OCR AS Level · thinka-original Practice Paper

2025 OCR AS Level Biology A - H020 Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Jun 2025 OCR AS Level-Style Mock — Biology A - H020

140 marks180 mins2025
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2025 OCR AS Level Biology A - H020 paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from OCR.

H020/01 — Section A

Answer all 20 four-option multiple-choice questions. Enter one option letter for each. Spend no more than 25 minutes on this section.
20 Question · 20 marks
Question 1 · Multiple choice
1 marks
Which option lists the taxa of the taxonomic hierarchy in the correct order, from largest to smallest?
  1. A.domain, kingdom, class, phylum, order, family, genus, species
  2. B.domain, kingdom, phylum, order, class, genus, family, species
  3. C.domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
  4. D.kingdom, domain, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The hierarchy runs domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species. Option A swaps class and phylum, B swaps order/class and genus/family, D places kingdom above domain.

Marking scheme

C = 1 mark (AO1). Any other letter = 0.
Question 2 · Multiple choice
1 marks
A diploid cell of an animal contains 8 chromosomes. Which row shows the number of chromosomes and the number of chromatids in one cell at metaphase II of meiosis?
  1. A.4 chromosomes and 8 chromatids
  2. B.4 chromosomes and 4 chromatids
  3. C.8 chromosomes and 8 chromatids
  4. D.8 chromosomes and 16 chromatids
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Meiosis I halves the chromosome number, so each cell has 4 chromosomes. Chromatids have not yet separated at metaphase II, so each chromosome has 2 chromatids, giving 8 chromatids.

Marking scheme

A = 1 mark (AO2). Any other letter = 0.
Question 3 · Multiple choice
1 marks
A cube-shaped block of tissue has sides of 4 mm. What is its surface area to volume ratio, in mm\(^{-1}\)?
  1. A.0.67
  2. B.4.0
  3. C.6.0
  4. D.1.5
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Surface area = \(6 \times 4^2 = 96\) mm\(^2\). Volume = \(4^3 = 64\) mm\(^3\). Ratio = \(96/64 = 1.5\).

Marking scheme

D = 1 mark (AO2). Method: surface area / volume with 96 and 64. Common errors: 0.67 (inverted), 6.0 (6 faces only).
Question 4 · Multiple choice
1 marks
Which statement explains why countercurrent flow makes gas exchange in the gills of a bony fish efficient?
  1. A.It increases the total surface area of the gill lamellae.
  2. B.It maintains a concentration gradient for oxygen along the whole length of the lamellae.
  3. C.It slows the flow of water so that all oxygen diffuses out.
  4. D.It allows the blood and water to reach equilibrium in oxygen concentration.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Blood and water flow in opposite directions, so water always meets blood of lower oxygen concentration and diffusion continues along the whole lamella.

Marking scheme

B = 1 mark (AO1). Other options: A confuses with lamellae structure; C and D are incorrect as equilibrium would reduce uptake.
Question 5 · Multiple choice
1 marks
A plant cell with a water potential of \(-400\) kPa is placed in a solution with a water potential of \(-200\) kPa. Which statement is correct?
  1. A.Water moves out of the cell by osmosis because the solution has a lower water potential.
  2. B.There is no net movement of water because the cell wall prevents osmosis.
  3. C.Water moves into the cell by osmosis because the solution has a higher water potential.
  4. D.Water moves into the cell by active transport because the cell has a lower water potential.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

\(-200\) kPa is higher than \(-400\) kPa, so water moves by osmosis down the water potential gradient into the cell.

Marking scheme

C = 1 mark (AO2). Osmosis is passive, so D is rejected.
Question 6 · Multiple choice
1 marks
Which statement describes the Bohr effect?
  1. A.A higher partial pressure of carbon dioxide lowers the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen, shifting the dissociation curve to the right.
  2. B.A higher partial pressure of carbon dioxide raises the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen, shifting the dissociation curve to the left.
  3. C.A lower partial pressure of carbon dioxide causes haemoglobin to release oxygen more readily, shifting the curve to the right.
  4. D.A higher partial pressure of oxygen causes haemoglobin to release carbon dioxide, shifting the curve to the left.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In respiring tissues raised carbon dioxide lowers haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, so the curve shifts right and oxygen is unloaded more readily.

Marking scheme

A = 1 mark (AO1). Other options have wrong direction or wrong gas relationship.
Question 7 · Multiple choice
1 marks
The rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction was 0.8 arbitrary units at 20 °C and 2.0 arbitrary units at 30 °C. What is the temperature coefficient, \(Q_{10}\), for this reaction?
  1. A.0.4
  2. B.1.2
  3. C.1.6
  4. D.2.5
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

\(Q_{10} = R_2 / R_1 = 2.0 / 0.8 = 2.5\), as the temperature interval is 10 °C.

Marking scheme

D = 1 mark (AO2). 0.4 results from inverting the ratio.
Question 8 · Multiple choice
1 marks
Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar. Which procedure gives a positive result for sucrose with Benedict's reagent?
  1. A.Heating the sucrose solution directly with Benedict's reagent.
  2. B.Boiling the sucrose with dilute hydrochloric acid, neutralising with alkali, then heating with Benedict's reagent.
  3. C.Adding iodine solution to the sucrose and then heating with Benedict's reagent.
  4. D.Adding biuret reagent to the sucrose before heating with Benedict's reagent.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Acid hydrolysis splits sucrose into glucose and fructose, which are reducing sugars. The acid must be neutralised because Benedict's reagent needs alkaline conditions; heating then gives a brick-red precipitate.

Marking scheme

B = 1 mark (AO1). A gives no change as sucrose is non-reducing; iodine tests starch and biuret tests protein.
Question 9 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which statement about the three-domain classification system is correct?
  1. A.Domain Eukarya contains all organisms that have a cell wall.
  2. B.Bacteria and Archaea are placed in one domain because both are prokaryotic.
  3. C.Archaea are placed in a separate domain from Bacteria because of differences in their ribosomal RNA base sequences.
  4. D.Organisms are assigned to a domain according to whether they are unicellular or multicellular.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The three-domain system separates Archaea from Bacteria using evidence such as rRNA base sequences and membrane lipid differences, even though both are prokaryotic. A is wrong because Bacteria, plants and fungi all have cell walls. B is wrong because they are in different domains. D is wrong because domains are not based on cell number.

