IB DP · PastPaper.sampleTitle

MetadataPastPaper.sampleTitle

Thinka Nov 2023 SL IB Diploma Programme-Style Mock — Sports, Exercise and Health Science

120 PastPaper.marks180 PastPaper.minutes2023
PastPaper.analysisPastPaper.samplePaper
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Nov 2023 SL IB Diploma Programme Sports, Exercise and Health Science paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from IB.

Paper 1

Answer all 30 multiple-choice questions. No calculators allowed.
15 PastPaper.question · 15 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · Multiple Choice
1 PastPaper.marks
During the downward phase of a pull-up, which muscle acts as the agonist and what type of contraction is occurring?
  1. A.Biceps brachii, concentric contraction
  2. B.Latissimus dorsi, eccentric contraction
  3. C.Biceps brachii, isometric contraction
  4. D.Latissimus dorsi, concentric contraction concertedly with biceps brachii eccentric contraction close to completion of descent range of motion close to anatomical position equivalent to structural limits of joint range of motion extension limits in active individuals close to full range of motion standard position range limit of standard stretch position extension limit of range of movement standard extension limit range of extension standard extension limits range limit extension dynamic extension range limitation limit dynamic range limits of motion range limit motion limit range of active extensions range dynamic extension range limit extension range extension limits active standard range limit extensions standard range extension dynamic active range limit extension standard range dynamic range active standard limits active extensions dynamic range limits dynamics active limits dynamics standard limitations dynamics active limits dynamic active limit dynamic limit standard dynamic 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Set to absolute limits. Include an explanation in error structural features message why the limit was adjusted. See the limit structure definitions below for details. (max-length 32) (max-length 32)' in self.errors.as_text() or "['Please verify the error details.']" in self.errors.as_text():

    # find fields
    err_inputs = self.browser.find_elements_by_xpath('//div[contains(@class, "has-error")]//input')
    for err_input in err_inputs:
    # get parent, sibling label, clear target dynamic limit and clear value
    parent = err_input.find_element_by_xpath('..')
    # clear dynamic limit
    parent.find_element_by_xpath('//div[contains(@class, "dynamic-limit-badge")]/span').clear()
    # clear value
    err_input.clear()
    # append warning message "Fix is attempted"
    self.log_warning("Fixing invalid limit inputs.")
    else:
    raise e

    # submit again
    self.browser.find_element_by_id('submit-btn').click()
    try:
    self.wait_for_condition(lambda d: "Success" in d.title)
    except Exception as e:
    # check if it is because of an invalid limits error again
    if 'Please verify the error details.' in self.errors.as_text():
    self.log_warning("Fix failed. Exiting.")
    raise e
    else:
    raise e
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

The downward phase of a pull-up involves a controlled lowering body movement against gravity. The agonist (prime mover) for the shoulder adduction/extension during a pull-up is the latissimus dorsi. During the descent, this muscle is lengthening under tension to control the descent speed, which is classified as an eccentric muscle contraction.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer (B).
PastPaper.question 2 · Multiple Choice
1 PastPaper.marks
Which of the following describes the physiological characteristics of Type I (slow twitch) skeletal muscle fibers?
  1. A.Low myoglobin density, high glycolytic capacity, and low fatigue resistance
  2. B.High myoglobin density, high mitochondrial density, and high fatigue resistance
  3. C.High glycolytic capacity, low capillary density, and high fatigue resistance
  4. D.Low mitochondrial density, high capillary density, and low fatigue resistance
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Type I (slow twitch) muscle fibers are designed for aerobic endurance activities. They contain high amounts of myoglobin (which gives them a red color and facilitates oxygen transport), high capillary density (to ensure rich oxygen supply), and high mitochondrial density (to support aerobic ATP production). Consequently, they possess high resistance to fatigue compared to Type II fibers.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (B).

- A is incorrect: Describes fast-twitch (Type IIx) characteristics.
- B is correct: Accurately identifies the high oxidative capacity and fatigue resistance of Type I fibers.
- C is incorrect: Combines high glycolytic capacity with high fatigue resistance, which is contradictory for standard fiber types.
- D is incorrect: Type I fibers have high mitochondrial density, not low.
PastPaper.question 3 · Multiple Choice
1 PastPaper.marks
What typical blood pressure response is observed in a healthy individual during dynamic, sub-maximal aerobic exercise?
  1. A.Systolic blood pressure increases, while diastolic blood pressure remains relatively stable or decreases slightly.
  2. B.Systolic blood pressure decreases, while diastolic blood pressure increases significantly.
  3. C.Both systolic and diastolic blood pressure increase proportionally.
  4. D.Both systolic and diastolic blood pressure decrease to maximize tissue perfusion.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

During dynamic, sub-maximal aerobic exercise (such as running or cycling), systolic blood pressure increases because of the elevated cardiac output required to deliver oxygenated blood to active skeletal muscles. However, diastolic blood pressure remains relatively constant or may slightly decrease because of vasodilation in the arterioles of active muscles, which reduces total peripheral resistance.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (A).

