An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Nov 2025 (V3) Cambridge IGCSE Sciences - Co-ordinated (Double) (0654) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.
Section A: Biology (Q1 - Q4)
Answer all four structured questions covering cellular structures, physiological transport, circulatory systems, and ecological genetics.
12 Question · 40 marks
Question 1 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
(a) State the name of the organelle present in a plant palisade mesophyll cell that is the site of aerobic respiration.
(b) Describe how the structure of a root hair cell is adapted to its function in absorbing water from the soil.
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Worked solution
(a) Mitochondria (or mitochondrion) are the cellular organelles responsible for aerobic respiration. (b) A root hair cell possesses a long, thin extension / projection which significantly increases the surface area to volume ratio, allowing rapid uptake of water by osmosis.
A student places a cylinder of plant tissue into a concentrated sucrose solution.
(a) State the term used to describe the net movement of water molecules down a water potential gradient through a partially permeable membrane.
(b) Explain why the mass of the plant tissue decreases after remaining in the concentrated sucrose solution for 2 hours.
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Worked solution
(a) Osmosis is the diffusion of water molecules from a region of higher water potential to a region of lower water potential through a partially permeable membrane. (b) The concentrated sucrose solution has a lower water potential than the plant cell sap. Therefore, water leaves the cells by osmosis down the water potential gradient, causing a loss of mass.
Marking scheme
(a) osmosis; [1] (b) water leaves / moves out of the cells / tissue (by osmosis); [1] (because) water potential inside the cell is higher than outside / down a water potential gradient; [0.5]
Question 3 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
(a) Identify the type of blood vessel that carries blood at high pressure directly away from the heart ventricles.
(b) Explain how the structural features of capillaries enable efficient exchange of substances between blood and body tissues.
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Worked solution
(a) Arteries transport oxygenated or deoxygenated blood under high pressure away from the ventricles of the heart. (b) Capillary walls consist of a single layer of flattened endothelial cells (one cell thick) and are narrow, creating a short diffusion pathway for nutrients and gases to move between blood plasma and tissue fluid.
Marking scheme
(a) artery / arteries; [1] (b) wall is one cell thick / very thin; [1] short diffusion distance / pathway (for dissolved gases / nutrients); [0.5]
Question 4 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
(a) State the name of the specialised plant tissue responsible for transporting dissolved sugars and amino acids throughout the plant.
(b) Describe how an increase in ambient temperature affects the rate of transpiration in a leafy shoot.
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Worked solution
(a) Phloem is the vascular tissue responsible for translocation of sucrose and amino acids. (b) As temperature rises, water particles gain kinetic energy, which accelerates the rate of evaporation from mesophyll cell walls into air spaces and speeds up diffusion out through the stomata, thus increasing the transpiration rate.
Marking scheme
(a) phloem; [1] (b) (rate of transpiration) increases; [1] (water molecules have) more kinetic energy / faster evaporation / faster diffusion; [0.5]
Question 5 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
(a) Distinguish between continuous variation and discontinuous variation by giving one distinct feature of discontinuous variation.
(b) Explain how natural selection results in an increased proportion of antibiotic-resistant individuals within a bacterial population exposed to an antibiotic.
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Worked solution
(a) Discontinuous variation produces discrete phenotypic categories (e.g. ABO blood groups) with no intermediates, unaffected by environmental conditions. (b) In the presence of an antibiotic, a selective pressure is applied. Mutant bacteria possessing the resistance allele survive (differential survival), while susceptible bacteria are killed. The resistant survivors reproduce, passing on the allele for resistance to subsequent generations.
Marking scheme
(a) distinct / discrete categories OR no intermediates / overlapping ranges OR controlled by single gene / few genes OR not influenced by environment; [1] (b) resistant bacteria survive (and non-resistant die); [1] survivors reproduce and pass on the (resistance) allele / gene to offspring; [0.5]
Question 6 · Short Answer
2.5 marks
(a) State the name of the cellular structure present in plant cells, but absent in animal cells, that prevents the cell from bursting when placed in pure water. [1] (b) Describe how water enters a root hair cell from the surrounding soil solution. [1.5]
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Worked solution
(a) The cell wall is a rigid outer structure composed of cellulose that resists internal turgor pressure, preventing lysis in hypotonic solutions. (b) Water moves from an area of higher water potential (soil solution) to an area of lower water potential (inside the root hair cell cytoplasm and vacuole) by osmosis across the partially permeable cell surface membrane.
Marking scheme
(a) cell wall [1]; (b) by osmosis [0.5]; down a water potential gradient / from higher to lower water potential [0.5]; across / through a partially permeable membrane [0.5].
Question 7 · Short Answer
2.5 marks
(a) State the name of the blood vessel that transports oxygenated blood from the lungs into the left atrium of the heart. [1] (b) Explain why the muscular wall of the left ventricle is thicker than the wall of the right ventricle. [1.5]
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Worked solution
(a) The pulmonary vein delivers oxygenated blood returning from the pulmonary circulation into the left atrium. (b) The left ventricle has a thicker muscular wall (myocardium) to create greater contractile force, generating higher hydrostatic pressure necessary to propel blood through systemic circulation to all body organs, whereas the right ventricle only pumps blood against lower resistance to the adjacent lungs.