Marking scheme

C (1 mark; AO1). Only one correct option. Distractors: A confuses cell wall presence with domain; B ignores the separation of the two prokaryotic domains; D uses an irrelevant criterion.
Question 10 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A diploid cell contains 12 chromosomes. It divides by meiosis. Which row shows the number of chromosomes and the number of chromatids in one cell at metaphase II?
  1. A.Chromosomes: 6; chromatids: 6
  2. B.Chromosomes: 6; chromatids: 12
  3. C.Chromosomes: 12; chromatids: 12
  4. D.Chromosomes: 12; chromatids: 24
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

After meiosis I the cells are haploid, so each has 6 chromosomes. Chromatids have not yet separated at metaphase II, so each chromosome has two chromatids, giving 12 chromatids.

Marking scheme

B (1 mark; AO2). Distractor A ignores that chromosomes are still duplicated; C and D use the diploid number, which applies only before meiosis I ends.
Question 11 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which statement explains how an insect obtains more oxygen for its flight muscles during intense activity?
  1. A.Tracheal fluid moves out of the tracheole ends by osmosis, so more of the tracheole surface is air-filled.
  2. B.Haemolymph carries oxygen bound to haemoglobin from the spiracles to the muscles.
  3. C.The spiracles stay closed so that less water vapour is lost, which increases the diffusion gradient for oxygen.
  4. D.Oxygen is moved through the tracheae by the contraction of the heart.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

During activity, anaerobic respiration products lower the water potential of muscle cells, so fluid is drawn out of the tracheole ends by osmosis. This leaves more air-filled tracheole surface, so oxygen diffuses faster to the cells. Insect haemolymph does not transport oxygen, closed spiracles reduce gas exchange, and the heart does not ventilate tracheae.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark; AO1). Distractors: B incorrectly gives haemolymph a respiratory pigment role; C reverses the function of spiracles; D confuses circulation with tracheal gas exchange.
Question 12 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A sample of a carbohydrate solution gave no colour change when heated with Benedict's reagent. A second portion of the sample was boiled with dilute hydrochloric acid, neutralised and then heated with Benedict's reagent. It gave a brick-red precipitate. Which carbohydrate could the sample be?
  1. A.Glucose
  2. B.Maltose
  3. C.Lactose
  4. D.Sucrose
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The first test is negative, so the sugar is not a reducing sugar. Acid hydrolysis of the glycosidic bond releases reducing monosaccharides (glucose and fructose), giving a positive test. Sucrose is the only non-reducing sugar listed; glucose, maltose and lactose are all reducing sugars and would have given a positive result initially.

Marking scheme

D (1 mark; AO2). Candidates must link the negative first test to a non-reducing sugar and the positive second test to hydrolysis.
Question 13 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A plant cell has a water potential of \(-400\) kPa. It is placed in a sucrose solution with a water potential of \(-250\) kPa. Which statement describes what happens?
  1. A.Water leaves the cell by osmosis and the cell becomes plasmolysed.
  2. B.Water enters the cell by osmosis and the cell becomes more turgid.
  3. C.There is no net movement of water because the membrane is partially permeable.
  4. D.Water enters the cell by active transport against the water potential gradient.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Water moves by osmosis from the higher (less negative) water potential, \(-250\) kPa, to the lower, \(-400\) kPa. Water therefore enters the cell, increasing turgor. Active transport is not involved in osmosis.

Marking scheme

B (1 mark; AO2). Distractor A reverses the gradient; C ignores the gradient; D misidentifies the mechanism.
Question 14 · multiple_choice
1 marks
The rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction was \(0.8\) arbitrary units at \(20\,^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\) and \(2.0\) arbitrary units at \(30\,^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\). What is the temperature coefficient, \(Q_{10}\), for this reaction?
  1. A.0.4
  2. B.1.2
  3. C.2.5
  4. D.25
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

\(Q_{10} = R_2 / R_1 = 2.0 / 0.8 = 2.5\), since the temperatures differ by \(10\,^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\).

Marking scheme

C (1 mark; AO2). Method: rate at higher temperature divided by rate at lower temperature. A is the inverted ratio; B is the difference; D is a power-of-ten error.
Question 15 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which statement describes the Bohr effect?
  1. A.A lower partial pressure of carbon dioxide shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, so haemoglobin releases more oxygen.
  2. B.A higher partial pressure of carbon dioxide shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the left, so haemoglobin binds oxygen more tightly.
  3. C.A higher partial pressure of oxygen causes haemoglobin to release carbon dioxide at the lungs.
  4. D.A higher partial pressure of carbon dioxide shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, so haemoglobin releases more oxygen.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In respiring tissues, high carbon dioxide levels lower the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen. The curve shifts to the right, so more oxygen is unloaded at a given partial pressure of oxygen.

Marking scheme

D (1 mark; AO1). A and B state the wrong direction or the wrong cause; C describes a different process.
Question 16 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which statement about enzyme inhibition is correct?
  1. A.The effect of a competitive inhibitor can be reduced by increasing the substrate concentration.
  2. B.A competitive inhibitor binds to a site on the enzyme that is away from the active site.
  3. C.A non-competitive inhibitor has a shape complementary to the active site.
  4. D.A non-competitive inhibitor can be overcome completely by adding more substrate.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A competitive inhibitor competes with substrate for the active site, so a higher substrate concentration makes substrate binding more likely and reduces inhibition. Non-competitive inhibitors bind elsewhere and alter the shape of the active site, so extra substrate cannot overcome them.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark; AO1). B and C swap the properties of the two inhibitor types; D is incorrect because non-competitive inhibition is not relieved by extra substrate.
Question 17 · Multiple choice
1 marks
Which option shows the correct order of events in evolution by natural selection?
  1. A.Advantageous alleles are passed on; individuals with them survive and reproduce more; variation arises in a population; allele frequency increases
  2. B.Variation arises in a population; individuals with advantageous alleles survive and reproduce more; advantageous alleles are passed on; allele frequency increases
  3. C.Allele frequency increases; variation arises in a population; advantageous alleles are passed on; individuals with them survive and reproduce more
  4. D.Variation arises in a population; advantageous alleles are passed on; allele frequency increases; individuals with them survive and reproduce more
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Variation (from random mutation and meiosis) comes first. Selection pressure then favours individuals with advantageous alleles, so they survive and reproduce more. They pass the alleles to offspring, so the allele frequency rises over generations. Only B has this order.