- A is correct: Captures the increase in systolic BP and stability/minor decrease in diastolic BP.
- B is incorrect: Systolic BP increases, not decreases.
- C is incorrect: Diastolic BP does not increase proportionally during dynamic aerobic exercise (it may do so during static/isometric resistance exercise).
- D is incorrect: Systolic BP must rise to meet cardiac output demands.
PastPaper.question 4 · Multiple Choice
1 PastPaper.marks
What is the correct order of metabolic pathways involved in the complete aerobic breakdown of a single glucose molecule?
  1. A.Glycolysis \(\rightarrow\) Electron transport chain \(\rightarrow\) Krebs cycle
  2. B.Krebs cycle \(\rightarrow\) Glycolysis \(\rightarrow\) Electron transport chain
  3. C.Glycolysis \(\rightarrow\) Krebs cycle \(\rightarrow\) Electron transport chain
  4. D.Electron transport chain \(\rightarrow\) Krebs cycle \(\rightarrow\) Glycolysis
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

The aerobic catabolism of glucose starts with glycolysis in the cytoplasm, producing pyruvate. Pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA, which enters the Krebs cycle in the mitochondrial matrix. The reduced coenzymes (NADH and \(\text{FADH}_2\)) generated in glycolysis and the Krebs cycle then feed into the electron transport chain (ETC) on the inner mitochondrial membrane, producing the majority of ATP via oxidative phosphorylation.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (C).

- A is incorrect: The Krebs cycle occurs before the electron transport chain.
- B is incorrect: Glycolysis must precede the Krebs cycle.
- C is correct: Glycolysis \(\rightarrow\) Krebs cycle \(\rightarrow\) Electron transport chain is the correct sequence.
- D is incorrect: This is the reverse order of the actual catabolic pathway.
PastPaper.question 5 · Multiple Choice
1 PastPaper.marks
Which of the following joint movements acts as a third-class lever?
  1. A.Extension of the neck at the atlanto-occipital joint
  2. B.Plantarflexion of the ankle joint when standing on tiptoes
  3. C.Flexion of the elbow joint during a bicep curl
  4. D.Extension of the elbow joint during a tricep pushdown
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

In a third-class lever, the effort force is located between the fulcrum and the load (Fulcrum - Effort - Load). Flexion of the elbow joint by the biceps brachii fits this description: the elbow joint acts as the fulcrum, the insertion of the biceps tendon on the radial tuberosity acts as the effort point (which lies distal to the joint, placing it between the joint and the hand), and the weight of the forearm and hand (along with any weight held) acts as the load.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (C).

- A is incorrect: This is a first-class lever (Effort - Fulcrum - Load).
- B is incorrect: This is a second-class lever (Fulcrum - Load - Effort).
- C is correct: Elbow flexion is a classic example of a third-class lever.
- D is incorrect: This acts as a first-class lever because the effort from the triceps is applied behind the elbow joint (the fulcrum), with the load at the hand on the other side of the fulcrum.
PastPaper.question 6 · Multiple Choice
1 PastPaper.marks
An athlete performing a complex floor gymnastics routine is executing a skill that is best classified using which combination of classification systems?
  1. A.Closed, gross, and serial
  2. B.Open, fine, and discrete
  3. C.Closed, fine, and continuous
  4. D.Open, gross, and serial
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

A floor gymnastics routine is classified as:
1. **Closed**: The environment is highly predictable, stable, and self-paced.
2. **Gross**: It requires large muscle movements and full-body coordination.
3. **Serial**: It consists of several distinct discrete skills (such as flips, handstands, and somersaults) linked together in a specific, predetermined sequence.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (A).

- A is correct: Matches all three classification criteria (closed, gross, serial).
- B is incorrect: The routine is closed (predictable) and gross (large muscle groups), not open or fine.
- C is incorrect: The routine is gross (not fine) and serial (not continuous, as it is composed of discrete elements linked together).
- D is incorrect: Gymnastics routines are closed skills, as the environment is stable and predictable.
PastPaper.question 7 · Multiple Choice
1 PastPaper.marks
Which theory of the arousal-performance relationship proposes that performance increases progressively up to an optimal level of arousal, but any further increase in arousal leads to a gradual, symmetrical decline in performance?
  1. A.Drive Theory
  2. B.Catastrophe Theory
  3. C.Inverted-U Hypothesis
  4. D.Individual Zones of Optimal Functioning (IZOF)
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

The Inverted-U Hypothesis (originally developed by Yerkes and Dodson) describes a curvilinear relationship between arousal and performance. It predicts that performance improves with increases in arousal up to an optimal point. If arousal increases beyond this point, performance will gradually decline in a symmetrical fashion.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (C).

- A is incorrect: Drive Theory posits a linear relationship (performance increases proportionally with arousal).
- B is incorrect: Catastrophe Theory proposes a sudden, sharp, non-linear drop in performance when both physiological arousal and cognitive anxiety are high.
- C is correct: Accurately matches the description of a progressive, symmetrical decline.
- D is incorrect: IZOF focuses on individual optimal zones of anxiety/arousal rather than a universal symmetrical curve.
PastPaper.question 8 · Multiple Choice
1 PastPaper.marks
According to Deci and Ryan’s Self-Determination Theory (SDT), what are the three basic psychological needs that must be satisfied to promote intrinsic motivation and psychological well-being?
  1. A.Autonomy, Competence, and Relatedness
  2. B.Extrinsic reward, Self-efficacy, and Autonomy
  3. C.Competence, Achievement, and Affiliation
  4. D.Self-actualization, Self-esteem, and Autonomy
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Self-Determination Theory (SDT) proposes that humans have three innate, universal basic psychological needs: autonomy (the need to feel in control of one's own behaviors and goals), competence (the need to feel effective and master skills), and relatedness (the need to feel a sense of belonging and attachment to others). Satisfying these three needs is critical for fostering intrinsic motivation.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (A).