Marking scheme
(a) pulmonary vein [1]; (b) (left ventricle) generates higher pressure / greater force [0.5]; to pump blood around the whole body / further distance / systemic circulation [0.5]; (whereas) right ventricle only pumps blood to the lungs [0.5].
Question 8 · Short Answer
2.5 marks
(a) State the biological term for a random change in the base sequence of DNA that can produce new alleles. [1] (b) Describe how natural selection leads to adaptation in a population of organisms. [1.5]
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Worked solution
(a) A mutation is an unpredictable alteration in the genetic sequence of DNA, forming novel alleles. (b) Genetic variation within a population means some individuals possess traits that offer a selective advantage. These individuals have higher survival rates (survival of the fittest) and reproduce more successfully, transmitting their advantageous alleles to their offspring, thereby increasing the frequency of the adaptive trait over generations.
Marking scheme
(a) mutation [1]; (b) individuals with advantageous alleles / traits have a survival advantage / are better adapted [0.5]; (these individuals) reproduce [0.5]; passing on their (advantageous) alleles to their offspring [0.5].
Question 9 · structured
5 marks
A student views a plant leaf cell using a light microscope.
(a) (i) The measured length of the cell in the photomicrograph is 48 mm. The actual length of the cell is 0.06 mm. Calculate the magnification of the image.
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Worked solution
(a) (i) Use the formula: \(\text{Magnification} = \frac{\text{size of image}}{\text{actual size of specimen}}\) \(\text{Magnification} = \frac{48\text{ mm}}{0.06\text{ mm}} = 800\) or \(\times 800\).
(ii) The organelle responsible for absorbing light for photosynthesis is the chloroplast, which contains the green pigment chlorophyll.
(b) Plant cells have a cellulose cell wall and a permanent central vacuole, which are absent in animal cells.
Marking scheme
(a)(i) correct formula or substitution: \(\frac{48}{0.06}\) ; 800 / \(\times 800\) ; [2]
(a)(ii) chloroplast ; chlorophyll ; [2]
(b) (cellulose) cell wall / permanent vacuole / large central vacuole ; [1] [Reject: 'cell membrane', 'chloroplast' (as excluded by prompt)]
Question 10 · structured
5 marks
A student investigated the effect of sucrose solutions of different concentrations on the mass of potato cylinders. Cylinders of equal initial mass were immersed in sucrose solutions for 60 minutes.
(c) Explain, in terms of water potential and osmosis, why the potato cylinders placed in \(0.8\text{ mol/dm}^3\) sucrose solution decreased in mass. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) As sucrose concentration increases, the percentage change in mass decreases (or changes from positive to negative).
(b) The concentration is \(0.4\text{ mol/dm}^3\) because at this point the percentage change in mass is \(0.0\%\), showing that the water potential inside the potato cells is equal to the external solution (no net osmosis).
(c) The \(0.8\text{ mol/dm}^3\) sucrose solution has a lower water potential than the potato cells (it is hypertonic). Water moves out of the cells by osmosis from an area of higher water potential to an area of lower water potential across a partially permeable membrane, resulting in a loss of mass.
Marking scheme
(a) as sucrose concentration increases, (percentage) change in mass decreases / ORA ; [1]
(b) 0.4 (\(\text{mol/dm}^3\)) ; (because) there is no change in mass / net movement of water is zero ; [2]
(c) water potential of solution is lower than inside the cell / potato cells have higher water potential ; water moves out (of cells) by osmosis / down a water potential gradient ; [2]
Question 11 · structured
5 marks
The heart rate of an athlete was recorded during an investigation on a treadmill.
Table 3.1 shows the athlete's heart rate at two-minute intervals.
(b) Explain why heart rate increases during vigorous exercise. [2]
(c) State the name of the heart chamber that pumps oxygenated blood directly into the aorta. [1]
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Worked solution
(a) Increase in heart rate = \(165 - 68 = 97\text{ beats per min}\). \(\text{Percentage increase} = \frac{97}{68} \times 100 = 142.647...\%\). To two significant figures, this is \(140\%\).
(b) During exercise, muscle contraction requires more energy released via aerobic respiration. To meet this demand, the heart beats faster to transport more oxygen and glucose to active muscle tissues and to remove carbon dioxide/lactic acid more rapidly.
(c) The left ventricle has thick muscular walls to pump oxygenated blood at high pressure into the aorta.
Marking scheme
(a) correct calculation of difference: \(165 - 68 = 97\) OR \(\frac{165-68}{68} \times 100\) ; 140 (\(\%\)) [allow 143(%) if 3 s.f. not penalised, but 140 for 2 s.f.] ; [2]
(b) (muscles require) more energy / increased aerobic respiration ; to deliver more oxygen / more glucose (to contracting muscles) / remove carbon dioxide faster ; [2]
(c) left ventricle ; [1]
Question 12 · structured
5 marks
A scientist investigated the shell patterns of land snails living in two different habitats: a dark woodland floor and an open grassy meadow. Snails have either plain yellow shells (unbanded) or dark brown striped shells (banded).
Table 4.1 shows the percentage of each shell type collected in the two habitats.
