Cambridge IAS-Level · thinka-original Practice Paper

2026 Cambridge IAS-Level Biology (9700) Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Jun 2026 (V2) Cambridge International AS Level-Style Mock — Biology (9700)

140 marks270 mins2026
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2026 (V2) Cambridge International AS Level Biology (9700) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

Paper 1 Multiple Choice (9700/12)

Answer all 40 multiple-choice questions on the separate answer sheet. Choose one option (A, B, C, or D) for each question.
40 Question · 40 marks
Question 1 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A student uses a light microscope fitted with an eyepiece graticule and a stage micrometer to measure the diameter of an animal cell.

At ×100 magnification:
- 50 eyepiece graticule units correspond to 1.0 mm on the stage micrometer scale.

The objective lens is changed to give ×400 magnification.

Under ×400 magnification, the diameter of the animal cell measures 7 eyepiece graticule units.

What is the actual diameter of the animal cell?
  1. A.8.75 \(\mu\text{m}\)
  2. B.35.0 \(\mu\text{m}\)
  3. C.70.0 \(\mu\text{m}\)
  4. D.140.0 \(\mu\text{m}\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. At ×100 magnification, 50 eyepiece units (epu) = 1.0 mm = 1000 μm.
Therefore, 1 epu at ×100 = 1000 / 50 = 20 μm.

2. When changing magnification from ×100 to ×400, the magnification increases by a factor of 4 (×400 / ×100 = 4).
Therefore, the actual distance represented by 1 epu decreases by a factor of 4:
1 epu at ×400 = 20 μm / 4 = 5.0 μm.

3. The cell measures 7 epu at ×400:
Actual diameter = 7 × 5.0 μm = 35 μm.

Marking scheme

B [1]
1 epu at ×100 = 20 μm; 1 epu at ×400 = 5 μm; 7 × 5 μm = 35 μm.
Question 2 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A straight-chain polypeptide consisting of 42 amino acid residues is completely hydrolysed into individual amino acid monomers.

Which statement correctly describes this reaction?
  1. A.41 water molecules are released and 42 amino acids are produced.
  2. B.41 water molecules are consumed and each resulting molecule has an \(-\text{NH}_2\) and a \(-\text{COOH}\) group.
  3. C.42 water molecules are consumed and 41 peptide bonds remain intact.
  4. D.42 water molecules are released and 42 free amino acids are formed.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A linear polypeptide of 42 amino acids contains 41 peptide bonds (number of bonds = n - 1 = 42 - 1 = 41). Hydrolysis requires the addition of one water molecule per peptide bond broken, so 41 water molecules are consumed. Each resulting free amino acid contains both a basic amino group (-NH2) and an acidic carboxyl group (-COOH).

Marking scheme

B [1]
41 peptide bonds hydrolysed requires 41 water molecules; each monomer has an amino group and a carboxyl group.
Question 3 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The kinetics of an enzyme-catalysed reaction were investigated in the presence and absence of a chemical substance, X.

The results showed that in the presence of substance X:
- the maximum rate of reaction, \(V_{\max}\), was unchanged.
- the Michaelis-Menten constant, \(K_m\), increased.

Which statement about substance X is correct?
  1. A.It is a non-competitive inhibitor that binds to an allosteric site on the enzyme.
  2. B.It is a competitive inhibitor that binds reversibly to the active site of the enzyme.
  3. C.It is an irreversible inhibitor that permanently alters the tertiary structure of the enzyme.
  4. D.It is an allosteric activator that increases the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A competitive inhibitor binds reversibly to the active site of the enzyme, competing directly with the substrate. At high substrate concentrations, the substrate outcompetes the inhibitor, allowing the reaction to reach the same maximum velocity (Vmax unchanged). However, a higher substrate concentration is required to reach half Vmax, meaning Km increases (representing a decreased apparent affinity of the enzyme for the substrate).

Marking scheme

B [1]
Unchanged Vmax and increased Km is characteristic of reversible competitive inhibition.
Question 4 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Cylinders of potato tissue of identical initial mass were placed in a range of sucrose solutions with concentrations from \(0.0\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) to \(0.8\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\).

After 2 hours, the cylinders were reweighed and the percentage change in mass was determined.

The cylinder in the \(0.3\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution showed no change in mass.

Which statement is correct?
  1. A.In the \(0.1\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution, water moved out of the cells by osmosis.
  2. B.In the \(0.3\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution, there was no movement of water molecules across the cell membranes.
  3. C.In the \(0.5\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution, water moved out of the cells because the water potential of the solution was lower than that of the cell sap.
  4. D.In the \(0.8\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution, the protoplasts expanded against the cell walls.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

At 0.3 mol dm-3 sucrose, the water potential of the external solution equals that of the potato cells (incipient equilibrium). In a 0.5 mol dm-3 sucrose solution, the solution has a lower (more negative) water potential than the potato cell sap. Water leaves the cells by osmosis down the water potential gradient, causing the protoplast to shrink away from the cell wall (plasmolysis).

Marking scheme

C [1]
Water leaves cells in 0.5 mol dm-3 sucrose because solution water potential is lower than cell sap water potential, leading to plasmolysis.
Question 5 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes the function of telomeres in eukaryotic chromosomes?
  1. A.They prevent the loss of essential protein-coding genes during successive cycles of DNA replication.
  2. B.They attach sister chromatids to the spindle microtubules during metaphase.
  3. C.They code for histone proteins required for chromosome condensation in prophase.
  4. D.They uncoil during interphase to allow transcription of structural genes.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Telomeres are non-coding repeating sequences of DNA located at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes. During DNA replication, DNA polymerase cannot replicate the extreme ends of the lagging strand. Telomeres ensure that vital protein-coding genes are not lost with successive rounds of cell division and protect chromosome ends from degradation.

Marking scheme

A [1]
Telomeres are non-coding terminal DNA regions preventing loss of genes during replication.
Question 6 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A double-stranded DNA molecule is composed of 2400 base pairs.

Biochemical analysis shows that 28% of the total nitrogenous bases in this DNA molecule are cytosine.

How many thymine bases are present in this DNA molecule?
  1. A.528
  2. B.672
  3. C.1056
  4. D.1344
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Total number of bases = 2400 base pairs × 2 = 4800 bases.
2. In double-stranded DNA, % cytosine (C) = % guanine (G) = 28%.
Total C + G = 28% + 28% = 56%.
3. % adenine (A) + % thymine (T) = 100% - 56% = 44%.
Since % A = % T, % thymine = 44% / 2 = 22%.
4. Total number of thymine bases = 0.22 × 4800 = 1056.

Marking scheme

C [1]
Total bases = 4800; % T = (100 - (28 × 2)) / 2 = 22%; 0.22 × 4800 = 1056.
Question 7 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which sequence of events correctly outlines the mechanism of sucrose loading into a sieve tube element at a source in a herbaceous dicotyledonous plant?
  1. A.Protons are actively pumped out of the companion cell \(\rightarrow\) protons and sucrose enter the companion cell via a cotransporter \(\rightarrow\) sucrose moves into the sieve tube element via plasmodesmata.
  2. B.Sucrose is actively pumped out of the companion cell \(\rightarrow\) protons follow by facilitated diffusion \(\rightarrow\) sucrose moves into the sieve tube element down a hydrostatic pressure gradient.
  3. C.Protons diffuse out of the companion cell \(\rightarrow\) sucrose is actively transported into the companion cell \(\rightarrow\) sucrose enters the sieve tube element by endocytosis.
  4. D.Sucrose and protons are cotransported out of the companion cell \(\rightarrow\) water enters the cell wall by osmosis \(\rightarrow\) sucrose moves into the sieve tube element through aquaporins.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Proton pumps actively transport H+ ions out of the companion cell cytoplasm into the cell wall space, establishing an electrochemical proton gradient.
2. H+ ions diffuse back into the companion cell through cotransporter carrier proteins, carrying sucrose molecules with them against the sucrose concentration gradient.
3. Sucrose then diffuses from the companion cell into the sieve tube element via plasmodesmata.

Marking scheme

A [1]
Active pumping of H+ out -> cotransport of H+ and sucrose in -> symplastic movement of sucrose into sieve tube element via plasmodesmata.
Question 8 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes a structural feature and its function in an IgG antibody molecule?
  1. A.The constant region contains the antigen-binding sites that determine antigen specificity.
  2. B.The hinge region provides flexibility to allow the binding sites to attach to two antigens at different distances apart.
  3. C.Disulfide bridges occur only between the two heavy polypeptide chains.
  4. D.Four identical antigen-binding sites are formed from the light polypeptide chains alone.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The flexible hinge region of an antibody molecule allows the two antigen-binding sites (variable regions) to move and bind simultaneously to two separate antigen epitopes that are situated variable distances apart on pathogen surfaces. Variable regions (not constant regions) form the antigen-binding sites. Heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds as well as non-covalent interactions. Each antibody has two identical antigen-binding sites, not four.

Marking scheme

B [1]
Hinge region confers flexibility to bind antigens at variable distances.
Question 9 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A student uses a light microscope fitted with an eyepiece graticule and a stage micrometer to measure the length of an onion epidermal cell.

At a magnification of \(\times 100\):
- 1 division on the stage micrometer \(= 0.01\text{ mm}\)
- 40 divisions on the eyepiece graticule align precisely with 20 divisions on the stage micrometer

The length of an onion epidermal cell is measured as 36 eyepiece graticule divisions.

What is the actual length of the onion epidermal cell?
  1. A.\(90\ \mu\text{m}\)
  2. B.\(180\ \mu\text{m}\)
  3. C.\(360\ \mu\text{m}\)
  4. D.\(720\ \mu\text{m}\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Find the distance represented by 20 stage micrometer divisions:
\(20 \times 0.01\text{ mm} = 0.20\text{ mm} = 200\ \mu\text{m}\).

2. Calculate the value of 1 eyepiece graticule division (epu):
\(40\text{ epu} = 200\ \mu\text{m} \implies 1\text{ epu} = \frac{200}{40} = 5\ \mu\text{m}\).

3. Calculate the actual length of the cell:
\(\text{Actual length} = 36\text{ epu} \times 5\ \mu\text{m} = 180\ \mu\text{m}\).

Marking scheme

B is correct [1].

Calculation of 1 eyepiece unit \(= 5\ \mu\text{m}\); actual length \(= 36 \times 5 = 180\ \mu\text{m}\).

A is incorrect (corresponds to dividing by 2 instead of multiplying: \(36 \times 2.5 = 90\ \mu\text{m}\)).
C is incorrect (corresponds to miscalculating 1 epu as \(10\ \mu\text{m}\)).
D is incorrect (unit error or magnification multiplication).
Question 10 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which row correctly describes the glycosidic bonds and monomer arrangements present in amylose, amylopectin, and cellulose?
  1. A.Amylose: \(\alpha\)-1,4 and \(\alpha\)-1,6; Amylopectin: \(\alpha\)-1,4 only; Cellulose: \(\beta\)-1,4 (identical monomer orientation)
  2. B.Amylose: \(\alpha\)-1,4 only; Amylopectin: \(\alpha\)-1,4 and \(\alpha\)-1,6; Cellulose: \(\alpha\)-1,4 (alternate monomers rotated \(180^{\circ}\))
  3. C.Amylose: \(\alpha\)-1,4 only; Amylopectin: \(\alpha\)-1,4 and \(\alpha\)-1,6; Cellulose: \(\beta\)-1,4 (alternate monomers rotated \(180^{\circ}\))
  4. D.Amylose: \(\beta\)-1,4 only; Amylopectin: \(\beta\)-1,4 and \(\beta\)-1,6; Cellulose: \(\alpha\)-1,4 (identical monomer orientation)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

- Amylose is an unbranched polymer of \(\alpha\)-glucose linked exclusively by \(\alpha\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds.
- Amylopectin is a branched polymer of \(\alpha\)-glucose linked by \(\alpha\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds with \(\alpha\)-1,6-glycosidic bonds at branch points.
- Cellulose is an unbranched polymer of \(\beta\)-glucose linked by \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds, where consecutive glucose monomers are rotated by \(180^{\circ}\) relative to each other.

Marking scheme

C is correct [1].

- Row C correctly identifies \(\alpha\)-1,4 for amylose, \(\alpha\)-1,4 and \(\alpha\)-1,6 for amylopectin, and \(\beta\)-1,4 with rotated monomers for cellulose.
Question 11 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
An enzyme-catalysed reaction was studied in the presence and absence of a reversible inhibitor. The kinetic parameters were determined:

- Without inhibitor: \(V_{\max} = 50\ \mu\text{mol dm}^{-3}\text{s}^{-1}\), \(K_m = 0.4\text{ mmol dm}^{-3}\)
- With inhibitor: \(V_{\max} = 50\ \mu\text{mol dm}^{-3}\text{s}^{-1}\), \(K_m = 1.2\text{ mmol dm}^{-3}\)

Which statement correctly explains the action of this inhibitor?
  1. A.The inhibitor is competitive and binds to the active site; adding excess substrate overcomes the inhibition.
  2. B.The inhibitor is non-competitive and binds to an allosteric site; adding excess substrate overcomes the inhibition.
  3. C.The inhibitor is competitive and increases the enzyme's affinity for the substrate at low substrate concentrations.
  4. D.The inhibitor is non-competitive and prevents formation of the enzyme-substrate complex without changing active site shape.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The maximum rate (\(V_{\max}\)) remains unchanged, while the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_m\)) increases from \(0.4\) to \(1.2\text{ mmol dm}^{-3}\). An increased \(K_m\) indicates a lower affinity of the enzyme for its substrate because a higher concentration of substrate is required to achieve half-maximal velocity (\(0.5\ V_{\max}\)). This is characteristic of a competitive inhibitor, which binds reversibly to the active site and competes directly with substrate molecules.

Marking scheme

A is correct [1].