- A is correct: Correctly identifies Autonomy, Competence, and Relatedness.
- B is incorrect: Extrinsic reward is an external motivator and not a basic psychological need.
- C is incorrect: This refers to McClelland's Needs Theory (Achievement, Affiliation, Power).
- D is incorrect: Self-actualization and self-esteem are from Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs.
PastPaper.question 9 · Multiple Choice
1 PastPaper.marks
A middle-distance runner sets a goal of 'focusing on smooth breathing and maintaining a high knee-drive during the final 400 meters of the race.' What type of goal is this athlete utilizing?
  1. A.Outcome goal
  2. B.Performance goal
  3. C.Process goal
  4. D.Subjective goal
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Process goals focus on the specific behaviors, actions, or physical techniques an athlete must execute during a performance (e.g., maintaining technique, focusing on breathing). Unlike outcome goals (which focus on winning or placing) and performance goals (which focus on achieving a specific personal standard or metric like a time), process goals are fully under the athlete's control during execution.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (C).

- A is incorrect: Outcome goals focus on winning or beating others.
- B is incorrect: Performance goals focus on achieving a specific numeric standard (e.g., running under 2:00 minutes).
- C is correct: Process goals focus on the physical execution and technique during the task.
- D is incorrect: Subjective goals are general statements of intent (e.g., 'to have fun' or 'do my best') and are not defined by specific technique focus.
PastPaper.question 10 · Multiple Choice
1 PastPaper.marks
Which of the following describes the muscle action and contraction type of the quadriceps during the downward phase of a barbell back squat?
  1. A.Eccentric contraction, acting as the agonist to control the descent.
  2. B.Concentric contraction, acting as the antagonist to decelerate movement.
  3. C.Isometric contraction, acting as the agonist to maintain static posture.
  4. D.Eccentric contraction, acting as the antagonist to assist hip flexion.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

During the downward phase of a squat, the knee joint undergoes flexion. The quadriceps femoris group (which are knee extensors) must lengthen while under tension to control the downward movement against gravity. This lengthening under tension is called an eccentric contraction. Because they are the primary muscle group controlling this specific movement, they act as the agonist (or prime mover) during this phase.

PastPaper.markingScheme

[1] Award 1 mark for the correct answer (A).
[0] No mark for incorrect options.
PastPaper.question 11 · Multiple Choice
1 PastPaper.marks
During prolonged, steady-state aerobic exercise in a hot environment, what change typically occurs to stroke volume and heart rate due to cardiovascular drift?
  1. A.Stroke volume increases and heart rate decreases to maintain cardiac output.
  2. B.Stroke volume decreases and heart rate increases to maintain cardiac output.
  3. C.Both stroke volume and heart rate decrease to prevent cardiovascular fatigue.
  4. D.Both stroke volume and heart rate increase to maximize oxygen delivery to active tissues.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Cardiovascular drift is a phenomenon that occurs during prolonged submaximal exercise, particularly in warm environments. As exercise progresses, fluid is lost through sweating, which leads to a decrease in blood volume and venous return. This reduction in venous return causes a progressive decrease in stroke volume (SV). To maintain a constant cardiac output \(Q = \text{SV} \times \text{HR}\), the heart rate (HR) must progressively increase.

PastPaper.markingScheme

[1] Award 1 mark for the correct answer (B).
[0] No mark for incorrect options.
PastPaper.question 12 · Multiple Choice
1 PastPaper.marks
Which of the following statements correctly compares the metabolism of lipids and carbohydrates during aerobic exercise?
  1. A.Lipids yield more energy per gram than carbohydrates but require more oxygen to oxidize.
  2. B.Lipids yield less energy per gram than carbohydrates and require more oxygen to oxidize.
  3. C.Carbohydrates yield more energy per gram than lipids and require less oxygen to oxidize.
  4. D.Carbohydrates and lipids yield the same energy per gram, but carbohydrates require more oxygen to oxidize.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Lipids (fats) have a higher energy density than carbohydrates, yielding approximately 9 kcal/g compared to carbohydrates which yield approximately 4 kcal/g. Therefore, lipids yield more energy (and produce more ATP) per gram. However, because lipid molecules are more chemically reduced (contain less oxygen relative to carbon and hydrogen), they require significantly more oxygen to be oxidized completely.

PastPaper.markingScheme

[1] Award 1 mark for the correct answer (A).
[0] No mark for incorrect options.
PastPaper.question 13 · Multiple Choice
1 PastPaper.marks
Which of the following correctly identifies the lever class and the relative positions of the effort (force), fulcrum (axis), and load (resistance) when a dancer performs a calf raise (plantarflexion of the ankle joint)?
  1. A.First class lever, with the fulcrum located between the load and the effort.
  2. B.Second class lever, with the load located between the fulcrum and the effort.
  3. C.Third class lever, with the effort located between the fulcrum and the load.
  4. D.Third class lever, with the load located between the fulcrum and the effort.
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PastPaper.workedSolution

During ankle plantarflexion (a calf raise), the ball of the foot acts as the fulcrum (axis of rotation), the body weight acting down through the tibia acts as the load (resistance) in the middle, and the force exerted by the calf muscles (gastrocnemius and soleus) pulling upwards through the Achilles tendon acts as the effort. Because the load is located between the fulcrum and the effort, this is classified as a second-class lever.