Marking scheme

B = 1 mark. A, C and D are incorrect because each places selective survival, passing on of alleles or the rise in allele frequency before the stage that causes it. No partial marks.
Question 18 · Multiple choice
1 marks
A block of agar is a cuboid measuring 4 cm × 2 cm × 1 cm. What is its surface area to volume ratio?
  1. A.\(0.29:1\)
  2. B.\(2.0:1\)
  3. C.\(3.5:1\)
  4. D.\(7.0:1\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Surface area = \(2(4\times2 + 4\times1 + 2\times1) = 2(8+4+2) = 28\ \text{cm}^2\). Volume = \(4\times2\times1 = 8\ \text{cm}^3\). Ratio = \(28/8 = 3.5:1\).

Marking scheme

C = 1 mark. A is volume/surface area (8/28). B (16/8) omits faces from the surface area. D (28/4) uses an incorrect volume. No partial marks.
Question 19 · Multiple choice
1 marks
A diploid cell from an animal has 14 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are present in each cell at the end of telophase I of meiosis?
  1. A.7
  2. B.14
  3. C.21
  4. D.28
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Homologous chromosomes separate in anaphase I, so each daughter cell receives one chromosome from each homologous pair: 14/2 = 7 chromosomes (each still made of two chromatids).

Marking scheme

A = 1 mark. B is the chromosome number before meiosis I. C has no basis. D is the number of chromatids in the cell at prophase I, not chromosomes at the end of meiosis I.
Question 20 · Multiple choice
1 marks
A student tests a sucrose solution for a non-reducing sugar. Which row gives the expected results with Benedict's reagent, heated to boiling?
  1. A.Red precipitate before acid hydrolysis; red precipitate after acid hydrolysis and neutralisation
  2. B.Remains blue before acid hydrolysis; remains blue after acid hydrolysis and neutralisation
  3. C.Red precipitate before acid hydrolysis; remains blue after acid hydrolysis and neutralisation
  4. D.Remains blue before acid hydrolysis; red precipitate after acid hydrolysis and neutralisation
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar, so Benedict's stays blue. Boiling with dilute hydrochloric acid hydrolyses the glycosidic bond, giving glucose and fructose, which are reducing sugars. After neutralisation, Benedict's gives a red/brick-red precipitate.

Marking scheme

D = 1 mark. A: sucrose does not react before hydrolysis. B: hydrolysis releases reducing sugars. C: reverses the actual results. No partial marks.

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Practise This Topic

H020/01 — Section B

Answer all six structured questions, comprising 26 independently marked parts. Main-question totals in order are 9, 6, 14, 9, 7 and 5 marks. Show numerical working where appropriate. There are no level-of-response questions.
26 Question · 50 marks
Question 1 · Calculation
2 marks
A student examines a transmission electron micrograph of a liver cell. One mitochondrion has a length of 42 mm on the micrograph. Its actual length is 3.5 \(\mu\)m.

Calculate the magnification of the micrograph.

magnification = size of image / size of real object

Show your working. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Convert units so that both lengths match: 42 mm = 42 000 \(\mu\)m.
Magnification = 42 000 / 3.5 = 12 000.
The magnification is \(\times 12\,000\).

Marking scheme

Answer: 12 000 (ALLOW \(\times 12\,000\), 1.2 \(\times 10^4\)) = 2 marks (check the final answer first).
If the answer is incorrect, award 1 mark (method) for converting units correctly (42 000 \(\mu\)m or 0.0035 mm) OR for the correct rearranged calculation using consistent units.
DO NOT ALLOW 12 (unit conversion not done) for any marks beyond the method mark if units are inconsistent.
AO2 (quantitative data) x2.
Question 2 · Calculation
2 marks
A technician measures the rate at which catalase from potato releases oxygen from hydrogen peroxide solution at two temperatures.

- At 15 °C, 9 cm³ of oxygen was collected in 60 s.
- At 25 °C, 27 cm³ of oxygen was collected in 90 s.

Using the information, calculate the temperature coefficient (\(Q_{10}\)) for this reaction over this temperature range.

\(Q_{10} = R_2 / R_1\)

Give your answer to 1 decimal place. Show your working. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Rate at 15 °C = 9 / 60 = 0.15 cm³ s⁻¹.
Rate at 25 °C = 27 / 90 = 0.30 cm³ s⁻¹.
The temperatures differ by 10 °C, so \(Q_{10} = 0.30 / 0.15 = 2.0\).

Marking scheme

Answer: 2.0 = 2 marks (ALLOW 2; check the final answer first).
If the answer is incorrect, award 1 mark (method) for both rates correctly calculated (0.15 and 0.30 cm³ s⁻¹, or 9 and 18 cm³ min⁻¹ etc.) OR for the correct use of \(R_2 / R_1\) with ECF from one incorrect rate.
DO NOT ALLOW 0.5 (inverted ratio) for the accuracy mark; ALLOW 1 method mark for the rates.
AO2 (quantitative data) x2.
Question 3 · Calculation
2 marks
During vigorous exercise, a person has a cardiac output of 15.2 dm³ min⁻¹ and a stroke volume of 95 cm³.

Calculate the heart rate of this person, in beats per minute.

cardiac output = heart rate \(\times\) stroke volume

1 dm³ = 1000 cm³

Give your answer to the nearest whole number. Show your working. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Convert cardiac output: 15.2 dm³ min⁻¹ = 15 200 cm³ min⁻¹.
Heart rate = cardiac output / stroke volume = 15 200 / 95 = 160 beats per minute.

Marking scheme

Answer: 160 (beats per minute) = 2 marks (check the final answer first).
If the answer is incorrect, award 1 mark (method) for converting to 15 200 cm³ min⁻¹ OR for the correct rearrangement heart rate = cardiac output / stroke volume with consistent units.
DO NOT ALLOW 0.16 (units not converted) for the accuracy mark.
AO2 (quantitative data) x2.
Question 4 · Error correction
3 marks
A student wrote the following summary of gas exchange in a bony fish. The summary contains three scientific errors.