Competitive inhibitor binds to active site, increasing \(K_m\) (lowering affinity) without altering \(V_{\max}\).

B is incorrect because non-competitive inhibitors decrease \(V_{\max}\).
C is incorrect because \(K_m\) increase means affinity decreases, not increases.
D is incorrect because competitive inhibitors do not bind allosteric sites.
Question 12 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which structural modification would maintain or increase the fluidity of a mammalian cell surface membrane when the environmental temperature decreases?
  1. A.increasing the proportion of saturated fatty acid tails in phospholipids
  2. B.increasing the length of the fatty acid hydrocarbon chains
  3. C.increasing the proportion of polyunsaturated fatty acid tails in phospholipids
  4. D.decreasing the number of transport proteins in the phospholipid bilayer
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

At lower temperatures, phospholipids tend to pack more closely together, decreasing fluidity. Membrane fluidity is maintained or increased at low temperatures by:
1. An increased proportion of unsaturated fatty acid hydrocarbon tails (which have 'kinks' that prevent close packing).
2. Shorter fatty acid hydrocarbon chains (which have fewer intermolecular hydrophobic interactions).
3. Cholesterol preventing close packing of phospholipid tails.

Marking scheme

C is correct [1].

Increasing the proportion of unsaturated fatty acid tails introduces kinks/bends, preventing tight packing of lipids at low temperatures.

A is incorrect (saturated tails pack tightly, reducing fluidity).
B is incorrect (longer chains increase hydrophobic interactions, reducing fluidity).
D is incorrect (glycolipid carbohydrate chains do not increase hydrocarbon tail mobility in this manner).
Question 13 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A diploid eukaryotic cell contains 12 chromosomes (\(2n = 12\)).

How many chromatids and centromeres are present in this cell during metaphase of mitosis, and how many chromosomes are present in one of the daughter cells immediately after cytokinesis?
  1. A.Metaphase chromatids: 12; Metaphase centromeres: 12; Daughter cell chromosomes: 6
  2. B.Metaphase chromatids: 24; Metaphase centromeres: 24; Daughter cell chromosomes: 12
  3. C.Metaphase chromatids: 12; Metaphase centromeres: 6; Daughter cell chromosomes: 12
  4. D.Metaphase chromatids: 24; Metaphase centromeres: 12; Daughter cell chromosomes: 12
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

- In metaphase of mitosis, each of the 12 chromosomes has replicated during S phase and consists of 2 sister chromatids held by 1 centromere.
- Number of chromatids \(= 12 \times 2 = 24\).
- Number of centromeres \(= 12\).
- Mitosis maintains the diploid chromosome number in daughter cells.
- Immediately after cytokinesis, each daughter cell has 12 chromosomes (each consisting of a single chromatid).

Marking scheme

D is correct [1].

- Metaphase chromatids \(= 24\)
- Metaphase centromeres \(= 12\)
- Daughter cell chromosomes \(= 12\)

Rows A, B, and C have incorrect counts for chromatids, centromeres, or daughter chromosomes.
Question 14 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A double-stranded DNA molecule contains a total of 3000 nitrogenous base pairs.

Biochemical analysis shows that \(22\%\) of the total nitrogenous bases in this DNA molecule are adenine (A).

What is the total number of cytosine (C) bases present in this DNA molecule?
  1. A.840
  2. B.1320
  3. C.1680
  4. D.3360
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Total number of bases in double-stranded DNA \(= 3000\text{ base pairs} \times 2 = 6000\text{ bases}\).
2. Adenine (A) \(= 22\%\). By complementary base pairing, Thymine (T) \(= 22\%\).
3. Combined percentage of \(A + T = 22\% + 22\% = 44\%\).
4. Combined percentage of \(G + C = 100\% - 44\% = 56\%\).
5. Percentage of Cytosine (C) \(= \frac{56\%}{2} = 28\%\).
6. Total number of cytosine bases \(= 0.28 \times 6000 = 1680\).

Marking scheme

C is correct [1].

\(28\%\) of 6000 bases \(= 1680\).

A is incorrect (calculated \(28\%\) of 3000 base pairs instead of total bases \(= 840\)).
B is incorrect (corresponds to the number of adenine bases \(= 0.22 \times 6000 = 1320\)).
D is incorrect (combined \(G + C\) count \(= 3360\)).
Question 15 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which statements correctly describe the mechanism of phloem loading at a source in herbaceous dicotyledonous plants?

1. Hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) are pumped out of companion cells into the cell wall by active transport using ATP.
2. A proton gradient is established with a higher \(\text{H}^+\) concentration in the companion cell cytoplasm than in the cell wall.
3. \(\text{H}^+\) ions and sucrose enter the companion cell together through cotransporter proteins by facilitated diffusion of \(\text{H}^+\).
4. Sucrose moves from companion cells into sieve tube elements via plasmodesmata by diffusion.
  1. A.1, 2, and 3 only
  2. B.1, 3, and 4 only
  3. C.2, 3, and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3, and 4
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

- Statement 1 is correct: Proton pumps actively transport \(\text{H}^+\) ions out of companion cells into cell walls using ATP.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Pumping \(\text{H}^+\) out of the cell creates a higher concentration of \(\text{H}^+\) in the cell wall (apoplast), not the cytoplasm.
- Statement 3 is correct: \(\text{H}^+\) ions move down their concentration gradient through cotransporter membrane proteins, driving the uptake of sucrose against its concentration gradient.
- Statement 4 is correct: Sucrose diffuses into sieve tube elements through connecting plasmodesmata down its concentration gradient.

Marking scheme

B is correct [1].

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
Statement 2 is false as the proton gradient has a higher \(\text{H}^+\) concentration outside the cell wall than inside the companion cell.
Question 16 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which row correctly matches the immune cell with its specific function in the primary immune response?
  1. A.Plasma cell: secretes specific antibody molecules; T-helper cell: secretes cytokines that stimulate B-cells; T-killer cell: lyses host cells displaying viral antigens
  2. B.Plasma cell: secretes cytokines to activate killer cells; T-helper cell: secretes specific antibody molecules; T-killer cell: engulfs and digests pathogens via phagocytosis
  3. C.Plasma cell: synthesises cell-surface receptors only; T-helper cell: destroys infected host cells directly; T-killer cell: secretes cytokines to stimulate mitosis
  4. D.Plasma cell: presents antigens to naive T-cells; T-helper cell: binds directly to bacteria to cause agglutination; T-killer cell: secretes free antibodies into plasma
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

- B-lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells that synthesise and secrete large quantities of specific antibodies.
- T-helper cells possess CD4 receptors and release signalling cytokines that stimulate B-lymphocyte clonal expansion and activate macrophages.
- T-killer (cytotoxic) cells destroy infected host cells displaying foreign antigens by secreting perforins/toxins.
- Neutrophils and macrophages act as phagocytes to engulf and digest pathogens.

Marking scheme

A is correct [1].

- Row A correctly describes B-lymphocytes (plasma cells) secreting specific antibodies, T-helper cells releasing cytokines, and T-killer cells destroying virally infected cells.
- Rows B, C, and D confuse cytokine secretion, antibody secretion, and direct cytotoxicity.
Question 17 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A student calibrated a light microscope using an eyepiece graticule and a stage micrometer. On the stage micrometer scale, 1 small division is equal to \(0.01\text{ mm}\).

When viewed with the \(\times 40\) objective lens, 40 eyepiece graticule units spanned exactly 24 small divisions on the stage micrometer.

The student then viewed a slide of a plant leaf cross-section using the same magnification. A palisade mesophyll cell had a measured length of 35 eyepiece graticule units.

What is the actual length of the palisade mesophyll cell?
  1. A.\(58\ \mu\text{m}\)
  2. B.\(140\ \mu\text{m}\)
  3. C.\(210\ \mu\text{m}\)
  4. D.\(583\ \mu\text{m}\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Determine the actual length represented by the stage micrometer divisions: \(24\text{ divisions} \times 0.01\text{ mm} = 0.24\text{ mm} = 240\ \mu\text{m}\).
2. Calculate the value of 1 eyepiece graticule unit: \(\frac{240\ \mu\text{m}}{40\text{ units}} = 6.0\ \mu\text{m}\text{ per unit}\).
3. Calculate the actual length of the cell: \(35\text{ units} \times 6.0\ \mu\text{m} = 210\ \mu\text{m}\).

Marking scheme

[1] C is correct (210 \(\mu\text{m}\)); A, B, and D result from incorrect arithmetic or inversion of the calibration ratio.
Question 18 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Three statements describe the structure and properties of a polysaccharide:

1. It is composed of unbranched linear polymer chains linked only by \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds.
2. Consecutive monosaccharide units in the chain are rotated \(180^\circ\) relative to their neighbours.
3. Hydrogen bonds form between adjacent parallel chains, giving rise to microfibrils with high tensile strength.

Which polysaccharide is described by these statements?
  1. A.Amylose
  2. B.Amylopectin
  3. C.Cellulose
  4. D.Glycogen
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Cellulose is an unbranched polymer composed exclusively of \(\beta\)-glucose units joined by \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds. To form these bonds, alternate \(\beta\)-glucose molecules are rotated \(180^\circ\). The straight chains lie parallel to one another, allowing extensive hydrogen bonding between hydroxyl groups on adjacent chains to produce high tensile strength microfibrils.

Marking scheme

[1] C is correct (Cellulose); Amylose and glycogen are made of \(\alpha\)-glucose, and amylopectin/glycogen contain 1,6-glycosidic branch points.
Question 19 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
An investigation was performed to study the initial rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction at increasing substrate concentrations in the presence and absence of a fixed concentration of a reversible inhibitor, X.

The results showed that adding inhibitor X:
- did not alter the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\text{max}}\));
- doubled the Michaelis–Menten constant (\(K_m\)).

Which conclusion is correctly drawn from these results?
  1. A.Inhibitor X is a non-competitive inhibitor that binds to an allosteric site on the enzyme.
  2. B.Inhibitor X is a competitive inhibitor that decreases the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate.
  3. C.Inhibitor X is a competitive inhibitor that increases the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate.
  4. D.Inhibitor X is a non-competitive inhibitor that changes the shape of the enzyme active site.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A competitive inhibitor binds reversibly to the active site, competing directly with the substrate. At sufficiently high substrate concentrations, the substrate outcompetes the inhibitor, reaching the same \(V_{\text{max}}\). However, a higher substrate concentration is required to reach \(\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{max}}\), which increases the \(K_m\) value and indicates a decreased apparent affinity of the enzyme for its substrate.

Marking scheme

[1] B is correct; A and D describe non-competitive inhibitors (which reduce \(V_{\text{max}}\)), and C incorrectly states that an increased \(K_m\) reflects increased affinity.
Question 20 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Cylinders of fresh potato tissue were immersed in a \(0.8\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution. The water potential of this sucrose solution is significantly more negative than the initial water potential of the potato cell sap.

Which statement correctly describes what happens to the potato cells over a 2-hour incubation period?
  1. A.Sucrose molecules enter the cells down a concentration gradient by facilitated diffusion.
  2. B.Water leaves the cells by osmosis, causing the protoplasts to pull away from the cell walls.
  3. C.The potato cylinders increase in mass due to net water entry into the vacuolar compartments.
  4. D.The water potential inside the potato cells becomes less negative than the external solution.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Because the external sucrose solution has a more negative (lower) water potential than the potato cell sap, water moves down the water potential gradient out of the cells by osmosis. As water leaves the vacuole and cytoplasm, the volume of the protoplast decreases, causing it to pull away from the rigid cell wall (plasmolysis).

Marking scheme

[1] B is correct; A is incorrect because sucrose cannot readily cross the cell surface membrane by simple facilitated diffusion in uninjured cells, C describes tissue placed in hypotonic solution, and D contradicts osmosis thermodynamics.
Question 21 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which row correctly identifies the state of the chromosomes and cellular structures during anaphase of mitosis in an animal cell?

$$
\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|c|}
\hline
& \text{Centromeres} & \text{Sister chromatids} & \text{Kinetochore spindle} & \text{Nuclear envelope} \\
& \text{divided} & \text{separated} & \text{fibres shortening} & \text{intact} \\
\hline
\mathbf{A} & \text{Yes} & \text{Yes} & \text{Yes} & \text{No} \\
\mathbf{B} & \text{Yes} & \text{No} & \text{Yes} & \text{No} \\
\mathbf{C} & \text{No} & \text{Yes} & \text{No} & \text{Yes} \\
\mathbf{D} & \text{No} & \text{No} & \text{Yes} & \text{Yes} \\
\hline
\end{array}
$$
  1. A.Row A
  2. B.Row B
  3. C.Row C
  4. D.Row D
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

During anaphase of mitosis, centromeres split/divide, allowing sister chromatids to separate into individual daughter chromosomes. Kinetochore microtubules of the spindle shorten, pulling the chromosomes towards opposite poles. The nuclear envelope broke down during prophase and does not reform until telophase, so it is not intact.

Marking scheme

[1] A is correct; centromeres divide and chromatids separate as spindle fibres shorten in the absence of an intact nuclear envelope.
Question 22 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A portion of the non-transcribed (coding/sense) strand of a structural gene has the following sequence:

$$\text{5' - ATG CCT GAG TAC - 3'}$$

What is the base sequence of the anticodon on the tRNA molecule that pairs with the second codon of the mRNA transcript during translation?
  1. A.\(\text{3' - CCT - 5'}\)
  2. B.\(\text{3' - GGA - 5'}\)
  3. C.\(\text{3' - CCU - 5'}\)
  4. D.\(\text{3' - UCC - 5'}\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. The non-transcribed coding strand is \(\text{5' - ATG CCT GAG TAC - 3'}\).
2. The mRNA transcribed from the template strand will have the same sequence as the coding strand (with U replacing T): \(\text{5' - AUG CCU GAG UAC - 3'}\).
3. The second codon of the mRNA is \(\text{5' - CCU - 3'}\).
4. The tRNA anticodon binds complementarily and antiparallel to the codon: \(\text{3' - GGA - 5'}\).

