researcher prioritize?
  1. A.Obtain prior informed consent from every pedestrian before they enter the city centre observation zone.
  2. B.Ensure that participants are fully debriefed individually immediately after their helping behaviour is observed, regardless of whether it causes embarrassment.
  3. C.Ensure that observations only occur in public spaces where people would expect to be seen by others, and maintain complete anonymity of all participants.
  4. D.Deceive the participants by staging a highly distressing physical medical emergency to see who helps, then leaving without a debrief.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

According to ethical guidelines (such as those from the BPS), observational research is only acceptable without prior consent in public situations where those observed would expect to be seen by others. Additionally, maintaining complete anonymity of participants is essential to protect their privacy and ensure no harm or embarrassment comes to them.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award 3 marks for selecting option c. Award 0 marks for any other option.
PastPaper.question 13 · Applied Design
4 PastPaper.marks
A psychologist wants to conduct a structured observation to investigate cooperative play in preschool children during free-play time at a nursery. Explain how the researcher could design and use a behavioural checklist for this observation. Your answer should include examples of behavioural categories. (4 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

To design and use a behavioural checklist for this study, the researcher should: 1. Define behavioural categories: Create specific, objective, and non-overlapping categories of 'cooperative play'. For example, 'sharing a toy with another child' and 'taking turns on a play apparatus' (such as a slide). 2. Determine the sampling method: Use event sampling, where the observer watches the children and records a tally mark on the checklist every single time one of these target behaviours occurs during a 10-minute free-play session. 3. Ensure reliability: Use two independent observers who are both trained on the checklist. They will observe the same children simultaneously and compare their tallies using a correlation test (such as Spearman's rho) to ensure inter-observer reliability.

PastPaper.markingScheme

**4 marks** for a clear, coherent, and fully detailed explanation of how to design and use the checklist, containing all key elements (categories, sampling method, reliability, and application). **3 marks** for an explanation that covers most elements well but may lack detail in one area (e.g., reliability is omitted but categories and sampling are clear). **2 marks** for a basic explanation that outlines categories and/or a sampling method but lacks clear application or procedural detail. **1 mark** for a very basic or vague point, such as simply naming a category or event sampling without explanation.
PastPaper.question 14 · Applied Design
4 PastPaper.marks
A psychologist wants to investigate academic stress in a local sixth-form college. The college has 600 students in total across Year 12 and Year 13. Explain how the psychologist could obtain a random sample of 30 students from this college population. (4 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

To obtain a random sample, the researcher should follow these steps: 1. Obtain the sampling frame: Request a complete list/register of all 600 students currently enrolled in Year 12 and Year 13 from the college administration. 2. Assign numbers: Give every student on this list a unique number from 1 to 600. 3. Generate random numbers: Use a computer program, random number generator app, or a random number table to generate 30 numbers between 1 and 600. (Alternatively, place 600 numbered slips of paper in a hat and draw 30 out). 4. Select the sample: Match the generated numbers to the corresponding students on the list to form the sample of 30 participants. If any duplicates are generated, ignore them and generate another number until 30 unique students are selected.

PastPaper.markingScheme

**4 marks** for a clear, sequential, and accurate explanation of how to obtain the random sample, containing all four steps (sampling frame, numbering, random tool, selection of participants). **3 marks** for a good explanation that misses one minor detail (e.g., does not mention handling duplicate numbers or does not explicitly state the source of the 600 names). **2 marks** for a basic description of random sampling (e.g., 'put names in a hat and pull out 30' without linking to the 600-student context or detailed steps). **1 mark** for a very brief or muddled response showing basic awareness of random sampling.
PastPaper.question 15 · Applied Design
4 PastPaper.marks
A researcher is planning a laboratory experiment to investigate the effect of caffeine on concentration. Participants in the experimental group will drink a caffeinated energy drink, while those in the control group will drink an identical-looking decaffeinated drink. Both groups will then complete a 5-minute proofreading task. Write a set of standardised instructions that the researcher could read aloud to the participants before the experiment begins. (4 marks)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

An example of suitable standardised instructions is: 'Welcome and thank you for participating in this study. In a moment, you will be given a cup containing a beverage. Please drink the entire contents of the cup. After drinking, we will ask you to sit quietly and relax for 15 minutes to allow the beverage to take effect. Following this, you will be handed a document to proofread, and you will have exactly 5 minutes to find and circle as many spelling mistakes as you can. Before we begin, please note that your participation is entirely voluntary. You have the right to withdraw from the study at any point without giving a reason, and all your data will be kept completely confidential and anonymous. Do you have any questions before we start?'