(a) State the type of variation shown by the shell banding pattern in these snails. [1]
(b) Describe the difference in the percentage of banded snails between the woodland floor and the grassy meadow. [1]
(c) Explain how natural selection has resulted in the high percentage of banded snails on the woodland floor. [3]
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Worked solution
(a) Shell banding falls into distinct categories without intermediates, which is an example of discontinuous variation.
(b) The percentage of banded snails is much higher in the woodland (82%) than in the grassy meadow (24%), a difference of 58%.
(c) In the woodland habitat, banded snails are better camouflaged against the dark leaf litter and shadows. Consequently, they suffer less predation by birds/predators. Snails with banded shells are more likely to survive and reproduce (survival of the fittest), passing on the alleles for banded shells to their offspring over generations.
Marking scheme
(a) discontinuous (variation) ; [1]
(b) higher in woodland (82%) than meadow (24%) / 58(%) higher in woodland / correct comparative data quote ; [1]
(c) banded snails are better camouflaged / blend in with dark background / leaf litter ; banded snails are less likely to be eaten by predators / have higher survival rate ; surviving snails reproduce and pass on their alleles / genes (for banding) to offspring ; [3]
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Answer all four structured questions covering organic reaction mechanisms, atomic models, rates of reaction, and metal extraction stoichiometry.
9 Question · 32.5 marks
Question 1 · structured
2.5 marks
(a) Ethanol undergoes complete combustion in excess oxygen.
Balance the chemical equation for this reaction: $$\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH} + \dots \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \dots \text{CO}_2 + \dots \text{H}_2\text{O}$$ [1.5]
(b) Draw the fully displayed formula of ethanol, showing all atoms and all covalent bonds. [1]
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Worked solution
(a) Balance carbon atoms first: there are 2 carbons in ethanol, so 2 molecules of \(\text{CO}_2\) are formed. Balance hydrogen atoms next: there are 6 hydrogens in ethanol (5+1), so 3 molecules of \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\) are formed. Finally, count the oxygen atoms on the right-hand side: \((2 \times 2) + (3 \times 1) = 7\) oxygen atoms. Ethanol provides 1 oxygen atom, leaving 6 oxygen atoms needed from \(\text{O}_2\), which requires \(3\text{O}_2\). Balanced equation: $$\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH} + 3\text{O}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{CO}_2 + 3\text{H}_2\text{O}$$
(b) The displayed formula must show two carbon atoms bonded by a single covalent bond (\(\text{C}-\text{C}\)), with three hydrogen atoms bonded to the first carbon (\(\text{C}-\text{H}\)), two hydrogen atoms bonded to the second carbon (\(\text{C}-\text{H}\)), and an oxygen atom bonded to the second carbon (\(\text{C}-\text{O}\)) which is in turn bonded to a hydrogen atom (\(\text{O}-\text{H}\)).
Marking scheme
(a) 3 (before \(\text{O}_2\)) [0.5]; 2 (before \(\text{CO}_2\)) and 3 (before \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\)) [1.0]; (b) Correct displayed formula showing all 8 single covalent bonds (\(\text{C}-\text{C}\), five \(\text{C}-\text{H}\), \(\text{C}-\text{O}\), and \(\text{O}-\text{H}\)) explicitly drawn with no grouped atoms (e.g. not \(-\text{OH}\) without the \(\text{O}-\text{H}\) bond) [1.0].
Question 2 · structured
4.5 marks
(a) Ethene, \(\text{C}_2\text{H}_4\), reacts with steam in the presence of a phosphoric acid catalyst to produce ethanol, \(\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH}\).
(i) State the type of organic reaction taking place. [1]
(ii) In an industrial process, \(56.0\text{ kg}\) of ethene is reacted with excess steam. The actual mass of ethanol obtained is \(73.6\text{ kg}\).
Calculate the percentage yield of ethanol. [\(M_r\): \(\text{C}_2\text{H}_4 = 28\), \(\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH} = 46\)] [2.5]
(b) The hydration of ethene is an exothermic reaction. State whether the energy of the products is higher than, lower than, or the same as the energy of the reactants, and justify your answer in terms of bond breaking and bond making. [1]
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Worked solution
(a)(i) The reaction is an addition reaction (or hydration).
(ii) Step 1: Calculate the theoretical maximum moles of ethene: \(\text{moles of }\text{C}_2\text{H}_4 = \frac{56.0\times 10^3\text{ g}}{28\text{ g/mol}} = 2000\text{ mol}\)
Step 2: Molar ratio \(\text{C}_2\text{H}_4 : \text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH} = 1 : 1\), so theoretical moles of ethanol \(= 2000\text{ mol}\).
Step 3: Calculate theoretical mass of ethanol: \(\text{mass} = 2000\text{ mol} \times 46\text{ g/mol} = 92000\text{ g} = 92.0\text{ kg}\)
(b) The energy of the products is lower than the reactants because more energy is released when making bonds than is absorbed when breaking bonds.
Marking scheme
(a)(i) addition / hydration [1]; (ii) moles of ethene \(= 2000\text{ mol}\) OR theoretical mass of ethanol \(= 92.0\text{ kg}\) [1]; \(\frac{73.6}{92.0} \times 100\) [1]; \(80.0\%\) (accept \(80\%\)) [0.5]; (b) lower AND energy released forming bonds > energy taken in breaking bonds [1].
