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Thinka Jun 2024 (V3) Cambridge International A Level-Style Mock — Accounting (9706)

90 PastPaper.marks105 PastPaper.minutes2024
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2024 (V3) Cambridge International A Level Accounting (9706) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

PastPaper.section Question 1: Financial Statements of Limited Companies

Answer all parts. Read adjustments carefully, perform ledger recalculations, prepare the Statement of Profit or Loss, and formulate advice regarding financing options.
6 PastPaper.question · 35 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · Theory
2 PastPaper.marks
Explain two reasons why ordinary share dividends paid during the financial year are not recognized as an expense in the Statement of Profit or Loss of a limited company.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Dividends do not represent a cost of operating the business or generating revenue. Instead: 1. They are an appropriation of profit, meaning they are a distribution of the net profit already earned to the owners. 2. In accordance with accounting standards, transactions with owners in their capacity as owners are excluded from the Statement of Profit or Loss and are instead shown as a movement in the Statement of Changes in Equity.

PastPaper.markingScheme

1 mark for identifying that dividends are an appropriation/distribution of profit (not an operating expense). 1 mark for identifying that dividends are transactions with owners in their capacity as owners or are disclosed in the Statement of Changes in Equity (SOCE).
PastPaper.question 2 · Gross Profit Calculation
5 PastPaper.marks
Vandyke Ltd prepared its draft financial statements for the year ended 31 December 2022, which showed a draft gross profit of $185,000. Subsequently, the following errors and omissions were discovered: 1. The closing inventory had been undervalued by $4,200. 2. Goods sent to a customer on a sale-or-return basis had been recorded as a normal credit sale for $8,000 (cost price of $5,000). At 31 December 2022, the customer had not yet indicated whether they would keep the goods. 3. Carriage inwards of $1,500 had been incorrectly recorded in the carriage outwards account. Calculate the revised gross profit for Vandyke Ltd for the year ended 31 December 2022.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

To calculate the revised gross profit, we adjust the draft gross profit of $185,000 as follows: Draft gross profit: $185,000; Add: Understatement of closing inventory: +$4,200 (increases closing inventory, which reduces cost of sales); Less: Sale-or-return revenue reversal: -$8,000 (reduces revenue); Add: Sale-or-return inventory cost: +$5,000 (increases closing inventory); Less: Carriage inwards correction: -$1,500 (carriage inwards increases cost of sales). Revised Gross Profit = $185,000 + $4,200 - $8,000 + $5,000 - $1,500 = $184,700.

PastPaper.markingScheme

1 mark for adding $4,200 for closing inventory adjustment. 1 mark for subtracting $8,000 for sale-or-return revenue. 1 mark for adding $5,000 for cost of sale-or-return goods. 1 mark for subtracting $1,500 for carriage inwards adjustment. 1 mark for final correct revised gross profit of $184,700 (or CF if previous errors are carried forward consistently).
PastPaper.question 3 · Gross Profit Calculation
5 PastPaper.marks
Vandyke Ltd prepared its draft financial statements for the year ended 31 December 2022, which showed a draft gross profit of $185,000. Subsequently, the following errors and omissions were discovered: 1. The closing inventory had been undervalued by $4,200. 2. Goods sent to a customer on a sale-or-return basis had been recorded as a normal credit sale for $8,000 (cost price of $5,000). At 31 December 2022, the customer had not yet indicated whether they would keep the goods. 3. Carriage inwards of $1,500 had been incorrectly recorded in the carriage outwards account. Calculate the revised gross profit for Vandyke Ltd for the year ended 31 December 2022.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

To calculate the revised gross profit, we adjust the draft gross profit of $185,000 as follows: Draft gross profit: $185,000; Add: Understatement of closing inventory: +$4,200 (increases closing inventory, which reduces cost of sales); Less: Sale-or-return revenue reversal: -$8,000 (reduces revenue); Add: Sale-or-return inventory cost: +$5,000 (increases closing inventory); Less: Carriage inwards correction: -$1,500 (carriage inwards increases cost of sales). Revised Gross Profit = $185,000 + $4,200 - $8,000 + $5,000 - $1,500 = $184,700.

PastPaper.markingScheme

1 mark for adding $4,200 for closing inventory adjustment. 1 mark for subtracting $8,000 for sale-or-return revenue. 1 mark for adding $5,000 for cost of sale-or-return goods. 1 mark for subtracting $1,500 for carriage inwards adjustment. 1 mark for final correct revised gross profit of $184,700 (or CF if previous errors are carried forward consistently).
PastPaper.question 4 · Statement of Profit or Loss
8 PastPaper.marks
Vanguard Retail Ltd has prepared a draft profit from operations (before interest and tax) of $145,000 for the year ended 31 December 2022.

The following information was later discovered and must be adjusted for:

1. Depreciation on administrative buildings has not yet been recorded for the year. The buildings cost $400,000, have an estimated residual value of $40,000, and an estimated useful life of 20 years. Straight-line depreciation is used.