Marking scheme

[1] B is correct (\(\text{3' - GGA - 5'}\)); A contains thymine (tRNA has uracil/no thymine), C is the mRNA codon, and D represents an incorrect complementary pairing.
Question 23 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The statements outline events that occur during the loading of sucrose into phloem sieve tubes at a source in a flowering plant:

1. Proton pumps actively transport hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) out of the companion cell cytoplasm into the cell wall apoplast using ATP.
2. A proton concentration gradient is established with a higher \(\text{H}^+\) concentration in the apoplast than in the companion cell.
3. Sucrose is co-transported into the companion cell against its concentration gradient as \(\text{H}^+\) ions diffuse back into the cell through cotransporter proteins.
4. Accumulation of sucrose lowers (makes more negative) the water potential inside the companion cell, causing water to enter by osmosis.

Which statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1, 2 and 3 only
  3. C.2, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 3 and 4 only
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

All four statements accurately describe the mechanism of active phloem loading:
1. ATP-driven proton pumps pump \(\text{H}^+\) from companion cells into the cell wall.
2. This creates an electrochemical/proton concentration gradient.
3. Sucrose enters through sucrose-\(H^+\) cotransporters using the secondary active transport driven by the proton gradient.
4. The high concentration of dissolved sucrose in companion cells and sieve tube elements lowers the water potential, drawing water in from adjacent xylem by osmosis.

Marking scheme

[1] A is correct; statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are all correct descriptions of phloem loading mechanism.
Question 24 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which physiological change causes a rightward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve of adult haemoglobin (the Bohr effect)?
  1. A.A decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in actively respiring tissues
  2. B.An increase in blood pH due to a decreased concentration of hydrogen ions
  3. C.An increase in carbon dioxide concentration, resulting in increased oxygen unloading to respiring tissues
  4. D.A decrease in temperature in peripheral capillary beds
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A higher partial pressure of carbon dioxide in actively metabolising tissues leads to increased formation of carbonic acid and hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)). These \(\text{H}^+\) ions bind to oxyhaemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid (HHb), reducing haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen and shifting the oxygen dissociation curve to the right. This facilitates the unloading of oxygen to respiring cells.

Marking scheme

[1] C is correct; A, B, and D all cause a leftward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve (increased affinity for oxygen).
Question 25 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A student calibrated a light microscope using a stage micrometer scale. At \(\times 100\) magnification, 40 small divisions of the stage micrometer aligned with 25 eyepiece graticule units. Each small division on the stage micrometer is \(10\text{ }\mu\text{m}\).

The student then viewed a transverse section of a leaf using the same microscope at \(\times 400\) magnification and measured the thickness of a palisade mesophyll cell as 15 eyepiece graticule units.

What was the actual thickness of the palisade mesophyll cell?
  1. A.\(15\text{ }\mu\text{m}\)
  2. B.\(60\text{ }\mu\text{m}\)
  3. C.\(240\text{ }\mu\text{m}\)
  4. D.\(960\text{ }\mu\text{m}\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. At \(\times 100\) magnification, 25 eyepiece graticule units = \(40 \times 10\text{ }\mu\text{m} = 400\text{ }\mu\text{m}\).
2. Therefore, at \(\times 100\), 1 eyepiece graticule unit = \(\frac{400}{25} = 16\text{ }\mu\text{m}\).
3. When magnification is increased by a factor of 4 (from \(\times 100\) to \(\times 400\)), each eyepiece graticule unit represents \(\frac{16\text{ }\mu\text{m}}{4} = 4\text{ }\mu\text{m}\).
4. Actual thickness = \(15 \times 4\text{ }\mu\text{m} = 60\text{ }\mu\text{m}\).

Marking scheme

B is correct [1 mark].

A is incorrect: calculates using \(1\text{ }\mu\text{m}\) per unit.
C is incorrect: does not scale for the 4-fold increase in magnification (\(15 \times 16 = 240\text{ }\mu\text{m}\)).
D is incorrect: multiplies by 4 instead of dividing (\(240 \times 4 = 960\text{ }\mu\text{m}\)).
Question 26 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which statements correctly describe both amylose and cellulose?

1 They are unbranched polymers of hexose sugars.
2 They contain 1,4-glycosidic bonds between adjacent monomers.
3 Alternate monomers are rotated by \(180^\circ\) along the polymer chain.
4 Hydrogen bonds form to maintain structural stability.
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 4 only
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1 is correct: Amylose is an unbranched polymer of \(\alpha\)-glucose and cellulose is an unbranched polymer of \(\beta\)-glucose (both are hexoses).
2 is correct: Amylose contains \(\alpha\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds and cellulose contains \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds.
3 is incorrect for amylose: Alternate monomer rotation by \(180^\circ\) occurs only in cellulose due to the orientation of \(-\text{OH}\) groups on \(\beta\)-glucose.
4 is correct: Hydrogen bonds form within amylose (stabilising the helix) and between parallel chains in cellulose (forming microfibrils).

Marking scheme

B is correct [1 mark] (1, 2 and 4 only).
A, C, and D are incorrect because statement 3 applies exclusively to cellulose.
Question 27 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
An investigation was carried out to determine the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme-catalysed reaction. The Michaelis–Menten constant (\(K_\text{m}\)) and the maximum reaction rate (\(V_\text{max}\)) were measured in the absence and presence of the inhibitor.

The results showed that in the presence of the inhibitor:
- \(V_\text{max}\) remained unchanged
- \(K_\text{m}\) increased

Which statements about this inhibitor and its mode of action are correct?

1 The inhibitor has a shape complementary to the active site of the enzyme.
2 The inhibitor decreases the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate.
3 Increasing the substrate concentration overcomes the inhibitory effect.
4 The inhibitor binds reversibly to an allosteric site on the enzyme.
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.2 and 4 only
  4. D.3 and 4 only
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

An inhibitor that increases \(K_\text{m}\) while leaving \(V_\text{max}\) unchanged is a competitive inhibitor.
- Competitive inhibitors bind directly to the active site (statement 1 is correct).
- A higher \(K_\text{m}\) indicates a lower affinity of the enzyme for its substrate (statement 2 is correct).
- At high substrate concentrations, substrate outcompetes the inhibitor for active sites, reaching \(V_\text{max}\) (statement 3 is correct).
- Statement 4 describes non-competitive inhibition, which lowers \(V_\text{max}\).

Marking scheme

A is correct [1 mark] (1, 2 and 3).
B, C, and D are incorrect as statement 4 is characteristic of non-competitive inhibition.
Question 28 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Four identical cylinders of potato tissue, each with an initial mass of \(5.00\text{ g}\), were placed into separate sucrose solutions (\(\mathbf{W}\), \(\mathbf{X}\), \(\mathbf{Y}\), and \(\mathbf{Z}\)) for 2 hours.

The table shows the final mass of each cylinder.

$$\begin{array}{|c|c|}
\hline
\text{sucrose solution} & \text{final mass / g} \\
\hline
\mathbf{W} & 5.45 \\
\mathbf{X} & 5.00 \\
\mathbf{Y} & 4.62 \\
\mathbf{Z} & 4.18 \\
\hline
\end{array}$$

Which statement is correct?
  1. A.Solution \(\mathbf{W}\) has a lower water potential than the potato tissue.
  2. B.In solution \(\mathbf{X}\), there is no movement of water molecules into or out of the potato cells.
  3. C.In solution \(\mathbf{Y}\), water moved out of the cells down a water potential gradient.
  4. D.Solution \(\mathbf{Z}\) has the highest water potential of all four solutions.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A is incorrect: The mass increased in \(\mathbf{W}\), meaning water entered cells by osmosis down a water potential gradient; \(\mathbf{W}\) has a higher water potential than the tissue.
B is incorrect: In solution \(\mathbf{X}\), there is dynamic equilibrium (water enters and leaves at equal rates), not zero movement.
C is correct: In solution \(\mathbf{Y}\), mass decreased from \(5.00\text{ g}\) to \(4.62\text{ g}\) because water moved out of the cells down a water potential gradient.
D is incorrect: In solution \(\mathbf{Z}\), the tissue lost the greatest amount of mass, which indicates \(\mathbf{Z}\) has the lowest water potential.

Marking scheme

C is correct [1 mark].
A, B, and D describe incorrect interpretations of water potential, dynamic equilibrium, and osmosis trends.
Question 29 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A somatic cell from an animal with a diploid chromosome number of \(2n = 8\) undergoes mitotic cell division.

Which row correctly states the total number of chromosomes and the total number of telomeres present in this single cell at metaphase and at anaphase?

$$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|c|}
\hline
& \multicolumn{2}{c|}{\text{metaphase}} & \multicolumn{2}{c|}{\text{anaphase}} \\
\cline{2-5}
& \text{chromosomes} & \text{telomeres} & \text{chromosomes} & \text{telomeres} \\
\hline
\mathbf{A} & 8 & 32 & 16 & 32 \\
\mathbf{B} & 8 & 16 & 8 & 16 \\
\mathbf{C} & 16 & 32 & 16 & 32 \\
\mathbf{D} & 8 & 32 & 8 & 16 \\
\hline
\end{array}$$
  1. A.Row A
  2. B.Row B
  3. C.Row C
  4. D.Row D
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. At metaphase: There are 8 chromosomes, each consisting of 2 sister chromatids (16 chromatids in total). Each chromatid is a double-stranded DNA molecule with 2 telomeres (one at each end). Thus, total telomeres = \(16 \times 2 = 32\).
2. At anaphase: The centromeres divide and sister chromatids separate to become individual daughter chromosomes. There are now 16 chromosomes in the cell. The total amount of DNA has not changed, so there are still 32 telomeres.

Marking scheme

A is correct [1 mark].
B, C, and D miscount chromatid separation as maintaining 8 chromosomes or halve telomere count incorrectly.
Question 30 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A double-stranded DNA molecule is 3600 base pairs in length.

Analysis shows that 22% of the total nitrogenous bases in this molecule are guanine (G).

How many adenine (A) bases are present in this DNA molecule?
  1. A.792
  2. B.1008
  3. C.1584
  4. D.2016
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. 3600 base pairs = \(3600 \times 2 = 7200\) total bases.
2. In double-stranded DNA, percentage of \(\text{G} = \text{C} = 22\%\).
3. Percentage of \(\text{G} + \text{C} = 44\%\).
4. Therefore, percentage of \(\text{A} + \text{T} = 100\% - 44\% = 56\%\).
5. Percentage of \(\text{A} = \frac{56\%}{2} = 28\%\).
6. Number of adenine bases = \(0.28 \times 7200 = 2016\).

Marking scheme

D is correct [1 mark].
A calculates 22% of 3600.
B calculates 28% of 3600 base pairs instead of total bases.
C calculates 22% of 7200 (the number of guanine bases).
Question 31 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which row correctly describes the apoplast pathway for water movement across the root cortex of a dicotyledonous plant?

$$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|c|}
\hline
& \text{passes through} & \text{involves living} & \text{main driving} & \text{blocked at} \\
& \text{plasmodesmata} & \text{parts of cells} & \text{force} & \text{endodermis} \\
\hline
\mathbf{A} & \text{no} & \text{no} & \text{transpiration pull} & \text{yes} \\
\mathbf{B} & \text{yes} & \text{no} & \text{osmosis} & \text{yes} \\
\mathbf{C} & \text{no} & \text{yes} & \text{transpiration pull} & \text{no} \\
\mathbf{D} & \text{yes} & \text{yes} & \text{active transport} & \text{no} \\
\hline
\end{array}$$
  1. A.Row A
  2. B.Row B
  3. C.Row C
  4. D.Row D
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The apoplast pathway moves water exclusively through non-living cell walls and intercellular spaces (not through plasmodesmata or living protoplasts). The movement of water through the apoplast is driven by mass flow due to transpiration pull and cohesive/adhesive forces. At the endodermis, the waterproof suberin in the Casparian strip blocks the apoplast pathway, forcing water into the symplast.

Marking scheme

A is correct [1 mark].
B, C, and D contain incorrect descriptions of the apoplast pathway regarding cellular structures or Casparian strip blockage.
Question 32 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
An oxygen dissociation curve for adult human haemoglobin was determined under standard resting conditions (pH 7.4, \(37\,^\circ\text{C}\)).

Which physiological changes cause the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the right (the Bohr effect)?

1 an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in active muscle tissues
2 a decrease in blood pH due to the accumulation of lactic acid
3 a decrease in temperature in peripheral blood vessels during cold exposure
4 an increase in the concentration of hydrogen ions inside erythrocytes
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.1 and 4 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A rightward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve (Bohr effect) means haemoglobin has a lower affinity for oxygen, promoting oxygen unloading:
- 1 is correct: High \(\text{pCO}_2\) promotes formation of carbonic acid and hydrogen ions, shifting the curve to the right.
- 2 and 4 are correct: Increased \([\text{H}^+]\) / decreased pH promotes binding of \(\text{H}^+\) to oxyhaemoglobin, causing it to release oxygen and shift the curve to the right.
- 3 is incorrect: A decrease in temperature increases haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, shifting the curve to the left.

Marking scheme

B is correct [1 mark] (1, 2 and 4 only).
A, C, and D are incorrect as statement 3 shifts the curve to the left.
Question 33 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A student calibrated a light microscope using an eyepiece graticule and a stage micrometer scale.

At a magnification of \(\times 400\):
- 1 small division of the stage micrometer \(= 0.01\text{ mm}\)
- 25 eyepiece graticule units (epu) aligned precisely with 40 small divisions of the stage micrometer.