PastPaper.markingScheme

**4 marks** for a highly appropriate, clear, and comprehensive set of standardised instructions written in direct speech. It must cover: what the participant must do (drink, wait, proofread), ethical information (right to withdraw/confidentiality), standard format/asking for questions, and clear application to the scenario. **3 marks** for a good set of instructions that covers most of the above points but may omit one minor element (e.g., fails to mention the waiting time or ethical rights, or is not fully written in direct speech). **2 marks** for a basic set of instructions that outlines the task but lacks standardised phrasing, ethical rights, or key procedural steps. **1 mark** for a very brief, disjointed, or inappropriate set of instructions.

Paper 3 Section A

Answer all questions on Issues and debates.
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PastPaper.question 1 · Short Answer
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Explain how an idiographic approach to psychological investigation can complement a nomothetic approach.
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PastPaper.workedSolution

An idiographic approach focuses on the unique, subjective experience of the individual, gathering rich qualitative data. This complements the nomothetic approach, which seeks to establish general laws and quantitative benchmarks across populations. By focusing on the individual, researchers can identify limitations in general laws (falsification) or generate novel hypotheses for future nomothetic testing, thus enriching overall psychological understanding.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award 1 mark for each of the following points:
- Up to 1 mark for explaining that the idiographic approach provides rich, qualitative, or detailed individual insights that can challenge or falsify general laws/nomothetic principles.
- Up to 1 mark for explaining that it can reveal exceptions to nomothetic rules (showing how individuals may differ from the average).
- Up to 1 mark for explaining that idiographic findings can act as a catalyst/starting point for generating new hypotheses that can be tested nomothetically.
PastPaper.question 2 · Short Answer
3 PastPaper.marks
Dr. Sterling argues that violent behaviour is entirely determined by an individual's genetic predisposition and neurochemistry. Explain how Dr. Sterling’s view represents hard determinism. Refer to the scenario in your answer.
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PastPaper.workedSolution

Hard determinism (or fatalism) is the stance that all human behaviour has a cause and that free will is an illusion. Dr. Sterling's claim that violence is 'entirely determined' by genetics and neurochemistry illustrates this, as it suggests individuals have no free will or personal agency. Furthermore, his focus on genetic predisposition and neurochemistry indicates a specific biological hard determinism.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award 1 mark for each of the following points:
- 1 mark for a clear definition of hard determinism (the view that all human behaviour has a cause, is predictable, and that free will is impossible/an illusion).
- 1 mark for applying this definition to the scenario (explaining that Dr. Sterling assumes violent behaviour is completely dictated by biology, leaving no room for personal choice or conscious control).
- 1 mark for identifying this specifically as a form of biological determinism or explaining the absolute, fatalistic nature of his claim (using the word 'entirely').
PastPaper.question 3 · Short Answer
3 PastPaper.marks
Outline what is meant by 'socially sensitive research' and explain one reason why psychological researchers should not simply avoid conducting it.
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PastPaper.workedSolution

Socially sensitive research involves areas of study that are controversial or have potential negative implications for the target group. Despite the risks, researchers must conduct this research to ensure that key societal issues (such as educational inequality, crime, or mental health) are understood scientifically rather than left to media bias or political speculation. This allows for evidence-based interventions and policy-making.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award up to 3 marks as follows:
- 1 mark for outlining what is meant by socially sensitive research (must mention the potential social consequences, implications, or fallout for participants or the wider group they represent).
- 1 mark for a basic reason why researchers should not avoid it (e.g., because it provides valuable insights into important societal issues or informs social policy).
- 1 mark for elaboration of the reason (e.g., explaining that avoiding it would leave policy-making to be guided by prejudice or anecdotal evidence rather than empirical data, or that it is the duty of scientists to represent marginalized groups objectively).
PastPaper.question 4 · Essay
16 PastPaper.marks
Discuss idiographic and nomothetic approaches to psychological investigation. Refer to examples of both approaches in your answer. (16 marks)
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PastPaper.workedSolution