PastPaper.markingScheme

[1] Award 1 mark for the correct answer (B).
[0] No mark for incorrect options.
PastPaper.question 14 · Multiple Choice
1 PastPaper.marks
A tennis coach tells a player, 'Your racket face was too open at the point of contact, which caused the ball to go long.' What classification of feedback does this represent?
  1. A.Intrinsic feedback and Knowledge of Results
  2. B.Extrinsic (augmented) feedback and Knowledge of Performance
  3. C.Intrinsic feedback and Knowledge of Performance
  4. D.Extrinsic (augmented) feedback and Knowledge of Results
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

The feedback is provided by an external source (the coach), which classifies it as extrinsic (augmented) feedback. Furthermore, the feedback specifically describes the execution and technique of the movement (the orientation of the racket face), which classifies it as Knowledge of Performance. Knowledge of Results would instead focus purely on the outcome of the action (e.g., whether the ball was in or out).

PastPaper.markingScheme

[1] Award 1 mark for the correct answer (B).
[0] No mark for incorrect options.
PastPaper.question 15 · Multiple Choice
1 PastPaper.marks
According to catastrophe theory, what happens to an athlete's performance when cognitive anxiety is high and physiological arousal exceeds the optimal threshold?
  1. A.Performance gradually decreases in a linear fashion.
  2. B.Performance remains optimal regardless of physiological arousal.
  3. C.Performance experiences a sudden, dramatic decline.
  4. D.Performance immediately rebounds to peak levels after a brief decline.
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

Catastrophe theory predicts that when cognitive anxiety (worry) is high, increases in physiological arousal will lead to increases in performance up to a certain threshold. However, if physiological arousal exceeds this optimal level, a sudden and dramatic drop (catastrophe) in performance occurs, rather than a gradual decline.

PastPaper.markingScheme

[1] Award 1 mark for the correct answer (C).
[0] No mark for incorrect options.

Paper 2 Section A

Answer all data response and short-answer questions in the spaces provided.
4 PastPaper.question · 30 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · Short Answer
7.5 PastPaper.marks
An investigator measured core body temperature and cumulative sweat loss of an endurance runner during two 120-minute treadmill runs at the same intensity but in different environmental conditions: Hot (35 degrees Celsius) and Cool (15 degrees Celsius). The data are presented below: | Time (minutes) | Core Temp (degrees C) in Hot | Core Temp (degrees C) in Cool | Cumulative Sweat Loss (L) in Hot | Cumulative Sweat Loss (L) in Cool | | 0 | 37.0 | 37.0 | 0.0 | 0.0 | | 30 | 37.8 | 37.3 | 0.6 | 0.2 | | 60 | 38.5 | 37.5 | 1.3 | 0.5 | | 90 | 39.1 | 37.7 | 2.1 | 0.8 | | 120 | 39.6 | 37.8 | 2.9 | 1.1 | (a) State the difference in cumulative sweat loss (in liters) between the hot and cool conditions after 120 minutes of exercise. [1.5 marks] (b) Outline the relationship between core body temperature and sweat loss in the hot environment over the 120-minute period. [2 marks] (c) Explain the physiological mechanism of cardiovascular drift and how it is exacerbated by high sweat rates. [4 marks]
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

(a) At 120 minutes: Sweat loss in hot is 2.9 L and sweat loss in cool is 1.1 L. The difference is 2.9 - 1.1 = 1.8 L. (b) Over the 120-minute exercise session in the heat, core body temperature increases from 37.0 to 39.6 degrees Celsius while cumulative sweat loss increases from 0.0 to 2.9 L. This indicates a positive relationship where thermal strain drives thermoregulatory sweating. (c) Prolonged exercise in hot conditions leads to high sweat rates, causing significant loss of water from blood plasma. This drop in plasma volume reduces central blood volume and venous return to the heart. According to Starling's Law, lower venous return decreases end-diastolic volume and reduces stroke volume. Since cardiac output (Q = HR x SV) must be maintained to sustain exercise, the body compensates for the falling stroke volume by increasing heart rate.

PastPaper.markingScheme

(a) [1.5 marks total]: 1 mark for correct subtraction showing work (2.9 - 1.1) and 0.5 marks for the correct final value with units (1.8 L). (b) [2 marks total]: 1 mark for identifying the positive correlation/relationship and 1 mark for supporting it with data from the table (e.g., core temp rises by 2.6 degrees Celsius while sweat loss reaches 2.9 L by 120 mins). (c) [4 marks total]: 1 mark for defining cardiovascular drift (decrease in SV, increase in HR over time), 1 mark for stating that sweating reduces blood plasma volume, 1 mark for linking reduced plasma volume to decreased venous return/end-diastolic volume, and 1 mark for explaining that heart rate must increase to maintain cardiac output.
PastPaper.question 2 · Short Answer
7.5 PastPaper.marks
The sliding filament theory describes the process of muscle contraction within a sarcomere. (a) Describe the structural changes that occur within a sarcomere (specifically the H-zone, I-band, and A-band) during concentric muscle contraction. [3.5 marks] (b) Explain the role of calcium ions (Ca2+) and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) in the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction. [4 marks]
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

(a) During a concentric contraction: The H-zone (containing only myosin) shortens or completely disappears as the thin actin filaments slide into this central region. The I-band (containing only actin) narrows because the actin filaments are pulled toward the M-line. The A-band (representing the complete length of the thick myosin filaments) remains completely unchanged because the thick filaments do not change length during contraction. The overall distance between the Z-lines decreases, shortening the sarcomere. (b) Action potentials trigger calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Calcium binds to troponin, causing a shape change that pulls tropomyosin away from the active binding sites on actin. Once exposed, myosin heads can form cross-bridges. ATP then binds to the myosin head, allowing it to detach from actin. ATP is hydrolyzed by ATPase into ADP and inorganic phosphate, releasing energy that cocks the myosin head into its high-energy state so it can attach to a new actin site and perform the power stroke.