1. Water is drawn into the mouth when the volume of the buccal cavity decreases, which raises the pressure inside it.
2. Water passes over the gill lamellae in the same direction as the blood flowing through the capillaries inside them.
3. The lamellae have a thick epithelium, which gives a short diffusion distance between the water and the blood.

For each numbered statement, identify the error and write a correction. [3]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Statement 1: water enters when the buccal cavity floor is lowered, so its volume increases and its pressure falls below that of the water outside; water then flows in down the pressure gradient. Statement 2: water and blood flow in opposite directions (counter-current), which maintains a concentration gradient for oxygen along the whole length of the lamella. Statement 3: a thin, one-cell-thick epithelium gives a short diffusion distance; a thick one would lengthen it.

Marking scheme

One mark for each statement, awarded only when the error is identified and the correction given (the correction is the creditworthy element).

Statement 1 [1 mark, AO1]: volume (of buccal cavity) increases / pressure decreases (AW). ALLOW 'mouth' for buccal cavity. DO NOT ALLOW correction of pressure alone if volume is stated as still decreasing.

Statement 2 [1 mark, AO1]: water flows in the opposite direction to the blood / counter-current (flow). IGNORE 'different direction' without 'opposite' or 'counter-current'.

Statement 3 [1 mark, AO1]: epithelium / lamellae walls are thin / one cell thick (AW). ALLOW 'thin walls / thin surface'. DO NOT ALLOW 'thin lamellae' with no reference to the epithelium/wall/diffusion distance being short.

Maximum 3 marks.
Question 5 · Short answer and explanation
1 marks
A population of beetles on an island has become resistant to an insecticide that was sprayed on crops for several years. State one reason why the proportion of resistant beetles increased over this period. [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The insecticide acts as a selection pressure. Beetles with a resistance allele survive, reproduce and pass the allele on, so its frequency rises in the next generations.

Marking scheme

Question 1 | 1 mark | AO1 | Resistant beetles survive/reproduce more (than non-resistant) and pass on the allele(s) to offspring. ALLOW selective advantage / natural selection. IGNORE 'beetles adapt' / 'beetles mutate in response'. DO NOT ALLOW resistance 'developing because of' the insecticide.
Question 6 · Short answer and explanation
1 marks
Fish gills have many thin lamellae. State one way in which the structure of the lamellae maintains a steep concentration gradient of oxygen between the water and the blood. [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Counter-current flow means blood always meets water with a higher oxygen concentration, so diffusion occurs along the whole length of the lamella.

Marking scheme

Question 2 | 1 mark | AO1 | Counter-current flow / blood and water flow in opposite directions OR dense capillary network / good blood supply removes oxygen (maintaining gradient). IGNORE 'large surface area' alone. DO NOT ALLOW 'blood and water flow in the same direction'.
Question 7 · Short answer and explanation
1 marks
A patient has a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 85 cm\(^3\). Calculate the cardiac output in cm\(^3\) per minute. [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Cardiac output = heart rate \(\times\) stroke volume = \(72 \times 85 = 6120\) cm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\).

Marking scheme

Question 3 | 1 mark | AO2 | 6120 (cm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\)). ALLOW 6.12 dm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\) or 6.12 litres per minute if the unit is given. Correct answer without working scores the mark.
Question 8 · Short answer and explanation
1 marks
Cubes of beetroot are placed in warm water and the water becomes red. Explain why the water becomes red. [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Beetroot cells contain a red pigment in the vacuole. High temperature damages the tonoplast and cell surface membrane, making them permeable so the pigment diffuses out.

Marking scheme

Question 4 | 1 mark | AO2 | Membrane (proteins) denatured / phospholipids gain kinetic energy and the bilayer is disrupted so pigment leaks out / membrane more permeable. ALLOW membrane damaged AND pigment escapes (both required). IGNORE 'cells burst'.
Question 9 · Short answer and explanation
1 marks
A student adds Benedict's solution to a sample and heats it. The solution remains blue. The student concludes that no sugar is present. Identify the error in this conclusion and state what the student should do next. [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Benedict's solution only detects reducing sugars. Non-reducing sugars such as sucrose must first be hydrolysed by acid, and the mixture neutralised before retesting.

Marking scheme

Question 5 | 1 mark | AO3 | Non-reducing sugar could be present AND hydrolyse with acid / boil with HCl then neutralise and retest (both elements required for the mark). ALLOW sodium hydrogencarbonate to neutralise. DO NOT ALLOW 'test is faulty' without reference to reducing/non-reducing sugars.
Question 10 · Short answer and explanation
1 marks
State what happens to the chromosomes during anaphase of mitosis. [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In anaphase the centromeres split, and spindle fibres shorten, pulling the separated sister chromatids to opposite poles.

Marking scheme

Question 6 | 1 mark | AO1 | Sister chromatids / chromosomes separate and are pulled to opposite poles (by spindle fibres/microtubules). ALLOW centromeres divide. DO NOT ALLOW 'homologous chromosomes separate'.
Question 11 · Short answer and explanation
1 marks
A cell has an image width of 45 mm in a micrograph. The actual width of the cell is 30 \(\mu\)m. Calculate the magnification of the micrograph. [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Convert units: 45 mm = 45 000 \(\mu\)m. Magnification = image size / real size = \(45000 \div 30 = 1500\).

Marking scheme

Question 7 | 1 mark | AO2 | 1500 (or \(\times 1500\)). Correct answer scores the mark. ALLOW 1.5 \(\times 10^3\). If the answer is incorrect, no marks (the unit conversion is required).
Question 12 · short_answer
2 marks
A farmer sprays a field with an insecticide. Most of the aphids die, but a few survive and breed. After several years the insecticide no longer controls the aphids.

Explain how natural selection has led to this change. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Resistant aphids already existed because of a chance mutation. The insecticide acted as a selection pressure, so resistant aphids survived and reproduced, and the resistance allele became more common in later generations.