AO1: The idiographic approach focuses on the individual as a unique entity, emphasizing subjective experiences rather than formulating general laws. It uses qualitative research methods, such as case studies, unstructured interviews, and thematic analysis. An example is the Humanistic approach, which focuses on the unique potential of the self, or Freud's use of case studies like Little Hans to understand phobias. Conversely, the nomothetic approach aims to establish general laws of human behaviour by studying large groups of people. It relies on quantitative research methods, including structured lab experiments and statistical tests. Examples include the Biological approach, which explains behaviour through universal biological mechanisms like neurotransmitter imbalances, and the Behaviourist approach, which utilizes classical and operant conditioning to formulate general laws of learning. AO3: A strength of the nomothetic approach is its scientific credibility. By using standardized, controlled procedures, it allows for replication and objective testing, aligning psychology with the natural sciences. However, it can lose the 'whole person' by focusing on generalities, such as knowing a statistical probability of a mental health condition without understanding the individual's lived experience. Conversely, the idiographic approach provides deep, rich qualitative insights that can challenge general theories or prompt further research. For example, the detailed case study of patient HM challenged multi-store models of memory, showing that short-term and long-term memory are distinct. However, the idiographic approach is often criticized for being unscientific and highly subjective, as findings from a single case study cannot be generalized to the wider population. Ultimately, both approaches can be seen as complementary rather than mutually exclusive; modern psychology often integrates both, establishing general laws while using qualitative methods to explore individual nuances.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Level 4 (13-16 marks): Knowledge of both idiographic and nomothetic approaches and their examples is accurate and detailed. Discussion of both approaches is thorough, balanced, and highly effective. The response is well-structured and uses clear, appropriate psychological terminology. Level 3 (9-12 marks): Knowledge is mostly accurate and reasonably detailed. Discussion of both approaches is present and mostly effective, though it may lack balance. The response is generally well-structured. Level 2 (5-8 marks): Knowledge of one or both approaches is basic or limited. Discussion is superficial, descriptive, or unbalanced. Level 1 (1-4 marks): Knowledge is extremely limited, fragmented, or contains major inaccuracies. Discussion is absent, highly confused, or direct relevance is missing. 0 marks: No relevant content. AO1 (6 marks): Awarded for accurate description of the idiographic and nomothetic approaches and relevant examples. AO3 (10 marks): Awarded for effective analysis, evaluation, and comparison of the approaches, including their strengths, limitations, and how they can be combined.

Paper 3 Options

Answer all questions from one chosen topic in each of Sections B, C, and D.
4 PastPaper.question · 24 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · Short Answer
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Leo is often described as a thrill-seeker who acts on impulse without thinking about the consequences. He struggles to learn from his mistakes and rarely feels guilty when he hurts others.

Explain how Eysenck's theory of the criminal personality could account for Leo's behaviour.
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PastPaper.workedSolution

According to Eysenck's theory, the criminal personality type is characterized by high scores on three dimensions: Extraversion (E), Neuroticism (N), and Psychoticism (P), which have a biological basis in the nervous system.

- **Extraversion (E) and thrill-seeking**: Leo's impulsivity and thrill-seeking suggest high Extraversion. Eysenck argued that extraverts have an under-active nervous system (specifically the reticular activating system), meaning they constantly seek stimulation and thrills to increase cortical arousal.
- **Psychoticism (P) and lack of guilt**: Leo's lack of guilt and empathy when hurting others aligns with high Psychoticism. Individuals high in Psychoticism are characterised as cold, unemotional, and aggressive.
- **Difficulty learning from mistakes (Socialisation)**: Eysenck proposed that people with high E and N scores are harder to condition. In normal development, children learn to associate antisocial behavior with anxiety/punishment. Because Leo's nervous system makes conditioning difficult, he has not learned to avoid antisocial actions or feel guilt, leading to his failure to learn from consequences.

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**Marks allocation:**
- **3-4 marks**: Clear, coherent, and detailed explanation of how Eysenck's theory accounts for Leo's behaviour. Correctly links Leo's specific traits (thrill-seeking, impulsivity, lack of guilt, inability to learn) to relevant dimensions of Eysenck's theory (Extraversion, Psychoticism, and the role of social conditioning/nervous system).
- **1-2 marks**: Vague or incomplete explanation of Eysenck's theory in relation to Leo. May identify dimensions like Extraversion or Psychoticism but fail to clearly apply them to the scenario, or omit the biological/conditioning explanation.