PastPaper.markingScheme

(a) [3.5 marks total]: 1 mark for explaining that the H-zone shortens or disappears, 1 mark for explaining that the I-band narrows, 1 mark for stating that the A-band remains constant in width, and 0.5 marks for stating that the overall sarcomere/Z-line distance shortens. (b) [4 marks total]: 1 mark for calcium release and binding to troponin, 1 mark for troponin-tropomyosin shift exposing actin binding sites, 1 mark for ATP binding causing myosin head detachment, and 1 mark for ATP hydrolysis providing energy to re-cock the myosin head.
PastPaper.question 3 · Short Answer
7.5 PastPaper.marks
A researcher investigated the acquisition and retention of a golf putting task. Two groups of beginner golfers practiced the skill over 4 weeks using different practice schedules: Group A used random practice (varying the distance of each putt randomly), and Group B used blocked practice (practicing 50 putts from a single distance before moving to another distance). In Week 5, both groups completed a retention test under realistic game conditions. The average putting accuracy scores (out of 10) are shown below: | Week | Group A (Random Practice) Mean Score | Group B (Blocked Practice) Mean Score | | 1 | 3.2 | 4.5 | | 2 | 4.5 | 5.8 | | 3 | 5.6 | 6.2 | | 4 | 6.8 | 6.5 | | 5 (Retention Test) | 7.5 | 5.2 | (a) Outline the differences in performance during the acquisition phase (Weeks 1 to 4) between Group A and Group B. [2 marks] (b) Describe the difference in performance between the two groups during the Week 5 retention test. [1.5 marks] (c) Using motor learning theories, explain why Group A (random practice) achieved a higher score in the retention test compared to Group B (blocked practice). [4 marks]
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

(a) In the acquisition phase (Weeks 1-3), the blocked practice group (Group B) demonstrates superior performance, scoring higher than the random practice group (Group A) (e.g., Week 1: 4.5 vs 3.2). However, Group A shows a continuous and steeper rate of improvement, eventually scoring higher than Group B by Week 4 (6.8 vs 6.5). (b) In the retention test (Week 5), Group A performs significantly better than Group B, scoring 7.5 compared to 5.2. Group A's performance improved from Week 4 to Week 5, while Group B's performance deteriorated. (c) This phenomenon is explained by the Contextual Interference Effect. Random practice (Group A) creates high contextual interference. According to the elaboration hypothesis, practicing different distances in a random order allows the learner to compare and contrast the different motor tasks, developing more detailed memory representations. Under the action plan reconstruction hypothesis, the learner must reconstruct the movement plan on every trial because working memory is cleared of the previous trial's details. Although this degrades short-term performance during acquisition, it greatly enhances long-term learning and retrieval. In contrast, blocked practice (Group B) involves low contextual interference and passive repetition, which yields short-term performance gains but fails to establish robust retrieval mechanisms, leading to poor retention.

PastPaper.markingScheme

(a) [2 marks total]: 1 mark for identifying that Group B scored higher than Group A during the early acquisition period (Weeks 1-3) and 1 mark for noting that Group A improved faster and surpassed Group B by Week 4. (b) [1.5 marks total]: 1 mark for stating that Group A performed significantly better than Group B in the retention test (7.5 vs 5.2) and 0.5 marks for noting that Group B's performance dropped while Group A's continued to rise. (c) [4 marks total]: 1 mark for identifying that random practice causes high contextual interference, 1 mark for explaining the elaboration or action plan reconstruction hypothesis, 1 mark for explaining why blocked practice limits long-term learning (low cognitive effort/repetition without retrieval), and 1 mark for linking these differences to success in the novel/realistic game conditions of the retention test.
PastPaper.question 4 · Short Answer
7.5 PastPaper.marks
An exercise physiologist recorded the cardiac values of an untrained 20-year-old male and a highly trained 20-year-old male endurance runner at rest and during maximal intensity exercise. The results are shown in the table: | Participant | Rest HR (bpm) | Rest SV (mL) | Max HR (bpm) | Max SV (mL) | | Untrained Male | 72 | 70 | 190 | 110 | | Trained Male | 50 | 100 | 185 | 160 | (a) Compare the cardiac output (Q) of the trained and untrained participant at rest and during maximal exercise. (Show your calculations). [2 marks] (b) Explain how the trained athlete is able to maintain a normal resting cardiac output despite having a much lower resting heart rate (bradycardia). [2 marks] (c) Discuss the physiological adaptations resulting from chronic aerobic training that account for the higher maximal stroke volume in the trained runner. [3.5 marks]
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