2. A payment of $6,200 made in December 2022 for distribution costs relating to January and February 2023 was fully expensed and included in the distribution costs for the current year.

3. The company has $150,000 of 6% debentures in issue. Interest for the first six months of the year was paid and debited to finance costs. No entry has been made for the remaining six months' interest.

4. The income tax charge for the year is estimated to be $18,500.

Prepare a statement showing the revision of profit for Vanguard Retail Ltd for the year ended 31 December 2022, starting from the draft profit from operations of $145,000, to find the final profit for the year.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Here is the Statement of Profit or Loss (or statement of revised profit) for Vanguard Retail Ltd:

| Item | $ | $ | Notes / Calculation |
| :--- | :---: | :---: | :--- |
| **Draft profit from operations** | | **145,000** | Starting figure |
| Less: Depreciation on buildings | (18,000) | | \( (\$400,000 - \$40,000) / 20 \) |
| Add: Prepaid distribution costs | 6,200 | | Prepaid expenses added back to profit |
| **Adjusted profit from operations** | | **133,200** | Operating profit |
| Less: Finance costs (debenture interest) | | (9,000) | Total annual interest: \( \$150,000 \times 6\% \) |
| **Profit before tax** | | **124,200** | |
| Less: Income tax | | (18,500) | Estimated tax expense |
| **Profit for the year** | | **105,700** | Final net profit |

PastPaper.markingScheme

The 8 marks are allocated as follows:
- **1 mark** (AO1): For calculating the depreciation expense correctly: \( (\$400,000 - \$40,000) / 20 = \$18,000 \) and deducting it.
- **1 mark** (AO1): For adding back the prepaid distribution costs of $6,200.
- **1 mark** (AO2): For correctly calculating the adjusted profit from operations of $133,200 (allow follow-through on arithmetic errors).
- **1 mark** (AO1): For calculating total debenture interest of $9,000 (\( \$150,000 \times 6\% \)).
- **1 mark** (AO2): For correctly showing the full $9,000 finance cost deducted below profit from operations.
- **1 mark** (AO2): For calculating the profit before tax of $124,200.
- **1 mark** (AO1): For deducting the income tax charge of $18,500.
- **1 mark** (AO2): For calculating the final profit for the year of $105,700 (allow follow-through on previous arithmetic).
PastPaper.question 5 · Statement of Financial Position Extract
8 PastPaper.marks
The equity section of the Statement of Financial Position of Novis plc at 1 January 2022 was as follows: Ordinary shares of $0.50 each: $600,000; Share premium: $120,000; Revaluation reserve: $80,000; Retained earnings: $240,000. During the year ended 31 December 2022, the following transactions took place: 1. On 1 April 2022, the company made a 1-for-4 rights issue of ordinary shares at $0.80 per share. The issue was fully subscribed. 2. On 1 October 2022, the company made a bonus issue of 1 ordinary share for every 5 held at that date. The company's policy is to leave reserves in their most flexible form, utilizing non-distributable reserves (such as share premium) first. 3. The profit for the year ended 31 December 2022 was $115,000. 4. On 15 December 2022, a land revaluation resulted in an increase of $45,000 in the revaluation reserve. 5. An ordinary dividend of $0.05 per share on all shares in issue at that date was paid on 31 December 2022. Prepare the equity section of the Statement of Financial Position of Novis plc at 31 December 2022. Show all your workings.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Workings: 1. Shares in issue at 1 January 2022 = $600,000 / $0.50 = 1,200,000 shares. 2. Rights issue: 1,200,000 * 1/4 = 300,000 shares. Increase in Ordinary Share Capital = 300,000 * $0.50 = $150,000. Increase in Share Premium = 300,000 * ($0.80 - $0.50) = $90,000. 3. Shares in issue after rights issue = 1,200,000 + 300,000 = 1,500,000 shares. 4. Bonus issue: 1,500,000 * 1/5 = 300,000 shares. Increase in Ordinary Share Capital = 300,000 * $0.50 = $150,000. This is funded fully from Share Premium (reducing Share Premium by $150,000). 5. Shares in issue after bonus issue = 1,500,000 + 300,000 = 1,800,000 shares. 6. Dividend: 1,800,000 * $0.05 = $90,000. 7. Retained earnings: $240,000 (opening) + $115,000 (profit) - $90,000 (dividend) = $265,000. 8. Revaluation reserve: $80,000 (opening) + $45,000 (revaluation) = $125,000. 9. Share premium: $120,000 (opening) + $90,000 (rights) - $150,000 (bonus) = $60,000. 10. Ordinary shares: $600,000 (opening) + $150,000 (rights) + $150,000 (bonus) = $900,000. Equity Section of the Statement of Financial Position at 31 December 2022: Ordinary shares of $0.50 each: $900,000; Share premium: $60,000; Revaluation reserve: $125,000; Retained earnings: $265,000; Total Equity: $1,350,000.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Ordinary shares of $0.50 each: $900,000 (2 marks) [1 mark for rights issue increase of $150,000, 1 mark for bonus issue increase of $150,000]. Share premium: $60,000 (2 marks) [1 mark for rights premium of $90,000, 1 mark for bonus issue reduction of $150,000]. Revaluation reserve: $125,000 (1 mark) [1 mark for revaluation addition of $45,000]. Retained earnings: $265,000 (2 marks) [1 mark for adding profit of $115,000, 1 mark for deducting dividend of $90,000]. Total Equity: $1,350,000 (1 mark) [for correct calculation and presentational format of the total equity section]. Total: 8 marks.
PastPaper.question 6 · Written Advisory Evaluative
7 PastPaper.marks
Vanguard plc needs to raise \( \$500,000 \) to fund the expansion of its production facilities. The directors are considering two alternative sources of finance:

- Option 1: An issue of 500,000 8% non-cumulative preference shares of \( \$1 \) each at par.
- Option 2: An issue of 6% debentures at par.

Evaluate these two options and advise the directors which option they should choose to finance the expansion. Support your answer with reference to profitability, financial risk, and gearing.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

### Evaluation of Option 1: 8% Non-Cumulative Preference Shares
- **Profitability & Cash Flow**: The annual dividend obligation is \( \$40,000 \) (\( 500,000 \times \$1 \times 8\% \)). This is higher than the debenture interest, and preference dividends are not tax-deductible, meaning they must be paid out of after-tax profits.
- **Risk**: Financial risk is lower. Because the shares are non-cumulative, if the company has a poor year and lacks sufficient profits, it can choose not to pay the preference dividend without entering default.
- **Gearing & Control**: Preference shares are equity, meaning they do not increase the company's gearing ratio as much as debt, which could leave borrowing capacity open for the future. They generally do not carry voting rights, so existing ordinary shareholders' control is not diluted.

### Evaluation of Option 2: 6% Debentures
- **Profitability & Cash Flow**: The annual interest cost is \( \$30,000 \) (\( \$500,000 \times 6\% \)). This is lower than the preference dividend by \( \$10,000 \). Furthermore, interest is an expense in the Income Statement and is tax-deductible, reducing the net effective cost to the company.
- **Risk**: Financial risk is higher. Debenture interest is a fixed, legal obligation that must be paid regardless of profit levels. Failure to pay can lead to liquidation or receivership. Additionally, the principal of \( \$500,000 \) must be repaid at maturity.
- **Gearing & Control**: Issuing debentures increases non-current liabilities and therefore increases the gearing ratio, potentially making it harder or more expensive to secure loans in the future. Control is unaffected as debenture holders have no voting rights.

### Conclusion & Advice
- If Vanguard plc expects steady, predictable profits from its expansion, it should choose **Option 2 (Debentures)** to benefit from the lower cost of capital, tax efficiency, and preservation of cash.
- If the expansion's returns are uncertain or highly cyclical, the directors should choose **Option 1 (Preference Shares)** to minimize the threat of insolvency during downturns.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award marks as follows (maximum 7 marks):

**Option 1: Preference Shares (Max 3 marks)**
- (1 mark) calculation of annual dividend: \( \$40,000 \) (and/or identification that it is more expensive than Option 2).
- (1 mark) explanation of lower risk: dividends are non-cumulative/not mandatory if profits are low.
- (1 mark) discussion of tax/gearing impact: dividends are not tax-deductible OR preference shares do not increase gearing as debt would.

**Option 2: Debentures (Max 3 marks)**
- (1 mark) calculation of annual interest: \( \$30,000 \) (and/or identification that it is cheaper than Option 1).
- (1 mark) explanation of higher risk: interest is mandatory regardless of profit levels / repayment of principal at maturity.
- (1 mark) discussion of tax/gearing impact: interest is tax-deductible OR debentures increase gearing and financial risk.

**Recommendation (1 mark)**
- (1 mark) for a clear, reasoned recommendation linking to the analysis of risk vs. cost of capital.

PastPaper.section Question 2: Reconciliation and Control Accounts

Identify control account errors, correct control accounts and individual ledgers, and explain the treatment of contra entries.
3 PastPaper.question · 13 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · Benefits Listing
3 PastPaper.marks
State three benefits to a business of preparing control accounts.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Preparing control accounts provides several benefits to a business:

1. **Error Detection**: It helps identify arithmetical errors in the individual ledger accounts. This is done by comparing the balance on the control account with the total of the schedule of balances extracted from the subsidiary ledgers.
2. **Fraud Prevention**: It acts as an internal control check and deters fraud or collusion, particularly when there is a segregation of duties (i.e., the employee maintaining the control account is not the same person maintaining the individual subsidiary ledgers).
3. **Efficiency in Information Gathering**: It provides an immediate total of trade receivables or trade payables, which facilitates the rapid preparation of trial balances, draft statement of financial position, and interim financial statements without needing to list every single individual customer or supplier account balance.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award 1 mark for each valid benefit listed, up to a maximum of 3 marks:

- Helps to detect/locate errors in the subsidiary ledgers (1 mark)
- Acts as an internal check / deters fraud through segregation of duties (1 mark)
- Provides a quick/immediate total of trade receivables or trade payables (1 mark)
- Verifies the arithmetical accuracy of the subsidiary ledgers (1 mark)
- Assists in the quick preparation of the trial balance or draft financial statements (1 mark)

(Maximum 3 marks)
PastPaper.question 2 · structured
4 PastPaper.marks
The trade payables control account of a business had a draft credit balance of $12,400. The total of the list of balances from the purchases ledger did not agree with this amount.