Question 3 · structured
4.5 marks
(a) A sample of naturally occurring silicon contains three stable isotopes: \(^{28}\text{Si}\) (percentage abundance \(= 92.2\%\)) \(^{29}\text{Si}\) (percentage abundance \(= 4.7\%\)) \(^{30}\text{Si}\) (percentage abundance \(= 3.1\%\))
Calculate the relative atomic mass, \(A_r\), of this sample of silicon. Give your answer to two decimal places. [2]
(b) High-purity silicon is produced by reducing silicon dioxide, \(\text{SiO}_2\), with carbon at elevated temperatures: \(\text{SiO}_2\text{(s)} + 2\text{C(s)} \rightarrow \text{Si(s)} + 2\text{CO(g)}\)
Calculate the mass of carbon, in \(\text{g}\), needed to react completely with \(15.0\text{ g}\) of silicon dioxide. [\(A_r\): \(\text{Si} = 28.0\), \(\text{O} = 16.0\), \(\text{C} = 12.0\)] [2.5]
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Step 4: Calculate mass of carbon: \(\text{mass of C} = 0.500\text{ mol} \times 12.0\text{ g/mol} = 6.0\text{ g}\)
Marking scheme
(a) correct substitution into weighted average formula: \(\frac{(28 \times 92.2) + (29 \times 4.7) + (30 \times 3.1)}{100}\) [1]; \(28.11\) [1]; (b) \(M_r\) of \(\text{SiO}_2 = 60.0\) AND moles of \(\text{SiO}_2 = 0.250\text{ mol}\) [1]; moles of \(\text{C} = 0.500\text{ mol}\) [1]; \(6.0\text{ g}\) [0.5].
Question 4 · structured
4.5 marks
(a) A student investigates the rate of reaction between zinc granules and excess dilute hydrochloric acid: \(\text{Zn(s)} + 2\text{HCl(aq)} \rightarrow \text{ZnCl}_2\text{(aq)} + \text{H}_2\text{(g)}\)
In one experiment, \(0.130\text{ g}\) of zinc granules is completely reacted.
(i) Calculate the maximum volume, in \(\text{cm}^3\), of hydrogen gas produced at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.). [Molar gas volume at r.t.p. \(= 24.0\text{ dm}^3\text{/mol}\); \(A_r\): \(\text{Zn} = 65.0\)] [2.5]
(ii) All the hydrogen gas was collected in \(40\text{ s}\). Calculate the average rate of hydrogen gas production in \(\text{cm}^3\text{/s}\). [1]
(b) Describe and explain the effect on the initial rate of reaction if the same mass of zinc powder is used instead of zinc granules. [1]
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Worked solution
(a)(i) Step 1: Calculate moles of \(\text{Zn}\): \(\text{moles of Zn} = \frac{0.130\text{ g}}{65.0\text{ g/mol}} = 0.00200\text{ mol}\)
Step 2: Molar ratio \(\text{Zn} : \text{H}_2 = 1 : 1\), so moles of \(\text{H}_2 = 0.00200\text{ mol}\).
Step 3: Calculate volume of \(\text{H}_2\): \(\text{Volume in dm}^3 = 0.00200\text{ mol} \times 24.0\text{ dm}^3\text{/mol} = 0.0480\text{ dm}^3\) \(\text{Volume in cm}^3 = 0.0480 \times 1000 = 48.0\text{ cm}^3\)
(ii) \(\text{Average rate} = \frac{\text{volume of gas}}{\text{time taken}} = \frac{48.0\text{ cm}^3}{40\text{ s}} = 1.2\text{ cm}^3\text{/s}\)
(b) The rate increases because zinc powder has a larger surface area (per unit mass), which increases the collision frequency between reactant particles.
Marking scheme
(a)(i) moles of \(\text{Zn} = 0.00200\text{ mol}\) [1]; conversion to \(\text{cm}^3\) via multiplying by \(24.0\) and \(1000\) [1]; \(48.0\text{ cm}^3\) (or \(48\text{ cm}^3\)) [0.5]; (ii) \(1.2\text{ cm}^3\text{/s}\) (allow ecf from (a)(i)) [1]; (b) increases AND greater surface area / higher collision frequency [1].
Question 5 · structured
4.5 marks
(a) In a blast furnace, iron(III) oxide, \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\), is reduced by carbon monoxide to extract liquid iron: \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\text{(s)} + 3\text{CO(g)} \rightarrow 2\text{Fe(l)} + 3\text{CO}_2\text{(g)}\)
Calculate the mass of iron, in tonnes, that can theoretically be produced from \(320\text{ tonnes}\) of pure iron(III) oxide. [\(A_r\): \(\text{Fe} = 56.0\), \(\text{O} = 16.0\)] [2.5]
(b) (i) State which substance is oxidized in this reaction. [1]
(ii) The reaction has an overall enthalpy change of \(\Delta H = -24.8\text{ kJ/mol}\). Define activation energy. [1]
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Worked solution
(a) Step 1: Calculate the relative formula mass \(M_r\) of \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\): \(M_r(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3) = (2 \times 56.0) + (3 \times 16.0) = 112.0 + 48.0 = 160.0\text{ g/mol}\)
Step 2: Calculate moles (or tonne-moles) of \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\): \(\text{amount of }\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 = \frac{320\text{ tonnes}}{160.0} = 2.00\text{ million moles (or }2.00\text{ tonne-mol)}\)
Step 4: Calculate mass of \(\text{Fe}\): \(\text{mass of Fe} = 4.00\text{ tonne-mol} \times 56.0 = 224\text{ tonnes}\)
(b)(i) Carbon monoxide / CO is oxidized because it gains oxygen (or oxidation state of C increases from +2 to +4). (ii) Activation energy is the minimum energy required by reacting particles to start a reaction.