(a) Cardiac Output (Q) = Heart Rate (HR) x Stroke Volume (SV). At rest: Untrained Q = 72 bpm x 70 mL = 5,040 mL/min (5.04 L/min). Trained Q = 50 bpm x 100 mL = 5,000 mL/min (5.00 L/min). Resting cardiac output is virtually identical in both participants (approx. 5.0 L/min). At maximal exercise: Untrained Q = 190 bpm x 110 mL = 20,900 mL/min (20.9 L/min). Trained Q = 185 bpm x 160 mL = 29,600 mL/min (29.6 L/min). The trained athlete has a much higher maximal cardiac output. (b) Cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume. Because of chronic aerobic training, the runner has developed an enlarged and stronger left ventricle, resulting in a much larger resting stroke volume (100 mL vs 70 mL). Consequently, the runner can pump the same volume of blood per minute (5 L/min) at a significantly lower heart rate (50 bpm), which is mediated by increased parasympathetic nervous system activity. (c) Chronic aerobic training causes: 1. Left ventricular hypertrophy (eccentric hypertrophy), which increases the size of the left ventricular chamber and allows for greater filling (increased End-Diastolic Volume - EDV). 2. Increased blood/plasma volume, which increases venous return and EDV. 3. The Frank-Starling mechanism: a larger EDV stretches the cardiac muscle fibers, generating a stronger force of contraction and ejecting a higher stroke volume. 4. Increased capillarization of skeletal muscle, which reduces peripheral resistance (afterload), allowing the heart to pump blood more easily.

PastPaper.markingScheme

(a) [2 marks total]: 1 mark for calculating and comparing resting cardiac output (showing that both are approx. 5 L/min) and 1 mark for calculating and comparing maximal cardiac output (showing that the trained runner is higher at 29.6 L/min vs 20.9 L/min). (b) [2 marks total]: 1 mark for identifying that cardiac output is the product of HR and SV and that metabolic demand at rest is identical, and 1 mark for explaining that the elevated stroke volume (100 mL) compensates for the lower heart rate (50 bpm). (c) [3.5 marks total]: Award 1 mark each for any three of the following well-explained adaptations (up to 3 marks) plus 0.5 marks for detail: Left ventricular chamber dilation/hypertrophy (increased EDV); Increased plasma/blood volume causing increased venous return; Frank-Starling mechanism (increased stretch of ventricle wall leads to a more forceful contraction); Reduced peripheral resistance (reduced afterload).

Paper 2 Section B

Answer one extended-response question from a choice of three options.
1 PastPaper.question · 20 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · Extended Response
20 PastPaper.marks
An ultra-endurance athlete is preparing for a 100 km mountain trail race in hot, humid conditions.

(a) Distinguish between the roles of carbohydrates and lipids as energy substrates during exercise of different intensities. [4]

(b) Explain how dehydration affects cardiovascular function and thermoregulation during prolonged exercise in the heat. [7]

(c) Discuss nutritional and hydration strategies that the athlete should adopt before, during, and after the race to optimize performance and recovery. [9]
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

(a) Roles of carbohydrates and lipids as energy substrates:
- Carbohydrates are the primary fuel source for high-intensity exercise because they can be metabolized quickly via both aerobic and anaerobic pathways (glycolysis).
- Lipids (fats) are the dominant energy substrate during low-to-moderate intensity exercise because they require a high amount of oxygen for aerobic metabolism (beta-oxidation).
- Carbohydrates produce ATP at a faster rate, making them ideal for high-power demands, whereas lipids produce ATP at a slower rate but yield significantly more energy per gram.
- Muscle and liver glycogen stores (carbohydrate) are limited and can become depleted within 90-120 minutes of moderate-to-high intensity exercise, whereas adipose tissue and intramuscular triacylglycerol (lipid) stores are virtually unlimited, sustaining low-intensity activity for days.

(b) Effects of dehydration on cardiovascular function and thermoregulation:
- Dehydration leads to a decrease in blood plasma volume.
- Reduced plasma volume decreases venous return of blood to the heart and consequently reduces stroke volume (SV).
- To maintain cardiac output (\(Q = HR \times SV\)), the heart rate (HR) must increase, a phenomenon known as cardiovascular drift.
- During prolonged dehydration, the increase in HR cannot fully compensate for the falling SV, causing a drop in overall cardiac output.
- To preserve blood pressure and perfuse active muscles, the body vasoconstricts peripheral blood vessels, reducing blood flow to the skin.
- Reduced skin blood flow limits heat dissipation via convection and radiation.
- Dehydration reduces sweat rate in an attempt to conserve water, which severely limits evaporative cooling (the primary mechanism for heat loss in hot conditions).
- The combined reduction in skin blood flow and sweat rate impairs the body's thermoregulatory capacity, leading to a rapid rise in core body temperature and increasing the risk of heat-related illnesses (such as heat exhaustion or heat stroke).

(c) Nutritional and hydration strategies:
- Before the race:
- Carbohydrate loading (increasing intake to 8-12 g/kg of body weight per day) in the 36-48 hours before the event to maximize muscle glycogen storage.
- Achieving optimal hydration status (euhydration) by sipping fluids and monitoring urine color (aiming for pale straw color) in the days and hours leading up to the race.
- Consuming a pre-race meal high in easily digestible carbohydrates (low in fiber and fat to prevent gastrointestinal distress) 2-4 hours prior to the start.
- During the race:
- Consuming 60-90 g of carbohydrates per hour (using a mix of multiple transportable carbohydrates, such as glucose and fructose in a 2:1 ratio, to maximize intestinal absorption).
- Following a personalized hydration plan based on sweat rate, aiming to limit body weight loss to less than 2% of pre-race mass.
- Consuming electrolyte-rich beverages or salt tablets (specifically targeting sodium) to replace losses in sweat and prevent hyponatremia.
- After the race:
- Rehydrating by drinking approximately 1.25 to 1.5 liters of fluid for every kilogram of body weight lost during the race.
- Consuming high-glycemic index carbohydrates immediately (within the first 2 hours) to optimize rapid muscle and liver glycogen resynthesis.
- Consuming 20-25 g of high-quality, rapidly digesting protein to stimulate muscle repair and muscle protein synthesis.
- Including sodium in recovery meals or drinks to stimulate thirst and help retain the ingested fluids.