Upon investigation, the following errors were discovered:

1. The purchases journal was undercast by $200.
2. A contra entry of $350 with the trade receivables control account was entered in the individual supplier's ledger account but omitted from the control account.
3. A payment of $180 to a supplier was recorded in the cash book, but no entry had been made in the supplier's individual ledger account.
4. Discounts received of $90 were entered on the credit side of the trade payables control account instead of the debit side.

Calculate the corrected trade payables control account balance.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

To find the corrected trade payables control account balance, we adjust the draft balance for errors that affect the control account itself:

* **Draft Balance**: $12,400 (Cr)
* **Error 1 (Undercast purchases journal)**: Since the purchases journal total is posted to the credit side of the control account, an undercast means the control account is understated on the credit side. To correct this, we add (credit) $200.
* **Error 2 (Contra entry omitted)**: A contra entry reduces trade payables and should be debited to the control account. Since it was omitted, we debit the control account by $350.
* **Error 3 (Omission in individual ledger)**: This error only affected the individual supplier's account in the purchases ledger. It does not affect the control account. (No adjustment needed)
* **Error 4 (Discounts received incorrectly credited)**: Discounts received should be debited to the control account. Since $90 was incorrectly credited, we must debit the account by $180 (double the amount) to correct the error.

**Calculation:**
\(\text{Corrected Balance} = \$12,400 + \$200 - \$350 - \$180 = \$12,070\)

PastPaper.markingScheme

* 1 mark for adding $200 for the undercast purchases journal (Error 1).
* 1 mark for subtracting $350 for the contra entry (Error 2).
* 1 mark for identifying that the individual supplier ledger omission (Error 3) has no effect on the control account.
* 1 mark for subtracting $180 to correct the discounts received error (Error 4).
PastPaper.question 3 · Correction Table - Trade Receivables
6 PastPaper.marks
Elara Limited's draft accounting records showed a trade receivables control account balance of $34,150 and a total of customer balances in the sales ledger of $35,120 at 30 April 2024. The following errors were later discovered:

1. A credit sale of $680 to Customer X was correctly entered in the sales day book but posted to Customer X's account in the sales ledger as $860.
2. A contra entry of $450 with a supplier's account in the purchase ledger had been correctly recorded in the sales ledger but completely omitted from the Trade Receivables Control Account.
3. A discount allowed of $120 had been entered on the debit side of the customer's account in the sales ledger. It had been correctly recorded in the cash book and control account.
4. The total of the sales day book was undercast by $1,000.

Required:

(a) Prepare a statement to reconcile the Trade Receivables Control Account balance and the total of the Sales Ledger balances, showing the corrected balances.

(b) State how and why a contra entry is recorded in both the Trade Receivables Control Account and the Trade Payables Control Account.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

### Part (a) Statement of Reconciliation

| Adjustment Description | Trade Receivables Control Account ($) | Sales Ledger Balances ($) |
| :--- | :---: | :---: |
| **Draft Balances** | **34,150** | **35,120** |
| 1. Correction of Customer X posting error ($860 - $680) | | (180) |
| 2. Contra entry omitted from Control Account | (450) | |
| 3. Correction of discount allowed debited instead of credited ($120 \times 2) | | (240) |
| 4. Correction of sales day book undercast | 1,000 | |
| **Corrected Balances** | **34,700** | **34,700** |

*Worked calculations:*
- **Customer X correction:** Customer ledger was debited with $860 instead of $680, making the individual ledger balance too high by $180. To correct this, deduct $180 from the sales ledger balances.
- **Contra entry correction:** Omitted from the control account. To correct, deduct $450 from the TRCA.
- **Discount allowed correction:** Debited instead of credited in the customer account. The net effect of putting $120 on the debit side instead of the credit side is an overstatement of $240. To correct this, deduct $240 from the sales ledger balances.
- **Sales day book undercast:** SDB total was too low by $1,000, meaning TRCA was also under-debited. To correct this, add $1,000 to the TRCA.

### Part (b) Contra Entries Explanation
- **Why it is recorded:** A contra entry is used when a business has a customer who is also their supplier (acting as a mutual debtor and creditor). To avoid paying two separate invoices, the offset reduces both the receivable and payable by the lower of the two amounts.
- **How it is recorded:** Credit the Trade Receivables Control Account and Debit the Trade Payables Control Account.