Marking scheme

1. Resistance allele present due to (random) mutation / variation in the population, so some aphids survive the insecticide (AO1)
2. Survivors reproduce and pass on the resistance allele to offspring, so allele frequency increases over generations (AO2)
ALLOW 'gene' for 'allele'. IGNORE 'aphids adapted / became immune' without reference to alleles or inheritance. DO NOT ALLOW 'the insecticide caused the mutation'.
Question 13 · short_answer
2 marks
A scientist compares the base sequence of the same gene in four species of mammal, W, X, Y and Z. The number of base differences from species W is shown in the table.

| Species | X | Y | Z |
|---|---|---|---|
| Base differences from W | 4 | 17 | 9 |

Using the information in the table, state which species is most closely related to W and explain your answer. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Fewer differences in the DNA sequence indicate less time since divergence from a common ancestor, so X is the closest relative.

Marking scheme

1. X (AO2)
2. Fewest base differences / least difference in DNA sequence, indicating a more recent common ancestor / less time for mutations to accumulate (AO3)
Second mark requires the idea of recent divergence / accumulated mutations, not just 'fewest differences'. DO NOT ALLOW Y.
Question 14 · short_answer
2 marks
A student measures 20 cm\(^3\) of enzyme solution using a measuring cylinder. The measuring cylinder has an uncertainty of \(\pm\) 0.5 cm\(^3\).

Calculate the percentage error in this measurement. Give your answer to 2 significant figures.

Percentage error = ........................ % [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Percentage error = \( \frac{0.5}{20} \times 100 = 2.5\% \).

Marking scheme

Correct answer 2.5 (%) = 2 marks.
If answer incorrect: 0.5 / 20 (× 100) = 1 mark (method).
ALLOW 2.5 without % sign. DO NOT ALLOW 5 (from using 1.0 total range) unless method clearly shown for 1 mark only. Answer must be given to 2 s.f. for the accuracy mark (AO2).
Question 15 · short_answer
2 marks
A diploid cell from a plant has 14 chromosomes.

(a) State the number of chromosomes in each cell at the end of meiosis II in this plant. [1]

(b) State the term for the pair of chromosomes of the same type, one from each parent, that line up together in metaphase I. [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Meiosis halves the chromosome number, 14 to 7. The paired chromosomes that line up in metaphase I are homologous chromosomes.

Marking scheme

(a) 7 (AO2) [1]
(b) homologous (chromosomes / pair) (AO1) [1]
ALLOW bivalent. DO NOT ALLOW 'sister chromatids' or 'homozygous'.
Question 16 · short_answer
2 marks
At rest, a person has a tidal volume of 0.50 dm\(^3\) and takes 14 breaths per minute.

Calculate the ventilation rate of this person.

Ventilation rate = ........................ dm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\) [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Ventilation rate = tidal volume \(\times\) breathing rate = \(0.50 \times 14 = 7.0\) dm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\).

Marking scheme

Correct answer 7 / 7.0 = 2 marks.
If incorrect: 0.50 × 14 shown = 1 mark (method).
Unit is printed so is not required. DO NOT ALLOW answers using 14 ÷ 0.50 (28) for method mark (AO2).
Question 17 · short_answer
2 marks
Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar. A student adds Benedict's solution to a sucrose solution and heats it. The solution stays blue.

Outline the additional steps the student should carry out so that a positive result for sucrose is obtained. [2]
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Worked solution

Sucrose must first be hydrolysed to glucose and fructose, which are reducing sugars. The acid must be neutralised because Benedict's reagent needs alkaline conditions.

Marking scheme

1. Heat/boil with (dilute) hydrochloric acid to hydrolyse sucrose / break glycosidic bond (AO1)
2. Neutralise / add alkali (e.g. sodium hydrogencarbonate) then heat with Benedict's, giving orange/brick-red precipitate (AO2)
IGNORE 'add enzyme' unless sucrase is stated and then neutralising is not needed. ALLOW colour change to green/yellow/orange/red.
Question 18 · short_answer
2 marks
Cubes of beetroot are placed in water at different temperatures. Red pigment leaks out of the cubes faster at 70 °C than at 30 °C.

Explain this difference. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

High temperature disrupts the membrane structure, increasing permeability, so pigment escapes faster.

Marking scheme

1. Proteins (channel/carrier) in the membrane denature / phospholipids more kinetic energy and move more, disrupting the membrane (AO1)
2. Membrane more permeable / gaps form, so more pigment diffuses out (down its concentration gradient) (AO2)
IGNORE 'membrane melts'. DO NOT ALLOW 'enzymes denatured' alone.
Question 19 · short_answer
2 marks
The rate of a reaction in a beetle's flight muscle was 3.2 units at 20 °C and 7.4 units at 30 °C.

Calculate the temperature coefficient (\(Q_{10}\)) for this reaction. Give your answer to 2 significant figures.

\(Q_{10}\) = ........................ [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

\(Q_{10} = R_2 / R_1 = 7.4 / 3.2 = 2.3125\), which is 2.3 to 2 s.f.

Marking scheme

Correct answer 2.3 = 2 marks.
If incorrect: 7.4 / 3.2 or 2.3125 / 2.31 shown = 1 mark (method; allow if rounding incorrect).
DO NOT ALLOW 0.43 (inverted ratio) (AO2).
Question 20 · Short answer and explanation
2 marks
A red blood cell and a plant root hair cell are each placed in distilled water. The red blood cell bursts but the root hair cell does not.

Explain why the red blood cell bursts but the root hair cell does not. [2]
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Worked solution

Distilled water has a higher water potential than the cytoplasm of both cells, so water enters each cell by osmosis. The red blood cell has no cell wall, so the surface membrane cannot withstand the increase in volume and it bursts. The root hair cell has a cellulose cell wall, which resists expansion, so the cell becomes turgid instead.

Marking scheme

Question: Explain why the red blood cell bursts but the root hair cell does not. Total 2 marks (AO2 x2).
1. Water enters the red blood cell by osmosis / down a water potential gradient, and the cell has no cell wall (to resist expansion) so it bursts / lyses (1 mark; both linked elements required).
2. The root hair cell has a (cellulose) cell wall which prevents bursting / the cell becomes turgid / wall exerts pressure that stops further water entry (1 mark).
ALLOW AW for 'bursts' e.g. lyses. ALLOW 'cell wall is strong / rigid / inelastic'.
IGNORE 'water diffuses' without reference to osmosis if water potential gradient is described.
DO NOT ALLOW 'cell wall is semi-permeable' or 'cell wall stops water entering'.
Question 21 · Short answer and explanation
2 marks
A student measured the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction at two temperatures. At 20 °C the rate was 0.80 arbitrary units per minute. At 30 °C the rate was 1.90 arbitrary units per minute.