A transverse section of a dicotyledonous leaf was viewed at the same magnification. A palisade mesophyll cell was measured to have a length of 15 epu.

What is the actual length of the palisade mesophyll cell in \(\mu\text{m}\)?
  1. A.24
  2. B.96
  3. C.240
  4. D.375
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Find the total distance represented by 40 stage micrometer divisions:
\(40 \times 0.01\text{ mm} = 0.40\text{ mm} = 400\ \mu\text{m}\).
2. Calculate the length represented by 1 epu:
\(1\text{ epu} = \frac{400\ \mu\text{m}}{25} = 16\ \mu\text{m}\).
3. Calculate the actual length of the cell:
\(\text{Actual length} = 15\text{ epu} \times 16\ \mu\text{m} = 240\ \mu\text{m}\).

Marking scheme

[1 mark] C is correct (240 \(\mu\text{m}\)).
A is incorrect: corresponds to arithmetic error dividing by 10 (24 \(\mu\text{m}\)).
B is incorrect: calculated from \(15 \times 0.40 \times 16\) incorrectly.
D is incorrect: calculated using inverse ratio \(25 / 40 \times 15 \times 40\).
Question 34 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which statements correctly describe differences between amylose and cellulose?

1 Amylose is composed of \(\alpha\)-glucose monomers, whereas cellulose is composed of \(\beta\)-glucose monomers.
2 In cellulose, successive glucose monomers are rotated through \(180^\circ\) relative to their neighbours, whereas in amylose all monomers are in the same orientation.
3 Amylose contains both \(\alpha\)-1,4 and \(\alpha\)-1,6-glycosidic bonds, whereas cellulose contains only \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds.
4 Parallel cellulose chains form inter-chain hydrogen bonds to produce microfibrils, whereas amylose forms a compact helical molecule stabilised by intra-chain hydrogen bonds.
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.2, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 4 only
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

- Statement 1 is correct: amylose consists of \(\alpha\)-glucose; cellulose consists of \(\beta\)-glucose.
- Statement 2 is correct: to form \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds in cellulose, alternate \(\beta\)-glucose units are inverted (rotated \(180^\circ\)). In amylose, all \(\alpha\)-glucose units have the same orientation.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: amylose is unbranched and contains only \(\alpha\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds (amylopectin contains \(\alpha\)-1,6 bonds).
- Statement 4 is correct: unbranched cellulose chains lie parallel and form extensive hydrogen bonds giving microfibrils with high tensile strength, while amylose coils into a helix via internal hydrogen bonds.

Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

Marking scheme

[1 mark] D is correct (1, 2 and 4 only).
A, B, and C include statement 3 (incorrect because amylose has only 1,4-glycosidic bonds; 1,6-glycosidic bonds are found in amylopectin).
Question 35 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
An experiment was conducted to investigate the effect of two different enzyme inhibitors, P and Q, on the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction.

The results obtained for maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\text{max}}\)) and the Michaelis–Menten constant (\(K_{\text{m}}\)) are shown in the table.

$$\begin{array}{|l|c|c|}\hline \text{Reaction condition} & V_{\text{max}} / \text{arbitrary units} & K_{\text{m}} / \text{mmol dm}^{-3} \\hline \text{Uninhibited enzyme} & 120 & 2.5 \\hline \text{Enzyme + inhibitor P} & 120 & 7.2 \\hline \text{Enzyme + inhibitor Q} & 65 & 2.5 \\hline\end{array}$$

Which row correctly identifies the type of inhibition exhibited by P and Q, and the effect of increasing substrate concentration on reaction rate in the presence of inhibitor P?
  1. A.Inhibitor P is competitive; inhibitor Q is non-competitive; rate increases to reach the uninhibited \(V_{\text{max}}\).
  2. B.Inhibitor P is non-competitive; inhibitor Q is competitive; rate increases to reach the uninhibited \(V_{\text{max}}\).
  3. C.Inhibitor P is competitive; inhibitor Q is non-competitive; rate remains permanently below the uninhibited \(V_{\text{max}}\).
  4. D.Inhibitor P is non-competitive; inhibitor Q is non-competitive; rate increases to reach a higher \(V_{\text{max}}\).
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

- Inhibitor P increases \(K_{\text{m}}\) (from 2.5 to 7.2) without altering \(V_{\text{max}}\) (remains 120), which is the characteristic behaviour of a competitive inhibitor.
- Inhibitor Q decreases \(V_{\text{max}}\) (from 120 to 65) without altering \(K_{\text{m}}\) (remains 2.5), which is the characteristic behaviour of a non-competitive inhibitor.
- In competitive inhibition (inhibitor P), adding excess substrate increases the probability that substrate binds to the active site instead of inhibitor, so the rate increases until \(V_{\text{max}}\) is restored.

Marking scheme

[1 mark] A is correct (P: competitive; Q: non-competitive; effect on P: reaches uninhibited \(V_{\text{max}}\)).
B, C, and D are incorrect due to misidentifying competitive vs non-competitive kinetics or the overcome-ability of competitive inhibition by substrate.
Question 36 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Uniform cylinders of beetroot tissue were immersed in sucrose solutions of differing concentrations. After 90 minutes, the percentage change in tissue mass was determined for each solution:

$$\begin{array}{|c|c|}\hline \text{Concentration of sucrose solution} / \text{mol dm}^{-3} & \text{Percentage change in mass} / \% \\hline 0.0 & +16.0 \\hline 0.2 & +6.4 \\hline 0.4 & -3.2 \\hline 0.6 & -12.0 \\hline 0.8 & -19.5 \\hline\end{array}$$

Which statement is supported by these data?
  1. A.Net movement of water into the cells occurs only at concentrations strictly above \(0.40\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\).
  2. B.The water potential of the sucrose solution is equal to the water potential of the beetroot cells at approximately \(0.33\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\).
  3. C.At \(0.0\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\), beetroot cells continually absorb water until their cell surface membranes lyse.
  4. D.At \(0.8\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\), the protoplasts exert maximum positive pressure against the cell walls.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

- The sucrose concentration at which no net gain or loss of water occurs (percentage change in mass = 0%) represents the point where the water potential of the solution equals that of the beetroot tissue.
- Between \(0.2\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) (+6.4%) and \(0.4\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) (-3.2%), a linear interpolation gives \(0.2 + \left(\frac{6.4}{6.4 - (-3.2)}\right) \times 0.2 = 0.2 + \left(\frac{6.4}{9.6}\right) \times 0.2 \approx 0.33\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\).
- Therefore, the water potential of the sucrose solution equals the internal water potential of the tissue cells at approximately \(0.33\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\).

Marking scheme

[1 mark] B is correct (approx. 0.33 mol dm\(^{-3}\) is the isotonic point where mass change is zero).
A is incorrect: net uptake of water occurs up to 0.33 mol dm\(^{-3}\), not 0.4 mol dm\(^{-3}\).
C is incorrect: cells in pure water do not burst due to rigid cellulose cell walls providing wall pressure.
D is incorrect: at 0.8 mol dm\(^{-3}\), cells lose water and become plasmolysed, rather than turgid.
Question 37 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A diploid somatic cell of an animal species has 36 chromosomes and contains \(6.0\text{ pg}\) of nuclear DNA during the \(\text{G}_1\) phase of interphase.

What are the number of chromosomes and the mass of nuclear DNA present in this cell during metaphase of mitosis, and in one of the daughter cells at the end of cytokinesis?
  1. A.Metaphase: 72 chromosomes, \(12.0\text{ pg}\); Daughter cell: 36 chromosomes, \(6.0\text{ pg}\)
  2. B.Metaphase: 72 chromosomes, \(6.0\text{ pg}\); Daughter cell: 36 chromosomes, \(3.0\text{ pg}\)
  3. C.Metaphase: 36 chromosomes, \(12.0\text{ pg}\); Daughter cell: 36 chromosomes, \(6.0\text{ pg}\)
  4. D.Metaphase: 36 chromosomes, \(6.0\text{ pg}\); Daughter cell: 18 chromosomes, \(3.0\text{ pg}\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. In \(\text{G}_1\), the cell has 36 chromosomes (each composed of a single chromatid) and \(6.0\text{ pg}\) of DNA.
2. During S phase, DNA undergoes semi-conservative replication. By metaphase, each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids joined at the centromere. The chromosome number remains 36, while the DNA mass doubles to \(12.0\text{ pg}\).
3. During anaphase, sister chromatids separate. Cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm into two identical daughter cells, each having 36 chromosomes and \(6.0\text{ pg}\) of nuclear DNA.

Marking scheme

[1 mark] C is correct (Metaphase: 36 chromosomes, 12.0 pg; Daughter cell: 36 chromosomes, 6.0 pg).
A and B are incorrect: confused chromatid number with chromosome number in metaphase (72 is chromatid number).
D is incorrect: failed to account for DNA doubling in S phase.
Question 38 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A double-stranded segment of DNA consists of 450 base pairs. In this DNA segment, 32% of all nitrogenous bases are cytosine.

The entire transcribed region from this segment is used as the template strand to synthesise a molecule of mature mRNA that is translated into a single continuous polypeptide.

Assuming the final triplet codon is a stop codon that does not code for an amino acid, what is the total number of adenine bases in the double-stranded DNA segment and the maximum number of amino acids in the polypeptide?
  1. A.162 adenine bases and 150 amino acids
  2. B.162 adenine bases and 149 amino acids
  3. C.81 adenine bases and 149 amino acids
  4. D.324 adenine bases and 150 amino acids
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Total bases in double-stranded DNA \(= 450 \times 2 = 900\text{ bases}\).
2. Percentage of cytosine (C) \(= 32\%\), so percentage of guanine (G) \(= 32\%\).
\(\text{Total } (\text{C} + \text{G}) = 64\%\).
3. Percentage of \((\text{A} + \text{T}) = 100\% - 64\% = 36\%\).
Percentage of adenine (A) \(= 18\%\).
Number of adenine bases \(= 0.18 \times 900 = 162\).
4. Length of template strand \(= 450\text{ nucleotides}\).
Total codons in mRNA \(= \frac{450}{3} = 150\text{ codons}\).
5. Since the last codon is a non-coding stop codon, maximum amino acids \(= 150 - 1 = 149\).

Marking scheme

[1 mark] B is correct (162 adenine bases, 149 amino acids).
A is incorrect: calculated codons without subtracting stop codon (150).
C is incorrect: calculated adenine count from 450 instead of 900 total bases (81).
D is incorrect: calculated A + T total (324) instead of adenine alone.
Question 39 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which row correctly describes the sequence of processes that occurs during the active loading of sucrose into phloem sieve tube elements at a source leaf?
  1. A.Protons are actively pumped into cell wall spaces \(\rightarrow\) sucrose is cotransported into companion cells with protons \(\rightarrow\) water potential in sieve tube decreases \(\rightarrow\) water enters sieve tube by osmosis
  2. B.Protons are actively pumped into sieve tubes \(\rightarrow\) sucrose diffuses into cell wall spaces \(\rightarrow\) water potential in sieve tube increases \(\rightarrow\) water enters sieve tube by mass flow
  3. C.Protons diffuse into companion cells \(\rightarrow\) sucrose is actively pumped into xylem vessels \(\rightarrow\) water potential in sieve tube decreases \(\rightarrow\) water moves into xylem by osmosis
  4. D.Protons are actively pumped into companion cells \(\rightarrow\) sucrose is cotransported out of sieve tubes \(\rightarrow\) water potential in sieve tube increases \(\rightarrow\) water leaves sieve tube by osmosis
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

- \(\text{H}^+\) ions (protons) are actively pumped out of companion cells into cell wall spaces using ATP.
- This establishes a steep proton electrochemical gradient across the companion cell membrane.
- \(\text{H}^+\) ions diffuse back into companion cells down this gradient through cotransporter membrane proteins, co-transporting sucrose against its concentration gradient.
- High sucrose concentration in companion cells and sieve tube elements lowers (makes more negative) the solute potential, causing water to enter by osmosis from the xylem, which raises hydrostatic pressure and drives mass flow.

Marking scheme

[1 mark] A is correct (Protons pumped into cell wall; cotransport into companion cell; water potential decreases; water enters by osmosis).
B is incorrect: sucrose is cotransported into, not out of, companion cells.
C is incorrect: protons are pumped out using ATP, not diffused out actively, and water leaves xylem, not enters xylem.
D is incorrect: water potential decreases (becomes more negative), rather than increases.
Question 40 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The graph below shows two oxygen dissociation curves for adult human haemoglobin: Curve 1 and Curve 2.

Curve 2 lies to the right of Curve 1 across all intermediate partial pressures of oxygen (\(pO_2\)).

Which factor causes the shift from Curve 1 to Curve 2, and what is the physiological advantage of this shift to actively respiring skeletal muscle tissue?
  1. A.Cause: decrease in blood temperature; Advantage: haemoglobin binds oxygen more tightly, preventing oxygen depletion in capillaries
  2. B.Cause: increase in blood pH; Advantage: haemoglobin retains more oxygen as it passes through the lungs
  3. C.Cause: increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide; Advantage: haemoglobin binds oxygen more readily at lower \(pO_2\)
  4. D.Cause: increase in hydrogen ion concentration (decrease in pH); Advantage: haemoglobin releases a higher percentage of oxygen at the \(pO_2\) found in working muscles
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

- A rightward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve is known as the Bohr shift.
- It is caused by an increased concentration of carbon dioxide (\(p\text{CO}_2\)), which reacts with water (catalysed by carbonic anhydrase in RBCs) to form carbonic acid, dissociating into \(\text{H}^+\) and \(\text{HCO}_3^-\). The resulting lower pH / higher \([\text{H}^+]\) alters haemoglobin's tertiary structure, reducing its affinity for oxygen.
- Advantage: At any given \(pO_2\) in actively respiring tissues, haemoglobin has a lower percentage saturation, allowing more oxygen to dissociate and be released for aerobic cellular respiration.