PastPaper.markingScheme

### Part (a) Reconciliation (4 marks)
- **1 mark** for correct adjustment of SDB undercast (+$1,000) to the Trade Receivables Control Account.
- **1 mark** for correct adjustment of contra entry (-$450) to the Trade Receivables Control Account.
- **1 mark** for correct adjustment of Customer X's posting error (-$180) in the Sales Ledger.
- **1 mark** for correct adjustment of the discount allowed double-correction (-$240) in the Sales Ledger.

### Part (b) Contra Explanation (2 marks)
- **1 mark** for stating that a contra entry offsets mutual trade receivables and payables (debts) to minimize transaction/cash flow steps using the lower of the balances.
- **1 mark** for identifying the correct double entry posting (Credit Trade Receivables Control Account and Debit Trade Payables Control Account).

PastPaper.section Question 3: Adjustments to Financial Statements - Receivables

Apply concepts to irrecoverable debts, prepare ledger accounts, and determine the correct ledger journal entries.
4 PastPaper.question · 15 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · Conceptual Explanation
4 PastPaper.marks
Explain how the accruals (matching) concept and the prudence concept are applied when creating and adjusting a provision for doubtful debts at the end of a financial year.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

1. **Accruals (matching) concept application (2 marks):**
- The credit sales are recognized in the current financial year. The accruals concept requires that any associated expenses or potential losses, such as estimated doubtful debts, must be matched against this revenue in the same accounting period (1 mark).
- This ensures that the profit for the period is calculated accurately by acknowledging the estimated expense of non-payment in the period the transaction took place, rather than in a future period when the debt actually becomes irrecoverable (1 mark).

2. **Prudence concept application (2 marks):**
- The prudence concept states that assets and profits should not be overstated, and liabilities and expenses should not be understated (1 mark).
- By deducting the provision for doubtful debts from gross trade receivables, the receivables are presented at a realistic, net realizable value in the statement of financial position, preventing the overstatement of current assets (1 mark).

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award marks as follows (maximum of 4 marks):

**Accruals Concept (Max 2 marks):**
- 1 mark for explaining that the estimated expense of doubtful debts is matched against the credit sales of the same period.
- 1 mark for explaining that this prevents the overstatement of profit for the current period.

**Prudence Concept (Max 2 marks):**
- 1 mark for stating that assets (receivables) and profits must not be overstated.
- 1 mark for explaining that creating/increasing the provision ensures trade receivables are presented at their net realizable value in the statement of financial position.
PastPaper.question 2 · Short Answer
2 PastPaper.marks
Identify two factors that a business should consider when determining whether to make a specific provision for doubtful debts for a customer's account at the financial year-end.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

When deciding whether to create a specific provision for doubtful debts, the business must evaluate the risk of non-payment.

Key factors include:
1. **Aging of the debt**: Debts that are significantly overdue are higher risk.
2. **Customer's financial status**: Reliable information that the customer is facing liquidation, bankruptcy, or severe financial distress.
3. **Customer payment history**: A track record of late payments or broken payment promises.
4. **Disputes**: Ongoing formal disputes regarding the quality of goods supplied or the invoice amount.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award 1 mark for each valid factor identified, up to a maximum of 2 marks.

Acceptable points:
- The length of time the debt has been outstanding (debt aging) (1)
- The financial position/creditworthiness of the customer (e.g., bankruptcy, liquidation) (1)
- Past payment history/experience with the customer (1)
- Existence of disputes with the customer over goods or invoicing (1)
PastPaper.question 3 · Ledger Account Preparation
5 PastPaper.marks
Liam is a sole trader who prepares his financial statements to 31 December each year.

On 1 January 2022, his provision for doubtful debts was $3,600.

At 31 December 2022, his trade receivables balance before any adjustments was $84,500.

The following adjustments are to be made before preparing the final accounts:
1. An amount of $2,500 owed by a customer, J. Patel, is to be written off as irrecoverable.
2. The provision for doubtful debts is to be adjusted to 4% of the remaining trade receivables.

Prepare the Provision for Doubtful Debts Account in Liam's ledger for the year ended 31 December 2022. Balance the account and bring down the balance on 1 January 2023.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

### **Calculations:**

1. **Adjusted Trade Receivables:**
$$\text{Adjusted Trade Receivables} = \$84,500 - \$2,500 = \$82,000$$

2. **Required Provision at 31 December 2022:**
$$\text{Required Provision} = \$82,000 \times 4\% = \$3,280$$

3. **Adjustment required:**
$$\text{Decrease in Provision} = \$3,600 \text{ (opening balance)} - \$3,280 \text{ (closing balance)} = \$320 \text{ (transfer to Income Statement as credit entry)}$$

---

### **Provision for Doubtful Debts Account**

$$\begin{array}{llr|llr}
\textbf{Date} & \textbf{Details} & \textbf{\$} & \textbf{Date} & \textbf{Details} & \textbf{\$}\\
\hline
\text{2022} & & & \text{2022} & & \\
\text{Dec 31} & \text{Income statement} & 320 & \text{Jan 1} & \text{Balance b/d} & 3,600 \\
\text{Dec 31} & \text{Balance c/d} & 3,280 & & & \\
\hline
& & \mathbf{3,600} & & & \mathbf{3,600} \\
\hline
& & & \text{2023} & & \\
& & & \text{Jan 1} & \text{Balance b/d} & 3,280 \\
\end{array}$$