Calculate the temperature coefficient, Q\(_{10}\), for this reaction. Give your answer to 2 significant figures.

Q\(_{10}\) = ......................... [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

\(Q_{10} = \frac{R_2}{R_1}\) where the temperatures differ by 10 °C.
\(Q_{10} = \frac{1.90}{0.80} = 2.375\), which is 2.4 to 2 significant figures.

Marking scheme

Question: Calculate Q10 to 2 s.f. Total 2 marks (AO2 x2).
Answer: 2.4 = 2 marks.
If the answer is incorrect, award 1 mark for 1.90 / 0.80 (method mark) OR for 2.375 / 2.38 shown but not rounded to 2 s.f.
ALLOW 1 mark for 2.3 (incorrect rounding of 2.375) only if working shown as 1.90 / 0.80.
IGNORE units (Q10 has no units).
DO NOT ALLOW 0.42 (inverted ratio) for the accuracy mark; award 1 method mark only if working shows 0.80 / 1.90 with an incorrect inversion noted by ECF.
Question 22 · short_answer
3 marks
A species of ground beetle lives on a windswept island. Some beetles have fully developed wings and some have very small wings. Strong winds blow beetles with fully developed wings into the sea. Over many generations, almost all of the beetles on the island have very small wings.

Explain how natural selection has led to this change in the beetle population. [3]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Variation exists in wing size, caused by different alleles. The wind is a selection pressure: beetles with fully developed wings are removed so they die before reproducing. Beetles with small wings survive, breed and pass on their alleles to offspring, so the allele frequency for small wings increases over generations.

Marking scheme

Max 3 from:
1. Beetles with small wings are more likely to survive / fewer are blown into the sea (the wind is the selection pressure) (AW);
2. Small-winged beetles are more likely to reproduce / breed;
3. They pass on the allele(s) for small wings to offspring;
4. The frequency of the allele for small wings increases (over generations) (AW).
IGNORE 'adapt' or 'mutate' on its own. DO NOT ALLOW 'beetles evolve' or 'beetles choose to' for the survival marks.
Question 23 · short_answer
3 marks
A flatworm has a body shaped like a cuboid measuring 6 mm long, 2 mm wide and 1 mm thick.

Calculate the surface area to volume ratio of the flatworm. Show your working and give your answer to 2 significant figures. [3]

Answer = ........................ : 1
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Worked solution

Surface area = \(2(6\times2 + 6\times1 + 2\times1) = 2(12+6+2) = 40\ \text{mm}^2\). Volume = \(6\times2\times1 = 12\ \text{mm}^3\). Ratio = \(40 / 12 = 3.33...\), which is 3.3 : 1 to 2 significant figures.

Marking scheme

Correct answer 3.3 (: 1) = 3 marks.
If the answer is incorrect, award:
1. Surface area calculated as 40 (mm²);
2. Volume calculated as 12 (mm³);
3. Surface area divided by volume, given to 2 significant figures (3.3).
ALLOW ECF for the final mark from an incorrect surface area or volume. ALLOW 10 : 3. Answer given to a different number of significant figures, e.g. 3.33, loses the third mark only.
Question 24 · short_answer
3 marks
A student examined a stained root tip squash under a light microscope. In one field of view there were 150 cells, and 12 of these cells were undergoing mitosis.

(a) Calculate the mitotic index for this field of view. Give your answer as a percentage. [2]

(b) Name the stage of mitosis in which the chromosomes line up across the centre of the cell. [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Mitotic index = number of cells in mitosis / total number of cells = \(12/150 = 0.08\), which is 8%. (b) Chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell during metaphase.

Marking scheme

(a) Correct answer 8 (%) = 2 marks. If incorrect, award 1 mark for \(12/150\) (or 0.08).
DO NOT ALLOW 12.5 (inverted calculation) for the second mark.
(b) Metaphase [1]. IGNORE 'metaphase 1' or 'metaphase 2'.
Question 25 · Table and sentence completion
2 marks
The table compares mitosis and meiosis in a diploid animal cell. Complete the table by writing the correct word or phrase in each of the two empty boxes.

| Feature | Mitosis | Meiosis |
|---|---|---|
| Number of nuclear divisions | one | two |
| Number of daughter cells produced from one parent cell | two | [box 1: ........................] |
| Stage at which homologous chromosomes are separated | not separated | [box 2: ........................] |

[2]
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Worked solution

Meiosis consists of two successive nuclear divisions, so one diploid parent cell gives four haploid daughter cells. Homologous chromosomes pair up in prophase 1, line up in metaphase 1 and are pulled to opposite poles in anaphase 1; in anaphase 2 sister chromatids separate instead.

Marking scheme

Box 1: four / 4 (1 mark, AO1). ALLOW 'four haploid cells'. DO NOT ALLOW 'two' or 'four diploid cells'.
Box 2: anaphase 1 / anaphase I / first division of meiosis (1 mark, AO1). ALLOW 'meiosis I' / 'meiosis 1'. DO NOT ALLOW 'anaphase 2' or 'anaphase' without a number, and IGNORE 'prophase 1' or 'metaphase 1'.
Total: 2 marks.
Question 26 · Table and sentence completion
3 marks
The table compares three ways in which substances cross the cell-surface membrane of an animal cell.

Complete the table by writing a word or phrase in each of the six empty boxes (labelled P to U).

| Process | Membrane protein involved | Direct use of ATP | Direction of movement relative to concentration gradient |
|---|---|---|---|
| Simple diffusion | None | No | Down the gradient |
| Facilitated diffusion | Channel or carrier protein | P | Q |
| Active transport | R | S | T |

Also complete the sentence below.

A substance that moves across the membrane by simple diffusion is more likely to be non-polar than polar because it can dissolve in the U of the phospholipid bilayer.