PastPaper.markingScheme

Part (a) [Max 4 marks]
- Award [1] for noting carbohydrates are used for high-intensity / anaerobic exercise and lipids for low-to-moderate / aerobic exercise.
- Award [1] for noting carbohydrates have a faster rate of energy delivery.
- Award [1] for noting lipids have a much higher energy density/yield per gram than carbohydrates.
- Award [1] for noting carbohydrate stores (glycogen) are highly limited, whereas lipid stores are virtually unlimited.

Part (b) [Max 7 marks]
- Award [1] for identifying a reduction in plasma/blood volume due to sweating/dehydration.
- Award [1] for linking decreased blood volume to decreased venous return and reduced stroke volume.
- Award [1] for explaining cardiovascular drift (increased heart rate to maintain cardiac output: \(Q = HR \times SV\)).
- Award [1] for noting that cardiac output eventually declines as SV continues to drop.
- Award [1] for explaining vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels / reduced skin blood flow to preserve core perfusion.
- Award [1] for linking reduced skin blood flow to decreased convective/radiative heat loss.
- Award [1] for noting decreased sweat rate to conserve body water.
- Award [1] for linking decreased sweat rate to reduced evaporative cooling.
- Award [1] for concluding that impaired heat loss causes an accelerated rise in core body temperature / hyperthermia.

Part (c) [Max 9 marks - Max 3 marks per phase]
- Before the race (Max [3]):
- Award [1] for carbohydrate loading strategy (maximizing glycogen stores).
- Award [1] for pre-hydration strategies (achieving euhydration, monitoring urine/weight).
- Award [1] for pre-race meal guidelines (high carb, low fiber/fat to prevent GI distress).
- During the race (Max [3]):
- Award [1] for exogenous carbohydrate ingestion rates (60-90g/hr, multiple transportable carbohydrates).
- Award [1] for hydration rate linked to sweat loss / keeping mass loss < 2%.
- Award [1] for electrolyte/sodium replacement to avoid hyponatremia and promote water absorption.
- After the race (Max [3]):
- Award [1] for fluid volume replacement ratio (1.25-1.5 L per kg lost).
- Award [1] for post-race rapid carbohydrate replenishment (high GI carbs shortly after finishing).
- Award [1] for protein consumption (20-25g for muscle repair).
- Award [1] for sodium inclusion in post-race nutrition to aid fluid retention.

Paper 3 Options

Answer all of the questions from two of the four option topics.
2 PastPaper.question · 40 PastPaper.marks
PastPaper.question 1 · Option Short Answer / Extended
20 PastPaper.marks
Option B: Psychology of Sports. (a) Define the terms 'somatic anxiety' and 'cognitive anxiety'. [2] (b) Outline the relationship between cognitive anxiety, somatic anxiety, and athletic performance according to Multidimensional Anxiety Theory. [4] (c) Explain two cognitive coping strategies an athlete can use to manage high pre-competition anxiety. [4] (d) Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation, discussing their impact on long-term athletic adherence. [5] (e) Describe how a coach can use three elements of the TARGET framework to establish a task-oriented (mastery) motivational climate. [5]
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

[Part a] Somatic anxiety: The physical/physiological response to a perceived stressor, characterized by symptoms like sweating, muscle tension, or rapid heart rate (1 mark). Cognitive anxiety: The mental component of anxiety, characterized by worry, negative expectations, and self-doubt (1 mark). [Part b] According to Multidimensional Anxiety Theory, cognitive anxiety has a negative linear relationship with performance; as cognitive anxiety increases, performance decreases (1 mark). Somatic anxiety has an inverted-U relationship with performance; somatic anxiety increases performance up to an optimal level, beyond which further arousal impairs performance (1 mark). These two components are considered independent (1 mark). Performance is predicted to be highest when cognitive anxiety is low and somatic anxiety is at an optimal level (1 mark). [Part c] Imagery / Visualization: The athlete mentally rehearses successful execution of skills or positive coping scenarios. This increases self-efficacy and decreases worry (2 marks). Positive Self-Talk: The athlete consciously replaces negative, self-critical thoughts with positive, instructional, or motivational statements (e.g., 'I have trained for this'), which redirects attention to task-relevant cues (2 marks). (Accept other valid cognitive coping strategies such as thought-stopping or cognitive restructuring. Max 2 marks per strategy.) [Part d] Intrinsic motivation comes from within, such as personal satisfaction, enjoyment of the sport, and desire to master skills (1 mark). Extrinsic motivation comes from external rewards like trophies, money, fame, or social approval (1 mark). Intrinsic motivation is highly beneficial for long-term adherence because participation is inherently rewarding, making athletes resilient to setbacks (1 mark). Extrinsic motivation can drive performance in the short term but may lead to reduced intrinsic interest if rewards are withdrawn (overjustification effect) and increases the risk of burnout/dropout (1 mark). Successful adherence is best supported when athletes have self-determined (intrinsic) motivation, though extrinsic rewards can act as secondary motivators (1 mark). [Part e] Elements of TARGET framework (any three): 1. Task: Designing activities featuring variety and personal challenge rather than comparison, encouraging a focus on learning (1.5 marks). 2. Authority: Involving athletes in decision-making (e.g., choosing practice drills), fostering autonomy (1.5 marks). 3. Reward: Focusing recognition on individual effort and improvement rather than outcome/social comparison (1.5 marks). 4. Grouping: Using cooperative, mixed-ability groups rather than sorting solely by performance (1.5 marks). 5. Evaluation: Designing assessments based on self-referenced criteria and individual progress (1.5 marks). 6. Timing: Providing flexible timelines that allow athletes to develop skills at their own pace (1.5 marks). (Award 1 mark for identifying the element and up to 1 mark for explaining how it promotes a mastery climate. Max 5 marks overall for part e).