PastPaper.markingScheme

- **1 mark** for correct calculation of adjusted receivables ($82,000) and the new provision ($3,280).
- **1 mark** for entering the opening balance on 1 January 2022 (Balance b/d) of $3,600 on the credit side.
- **1 mark** for the correct ledger entry of $320 on the debit side with details 'Income statement'.
- **1 mark** for balancing the account with Balance c/d of $3,280 on the debit side on 31 December 2022.
- **1 mark** for bringing down the opening balance (Balance b/d) of $3,280 on 1 January 2023 on the credit side (must match the c/d figure).
PastPaper.question 4 · Double Entry Specification
4 PastPaper.marks
At 1 January 2023, a trader's trade receivables balance was $85,000 and the provision for doubtful debts was $3,400. At 31 December 2023, the draft trade receivables balance was $91,200 before making the following adjustments: (1) An irrecoverable debt of $1,200 is to be written off. (2) The provision for doubtful debts is to be adjusted to 4% of trade receivables. Prepare the journal entry to record the adjustment to the provision for doubtful debts on 31 December 2023. Narratives are not required.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Step 1: Calculate the adjusted trade receivables after writing off the irrecoverable debt:
\( \text{Adjusted Trade Receivables} = \$91,200 - \$1,200 = \$90,000 \)

Step 2: Calculate the required year-end provision for doubtful debts:
\( \text{Required Provision} = 4\% \times \$90,000 = \$3,600 \)

Step 3: Calculate the movement/adjustment needed in the provision:
\( \text{Adjustment} = \text{Required Provision} (\$3,600) - \text{Opening Provision} (\$3,400) = \$200 \text{ (increase)} \)

Step 4: Record the journal entry for the increase in provision:
Debit: Income statement $200
Credit: Provision for doubtful debts $200

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award marks as follows:
- 1 mark for calculating the adjusted trade receivables of $90,000.
- 1 mark for calculating the new provision of $3,600.
- 1 mark for calculating the increase of $200.
- 1 mark for the correct double entry (Debit Income statement and Credit Provision for doubtful debts with $200).

PastPaper.section Question 4: Overhead Absorption Costing

Apportion overheads across production and service cost centres, calculate OAR, assess under/over absorption, and compute order selling prices.
7 PastPaper.question · 30 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · explanation
2 PastPaper.marks
Explain the difference between the terms 'overhead allocation' and 'overhead apportionment' in absorption costing.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Overhead allocation occurs when a whole overhead cost item can be uniquely identified and charged directly to a single specific cost centre (e.g., the salary of the manager of the machining department). Overhead apportionment is used when an overhead cost is common to multiple departments and must be split or shared among them using an equitable basis (e.g., rent apportioned based on floor area).

PastPaper.markingScheme

1 mark for a clear definition of overhead allocation (charging an entire cost to a single cost centre). 1 mark for a clear definition of overhead apportionment (splitting a shared cost across multiple cost centres using a logical basis). Maximum 2 marks.
PastPaper.question 2 · explanation
2 PastPaper.marks
Explain two distinct reasons why a manufacturing business might experience under-absorption of overheads at the end of a financial period.
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PastPaper.workedSolution

Under-absorption occurs when the overheads charged to production (Predetermined OAR multiplied by Actual Hours) are less than the actual overheads incurred. The two main reasons are: 1) The actual overhead expenditure incurred was higher than the budgeted overhead expenditure. 2) The actual level of activity (such as direct labour hours or machine hours) was lower than the budgeted level of activity used to calculate the OAR.

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1 mark for explaining that actual overheads incurred were greater than budgeted overheads. 1 mark for explaining that the actual activity level (hours or units) was lower than the budgeted activity level. Maximum 2 marks.
PastPaper.question 3 · Apportionment Table Preparation
6 PastPaper.marks
Marston Ltd has two production departments, Machining and Assembly, and one service department, Maintenance.

The budgeted overheads for the coming month are as follows:
- Rent and Rates: $24,000
- Machinery Depreciation: $15,000

The following information is available:

| Department | Floor area (sq m) | Book value of machinery ($) |
| :--- | :---: | :---: |
| Machining | 1,200 | 80,000 |
| Assembly | 800 | 20,000 |
| Maintenance | 400 | - |
| **Total** | **2,400** | **100,000** |

Prepare the overhead apportionment table to show the allocation of Rent and Rates and Machinery Depreciation to the three departments, including the total apportioned overhead for each department.
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PastPaper.workedSolution

### Apportionment calculations:

1. **Rent and Rates** (apportioned based on **Floor area**):
- Total Floor Area = \( 1,200 + 800 + 400 = 2,400 \) sq m
- Machining: \( \frac{1,200}{2,400} \times \$24,000 = \$12,000 \)
- Assembly: \( \frac{800}{2,400} \times \$24,000 = \$8,000 \)
- Maintenance: \( \frac{400}{2,400} \times \$24,000 = \$4,000 \)