Marking scheme
(a) \(M_r(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3) = 160.0\) [1]; correct mole ratio application (multiplying by 2) [1]; \(224\text{ (tonnes)}\) [0.5]; (b)(i) carbon monoxide / \(\text{CO}\) [1]; (ii) minimum energy needed by colliding particles to react / initiate a reaction [1].
Question 6 · Structured Concept Explanation
3 marks
Ethene, \(\text{C}_2\text{H}_4\), reacts with aqueous bromine in an addition reaction.
(a) State the colour change observed when ethene is bubbled through aqueous bromine. [1]
(b) Explain, in terms of bonds and the number of products formed, why this reaction is classified as an addition reaction. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) Aqueous bromine is reddish-brown/orange and turns colourless (is decolourised) in the presence of an alkene.
(b) An addition reaction occurs when the unsaturated \(\text{C}=\text{C}\) double bond opens up into a single bond, allowing bromine atoms to bond across the carbon atoms so that only one product (1,2-dibromoethane) is formed from the two reactants.
(b) \(\text{C}=\text{C}\) / carbon-carbon double bond breaks / opens up; [1] (Two molecules react to) form only one product / a single product / bromine atoms add across the double bond; [1]
Question 7 · Structured Concept Explanation
3 marks
Chlorine has two main isotopes: chlorine-35 (\(^{35}_{17}\text{Cl}\)) and chlorine-37 (\(^{37}_{17}\text{Cl}\)).
(a) State one similarity and one difference in the subatomic particles present in atoms of these two isotopes. [2]
(b) Explain why both isotopes of chlorine have identical chemical properties. [1]
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Worked solution
(a) Both isotopes have atomic number 17, so each contains 17 protons and 17 electrons. Chlorine-35 has \(35 - 17 = 18\) neutrons, whereas chlorine-37 has \(37 - 17 = 20\) neutrons.
(b) Chemical properties depend on electron arrangements, specifically valence electrons. Since both have 7 valence electrons (configuration 2,8,7), their chemical reactions are identical.
Marking scheme
(a) Similarity: same number of protons / same number of electrons / 17 protons / 17 electrons; [1] Difference: different number of neutrons / Cl-35 has 18 neutrons and Cl-37 has 20 neutrons / Cl-37 has 2 more neutrons; [1]
(b) Same number of outer shell electrons / same electronic configuration / both have 7 outer electrons; [1]
Question 8 · Structured Concept Explanation
3 marks
A student investigates the rate of reaction between dilute hydrochloric acid and calcium carbonate.
Explain, using collision theory, why increasing the temperature of the hydrochloric acid increases the rate of this reaction. [3]
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Worked solution
When temperature increases: 1. Particles gain thermal energy which converts to kinetic energy, causing them to move faster. 2. The frequency of collisions between reactant particles increases. 3. A greater fraction of colliding particles have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy (\(E_a\)), resulting in a higher proportion of successful/effective collisions per unit time.
Marking scheme
(Particles) have more kinetic energy / move faster; [1] More frequent collisions / higher collision rate / collisions occur more often; [1] (Reject: 'more collisions' without reference to time/rate) Greater proportion / fraction of particles have energy equal to or greater than activation energy / more collisions are successful / effective; [1]
Question 9 · Structured Concept Explanation
3 marks
In a blast furnace, iron(III) oxide is reduced by carbon monoxide according to the equation: \[ \text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + 3\text{CO} \rightarrow 2\text{Fe} + 3\text{CO}_2 \]
(a) State which substance is reduced and explain your answer in terms of oxygen transfer. [1]
(b) Calculate the mass of iron, in tonnes, produced from \(320\text{ tonnes}\) of iron(III) oxide. \([A_r: \text{Fe} = 56,\; \text{O} = 16]\) [2]
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Worked solution
(a) \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\) is reduced because reduction is the loss of oxygen, and \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\) loses oxygen to form \(\text{Fe}\).
(b) 1. Calculate relative formula mass of \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\): \(M_r(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3) = (2 \times 56) + (3 \times 16) = 112 + 48 = 160\) 2. Relative mass of iron produced per mole of \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\): \(2 \times A_r(\text{Fe}) = 2 \times 56 = 112\) 3. Mass of \(\text{Fe}\) produced: \(\text{Mass} = \frac{112}{160} \times 320\text{ tonnes} = 224\text{ tonnes}\)
Marking scheme
(a) \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\) / iron(III) oxide AND it loses oxygen; [1]
(b) \(M_r\) of \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 = 160\) OR moles of \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 = \frac{320}{160} = 2\text{ (mol/Mtonnes)}\); [1] \(224\text{ (tonnes)}\); [1]
Section C: Physics (Q9 - Q12)
Answer all four structured questions covering mechanical energy transfer, kinetic particle theory, nuclear equations, and electromagnetic generator principles.