[3]
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Worked solution

Facilitated diffusion is passive, so it needs no ATP and moves substances down their concentration gradient (P, Q). Active transport uses carrier (pump) proteins, which hydrolyse ATP to move substances against the gradient (R, S, T). Non-polar molecules dissolve in the hydrophobic core of the bilayer formed by the fatty acid tails (U).

Marking scheme

Question: Complete table and sentence | Marks: 3 | AO1 x3

1 mark: P = No AND Q = down / along / with the concentration gradient (both required for the mark). ALLOW 'from high to low concentration'. DO NOT ALLOW 'ATP not needed' for Q.

1 mark: R = carrier protein AND S = Yes (both required). ALLOW 'pump' / 'transport protein' / 'carrier'. DO NOT ALLOW 'channel protein' for R. IGNORE 'protein' alone.

1 mark: T = against / up the concentration gradient (low to high concentration) AND U = hydrophobic (fatty acid) tails / hydrophobic core / interior (both required). DO NOT ALLOW 'hydrophilic heads' or 'phosphate heads' for U. ALLOW 'hydrocarbon tails' / 'non-polar centre'.

H020/02 — Whole paper

Answer all six structured questions, comprising 31 independently marked parts. Main-question totals in order are 7, 13, 18, 14, 9 and 9 marks. Two six-mark parts assess extended-response quality. Show numerical working and follow stated precision requirements.
32 Question · 72 marks
Question 1 · Calculation
1 marks
A student draws a plant epidermal cell from a photomicrograph. The drawing of the cell is 42 mm long. The magnification of the drawing is \(\times 1400\).

Calculate the actual length of the cell. Give your answer in micrometres (\(\mu\text{m}\)).

magnification = size of image / size of real object

Answer = ........................ \(\mu\text{m}\) [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Convert the image length to micrometres: \(42\ \text{mm} = 42\,000\ \mu\text{m}\).
Rearrange: actual size = image size / magnification = \(42\,000 / 1400 = 30\ \mu\text{m}\).

Marking scheme

Answer: 30 (\(\mu\text{m}\)) [1 mark; AO2 handling quantitative data].
Guidance: the unit must be correct for the mark. ALLOW 0.03 mm only if the answer line unit is not given; DO NOT ALLOW 30 without a unit equivalent to micrometres. Correct working with a unit conversion error scores 0 (single-mark item).
Question 2 · Calculation
1 marks
At rest, a person has a heart rate of 64 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 78 cm\(^3\).

Calculate the cardiac output of this person. Give your answer in cm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\).

cardiac output = heart rate \(\times\) stroke volume

Answer = ........................ cm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\) [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Cardiac output = heart rate \(\times\) stroke volume = \(64 \times 78 = 4992\ \text{cm}^3\ \text{min}^{-1}\).

Marking scheme

Answer: 4992 (cm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\)) [1 mark; AO2 handling quantitative data].
Guidance: ALLOW 4990 or 5000 (rounded) OR 4.992 dm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\) if the unit is stated. IGNORE missing unit if the unit is printed on the answer line.
Question 3 · Calculation
2 marks
A student views a prepared slide of a plant cell using a light microscope and draws the cell. The drawing is 46 mm wide. The magnification of the drawing is \(\times 800\).

Use the formula: magnification = size of image / size of real object.

Calculate the actual width of the cell. Give your answer in micrometres (\(\mu\)m).

Show your working.

Answer = ........................ \(\mu\)m [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Convert the image size to micrometres: \(46\ \text{mm} = 46\,000\ \mu\text{m}\).
Rearrange: real size = image size / magnification = \(46\,000 / 800 = 57.5\ \mu\text{m}\).

Marking scheme

Answer 57.5 (\(\mu\)m) = 2 marks (AO2). ALLOW 58 (\(\mu\)m) or 57.5 to any sensible rounding.
If the answer is incorrect, award 1 mark (method) for either converting 46 mm to 46 000 \(\mu\)m OR for 46 / 800 (= 0.0575 mm) OR for rearranging to real size = image size / magnification.
DO NOT ALLOW 0.0575 as the final answer on the \(\mu\)m line (no unit conversion): maximum 1 mark.
Question 4 · Calculation
2 marks
A student investigates the effect of temperature on the rate of carbon dioxide production by yeast in a sugar solution. The mean rate at 15 °C was 1.8 cm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\). The mean rate at 25 °C was 4.5 cm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\).

Use the formula: temperature coefficient \(Q_{10} = R_2 / R_1\), where \(R_1\) is the rate at the lower temperature and \(R_2\) is the rate at the temperature 10 °C higher.

Calculate the \(Q_{10}\) for this reaction between 15 °C and 25 °C. Give your answer to two significant figures.

Show your working.

\(Q_{10}\) = ........................ [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The temperatures are 10 °C apart, so the formula applies directly.
\(Q_{10} = R_2 / R_1 = 4.5 / 1.8 = 2.5\).

Marking scheme

Answer 2.5 = 2 marks (AO2). ALLOW 2.50.
If the answer is incorrect, award 1 mark (method) for 4.5 / 1.8 OR for correct substitution of the values into the formula with the higher rate as numerator.
DO NOT ALLOW 0.4 or 0.40 (inverted ratio): 0 marks.
If 2.5 is not given to two significant figures but working is correct, award 1 mark (e.g. 2.5 is accepted; 2.500 gains method mark only).
IGNORE units (Q10 has no units).
Question 5 · Calculation
3 marks
A student used a respirometer to investigate oxygen uptake by germinating barley seeds at two temperatures. The carbon dioxide produced was absorbed by soda lime, so the movement of a coloured liquid in a capillary tube showed the volume of oxygen consumed.

- At 15 °C, the liquid moved so that 0.42 cm\(^3\) of oxygen was consumed in 6.0 minutes.
- At 25 °C, 0.96 cm\(^3\) of oxygen was consumed in 8.0 minutes.

The temperature coefficient, \(Q_{10}\), is given by \(Q_{10} = \frac{R_2}{R_1}\), where \(R_1\) is the rate at the lower temperature and \(R_2\) is the rate at the temperature 10 °C higher.

Calculate \(Q_{10}\) for oxygen uptake by the barley seeds between 15 °C and 25 °C. Show your working and give your answer to 2 significant figures. [3]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Rate at 15 °C: \(R_1 = 0.42 \div 6.0 = 0.070\) cm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\).
Rate at 25 °C: \(R_2 = 0.96 \div 8.0 = 0.12\) cm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\).
\(Q_{10} = R_2 / R_1 = 0.12 \div 0.070 = 1.714...\)
To 2 significant figures, \(Q_{10} = 1.7\) (no units).