2. **Machinery Depreciation** (apportioned based on **Book value of machinery**):
- Total Book Value = \( \$80,000 + \$20,000 = \$100,000 \)
- Machining: \( \frac{\$80,000}{\$100,000} \times \$15,000 = \$12,000 \)
- Assembly: \( \frac{\$20,000}{\$100,000} \times \$15,000 = \$3,000 \)
- Maintenance: \( \$0 \)

### Apportionment Table:

| Overhead | Basis | Machining ($) | Assembly ($) | Maintenance ($) |
| :--- | :--- | :---: | :---: | :---: |
| Rent and Rates | Floor area | 12,000 | 8,000 | 4,000 |
| Machinery Depr. | Book value | 12,000 | 3,000 | - |
| **Total Overheads**| | **24,000** | **11,000** | **4,000** |

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Award marks as follows:

- **Rent and Rates apportionment (3 marks total)**:
- Machining: $12,000 (1 mark)
- Assembly: $8,000 (1 mark)
- Maintenance: $4,000 (1 mark)

- **Machinery Depreciation apportionment (2 marks total)**:
- Machining: $12,000 (1 mark)
- Assembly: $3,000 (1 mark)
- (Maintenance is $0 / nil - no mark)

- **Totals (1 mark total)**:
- Award 1 mark if all three department totals are correct: Machining ($24,000), Assembly ($11,000), Maintenance ($4,000).
PastPaper.question 4 · OAR Calculation
4 PastPaper.marks
Vandermeer Ltd has two production departments, Machining and Assembly, and one service department, Maintenance. The budgeted overheads are: Machining $120,000, Assembly $80,000, Maintenance $30,000. Maintenance department costs are reapportioned based on maintenance hours: Machining 60% and Assembly 40%. Budgeted activity is: Machining 15,000 Machine Hours and Assembly 20,000 Direct Labour Hours. Calculate the overhead absorption rate (OAR) for the Machining department (per machine hour) to two decimal places.
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PastPaper.workedSolution

Step 1: Calculate the Maintenance overheads allocated to Machining: \( \$30,000 \times 60\% = \$18,000 \). Step 2: Calculate total Machining overheads: \( \$120,000 + \$18,000 = \$138,000 \). Step 3: Calculate the OAR: \( \$138,000 / 15,000 \text{ machine hours} = \$9.20 \text{ per machine hour} \).

PastPaper.markingScheme

1 mark for calculating the reapportioned share of Maintenance overheads of $18,000 (or showing $30,000 x 60%). 1 mark for finding the total Machining overheads of $138,000. 1 mark for dividing total overheads by the correct base of 15,000 machine hours. 1 mark for the correct final answer of $9.20 per machine hour.
PastPaper.question 5 · calculation
3 PastPaper.marks
During the year ended 31 December 2022, a manufacturing company's assembly department had budgeted overheads of $180,000 based on budgeted direct labour hours of 15,000 hours. During the year, the actual direct labour hours worked were 15,200 hours and the actual overheads incurred were $186,500. Calculate the under-absorbed or over-absorbed overhead for the assembly department.
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PastPaper.workedSolution

1. Predetermined Overhead Absorption Rate (OAR) = Budgeted Overheads / Budgeted Direct Labour Hours = $180,000 / 15,000 hours = $12.00 per direct labour hour. 2. Absorbed Overheads = Actual Direct Labour Hours * OAR = 15,200 hours * $12.00 = $182,400. 3. Under/Over-absorption = Absorbed Overheads - Actual Overheads = $182,400 - $186,500 = -$4,100. Since the absorbed overheads are less than the actual overheads, the overhead is $4,100 under-absorbed.

PastPaper.markingScheme

1 mark for calculating correct OAR of $12.00 per hour. 1 mark for calculating correct absorbed overheads of $182,400. 1 mark for calculating $4,100 and identifying it as under-absorbed (both the numerical value and 'under-absorbed' direction are required for this mark).
PastPaper.question 6 · Job Costing Calculation
6 PastPaper.marks
Zenith Ltd is preparing a quotation for Job 405. The following information is available for the job: Direct materials cost is $1,450. Direct labor requirements are 50 hours at $16 per hour for Department A (Assembly) and 30 hours at $20 per hour for Department B (Finishing). Production overheads are absorbed in Department A at 120% of direct labor cost and in Department B at $9.50 per direct labor hour. Non-production overheads (administration and selling) are absorbed at 10% of the total production cost of the job. Profit is calculated using a markup of 20% on total cost. Calculate the quoted selling price for Job 405.
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PastPaper.workedSolution

1. Direct labor cost: Department A: 50 hours * $16 = $800. Department B: 30 hours * $20 = $600. Total direct labor cost = $1,400. 2. Prime cost: Direct materials ($1,450) + Direct labor ($1,400) = $2,850. 3. Production overheads: Department A: 120% * $800 = $960. Department B: 30 hours * $9.50 = $285. Total production overheads = $1,245. 4. Total production cost: Prime cost ($2,850) + Production overheads ($1,245) = $4,095. 5. Non-production overheads: 10% * $4,095 = $409.50. 6. Total cost: Total production cost ($4,095) + Non-production overheads ($409.50) = $4,504.50. 7. Profit markup: 20% * $4,504.50 = $900.90. 8. Quoted selling price: Total cost ($4,504.50) + Profit markup ($900.90) = $5,405.40.