Marking scheme

[1 mark] D is correct (Increase in \([\text{H}^+]\) / decrease in pH causes right shift; haemoglobin releases more oxygen to respiring tissue).
A and B describe a leftward shift (increase in affinity).
C is incorrect: higher \(p\text{CO}_2\) decreases haemoglobin affinity, not increases it.

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Paper 2 AS Level Structured Questions (9700/22)

Answer all questions in the spaces provided on the question paper. Show all mathematical working and include appropriate units where required.
24 Question · 60 marks
Question 1 · short_answer
1.5 marks
Describe the structural difference between the ring forms of \(\alpha\)-glucose and \(\beta\)-glucose, and state the type of bond formed when two \(\alpha\)-glucose molecules undergo a condensation reaction.
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Worked solution

In the ring form of \(\alpha\)-glucose, the hydroxyl (-OH) group on carbon-1 (C1) projects downwards (below the ring plane), whereas in \(\beta\)-glucose, the -OH group on C1 projects upwards (above the ring plane). When two \(\alpha\)-glucose molecules condense, a 1,4-glycosidic bond is formed with the loss of a water molecule.

Marking scheme

1 mark for: on carbon 1 / C1, the hydroxyl / -OH group is below the ring in \(\alpha\)-glucose and above the ring in \(\beta\)-glucose [A: -OH on C1 points in opposite directions / AW];
0.5 marks for: \(\alpha\)-1,4-glycosidic bond / 1,4-glycosidic bond [R: if peptide or ester bond].
Question 2 · short_answer
1.5 marks
A transmission electron micrograph shows a cross-section of a mitochondrion with an image length of \(48\text{ mm}\). The magnification of the image is \(\times 30\,000\). Calculate the actual length of the mitochondrion in micrometres (\(\mu\text{m}\)).
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Convert image length to micrometres: \(48\text{ mm} = 48\,000\,\mu\text{m}\).
Use the formula: \(\text{Actual size} = \frac{\text{Image size}}{\text{Magnification}}\).
\(\text{Actual size} = \frac{48\,000\,\mu\text{m}}{30\,000} = 1.6\,\mu\text{m}\).

Marking scheme

0.5 marks for correct conversion of units (e.g. \(48\text{ mm} = 48\,000\,\mu\text{m}\) or \(0.048\text{ m}\));
1 mark for correct calculation showing \(1.6\,\mu\text{m}\) [A: \(1.6\) if units are already provided in the answer prompt].
Question 3 · short_answer
1.5 marks
State the substance deposited in the Casparian strip of the root endodermis and explain how this strip affects the pathway of water entering the stele.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The Casparian strip contains waterproof suberin in the radial and transverse walls of endodermal cells. This blocks the apoplast pathway (movement through cell walls), directing water and dissolved mineral ions into the living protoplast (symplast pathway) where uptake can be regulated by transport proteins in the plasma membrane.

Marking scheme

0.5 marks for: suberin [A: lignin];
1 mark for: blocks / waterproofs the apoplast pathway / cell wall pathway AND forces water into the symplast pathway / through the cytoplasm / across the cell surface membrane.
Question 4 · short_answer
1.5 marks
In the production of monoclonal antibodies using the hybridoma method, name the two types of cells that are fused together, and state one reason why this fusion is necessary.
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Worked solution

Monoclonal antibody production requires fusing an antibody-secreting plasma cell (or spleen B-lymphocyte isolated from an immunised animal) with an immortal myeloma (cancer) cell. This forms a hybridoma cell capable of both continuous cell division and secreting a single specific antibody clone.

Marking scheme

0.5 marks for: (splenic) B-lymphocyte / plasma cell AND myeloma / cancer / tumour cell [both required];
1 mark for: hybridoma cells can divide indefinitely / are immortal AND produce / secrete the specific antibody [AW].
Question 5 · short_answer
1.5 marks
State the two structural differences between purine and pyrimidine nitrogenous bases, and state the number of hydrogen bonds formed between guanine and cytosine in a double-stranded DNA molecule.
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Worked solution

Purine bases (adenine and guanine) consist of two fused rings (a 6-membered ring and a 5-membered ring), while pyrimidine bases (thymine, cytosine, uracil) consist of a single 6-membered ring. A cytosine-guanine (C-G) complementary base pair forms three hydrogen bonds.

Marking scheme

1 mark for: purines have two rings / double-ring structure AND pyrimidines have one ring / single-ring structure;
0.5 marks for: 3 / three (hydrogen bonds).
Question 6 · short_answer
1.5 marks
State the role of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in red blood cells and describe the effect of an increase in carbon dioxide concentration on the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Carbonic anhydrase catalyses the conversion of \(\text{CO}_2\) and \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\) into \(\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3\), which dissociates into \(\text{H}^+\) and \(\text{HCO}_3^-\). An increase in \(\text{CO}_2\) produces more \(\text{H}^+\), which binds to haemoglobin forming haemoglobinic acid (HHb), lowering haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen and promoting oxygen unloading.

Marking scheme

0.5 marks for: catalyses the reaction between carbon dioxide and water to form carbonic acid / \(\text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightleftharpoons \text{H}_2\text{CO}_3\);
1 mark for: decreases the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen / promotes oxygen release / shifts oxygen dissociation curve to the right / Bohr shift.
Question 7 · short_answer
1.5 marks
Name the pathogen that causes cholera, including its taxonomic kingdom/domain type, and state its primary mode of transmission.
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Worked solution

Cholera is caused by the Gram-negative bacterium Vibrio cholerae (a prokaryote). It is transmitted via the faecal-oral route through ingestion of water or food contaminated with human faeces containing the pathogen.

Marking scheme

1 mark for: Vibrio cholerae [must be spelt correctly] AND bacterium / prokaryote;
0.5 marks for: water-borne / food-borne / ingestion of water or food contaminated with faeces / faecal-oral route.
Question 8 · short_answer
1.5 marks
Define the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_m\)) of an enzyme and explain what a low \(K_m\) value indicates regarding enzyme affinity for its substrate.
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Worked solution

\(K_m\) is defined as the substrate concentration required to reach half the maximum velocity (\(0.5\,V_{\text{max}}\)). An enzyme with a low \(K_m\) requires a lower concentration of substrate to reach \(\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{max}}\), which reflects a high binding affinity between the enzyme active site and the substrate.

Marking scheme

1 mark for: the substrate concentration at which the enzyme achieves half its maximum rate / \(\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{max}}\) / half the maximum velocity [A: formula or graph reference showing \([S]\) at \(0.5 V_{\text{max}}\)];
0.5 marks for: (a low \(K_m\) indicates) high affinity of the enzyme for the substrate.
Question 9 · short_answer
1.5 marks
(a) State the precise type of covalent bond formed between adjacent amino acid monomers during protein synthesis.

(b) State one type of non-covalent interaction that maintains the tertiary structure of a globular protein.
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Worked solution

(a) Adjacent amino acid monomers are joined by condensation reactions to form covalent peptide bonds between the amine group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of the next.

(b) The specific three-dimensional tertiary conformation of a globular protein is stabilised by non-covalent interactions such as hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds (electrostatic attractions), or hydrophobic interactions (disulfide bonds are covalent and excluded by the question stem).

Marking scheme

(a) peptide (bond) [0.75]

(b) any one from:
- hydrogen bond(s) ;
- ionic bond(s) / electrovalent bond(s) / electrostatic attraction(s) ;
- hydrophobic interaction(s) / hydrophobic bond(s) ; [0.75]

[Total: 1.5]
Question 10 · short_answer
1.5 marks
(a) State the sedimentation coefficient (size) of the ribosomes found freely in the cytoplasm of a prokaryotic cell.

(b) Name the structural polymer that constitutes the cell wall of typical bacteria.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Prokaryotic cells contain 70S ribosomes free in their cytoplasm, unlike eukaryotic cytoplasmic ribosomes which are 80S.

(b) The bacterial cell wall is composed of a rigid meshwork polymer known as peptidoglycan (also accepted: murein).

Marking scheme

(a) 70S (ribosomes) [0.75]
[R] 80S

(b) peptidoglycan / murein [0.75]
[R] cellulose / chitin

[Total: 1.5]
Question 11 · Structured Mechanistic Explanation
3 marks
Explain how sucrose is actively loaded into a companion cell from the surrounding mesophyll tissue in a dicotyledonous leaf.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Protons (\(\text{H}^+\) ions) are actively pumped out of the companion cell into the surrounding cell wall space using ATP via a proton pump / \(\text{H}^+\)-ATPase.
2. This creates a steep proton concentration / electrochemical gradient (higher \(\text{H}^+\) concentration in cell wall than inside the companion cell cytoplasm).
3. Protons move back into the companion cell down their concentration gradient through a cotransporter / symporter protein, which co-transports sucrose into the cell against its concentration gradient (secondary active transport).

Marking scheme

1. protons / \(\text{H}^+\) (ions) actively transported / pumped out of companion cell (into apoplast / cell wall) using ATP / via \(\text{H}^+\)-ATPase ;
2. creates a concentration gradient / electrochemical gradient of \(\text{H}^+\) (ions) (between apoplast and cytoplasm) ;
3. \(\text{H}^+\) (ions) enter companion cell (down their gradient) through a cotransporter (protein) / symporter ;
4. sucrose moves into companion cell against its concentration gradient (together with \(\text{H}^+\)) ; [max 3]
Question 12 · Structured Mechanistic Explanation
3 marks
Explain why the Bohr effect causes haemoglobin to release oxygen more readily in actively respiring tissues.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. High rate of respiration produces a high \(p\text{CO}_2\) in tissues.
2. \(\text{CO}_2\) diffuses into erythrocytes and reacts with water to form carbonic acid (\(\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3\)), catalysed by carbonic anhydrase.
3. Carbonic acid dissociates to yield \(\text{H}^+\) ions and \(\text{HCO}_3^-\).
4. \(\text{H}^+\) ions bind to oxyhaemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid (\(\text{HHb}\)), causing an allosteric conformational change in haemoglobin that lowers its affinity for oxygen, shifting the dissociation curve to the right and promoting oxygen release.

Marking scheme

1. (higher rate of aerobic respiration releases) high \(p\text{CO}_2\) / \(\text{CO}_2\) diffuses into red blood cells ;
2. \(\text{CO}_2\) reacts with \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\) to form \(\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3\) / carbonic acid, catalysed by carbonic anhydrase, which dissociates into \(\text{H}^+\) and \(\text{HCO}_3^-\);
3. \(\text{H}^+\) (ions) bind to haemoglobin / oxyhaemoglobin (forming haemoglobinic acid / \(\text{HHb}\)) ;
4. causes conformational change in haemoglobin / lowers affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen (so oxygen is released) ; [max 3]
Question 13 · Structured Mechanistic Explanation
3 marks
Explain the effect of a reversible non-competitive inhibitor on the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\max}\)) and the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_{\text{m}}\)) of an enzyme-catalysed reaction.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Inhibitor binds to an allosteric site (a site other than the active site) of the enzyme.
2. This changes the tertiary structure and active site conformation, preventing catalysis or substrate binding in bound enzymes, so \(V_{\max}\) decreases even at saturating substrate concentrations.
3. The affinity of unaffected active sites for substrate remains constant (or the inhibitor binds equally well to free enzyme and ES complex), so \(K_{\text{m}}\) remains unchanged.

Marking scheme

1. inhibitor binds to allosteric site / site other than active site ;
2. alters tertiary structure / 3D shape of active site so active site is no longer complementary / fewer ES complexes formed per unit time ;
3. \(V_{\max}\) decreases (and cannot be restored by increasing substrate concentration) ;
4. \(K_{\text{m}}\) remains unchanged / constant because affinity of remaining active sites for substrate is not altered ; [max 3]
Question 14 · Structured Mechanistic Explanation
3 marks
Explain why the synthesis of the lagging strand during semi-conservative DNA replication occurs discontinuously.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. The two parental DNA strands are antiparallel (one runs 5' to 3' and the other 3' to 5').
2. DNA polymerase can only extend a growing strand in the 5' to 3' direction (adding nucleotides to the 3' -OH group).
3. Because the replication fork unzips continuously in one direction, the lagging strand must be synthesised in short segments (Okazaki fragments) moving away from the replication fork, which are later joined together by DNA ligase.

Marking scheme

1. DNA strands are antiparallel / lagging strand template runs 5' to 3' into the replication fork ;
2. DNA polymerase can only add (free) nucleotides to the 3' (-OH) end (of the new strand) / synthesises DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction ;
3. synthesis on the lagging strand occurs away from the replication fork (as DNA unzips) ;
4. produces Okazaki fragments / short DNA fragments (which are joined by DNA ligase) ; [max 3]
Question 15 · Structured Mechanistic Explanation
3 marks
Explain how penicillin acts on bacteria to cause cell lysis and why it is ineffective against viruses.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Penicillin inhibits the enzyme transpeptidase, which forms peptide cross-links between peptidoglycan polymers during cell wall synthesis.
2. The newly formed bacterial cell wall becomes weak and fragile; as water enters the cell down a water potential gradient by osmosis, the cell cannot withstand internal hydrostatic pressure and undergoes osmotic lysis.
3. Viruses do not have a cell wall, peptidoglycan, or their own metabolic enzymes (transpeptidase) for penicillin to inhibit.