12 Question · 40.02000000000001 marks
Question 1 · Numerical Calculation with Units
3 marks
An electric winch is used to lift a load of mass \( 45\text{ kg} \) vertically through a height of \( 16\text{ m} \) in a time of \( 12\text{ s} \).
Calculate the useful power output of the winch. State the unit of your answer.
[Gravitational field strength, \( g = 9.8\text{ N/kg} \)]
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Worked solution
Step 1: Calculate the work done (change in gravitational potential energy) in lifting the load: \[ W = \Delta E_p = mgh = 45\text{ kg} \times 9.8\text{ N/kg} \times 16\text{ m} = 7056\text{ J} \]
Step 2: Calculate the power output using \( P = \frac{W}{t} \): \[ P = \frac{7056\text{ J}}{12\text{ s}} = 588\text{ W} \]
Step 3: State the correct unit of power: Unit = \( \text{W} \) (watts) or \( \text{J/s} \).
Marking scheme
• (Useful energy / work =) \( mgh = 45 \times 9.8 \times 16 \) OR \( 7056\text{ [J]} \) [1]; • (Power =) \( \frac{7056}{12} = 588 \) [1]; • \( \text{W} \) / \( \text{J/s} \) / \( \text{watts} \) [1]; (Note: If \( g = 10\text{ N/kg} \) is used, accept \( 600\text{ W} \) for max 2 marks if formula and unit are correct).
Question 2 · Numerical Calculation with Units
3 marks
An electric immersion heater with a power rating of \( 250\text{ W} \) is used to heat a \( 0.80\text{ kg} \) block of metal for \( 3.0\text{ minutes} \). The temperature of the block increases by \( 52\text{ }^\circ\text{C} \).
Assuming no thermal energy is lost to the surroundings, calculate the specific heat capacity of the metal. State the unit of your answer.
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Worked solution
Step 1: Calculate the total thermal energy supplied by the heater: \[ t = 3.0\text{ minutes} = 3.0 \times 60 = 180\text{ s} \] \[ E = P \times t = 250\text{ W} \times 180\text{ s} = 45\,000\text{ J} \]
Step 2: Calculate specific heat capacity \( c \) using \( E = mc\Delta T \): \[ c = \frac{E}{m \Delta T} = \frac{45\,000}{0.80 \times 52} = \frac{45\,000}{41.6} = 1081.7\text{ J/(kg }^\circ\text{C)} \approx 1080\text{ J/(kg }^\circ\text{C)} \text{ (or } 1100\text{ to 2 s.f.)} \]
Step 3: State the unit: Unit = \( \text{J/(kg }^\circ\text{C)} \) or \( \text{J/(kg K)} \) or \( \text{J kg}^{-1\text{ }^\circ\text{C}^{-1} \).
A step-down transformer connected to a \( 230\text{ V} \) a.c. mains supply powers a \( 12\text{ V},\ 24\text{ W} \) filament lamp at its normal operating brightness.
Assuming the transformer is \( 100\% \) efficient, calculate the current in the primary coil. State the unit of your answer.
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Worked solution
Step 1: Use the principle of conservation of energy for an ideal transformer (\( P_{\text{in}} = P_{\text{out}} \)): \[ P_{\text{in}} = 24\text{ W} \]
Step 2: Relate power, voltage, and current for the primary coil using \( P = V_p \times I_p \): \[ I_p = \frac{P}{V_p} = \frac{24\text{ W}}{230\text{ V}} = 0.1043...\text{ A} \approx 0.104\text{ A} \text{ (or } 0.10\text{ A)} \]
Step 3: State the unit of electric current: Unit = \( \text{A} \) (amperes) or \( \text{mA} \) (if given as \( 104\text{ mA} \)).
A sample of a radioactive isotope used as a medical tracer has an initial activity of \( 960\text{ kBq} \). The half-life of this isotope is \( 6.0\text{ hours} \).
Calculate the activity of the sample after \( 24\text{ hours} \). State the unit of your answer.
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Worked solution
Step 1: Calculate the number of half-lives that have elapsed: \[ \text{Number of half-lives} = \frac{24\text{ hours}}{6.0\text{ hours}} = 4 \]
Step 3: State the appropriate unit: Unit = \( \text{kBq} \) (kilobecquerels) or \( \text{Bq} \) (becquerels) matching the value.
Marking scheme
• (Determining half-lives =) \( \frac{24}{6.0} = 4 \) half-lives OR halving activity 4 times [1]; • (Calculation =) \( 60 \) (if unit given as \( \text{kBq} \)) OR \( 60\,000 \) (if unit given as \( \text{Bq} \)) [1]; • \( \text{kBq} \) / \( \text{Bq} \) / \( \text{becquerels} \) matching calculated value [1];
Question 5 · Numerical Calculation with Units
3 marks
An echo-sounder on a ship transmits a pulse of ultrasound vertically downwards into sea water. The pulse reflects off the seabed and returns to the ship \( 0.36\text{ s} \) after transmission.