PastPaper.markingScheme

1 mark for calculating the total direct labor cost of $1,400 (or separate department labor costs of $800 and $600). 1 mark for calculating the correct prime cost of $2,850. 1 mark for calculating total production overheads of $1,245 (Department A $960 + Department B $285). 1 mark for calculating the total production cost of $4,095. 1 mark for calculating non-production overheads of $409.50 and total cost of $4,504.50 (own figure rule applies). 1 mark for calculating the final selling price of $5,405.40 (own figure rule applies for 20% markup on total cost).
PastPaper.question 7 · Written
7 PastPaper.marks
Zeta Limited operates two production departments: Machining (which is highly automated) and Assembly (which is highly labour-intensive). Currently, the company uses a single factory-wide overhead absorption rate based on direct labour hours to allocate all manufacturing overheads to its products.

The management accountant has suggested moving to departmental overhead absorption rates, using machine hours for the Machining department and direct labour hours for the Assembly department, to improve the accuracy of product costing and pricing decisions.

Advise the directors of Zeta Limited whether or not they should change from using a single factory-wide overhead absorption rate to departmental overhead absorption rates. Justify your answer by discussing the advantages and disadvantages of making this change.
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PastPaper.workedSolution

### Analysis of the Proposal

**Advantages of Departmental Overhead Absorption Rates:**
1. **Reflects different cost drivers:** The Machining department is capital-intensive (dominated by machine operations), meaning its overheads (depreciation, power, maintenance) are driven by machine hours. The Assembly department is labour-intensive, where overheads are driven by direct labour hours. Using departmental rates reflects these operational realities.
2. **More accurate product costing:** Products that spend more time in Machining but require little assembly work will be charged an appropriate amount of machine-based overheads, rather than being under-costed under a labour-hour-based blanket rate.
3. **Better pricing and competitiveness:** Accurate product costs prevent under-pricing (which leads to hidden losses or eroded profit margins) and over-pricing (which can lead to lost sales and uncompetitive market positioning).
4. **Improved cost control and accountability:** Under- or over-absorption of overheads can be calculated and analyzed for each department individually, allowing senior management to hold departmental managers accountable for budget variances.

**Disadvantages of Departmental Overhead Absorption Rates:**
1. **Increased cost and complexity:** Establishing and maintaining departmental rates requires extra accounting effort, including primary apportionment of overheads to cost centres, secondary apportionment of service cost centres, and detailed tracking of actual machine and labour hours by department.
2. **Arbitrary allocations remain:** Even with departmental rates, many common overheads (e.g., factory rent, heating, security) must still be apportioned using arbitrary bases (such as floor area or book value), which does not guarantee total accuracy.
3. **Alternative methods exist:** If the company wants highly accurate costing, it could consider Activity-Based Costing (ABC) instead, though ABC is even more complex and expensive to implement.

**Conclusion / Recommendation:**
The directors should implement the change to departmental overhead absorption rates. Because of the stark operational differences between Machining and Assembly, continuing to use a single factory-wide direct labour hour rate will lead to highly distorted product costs, which could lead to critical errors in pricing and strategic decision-making. The benefits of improved cost accuracy and pricing security outweigh the incremental administrative costs.

PastPaper.markingScheme

**Arguments in favour of departmental rates (Max 3 marks):**
* **[1 mark]** Identifies that Machining is capital-intensive and Assembly is labour-intensive, requiring different cost drivers (machine hours vs. labour hours).
* **[1 mark]** Explains that departmental rates lead to more accurate product costing.
* **[1 mark]** Links more accurate costing to better pricing decisions (avoiding over-pricing / losing sales or under-pricing / losing profits).
* **[1 mark]** Mentions better cost control / accountability for departmental managers.

**Arguments against departmental rates (Max 3 marks):**
* **[1 mark]** Identifies that it is more complex, time-consuming, and expensive to calculate and administer (requires primary/secondary apportionment).
* **[1 mark]** Explains that arbitrary elements still remain in the allocation and apportionment of common costs (e.g., rent, heating).
* **[1 mark]** Recognises that other costing systems (like Activity-Based Costing) might offer even greater accuracy if the company is prepared to invest more.

**Advice / Recommendation (1 mark):**
* **[1 mark]** Clear recommendation/advice supported by a concluding summary statement (e.g., recommend the switch because the current blanket rate causes significant product cost distortion due to the different resource characteristics of the departments).

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