**Possible points of application to Leo:**
- **Extraversion**: Leo's 'thrill-seeking' and 'impulsivity' represent high Extraversion, driven by an under-aroused nervous system which requires him to seek risk-taking behaviours to increase cortical arousal.
- **Psychoticism**: Leo's 'rarely feeling guilty' and lack of empathy towards others represent high Psychoticism, a trait linked to high levels of testosterone and characterised by coldness and egocentrism.
- **Social Conditioning**: Leo's 'struggle to learn from his mistakes' can be explained by Eysenck's view on socialisation. Individuals with high E/N scores have nervous systems that are highly resistant to operant and classical conditioning, meaning they do not easily associate anxiety with antisocial behaviour and thus fail to learn social rules.
PastPaper.question 2 · Short Answer
4 PastPaper.marks
Briefly outline the difference between hyperdopaminergia and hypodopaminergia as biological explanations for schizophrenia.
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PastPaper.workedSolution

The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia has evolved from focusing solely on excess dopamine to recognizing regional variations in dopamine activity:

1. **Hyperdopaminergia (High Dopamine)**:
- Refers to an excess of dopamine activity or an overabundance of dopamine receptors (particularly D2 receptors) in the subcortical regions of the brain (e.g., the limbic system/mesolimbic pathway).
- This is linked to **positive symptoms** of schizophrenia, such as auditory hallucinations and delusions of grandeur.

2. **Hypodopaminergia (Low Dopamine)**:
- Refers to a deficit of dopamine activity in the cortex, specifically the prefrontal cortex (mesocortical pathway).
- This is linked to **negative symptoms** of schizophrenia, such as avolition (lack of motivation), alogia (poverty of speech), and cognitive deficits.

PastPaper.markingScheme

**Marks allocation:**
- **3-4 marks**: Clear and accurate outline of both terms, with explicit comparison/difference established. Correctly identifies the brain regions involved (subcortical/limbic vs. prefrontal cortex/cortical) and the corresponding symptoms (positive vs. negative).
- **1-2 marks**: Basic or confused outline. May only describe one of the terms accurately, or fail to clearly distinguish between the brain regions and symptoms associated with each.

**Key differences to look for:**
- **Dopamine activity levels**: Hyper = high/excess activity; Hypo = low/deficient activity.
- **Brain locations**: Hyper is subcortical (e.g., limbic system / Broca's area); Hypo is cortical (specifically prefrontal cortex).
- **Symptom classification**: Hyper is associated with positive symptoms (e.g., hallucinations); Hypo is associated with negative symptoms (e.g., avolition, cognitive dysfunction).
PastPaper.question 3 · Essay
8 PastPaper.marks
Discuss psychological explanations of virtual relationships in social media. (8 marks)
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PastPaper.workedSolution