Marking scheme

1. penicillin inhibits transpeptidase / prevents formation of peptide cross-links between peptidoglycan (chains / molecules) ;
2. cell wall is weakened / cannot resist osmotic pressure / internal turgor pressure ;
3. water enters cell by osmosis / down a water potential gradient causing cell to burst / lyse ;
4. viruses have no cell wall / no peptidoglycan / no transpeptidase / are non-cellular ; [max 3]
Question 16 · Structured Mechanistic Explanation
3 marks
Explain how the molecular structure of collagen relates to its function of providing high tensile strength to tissues.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Primary structure has a repeating tripeptide sequence where glycine is every third amino acid; because glycine has only a hydrogen atom as its R-group, the three polypeptide chains can pack tightly together.
2. Three helical polypeptide chains are held together by hydrogen bonds to form a rigid triple helix (tropocollagen).
3. Tropocollagen molecules are arranged parallel and staggered, held together by covalent cross-links between lysine residues, forming fibrils and fibres that resist pulling (tensile) forces.

Marking scheme

1. glycine as every third amino acid / small R-group allows close / tight packing of (three) polypeptide chains ;
2. three polypeptide chains form a triple helix held together by hydrogen bonds ;
3. (tropocollagen) molecules arranged in parallel / staggered layout (to prevent points of weakness) ;
4. covalent bonds / cross-links between adjacent molecules / form fibrils (and fibres) which resist stretching / tension ; [max 3]
Question 17 · Structured Mechanistic Explanation
3 marks
Explain the role of antigen presentation and clonal selection in the primary immune response following infection by a bacterium.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Phagocytes / macrophages engulf and hydrolyse the bacterial pathogen, presenting non-self antigens on their cell surface membrane.
2. Only specific B-lymphocytes (and T-helper lymphocytes) possessing surface receptors / antibodies that are complementary to the specific antigen will bind to it (clonal selection).
3. Binding activates the selected lymphocytes, stimulating them to divide repeatedly by mitosis (clonal expansion) to form antibody-secreting plasma cells and memory cells.

Marking scheme

1. macrophage / phagocyte / dendritic cell engulfs pathogen and presents (foreign / non-self) antigens on its cell surface membrane ;
2. B-lymphocyte / T-helper cell with complementary (surface) receptor / antibody binds to the specific antigen (clonal selection) ;
3. T-helper cells release cytokines / activate selected B-cells ;
4. selected B-cells divide by mitosis / undergo clonal expansion to differentiate into plasma cells (which secrete antibodies) and memory cells ; [max 3]
Question 18 · Structured Mechanistic Explanation
3 marks
Explain how the structural features of alveoli and their surrounding capillary network ensure rapid and efficient gas exchange.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Alveolar wall (squamous epithelium) and capillary wall (endothelium) are each one cell thick, creating an extremely short diffusion distance (thin barrier).
2. Large number of alveoli (and extensive capillary network) provides a very large surface area to volume ratio for diffusion.
3. Continuous blood flow through capillaries and ventilation of the lungs maintain steep concentration / partial pressure gradients for both \(\text{O}_2\) and \(\text{CO}_2\).

Marking scheme

1. thin wall / single layer of squamous epithelial cells (alveolus) AND endothelial cells (capillary) / short diffusion pathway ;
2. large number of alveoli / extensive capillary network gives large surface area (for diffusion) ;
3. blood flow / continuous circulation removes \(\text{O}_2\) and brings \(\text{CO}_2\) (maintaining steep concentration / partial pressure gradient) ;
4. ventilation / breathing constantly refreshes alveolar air / brings \(\text{O}_2\) and removes \(\text{CO}_2\) (maintaining steep gradient) ; [max 3]
Question 19 · structured
3 marks
Explain how sucrose is loaded into phloem companion cells from the surrounding mesophyll cells at a source.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Sucrose loading into companion cells involves secondary active transport:
1. Proton pumps (H+-ATPases) in the cell surface membrane of companion cells actively pump hydrogen ions (H+ / protons) out of the companion cell cytoplasm into the cell wall / apoplast pathway using energy from ATP hydrolysis.
2. This creates a steep proton / electrochemical concentration gradient, with a higher concentration of H+ in the cell wall / apoplast than inside the companion cell cytoplasm.
3. Protons move back into the companion cell by facilitated diffusion down their concentration gradient through sucrose-H+ cotransporter proteins (symporters). The kinetic energy released by proton movement is used to transport sucrose molecules into the companion cell simultaneously against their concentration gradient.

Marking scheme

1. hydrogen ions / protons / \(\text{H}^+\) pumped out of companion cell (into cell wall / apoplast) by active transport / using ATP / via proton pump ;
2. creates a concentration / electrochemical gradient of \(\text{H}^+\) (higher in apoplast / cell wall than inside companion cell) ;
3. \(\text{H}^+\) move back into companion cell (down concentration gradient) through / via a cotransporter (protein) / symport ;
4. sucrose moves / transported into companion cell against its concentration gradient (along with \(\text{H}^+\)) ;

[Max 3 marks]
Question 20 · calculation
2 marks
Fig. 1.1 is a transmission electron micrograph of a mitochondrion from a eukaryotic cell.

A line, A–B, is drawn along the maximum length of the mitochondrion.

The measured length of line A–B is \(68\text{ mm}\).
The actual maximum length of this mitochondrion is \(1.6\ \mu\text{m}\).

Calculate the magnification of the image shown in Fig. 1.1.

Show your working.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

To calculate the magnification of the micrograph:

1. State the formula for magnification:
\[\text{Magnification} = \frac{\text{size of image (I)}}{\text{actual size of specimen (A)}}\]

2. Convert both measurements into the same unit (e.g., micrometres, \(\mu\text{m}\)):
\[\text{Image length } (I) = 68\text{ mm} = 68 \times 1000\ \mu\text{m} = 68\,000\ \mu\text{m}\]
\[\text{Actual length } (A) = 1.6\ \mu\text{m}\]

3. Calculate magnification:
\[\text{Magnification} = \frac{68\,000\ \mu\text{m}}{1.6\ \mu\text{m}} = 42\,500\]

Magnification = \(\times 42\,500\)

Marking scheme

1. Correct conversion of measurement into consistent units AND division of image size by actual size (e.g. \(\frac{68\,000}{1.6}\) or \(\frac{68}{0.0016}\)) ; [1]
2. Correct final answer of \(42\,500\) / \(\times 42\,500\) / \(4.25 \times 10^4\) ; [1]

Notes:
- A \(\times\) before or after the number, but do not penalise if missing.
- R if units (e.g. mm or \(\mu\text{m}\)) are given in the final magnification answer.
Question 21 · Data Analysis & Deductions
4 marks
An investigation was carried out to study the kinetics of the enzyme lactase in the presence and absence of galactitol, a known structural analogue of galactose.

Table 1.1 shows the initial rate of reaction at different substrate (lactose) concentrations, with and without the addition of 10 mmol dm$^{-3}$ galactitol.

Table 1.1
| concentration of lactose / mmol dm$^{-3}$ | initial rate without inhibitor / $\mu$mol dm$^{-3}$ s$^{-1}$ | initial rate with 10 mmol dm$^{-3}$ galactitol / $\mu$mol dm$^{-3}$ s$^{-1}$ |
| :--- | :--- | :--- |
| 2.0 | 25.0 | 11.5 |
| 4.0 | 40.0 | 20.0 |
| 6.0 | 48.0 | 27.5 |
| 8.0 | 50.0 | 33.0 |
| 12.0 | 50.0 | 41.5 |
| 16.0 | 50.0 | 46.5 |
| 20.0 | 50.0 | 50.0 |

(a) Using the data in Table 1.1 for the reaction without inhibitor:
(i) State the maximum rate of reaction ($V_{\text{max}}$). [1]
(ii) Determine the Michaelis-Menten constant ($K_{\text{m}}$). [1]

(b) With reference to Table 1.1, explain how the data shows that galactitol acts as a competitive inhibitor of lactase. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) From Table 1.1, the initial rate without inhibitor plateaus at a constant value of 50.0 $\mu$mol dm$^{-3}$ s$^{-1}$ from 8.0 mmol dm$^{-3}$ onwards. Therefore, $V_{\text{max}} = 50.0\text{ }\mu\text{mol dm}^{-3}\text{ s}^{-1}$.

(a)(ii) $K_{\text{m}}$ is the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half of $V_{\text{max}}$. Half of $V_{\text{max}} = \frac{50.0}{2} = 25.0\text{ }\mu\text{mol dm}^{-3}\text{ s}^{-1}$. Looking at Table 1.1 without inhibitor, an initial rate of 25.0 $\mu$mol dm$^{-3}$ s$^{-1}$ occurs at a lactose concentration of 2.0 mmol dm$^{-3}$. Therefore, $K_{\text{m}} = 2.0\text{ mmol dm}^{-3}$.

(b) Competitive inhibitors bind reversibly to the active site. The data shows that at a high substrate concentration (20.0 mmol dm$^{-3}$), the rate with inhibitor reaches the same $V_{\text{max}}$ (50.0 $\mu$mol dm$^{-3}$ s$^{-1}$) as without inhibitor because substrate molecules outcompete the inhibitor for active sites. However, at lower substrate concentrations, the rate is lower in the presence of the inhibitor, indicating an increased apparent $K_{\text{m}}$ (requires a higher substrate concentration to reach $\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{max}}$).

Marking scheme

(a)(i) 50.0 / 50 ($\mu$mol dm$^{-3}$ s$^{-1}$); [1]
(a)(ii) 2.0 / 2 (mmol dm$^{-3}$); [1]
(b) (same $V_{\text{max}}$) $V_{\text{max}}$ remains unchanged / reaches 50.0 $\mu$mol dm$^{-3}$ s$^{-1}$ at high substrate concentration / at 20.0 mmol dm$^{-3}$; [1]
(higher $K_{\text{m}}$ / outcompeting) higher substrate concentration is required to achieve the same rate / substrate outcompetes inhibitor at high substrate concentrations / $K_{\text{m}}$ is increased (from 2.0 to 4.0 mmol dm$^{-3}$); [1]
Question 22 · Data Analysis & Deductions
4 marks
Discs of beetroot (Beta vulgaris) tissue were immersed in water baths maintained at different temperatures for 20 minutes. The discs were then removed, and the absorbance of the bathing solutions was measured using a colorimeter fitted with a blue filter. The colorimeter was calibrated to give percentage transmission of light (% transmission).

Table 2.1 shows the results.

Table 2.1
| temperature / $^{\circ}$C | percentage transmission of light / % |
| :--- | :--- |
| 20 | 92.0 |
| 30 | 88.5 |
| 40 | 80.0 |
| 50 | 44.0 |
| 60 | 16.0 |
| 70 | 4.0 |

(a) Calculate the percentage decrease in light transmission when the temperature was increased from 40 $^{\circ}$C to 60 $^{\circ}$C. Show your working.

percentage decrease = ........................................................... % [2]

(b) With reference to the structure of the cell surface membrane and tonoplast, explain the results observed between 40 $^{\circ}$C and 70 $^{\circ}$C. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)
Initial transmission at 40 $^{\circ}$C = 80.0%
Final transmission at 60 $^{\circ}$C = 16.0%
Decrease in transmission = $80.0 - 16.0 = 64.0$
Percentage decrease = $\frac{64.0}{80.0} \times 100 = 80.0\%$.

(b) As temperature rises above 40 $^{\circ}$C:
1. Phospholipids gain kinetic energy, increasing membrane fluidity and creating gaps in the bilayer.
2. Membrane proteins (integral/transmembrane proteins in cell surface membrane and tonoplast) denature due to disruption of hydrogen and ionic bonds, destroying tertiary structure.
3. This loss of membrane integrity allows the water-soluble betalain pigment stored in the vacuole to diffuse out into the solution, increasing pigment concentration and decreasing light transmission.

Marking scheme

(a) $(80.0 - 16.0) / 80.0 \times 100$ OR $64.0 / 80.0 \times 100$; [1]
80 / 80.0 (%); [1]
(b) Any two from:
1. (phospholipids) increased kinetic energy of phospholipids / phospholipids move apart / membrane becomes more fluid; [1]
2. (proteins) denaturation / change in tertiary structure / loss of 3D shape of membrane / intrinsic / carrier / channel proteins; [1]
3. (pigment leakage) tonoplast / cell surface membrane loses integrity / becomes more permeable so pigment / betalain diffuses / leaks out (into bathing solution); [1]
Question 23 · Data Analysis & Deductions
4 marks
A researcher determined the percentage saturation of mammalian haemoglobin with oxygen across a range of partial pressures of oxygen ($p\text{O}_2$) at two different partial pressures of carbon dioxide ($p\text{CO}_2$).

Table 3.1 shows the data collected.

Table 3.1
| partial pressure of oxygen ($p\text{O}_2$) / kPa | percentage saturation of haemoglobin at $p\text{CO}_2 = 5.3\text{ kPa}$ / % | percentage saturation of haemoglobin at $p\text{CO}_2 = 8.0\text{ kPa}$ / % |
| :--- | :--- | :--- |
| 2.0 | 18.0 | 8.0 |
| 4.0 | 56.0 | 34.0 |
| 6.0 | 78.0 | 62.0 |
| 8.0 | 89.0 | 80.0 |
| 10.0 | 95.0 | 90.0 |
| 12.0 | 98.0 | 96.0 |

(a) State the effect of increasing $p\text{CO}_2$ from 5.3 kPa to 8.0 kPa on the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen. [1]

(b) Using the data in Table 3.1 and your biological knowledge, explain the physiological advantage of the effect described in (a) to actively respiring muscle tissue during strenuous exercise. [3]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Increasing the partial pressure of carbon dioxide decreases the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen at any given partial pressure of oxygen (Bohr effect / shift).

(b)
1. Actively respiring muscle produces high amounts of carbon dioxide (elevating $p\text{CO}_2$ to 8.0 kPa) and hydrogen ions (lowering pH), which bind to haemoglobin forming haemoglobinic acid and altering its allosteric conformation.
2. In respiring tissue where $p\text{O}_2$ is low (e.g. at 4.0 kPa), haemoglobin saturation decreases from 56.0% to 34.0%, which releases an additional 22.0% of oxygen.
3. This ensures that more oxygen is unloaded/delivered directly to working muscle cells to sustain aerobic respiration and ATP synthesis, thereby preventing or delaying anaerobic respiration and fatigue.