The speed of sound in sea water is \( 1500\text{ m/s} \).
Calculate the depth of the sea beneath the ship. State the unit of your answer.
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Worked solution
Step 1: Calculate the total distance travelled by the ultrasound pulse (to the seabed and back): \[ \text{Total distance} = v \times t = 1500\text{ m/s} \times 0.36\text{ s} = 540\text{ m} \]
Step 2: Calculate the depth by dividing the total distance by 2: \[ \text{Depth} = \frac{540\text{ m}}{2} = 270\text{ m} \] (Alternatively: one-way time \( = \frac{0.36}{2} = 0.18\text{ s} \); \( \text{Depth} = 1500 \times 0.18 = 270\text{ m} \))
Step 3: State the unit: Unit = \( \text{m} \) (metres).
A trolley of mass \( 0.50\text{ kg} \) is released from rest at the top of a smooth, frictionless ramp of vertical height \( 0.80\text{ m} \). [\( g = 9.8\text{ N/kg} \)]
(a) Calculate the gravitational potential energy (\( E_p \)) of the trolley at the top of the ramp. [2]
(b) Describe the energy transformation as the trolley moves from the top to the bottom of the ramp, and state the kinetic energy of the trolley just before reaching the bottom. [2]
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(b) By conservation of mechanical energy, as the trolley descends, gravitational potential energy is converted entirely into kinetic energy (since friction is negligible). Therefore, the kinetic energy at the bottom is equal to the initial gravitational potential energy, \( 3.92\text{ J} \).
A sample of pure liquid paraffin is heated to \( 90^\circ\text{C} \) and allowed to cool in a laboratory at a constant room temperature of \( 20^\circ\text{C} \). The paraffin has a freezing point of \( 55^\circ\text{C} \).
(a) Describe the key features of the temperature-time cooling curve from \( 90^\circ\text{C} \) to \( 20^\circ\text{C} \). [2]
(b) Explain, in terms of kinetic particle theory and intermolecular forces, why the temperature remains constant during solidification. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) The graph starts at \( 90^\circ\text{C} \) and slopes downwards until it reaches \( 55^\circ\text{C} \). At \( 55^\circ\text{C} \), there is a horizontal plateau where the temperature stays constant during freezing. After complete solidification, the curve slopes downwards again asymptotically towards room temperature (\( 20^\circ\text{C} \)).
(b) Temperature is proportional to the average kinetic energy of the particles. During freezing, thermal energy continues to be lost to the surroundings, but latent heat is released as attractive forces/bonds form between the particles. This energy release balances the heat loss, keeping the average kinetic energy (and thus temperature) constant.
Marking scheme
(a) temperature decreases to \( 55^\circ\text{C} \) AND levels off / horizontal plateau at \( 55^\circ\text{C} \); [1] temperature decreases from \( 55^\circ\text{C} \) towards \( 20^\circ\text{C} \) / room temperature; [1]
(b) bonds form / attractive forces between particles strengthen; [1] energy is released (latent heat) which balances heat loss / average kinetic energy of particles does not change; [1]
Thorium-234 (\( ^{234}_{90}\text{Th} \)) is an unstable isotope that decays by emitting a beta particle (\( \beta^- \)) to form protactinium (\( \text{Pa} \)).
(a) Complete the nuclear decay equation for Thorium-234: [2] \[ ^{234}_{90}\text{Th} \rightarrow \dots\dots \text{Pa} + \dots\dots \beta \]
(b) Thorium-234 has a half-life of 24 days. A sealed source initially contains \( 120\text{ mg} \) of Thorium-234. Calculate the mass of Thorium-234 remaining after 72 days. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) Beta decay involves the emission of an electron \( ^{0}_{-1}\beta \) (or \( ^{0}_{-1}\text{e} \)). Conservation of nucleon number gives: \( 234 = A + 0 \implies A = 234 \). Conservation of proton number gives: \( 90 = Z - 1 \implies Z = 91 \). Thus: \( ^{234}_{90}\text{Th} \rightarrow ^{234}_{91}\text{Pa} + ^{0}_{-1}\beta \).
(b) Number of half-lives \( n = \frac{72\text{ days}}{24\text{ days}} = 3 \). After 1 half-life (24 days): \( 120 / 2 = 60\text{ mg} \). After 2 half-lives (48 days): \( 60 / 2 = 30\text{ mg} \). After 3 half-lives (72 days): \( 30 / 2 = 15\text{ mg} \).
Marking scheme
(a) \( ^{234}_{91}\text{Pa} \) (both nucleon and proton number correct); [1] \( ^{0}_{-1}\beta \) OR \( ^{0}_{-1}\text{e} \); [1]
(b) 3 half-lives / shows division by 2 three times / \( 120 \times (\frac{1}{2})^3 \); [1] 15 (mg); [1]
A simple alternating current (a.c.) generator consists of a rectangular wire coil rotating at constant speed inside a uniform magnetic field between two opposite magnetic poles.