AO1: Students should describe explanations of virtual relationships. Key areas include: 1. Reduced Cues Theory (Sproull and Kiesler): Suggests computer-mediated communication (CMC) relationships are less effective than face-to-face (FtF) because they lack non-verbal cues (e.g., facial expressions, tone of voice). This leads to de-individuation and disinhibition, making communication blunt or aggressive, reducing the likelihood of deep self-disclosure. 2. The Hyperpersonal Model (Walther): Argues CMC relationships can be more personal and involve greater self-disclosure than FtF. This is because senders have more time to manipulate their online image (selective self-presentation) and self-disclosure can happen more quickly. However, these relationships can also end more quickly (the 'boom and bust' phenomenon). 3. Absence of Gating (McKenna and Bargh): Gating refers to obstacles like physical appearance, stammering, or social anxiety that limit face-to-face relationships. Online, these gates are absent, allowing relationships to develop rapidly based on personal attraction rather than superficial factors. AO3: Students should evaluate these explanations. 1. Research Support: Whitty and Joinson (2009) support the hyperpersonal model, finding that online communication involves highly direct, intimate, and probing questions, unlike face-to-face conversations which tend to start with small talk. 2. Criticism of Reduced Cues: Walther and Tidwell (1995) argue that cues are not absent in CMC, but simply different (e.g., emoticons, acronyms like LOL, and response times). This suggests the reduced cues theory may be outdated and overly simplistic. 3. Support for Absence of Gating: McKenna and Bargh (2000) found that lonely and socially anxious people were able to express their 'true selves' more easily online, and 70% of relationships formed online lasted more than two years, which is higher than face-to-face equivalents. 4. Multimodal Nature of Relationships: Modern relationships are rarely purely online or purely offline; instead, they are 'multimodal' (Walther, 2011). Explanations that treat CMC in isolation may lack validity in the real world.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Marks: [7-8] Level 4: Knowledge of explanations of virtual relationships is accurate and detailed. Evaluation is effective and well-developed. The answer is clear, coherent, and well-structured. [5-6] Level 3: Knowledge is mostly accurate/detailed. Evaluation is mostly effective with some appropriate evidence used. The answer is mostly structured and coherent. [3-4] Level 2: Knowledge is present but has gaps/inaccuracies. Evaluation is limited or lacks depth. Structure is weak. [1-2] Level 1: Knowledge is basic, fragmented, or highly inaccurate. Evaluation is minimal or absent. Coherence is poor. [0] No relevant content. AO1 (4 marks): Award marks for accurate description of reduced cues theory, hyperpersonal model, and/or absence of gating. AO3 (4 marks): Award marks for evaluation of these explanations using research support, opposing models, or methodological critique.
PastPaper.question 4 · Essay
8 PastPaper.marks
Discuss cognitive distortions as an explanation for offending behaviour. (8 marks)
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PastPaper.workedSolution

AO1: Students should describe cognitive distortions as they relate to offending behaviour. 1. Definition: Cognitive distortions are biased, irrational, or faulty ways of thinking that lead us to perceive ourselves, others, or the world inaccurately. In offenders, these biases are used to justify or rationalize criminal acts. 2. Hostile Attribution Bias: The tendency to misinterpret ambiguous situations, cues, or actions of others as hostile, confrontational, or aggressive when they are not. This cognitive bias often leads to an aggressive or violent response, which the offender believes is self-defense or justified. 3. Minimalisation (or Minimisation): An attempt to downplay, deny, or minimize the seriousness of an offense or its consequences. This helps the offender reduce feelings of guilt or self-blame (e.g., a burglar claiming 'they have insurance so they won't lose out', or a sex offender downplaying the harm done to a victim). AO3: Students should evaluate cognitive distortions. 1. Real-World Application: Cognitive distortions have practical value in treatment. Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT) and Rehabilitation programs (like anger management or sex offender programs) specifically target cognitive distortions by challenging irrational thinking. Success in reducing these distortions is linked to lower recidivism rates. 2. Research Support: Schonenberg and Justye (2014) presented violent offenders with images of emotionally ambiguous faces. Offenders were significantly more likely to perceive these faces as angry or hostile compared to a control group, supporting hostile attribution bias. Barbaree (1991) found that among incarcerated rapists, 54% denied they had committed an offense, and 40% minimized the harm caused, supporting minimalisation. 3. Limitation - Descriptive rather than Explanatory: Cognitive distortions are excellent at describing how an offender's mind works after or during an offense, but they are less effective at explaining why the cognitive distortions developed in the first place. They do not fully explain the root causes of the criminal behaviour. 4. Alternative Explanations: Biological explanations (e.g., genetics, neural differences) or differential association theory may provide a more comprehensive account of the origins of offending behaviour.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Marks: [7-8] Level 4: Knowledge of cognitive distortions is accurate and detailed. Evaluation is effective and well-developed. The answer is clear, coherent, and well-structured. [5-6] Level 3: Knowledge is mostly accurate/detailed. Evaluation is mostly effective with some appropriate evidence used. The answer is mostly structured and coherent. [3-4] Level 2: Knowledge is present but has gaps/inaccuracies. Evaluation is limited or lacks depth. Structure is weak. [1-2] Level 1: Knowledge is basic, fragmented, or highly inaccurate. Evaluation is minimal or absent. Coherence is poor. [0] No relevant content. AO1 (4 marks): Award marks for accurate description of hostile attribution bias and minimalisation. AO3 (4 marks): Award marks for evaluation of cognitive distortions, including research support, real-world application, and theoretical limitations.

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