Marking scheme

(a) decreases affinity (of haemoglobin) for oxygen / curve shifts to the right / Bohr shift / oxygen dissociates more readily; [1]
(b) Any three from:
1. (conditions in muscle) actively respiring tissue produces more $\text{CO}_2$ / higher $p\text{CO}_2$ / forms $\text{H}^+$ / lowers pH / carbonic anhydrase produces $\text{H}^+$ / forms haemoglobinic acid (HHb); [1]
2. (data quote / comparison) at lower $p\text{O}_2$ in tissues (e.g. at 4.0 kPa / 2.0 kPa), saturation is lower at 8.0 kPa than at 5.3 kPa / 22.0% more oxygen is released at 4.0 kPa / 10.0% more oxygen released at 2.0 kPa; [1]
3. (oxygen unloading) more oxygen dissociates / is unloaded / released from oxyhaemoglobin to the tissue cells; [1]
4. (metabolic advantage) supplies oxygen for (aerobic) respiration / ATP production / delays onset of anaerobic respiration / lactate accumulation; [1]
Question 24 · Data Analysis & Deductions
4 marks
An investigation was carried out to compare the rate of transpiration of two plant species, X and Y, at different wind speeds. Both plants had the same total leaf surface area.

Table 4.1 shows the results.

Table 4.1
| wind speed / m s$^{-1}$ | rate of transpiration in species X / mg dm$^{-2}$ min$^{-1}$ | rate of transpiration in species Y / mg dm$^{-2}$ min$^{-1}$ |
| :--- | :--- | :--- |
| 0.0 | 4.2 | 1.8 |
| 1.0 | 8.6 | 2.5 |
| 2.0 | 12.8 | 3.1 |
| 3.0 | 16.4 | 3.5 |
| 4.0 | 19.2 | 3.8 |
| 5.0 | 21.0 | 4.0 |
| 6.0 | 21.8 | 4.0 |

(a) With reference to Table 4.1, compare the effect of increasing wind speed on the rate of transpiration in species X and species Y. [2]

(b) Species Y is adapted to live in arid environments (a xerophyte).

Suggest and explain two structural adaptations of leaves in species Y that account for its lower rate of transpiration compared to species X as wind speed increases. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Similarities: In both species X and Y, increasing wind speed increases the rate of transpiration up to a plateau / maximum.
Differences: Species X has a consistently higher rate of transpiration than species Y at all wind speeds. Species X increases by $21.8 - 4.2 = 17.6\text{ mg dm}^{-2}\text{ min}^{-1}$, whereas species Y only increases by $4.0 - 1.8 = 2.2\text{ mg dm}^{-2}\text{ min}^{-1}$. Species Y plateaus earlier (at 5.0 m s$^{-1}$) than species X (which continues to rise to 6.0 m s$^{-1}$).

(b) Xerophytic structural adaptations:
1. Sunken stomata / stomatal crypts / pits: traps moist/humid air outside the stoma, which reduces the water potential gradient between inside the leaf and the atmosphere, and shields this boundary layer from being blown away by moving air.
2. Thick waxy cuticle: provides an impermeable barrier to water, preventing cuticular transpiration.
3. Hairs / trichomes on leaf surface: traps still air layer / reduces air movement near the stomata.
4. Rolled leaves: creates an enclosed microenvironment with high humidity around stomata.

Marking scheme

(a) Two from:
1. (general trend) for both species, rate of transpiration increases with wind speed / both plateau / level off; [1]
2. (magnitude / difference) rate is higher in species X than species Y at all wind speeds / species X has a larger overall increase ($17.6\text{ mg dm}^{-2}\text{ min}^{-1}$) than species Y ($2.2\text{ mg dm}^{-2}\text{ min}^{-1}$); [1]
3. (plateau point) species Y plateaus at lower wind speed / at 5.0 m s$^{-1}$ whereas species X continues to increase up to 6.0 m s$^{-1}$; [1]
(b) Any two adaptations with linked explanations [max 2]:
- sunken stomata / stomata in pits / crypts; traps moist / humid air / shields boundary layer from wind / reduces water potential gradient; [1]
- trichomes / epidermal hairs; traps a layer of moist air / reduces air currents over stomata; [1]
- rolled / curled leaves; traps humid air / reduces exposed surface area to wind; [1]
- thick (waxy) cuticle; increases diffusion distance / impermeable barrier to water loss; [1]

Paper 3 Advanced Practical Skills (9700/32)

Complete both practical investigations. Follow all step-by-step protocols, record measurements in fully labelled tables, construct graphs, execute biological drawings, and perform graticule calibrations.
10 Question · 33.5 marks
Question 1 · free-response
3 marks
You are provided with a stock solution of \(4.0\text{ g dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution, labelled S.

You are required to carry out a serial dilution of S to reduce the concentration by half at each step, to produce four further concentrations: \(2.0\text{ g dm}^{-3}\), \(1.0\text{ g dm}^{-3}\), \(0.5\text{ g dm}^{-3}\), and \(0.25\text{ g dm}^{-3}\).

You will need to prepare a minimum volume of \(10\text{ cm}^3\) of each concentration of sucrose solution.

Complete Table 1.1 to show how you will prepare the four concentrations of sucrose solution using serial dilution.

Table 1.1

| concentration of sucrose solution / \(\text{g dm}^{-3}\) | volume of sucrose solution / \(\text{cm}^3\) | source of sucrose solution | volume of distilled water / \(\text{cm}^3\) |
| :---: | :---: | :---: | :---: |
| 2.0 | | | |
| 1.0 | | | |
| 0.5 | | | |
| 0.25 | | | |
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

To carry out a two-fold (halving) serial dilution where at least \(10\text{ cm}^3\) of each concentration is retained:

1. For \(2.0\text{ g dm}^{-3}\): Take \(10\text{ cm}^3\) of the \(4.0\text{ g dm}^{-3}\) stock solution (S) and add \(10\text{ cm}^3\) of distilled water (total volume = \(20\text{ cm}^3\)).
2. For \(1.0\text{ g dm}^{-3}\): Take \(10\text{ cm}^3\) of the \(2.0\text{ g dm}^{-3}\) solution and add \(10\text{ cm}^3\) of distilled water (leaving \(10\text{ cm}^3\) of \(2.0\text{ g dm}^{-3}\) solution).
3. For \(0.5\text{ g dm}^{-3}\): Take \(10\text{ cm}^3\) of the \(1.0\text{ g dm}^{-3}\) solution and add \(10\text{ cm}^3\) of distilled water (leaving \(10\text{ cm}^3\) of \(1.0\text{ g dm}^{-3}\) solution).
4. For \(0.25\text{ g dm}^{-3}\): Take \(10\text{ cm}^3\) of the \(0.5\text{ g dm}^{-3}\) solution and add \(10\text{ cm}^3\) of distilled water (leaving \(10\text{ cm}^3\) of \(0.5\text{ g dm}^{-3}\) solution and producing \(20\text{ cm}^3\) of \(0.25\text{ g dm}^{-3}\) solution).

Completed table:

| concentration of sucrose solution / \(\text{g dm}^{-3}\) | volume of sucrose solution / \(\text{cm}^3\) | source of sucrose solution | volume of distilled water / \(\text{cm}^3\) |
| :---: | :---: | :---: | :---: |
| 2.0 | 10 | \(4.0\text{ g dm}^{-3}\) / S | 10 |
| 1.0 | 10 | \(2.0\text{ g dm}^{-3}\) | 10 |
| 0.5 | 10 | \(1.0\text{ g dm}^{-3}\) | 10 |
| 0.25 | 10 | \(0.5\text{ g dm}^{-3}\) | 10 |

Marking scheme

1. Shows halving serial dilution concentrations: 2.0, 1.0, 0.5, 0.25 (\(\text{g dm}^{-3}\)) in the first column ;
2. Shows correct source of sucrose solution for each subsequent dilution step (i.e. 2.0 from S / 4.0, 1.0 from 2.0, 0.5 from 1.0, 0.25 from 0.5) ;
3. Shows correct volumes of sucrose solution and distilled water in a \(1:1\) ratio with total volume at least \(20\text{ cm}^3\) at each step to allow \(10\text{ cm}^3\) transfer and leave \(\ge 10\text{ cm}^3\) (e.g. \(10\text{ cm}^3\) sucrose solution + \(10\text{ cm}^3\) distilled water) ;
[Total: 3 marks]
Question 2 · free-response
5 marks
You are provided with four standard concentrations of ascorbic acid (vitamin C) labelled A1 (1.00%), A2 (0.50%), A3 (0.25%), and A4 (0.125%), and a fruit juice of unknown ascorbic acid concentration labelled U.

In this investigation, you are required to determine the volume of each ascorbic acid solution required to completely decolourise a fixed \(1.0\text{ cm}^3\) volume of 0.1% DCPIP (2,6-dichlorophenolindophenol) solution.

1. Use a syringe to transfer \(1.0\text{ cm}^3\) of DCPIP into a clean test-tube.
2. Fill a \(5.0\text{ cm}^3\) syringe with solution A1.
3. Add A1 drop by drop to the DCPIP, gently swirling between additions, until the blue colour completely disappears.
4. Record the volume of A1 added.
5. Repeat steps 1 to 4 to obtain a second titre for A1.
6. Repeat steps 1 to 5 for each of the solutions A2, A3, A4, and the unknown solution U.

Prepare a fully labelled results table in the space provided and record your results.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

### Example Results Table

$$
\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|}
\hline
\textbf{Ascorbic acid solution} & \textbf{Titre 1 / cm}^3 & \textbf{Titre 2 / cm}^3 & \textbf{Mean volume added / cm}^3 \\
\hline
\mathbf{A1}\text{ (1.00\%)} & 0.45 & 0.45 & 0.45 \\
\hline
\mathbf{A2}\text{ (0.50\%)} & 0.90 & 0.95 & 0.93 \\
\hline
\mathbf{A3}\text{ (0.25\%)} & 1.80 & 1.85 & 1.83 \\
\hline
\mathbf{A4}\text{ (0.125\%)} & 3.65 & 3.60 & 3.63 \\
\hline
\mathbf{U}\text{ (unknown)} & 1.20 & 1.25 & 1.23 \\
\hline
\end{array}
$$

### Marking Criteria Summary
1. Headings with units: Column/row headers clearly state the identity or concentration of the solution and the volumes with solidus unit (e.g. `/ cm^3`).
2. Replication & Mean: Includes repeated trials (Titre 1 and Titre 2 / replicate 1 and 2) and a calculated mean volume column.
3. Consistency of decimal places: All raw volume measurements recorded to the same precision (e.g. to \(0.05\text{ cm}^3\) or \(0.1\text{ cm}^3\)).
4. Trend: Correct biological trend observed where increasing ascorbic acid concentration requires a smaller volume to decolourise the fixed volume of DCPIP.
5. Unknown U included: Raw data and mean calculated for the unknown solution U within the expected range.

Marking scheme

1. Table layout & headings: Table fully ruled with all column headings containing quantity and unit separated by a solidus (e.g., `concentration of ascorbic acid / %` or `solution` AND `volume / cm3` / `titre / cm3`); [1]
2. Replicates & Mean: Columns/rows provided for at least two trials/replicates and a separate column/row for calculated mean volume; [1]
3. Precision: All raw volume data recorded to a consistent degree of precision (all to 1 decimal place or all to 2 decimal places, e.g., to nearest \(0.05\text{ cm}^3\) or \(0.1\text{ cm}^3\)); [1]
4. Biological trend: Recorded volumes show that as the concentration of ascorbic acid increases from A4 to A1, the mean volume required to decolourise DCPIP decreases; [1]
5. Unknown recorded: Volume data for unknown U recorded in the table and mean calculated correctly without units in the body cells. [1]
Question 3 · Graph Construction & Interpretation
2.5 marks
A student investigated the effect of sucrose solutions of different concentrations on the mass of potato tissue cylinders. Six cylinders of initial length \(50\text{ mm}\) were weighed, placed in sucrose solutions ranging from \(0.0\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) to \(0.8\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) for \(60\text{ minutes}\), and reweighed. The results are shown in Table 1.1.

Table 1.1

| Sucrose concentration / \(\text{mol dm}^{-3}\) | Percentage change in mass (%) |
| :--- | :--- |
| 0.0 | +12.5 |
| 0.1 | +7.0 |
| 0.2 | +2.0 |
| 0.4 | -6.5 |
| 0.6 | -14.0 |
| 0.8 | -18.5 |

(a) From a plotted graph of percentage change in mass against sucrose concentration, the line of best fit crosses the horizontal axis (0% change in mass) at \(0.24\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\).

(i) State the sucrose concentration that is isotonic to the potato tuber cell sap. [0.5]
(ii) Explain, in terms of water potential, why there is no net change in mass at this concentration. [2.0]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(i) At 0% change in mass, the concentration is \(0.24\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\).

(ii) When the external sucrose solution has a concentration of \(0.24\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\), its water potential (\(\Psi\)) is exactly equal to the internal water potential of the potato tuber cells. Because the water potential gradient is zero, the rate of water entering the cells by osmosis equals the rate of water leaving the cells (dynamic equilibrium), resulting in no net movement of water and zero percentage change in mass.

Marking scheme

(i) \(0.24\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) (unit required); [0.5]

(ii) 1 mark for: water potential of external sucrose solution equals water potential of the potato cells / tissue / sap / \(\Psi_{\text{external}} = \Psi_{\text{cell}}\); [1.0]
1 mark for: no net movement of water / rate of water entering equals rate of water leaving (into or out of the cells) by osmosis / dynamic equilibrium; [1.0]
Question 4 · Graph Construction & Interpretation
2.5 marks
A student investigated the effect of substrate concentration on the initial rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction. The reaction velocity \(V\) was measured across increasing concentrations of substrate \([S]\).