(a) Describe how the induced electromotive force (e.m.f.) changes during one complete \( 360^\circ \) rotation of the coil, starting from the position where the plane of the coil is parallel to the magnetic field lines. [2]
(b) State two changes to the generator that would increase the maximum (peak) induced e.m.f. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) When the coil is parallel to the magnetic field, the sides of the coil cut magnetic field lines at the maximum rate, producing maximum induced e.m.f. As the coil rotates to the perpendicular position (\( 90^\circ \)), the rate of cutting drops to zero (e.m.f. = 0). As it continues rotating (\( 180^\circ \)), the sides cut field lines in opposite directions, producing a maximum negative e.m.f., returning to zero at \( 270^\circ \) and returning to the initial positive maximum at \( 360^\circ \).
(b) According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to the rate of cutting of magnetic flux. To increase peak e.m.f.: rotate the coil faster, use stronger magnets, increase the number of turns of wire on the coil, or use a coil with larger cross-sectional area.
Marking scheme
(a) e.m.f. starts at maximum / peak value (at \( 0^\circ \)); [1] produces an alternating / sinusoidal waveform / reaches zero when coil is perpendicular to field (\( 90^\circ \) and \( 270^\circ \)) AND reverses polarity / direction every half turn; [1]
(b) any two from: - increase the speed / frequency of rotation of the coil; - use stronger magnets / increase magnetic field strength; - increase the number of turns / loops on the coil; - increase the area of the coil / use an iron core; [2]
A transverse water wave is generated in a ripple tank. A sensor records the displacement of water particles over distance along the direction of wave travel. The distance between two consecutive wave crests is \( 0.080\text{ m} \). The frequency of the wave generator is \( 25\text{ Hz} \).
(a) Calculate the speed of the water wave. State the unit of your answer. [2]
(b) State the difference between a transverse wave and a longitudinal wave in terms of particle vibrations and energy propagation. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) The distance between two consecutive crests is the wavelength \( \lambda = 0.080\text{ m} \). Using the wave equation \( v = f \lambda \): \( v = 25\text{ Hz} \times 0.080\text{ m} = 2.0\text{ m/s} \).
(b) Transverse waves have oscillations/vibrations perpendicular (\( 90^\circ \)) to the direction of wave propagation / energy transfer (e.g. water waves, electromagnetic waves). Longitudinal waves have oscillations/vibrations parallel to the direction of wave propagation / energy transfer (e.g. sound waves).
Marking scheme
(a) \( (v =) f \lambda \) OR \( 25 \times 0.080 \); [1] 2.0 (accept 2) AND \( \text{m/s} \) / \( \text{m}\text{ s}^{-1} \); [1]
(b) transverse: vibrations / oscillations are perpendicular / at right angles to direction of travel / energy transfer; [1] longitudinal: vibrations / oscillations are parallel to direction of travel / energy transfer; [1]
A simple alternating current (a.c.) generator consists of a rectangular coil of copper wire rotating between the poles of a permanent magnet.
(a) State the name of the effect by which an electromotive force (e.m.f.) is produced across the ends of the coil as it rotates. [1]
(b) The coil starts rotating at time \(t = 0\) from a position where the plane of the coil is parallel to the magnetic field lines (where the rate of cutting of magnetic field lines is at its maximum).
On the axes below, sketch a graph of the induced e.m.f. against time \(t\) for one complete rotation of the coil. [1]
(c) State two modifications that could be made to the generator to increase the maximum value of the induced e.m.f. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) The phenomenon where an e.m.f. is induced across a conductor when it cuts through magnetic field lines (or when magnetic flux linkage changes) is called electromagnetic induction.
(b) When the coil is parallel to the magnetic field lines at \(t = 0\), the rate of cutting magnetic field lines is at a maximum, so the induced e.m.f. begins at a peak value (\(+V_0\) or \(-V_0\)). - At a quarter turn (\(t = T/4\)), the coil is perpendicular to the field lines, so the induced e.m.f. is \(0\). - At half a turn (\(t = T/2\)), the coil is parallel again but inverted relative to the magnetic field, producing a peak in the opposite direction (\(-V_0\)). - At three-quarter turn (\(t = 3T/4\)), the e.m.f. is \(0\). - At one full rotation (\(t = T\)), the e.m.f. returns to the initial peak value (\(+V_0\)). This forms a standard cosine waveform for one full period \(T\).
(c) According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, the induced e.m.f. is proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux linkage. To increase the peak e.m.f.: 1. Rotate the coil faster (increase rotational speed / angular frequency). 2. Increase the strength of the magnetic field (use stronger magnets). 3. Increase the number of turns on the coil. 4. Increase the cross-sectional area of the coil.
(b) * Smooth alternating / wave-like curve shown with alternating positive and negative values AND starts at non-zero peak (\(+V_0\) or \(-V_0\)), crosses zero at \(\frac{1}{4}T\) and \(\frac{3}{4}T\), and completes exactly one full cycle at \(T\) [1] (reject: straight-line triangle/square waves)
(c) Any two from [2]: * increase the speed of rotation / rotate the coil faster / increase frequency of rotation; * use a stronger magnet / increase magnetic field strength; * increase the number of turns / loops in the coil; * increase the area of the coil / use a larger coil; * add a soft iron core inside the coil;
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