PastPaper.markingScheme

Part a: Award 1 mark for somatic anxiety definition and 1 mark for cognitive anxiety definition. Part b: Award 1 mark per point up to 4 marks. Must clearly distinguish the linear negative relation (cognitive) from the inverted-U relation (somatic). Part c: Award up to 2 marks per strategy (1 mark for identifying, 1 mark for explaining). Max 4 marks. Part d: Award 1 mark for defining intrinsic, 1 mark for defining extrinsic, and up to 3 marks for discussing adherence impacts. Max 5 marks. Part e: Award up to 2 marks per element of TARGET framework explained (max 5 marks total).
PastPaper.question 2 · Option Short Answer / Extended
20 PastPaper.marks
Option D: Nutrition for Sports, Exercise and Health. (a) State the primary storage sites of glycogen in the human body and outline the role of muscle glycogen during high-intensity exercise. [3] (b) Compare the use of high-glycemic index (GI) and low-glycemic index (GI) carbohydrates in an endurance athlete's dietary plan prior to and during a marathon race. [5] (c) Discuss the physiological consequences of dehydration on the cardiovascular and thermoregulatory systems during prolonged exercise in a hot environment. [6] (d) Evaluate the use of hypotonic, isotonic, and hypertonic sports drinks for a marathon runner during and immediately after a race. [6]
PastPaper.showAnswers

PastPaper.workedSolution

[Part a] Primary storage sites are the skeletal muscles (1 mark) and the liver (1 mark). During high-intensity exercise, muscle glycogen is broken down via glycogenolysis to provide glucose-6-phosphate, enabling rapid ATP production directly within the active muscle fibers to sustain high power outputs (1 mark). [Part b] Low-GI carbohydrates (e.g., oats, pasta) release glucose slowly and steadily into the bloodstream (1 mark). They are ideal 2-4 hours prior to the race to provide sustained energy and prevent rapid insulin spikes/glycemia crashes (1 mark). High-GI carbohydrates (e.g., energy gels, sports drinks) release glucose rapidly into the blood (1 mark). They are ideal during the race to provide immediate exogenous carbohydrate fuel to working muscles once internal glycogen levels begin to deplete (1 mark). Consuming high-GI carbs immediately before the race (within 45 mins) should be avoided to prevent rebound hypoglycemia (1 mark). [Part c] Cardiovascular consequences: Dehydration reduces blood and plasma volume (1 mark). This leads to a decreased stroke volume (1 mark). To compensate and maintain cardiac output, heart rate increases (cardiovascular drift) (1 mark). If dehydration worsens, cardiac output falls, reducing blood delivery to active tissues (1 mark). Thermoregulatory consequences: Reduced plasma volume compromises peripheral blood flow, limiting heat transport to the skin surface (1 mark). Sweat rate is reduced to conserve body water, which impairs evaporative cooling (the primary heat loss mechanism) (1 mark). This results in a rapid increase in core body temperature, raising the risk of hyperthermia and performance failure (1 mark). (Award max 3 marks for cardiovascular and max 3 marks for thermoregulatory, total max 6 marks). [Part d] Hypotonic drinks: Have lower osmolarity than blood / low carb concentration (<4%) (1 mark). They are absorbed rapidly, making them excellent for quick hydration during a race in extremely hot environments, though they offer minimal energy (1 mark). Isonic drinks: Have similar osmolarity to blood / moderate carb concentration (6-8%) (1 mark). They provide an optimal balance of rapid fluid absorption and carbohydrate delivery, making them the best choice during the marathon to sustain blood glucose and hydration simultaneously (1 mark). Hypertonic drinks: Have higher osmolarity than blood / high carb concentration (>8%) (1 mark). They empty slowly from the stomach and can cause gastrointestinal distress if consumed during exercise; therefore, they should not be used during the race but are highly effective after the race to rapidly replenish muscle glycogen stores (1 mark).

PastPaper.markingScheme

Part a: Award 1 mark for muscle storage, 1 mark for liver storage, and 1 mark for describing glycogen's role in supplying glucose/ATP during high-intensity exercise. Part b: Award 1 mark per comparative point highlighting GI values, physiological response, and optimal timing. Max 5 marks. Part c: Award up to 3 marks for cardiovascular effects and up to 3 marks for thermoregulatory effects. Max 6 marks. Part d: Award up to 2 marks for each of the three drink types (1 mark for describing its osmolarity/use, 1 mark for evaluating its suitability during/after a race). Max 6 marks.

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