The plotted curve reaches a maximum plateau where the maximum rate of reaction, \(V_{\text{max}}\), is determined to be \(48.0\text{ \mu mol dm}^{-3}\text{ s}^{-1}\).

(a) Calculate \(\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{max}}\) and state the biochemical term used to describe the substrate concentration at \(\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{max}}\). [1.0]

(b) Using the graph, the substrate concentration corresponding to \(\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{max}}\) is found to be \(0.16\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\). Explain what this numerical value indicates about the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate. [1.5]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) \(\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{max}} = \frac{48.0}{2} = 24.0\text{ \mu mol dm}^{-3}\text{ s}^{-1}\). The substrate concentration at half of \(V_{\text{max}}\) is defined as the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_m\)).

(b) The value \(0.16\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) is the \(K_m\). \(K_m\) provides an inverse measure of enzyme affinity for substrate. A lower \(K_m\) value indicates higher affinity between enzyme and substrate because fewer substrate molecules are required to saturate 50% of the enzyme active sites.

Marking scheme

(a) \(24.0\text{ \mu mol dm}^{-3}\text{ s}^{-1}\) (allow 24) AND Michaelis-Menten constant / \(K_m\); [1.0]

(b) 1 mark for: \(K_m\) is an inverse measure of affinity / the lower the \(K_m\), the higher the enzyme affinity for the substrate (ora); [1.0]
0.5 marks for: indicates that at \(0.16\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\), 50% of the active sites are occupied / enzyme reaches half-maximal velocity; [0.5]
Question 5 · Graph Construction & Interpretation
2.5 marks
An experiment was carried out using a potometer to measure the rate of water uptake by a leafy shoot under five different fan wind speeds (\(0, 1, 2, 3, 4\text{ m s}^{-1}\)). The rates of transpiration recorded were \(1.2, 2.8, 4.3, 5.1,\) and \(5.3\text{ mm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\) respectively.

(a) Describe the relationship between wind speed and the rate of transpiration shown by the data. [1.5]

(b) Suggest one reason why the rate of transpiration levels off between \(3\text{ m s}^{-1}\) and \(4\text{ m s}^{-1}\). [1.0]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) When describing graphical trends in Paper 3: provide the overall direction of change with data quotes (both coordinates with units). From \(0\) to \(3\text{ m s}^{-1}\), the rate of transpiration increases rapidly from \(1.2\) to \(5.1\text{ mm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\). Above \(3\text{ m s}^{-1}\), the increase slows down / reaches a plateau at \(5.3\text{ mm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\).

(b) At high wind speeds, the boundary layer of moist air is completely blown away so diffusion gradient cannot increase further, or stomatal closure occurs to reduce dehydration, or another environmental parameter (light/temperature) becomes the limiting factor.

Marking scheme

(a) 1 mark for: as wind speed increases, rate of transpiration increases up to \(3\text{ m s}^{-1}\) and then levels off / plateaus / increases at a much slower rate; [1.0]
0.5 marks for: data quote including both variables with correct units at two points (e.g. \(1.2\text{ mm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\) at \(0\text{ m s}^{-1}\) to \(5.1\text{ mm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\) at \(3\text{ m s}^{-1}\) or \(5.3\text{ mm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\) at \(4\text{ m s}^{-1}\)); [0.5]

(b) 1 mark for any one from:
- stomata close / reduce aperture (in response to rapid water loss / wilt prevention);
- humid boundary layer is already completely removed / diffusion gradient at maximum;
- another factor is limiting (e.g. light intensity / temperature / rate of water absorption by roots); [1.0]
Question 6 · Graph Construction & Interpretation
2.5 marks
Discs of beetroot (Beta vulgaris) tissue were incubated in water baths maintained at temperatures of \(20, 30, 40, 50, 60,\) and \(70\,^\circ\text{C}\). After \(20\text{ minutes}\), the absorbance of the surrounding solution was measured using a colorimeter with a blue filter to quantify the leakage of betalain pigment.

A line graph of absorbance against temperature shows little change between \(20\,^\circ\text{C}\) and \(40\,^\circ\text{C}\), followed by a sharp, exponential rise in absorbance between \(40\,^\circ\text{C}\) and \(70\,^\circ\text{C}\).

Explain the sharp increase in absorbance observed between \(40\,^\circ\text{C}\) and \(70\,^\circ\text{C}\) with reference to the structure of cell membranes. [2.5]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Between \(40\,^\circ\text{C}\) and \(70\,^\circ\text{C}\), thermal energy increases kinetic energy of phospholipids, increasing membrane fluidity and causing gaps in the bilayer. Concurrently, membrane transport proteins in the cell surface membrane and tonoplast denature as hydrogen bonds and ionic interactions are broken, altering their tertiary structure. This causes loss of membrane integrity and selective permeability, allowing betalain pigments to rapidly diffuse out of the vacuole and cytoplasm into the surrounding bathing water, resulting in higher colorimeter absorbance.

Marking scheme

Marking points (max 2.5 marks):
- (increased temperature / kinetic energy) increases fluidity / permeability of phospholipid bilayer / disrupts hydrophobic interactions between phospholipids; [1.0]
- membrane / tonoplast proteins denature / tertiary structure altered / hydrogen/ionic bonds break; [1.0]
- loss of selective permeability / membrane integrity lost / creates gaps or pores allowing betalain pigment to diffuse / leak out; [0.5]
Question 7 · Low-Power Plan Tissue Drawing
5 marks
Slide J1 is a stained transverse section through the stem of a herbaceous dicotyledonous plant.

(a) Make a large, plan diagram of a sector of the stem to show the arrangement of tissues from the outer surface to the central pith.

Your drawing should include:
* the outer epidermis
* the cortex
* two complete, adjacent vascular bundles
* the outer region of the central pith.

Use one ruled label line and label to identify the xylem.

Do not draw any individual cells.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

To gain full marks for a low-power plan tissue drawing:
1. Quality of execution and size: Use a sharp pencil (HB) to produce clean, unbroken, single lines with no shading, feathering, or overlapping lines. The drawing must occupy more than 50% of the allocated space.
2. Sector selection: Clearly delineate a wedge/sector from the outer surface into the central pith containing exactly two complete adjacent vascular bundles.
3. Tissue plan convention: Delineate tissue boundaries only; do not draw any individual cells or cell walls.
4. Proportional representation: Ensure the thickness of the cortex and the size/orientation of the vascular bundles relative to the overall radius are anatomically proportional (e.g. phloem situated external to xylem within each bundle).
5. Labelling: Use a ruler to draw a straight, uncrossed label line that stops exactly on the xylem region of one of the vascular bundles, accompanied by the clear label 'xylem'.

Marking scheme

1. Line quality & size: Clear, sharp, continuous lines with no sketchy/overlapping lines or shading AND drawing occupies at least 50% of available space [1];
2. Sector representation: Correct sector drawn showing epidermis, cortex, two complete adjacent vascular bundles, and part of the central pith [1];
3. Plan drawing convention: No individual cells drawn anywhere in the diagram [1];
4. Proportion and organisation: Vascular bundles correctly oriented with phloem external to xylem AND vascular bundles shown separated by interfascial parenchyma / pith ray tissue [1];
5. Label: One ruled label line with a ruler touching the xylem tissue and correctly labelled 'xylem' / 'xylem tissue' / 'xylem vessel(s)' [1].
Question 8 · High-Power Cellular Detail Drawing
5 marks
Slide P1 is a stained transverse section through a dicotyledonous stem.

Observe the cortex region located between the epidermis and the vascular bundles under high power of the light microscope.

Select a group of four adjacent, touching cortical parenchyma cells.

Make a large drawing of this group of four cells to show their cellular detail.

Use one ruled label line and label to identify the intercellular space (or cell wall).
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

To gain full marks for a high-power cellular drawing in Paper 3:
1. Quality of drawing: Use a sharp HB pencil to draw clear, thin, continuous unbroken lines without sketchy overlaps or hatching/shading. The overall drawing must occupy at least 50% of the provided drawing frame/space.
2. Cell selection & arrangement: Accurately draw exactly four touching cells arranged as observed in the cortex.
3. Cell wall detail: Represent the cell walls of adjacent cells with double lines showing the distinct wall thickness/middle lamella rather than single lines.
4. Cell shape and proportions: Draw rounded or polygonal cells showing realistic relative sizes and small triangular/intercellular air spaces at junctions between cells.
5. Labelling: Use a ruler to draw an uncrossed, horizontal label line ending precisely on the feature (e.g., intercellular space or cell wall), with an unambiguous label written horizontally.

Marking scheme

1. D1 (Clarity & Size): Sharp, continuous, thin unbroken outlines with no shading/cross-hatching AND drawing occupies more than 50% of the space provided;
2. D2 (Number & Configuration): Exactly four touching cells drawn forming a connected group;
3. D3 (Cell Wall Representation): Double lines drawn to represent the thickness of the cell walls between adjacent touching cells;
4. D4 (Proportion & Features): Cells drawn with rounded/polygonal shapes showing intercellular air spaces at cell junctions AND walls shown relatively thin and uniform;
5. L1 (Labelling): One ruled label line touching the intercellular space (or cell wall) with the correct label (intercellular space / air space / cell wall / primary cell wall).
Question 9 · Microscopic Comparison Table
3 marks
A student observed two prepared microscope slides showing transverse sections through different vegetative organs of the same herbaceous dicotyledonous plant:
* slide T1: transverse section of a stem
* slide T2: transverse section of a root

Prepare a table to record three observable structural differences between the stem (T1) and the root (T2).
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

To compare the microscopic anatomy of a dicotyledonous stem (T1) and a dicotyledonous root (T2):

1. Table Structure: Draw a neat, ruled table with explicit column headers: Feature / Characteristic, Stem (T1), and Root (T2).
2. Differences to Record:
* Arrangement of vascular tissue: In T1 (stem), vascular bundles are arranged in a distinct ring near the periphery; in T2 (root), vascular tissue forms a single central core / cylinder (stele).
* Central tissue (pith): In T1 (stem), a large central pith (parenchyma) is present; in T2 (root), there is no central pith (xylem occupies the central axis).
* Distribution of xylem and phloem: In T1 (stem), xylem is located on the inside and phloem on the outside of each vascular bundle; in T2 (root), phloem groups alternate with the radiating arms of xylem around the central cylinder.

| Feature | Stem (T1) | Root (T2) |
| :--- | :--- | :--- |
| Arrangement of vascular tissue | Vascular bundles arranged in a ring towards the outer edge / periphery | Vascular tissue concentrated in a single central core / cylinder |
| Pith / central tissue | Central pith present | Central pith absent (xylem fills center) |
| Organisation of xylem and phloem | Xylem on the inner side and phloem on the outer side within the same bundle | Xylem forms a central star/cross with phloem in separate patches alternating between the arms |

Marking scheme

1 mark for table structure:
* Table drawn with ruled lines AND clear headings including Feature, Stem / T1, and Root / T2 ;

2 marks for observable differences (any 2 from the following paired statements [1 mark each]):
* Vascular bundles in a ring / at periphery in T1 AND vascular tissue in a single central cylinder / star-shaped core in T2 ;
* Pith / parenchyma present in center of T1 AND pith absent / xylem in center of T2 ;
* Xylem and phloem together in individual discrete bundles in T1 AND xylem and phloem in separate alternating groups/patches in T2 ;
* Endodermis not clearly defined / absent in T1 AND distinct endodermis / Casparian strip layer surrounding stele in T2 ;

Note: Reject cellular features not observable at plan power (e.g. companion cell organelles). Only credit paired, comparative statements.
Question 10 · Stage Micrometer & Eyepiece Graticule Calibration
2.5 marks
A student calibrated an eyepiece graticule using a stage micrometer scale under the high-power objective lens (\(\times 40\)).

The stage micrometer scale has a total length of \(1.0\text{ mm}\) divided into \(100\) equal divisions.

The student observed that \(40\) eyepiece graticule units coincided exactly with \(12\) stage micrometer divisions.

(i) Calculate the actual length of one eyepiece graticule unit in micrometres (\(\mu\text{m}\)). Show your working.

(ii) The student then replaced the stage micrometer with a prepared slide of a plant stem and measured the internal lumen diameter of a xylem vessel element across its widest point as \(23\) eyepiece graticule units. Calculate the actual diameter of the xylem vessel lumen in \(\mu\text{m}\).
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Determine the length of one stage micrometer division:
\[\text{Length of } 1 \text{ division} = \frac{1.0\text{ mm}}{100} = 0.01\text{ mm} = 10\ \mu\text{m}\]

2. Calculate the distance represented by \(12\) stage micrometer divisions:
\[12 \times 10\ \mu\text{m} = 120\ \mu\text{m}\]

3. Calculate the value of \(1\) eyepiece graticule unit (epu):
\[1\text{ epu} = \frac{120\ \mu\text{m}}{40} = 3.0\ \mu\text{m}\]

4. Calculate the actual lumen diameter of the xylem vessel:
\[\text{Actual diameter} = 23\text{ epu} \times 3.0\ \mu\text{m} = 69.0\ \mu\text{m} \text{ (or } 69\ \mu\text{m}\)\]

Marking scheme

[1 mark] (i) Correct calculation of the calibration showing working: \(12 \times 10\ \mu\text{m} / 40\) (or \(0.12\text{ mm} / 40\)) leading to \(3.0\ \mu\text{m}\) (or \(0.003\text{ mm}\));
[1 mark] (ii) Correct multiplication of measured units by calibrated unit value: \(23 \times 3.0 = 69\ \mu\text{m}\) [ecf if calibration in (i) is incorrect];
[0.5 mark] Correct units (\(\mu\text{m}\)) and value given to appropriate significant figures (2 or 3 s.f.).

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