Marking scheme

Question: Calculate Q10 | Answer: 1.7 | Marks: 3 | AO2 (quantitative data) | Guidance: check the final answer first; if it is 1.7 award 3 marks.

MP1 (method): rate at 15 °C = 0.42 / 6.0 = 0.070 cm3 min-1 (1).
MP2 (method): rate at 25 °C = 0.96 / 8.0 = 0.12 cm3 min-1 (1).
MP3 (accuracy and precision): Q10 = 0.12 / 0.070 = 1.7, given to 2 significant figures (1).

ALLOW ECF for MP3 from incorrect rates in MP1/MP2 if R2 / R1 is used and the answer is given to 2 s.f. ALLOW 1.71 or 1.714 for 2 marks (MP1 and MP2 implied) if not rounded to 2 s.f. DO NOT ALLOW the inverse ratio (R1 / R2 = 0.58). IGNORE units for Q10, but DO NOT ALLOW rates without a time component (e.g. 0.42 and 0.96 used directly gives 2.3: maximum 0).
Question 6 · Error correction
2 marks
A student wrote the following sentence about the movement of substances across cell surface membranes.

"Glucose enters an intestinal epithelial cell against its concentration gradient by facilitated diffusion, which uses ATP to change the shape of a carrier protein."

The sentence contains one scientific error.

State the error and write a correction. [2]
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Worked solution

Moving a substance against its concentration gradient using ATP is active transport, not facilitated diffusion. Facilitated diffusion is passive: it moves substances down a concentration gradient through channel or carrier proteins and needs no ATP. The student has therefore used the wrong transport process, so 'facilitated diffusion' should be replaced by 'active transport'.

Marking scheme

Question: Identify and correct the error | Marks: 2 | AO1.1 x1, AO2.1 x1

1. Error identified: facilitated diffusion is passive / does not use ATP / does not move substances against a concentration gradient (AW) [1]
2. Correction: 'facilitated diffusion' replaced by 'active transport' OR statement changed so that facilitated diffusion is down the concentration gradient and without ATP [1]

Guidance: ALLOW 'co-transport' for active transport if linked to movement against the gradient. IGNORE comments on the shape change of the carrier protein. DO NOT ALLOW a correction that changes 'against' to 'down' while keeping ATP use. Both the error and the correction must be consistent with each other for the second mark.
Question 7 · Extended response
6 marks
*A small aquatic invertebrate has a body only 0.5 mm thick and exchanges respiratory gases across its whole body surface. A much larger bony fish living in the same lake has gills and a muscular pumping mechanism for moving water.

Explain why the fish needs specialised gas exchange surfaces whereas the small invertebrate does not, and describe how the structure of the gills and the way water flows over them allow efficient gas exchange in the fish. [6]
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Worked solution

Part 1 (why): the invertebrate has a large surface area to volume ratio and a very short diffusion distance, so oxygen reaches all cells quickly by simple diffusion. The fish has a much smaller surface area to volume ratio, a greater volume of respiring tissue with a higher oxygen demand, and a less permeable body surface, so diffusion across the body surface alone is too slow.
Part 2 (gills): many gill filaments covered in lamellae give a large surface area. Lamellae are thin, with a short diffusion distance between water and blood. A dense capillary network carries blood away, maintaining the gradient. Blood flows through the lamellae in the opposite direction to water (counter-current), so water always meets blood of lower oxygen concentration and equilibrium is never reached; diffusion occurs along the whole length of the lamella. The mouth and operculum pump water over the gills continuously, maintaining a supply of oxygen-rich water.

Marking scheme

Levels of response (AO1 and AO2, 6 marks).
Level 3 (5-6 marks): Explains the SA:V ratio difference AND gives a detailed, correctly sequenced description of at least three gill features including counter-current flow with its effect on the gradient. Clear, logical, relevant throughout.
Level 2 (3-4 marks): Some explanation of the SA:V ratio difference and describes some gill features with partial explanation; counter-current may be mentioned without explaining the maintained gradient. Some structure.
Level 1 (1-2 marks): Simple statements, e.g. fish is bigger / gills have a large surface area, with little or no explanation. Limited logic.
0 marks: no creditworthy response.

Indicative content:
- small organism: large SA:V ratio / short diffusion distance so diffusion is sufficient
- fish: small SA:V ratio / high metabolic rate / large volume / less permeable body surface, so needs specialised surface
- many filaments and lamellae give large surface area
- lamellae thin / one cell thick, short diffusion distance
- rich blood supply / capillaries maintain concentration gradient
- counter-current: blood and water flow in opposite directions
- so a concentration gradient is maintained along the whole length of the lamella / more oxygen diffuses into blood
- ventilation by mouth and operculum movements maintains water flow
ALLOW AW. IGNORE 'gills have a large SA' alone as full credit for the surface area point only if linked to exchange. DO NOT ALLOW 'gills let in oxygen' or references to lungs/air.
Question 8 · Extended response
6 marks
*A population of grass plants grows beside a road. Years ago the soil beside the road became contaminated with a metal salt that is toxic to most plants. Today, plants on the contaminated soil have much higher tolerance to the metal than plants of the same species growing in a field 2 km away.

Explain how natural selection could have produced this difference in tolerance, and describe the evidence from modern times that supports the idea that populations evolve. [6]
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Worked solution

Within the original population there was variation in tolerance, arising from random, spontaneous mutation producing different alleles. When the soil became contaminated the metal acted as a selection pressure. Plants with the tolerance allele survived, grew and reproduced more successfully than non-tolerant plants, which died or produced few seeds. Tolerant plants passed the advantageous allele to offspring, so over successive generations the frequency of the allele increased and the population became more tolerant. Evidence from modern times: bacteria evolving antibiotic resistance (e.g. in TB), where antibiotic acts as a selection pressure and resistant bacteria survive and reproduce, passing on the resistance allele; or insects evolving resistance to pesticides. These show observable changes in allele frequency over short timescales.

Marking scheme

Levels of response (AO1 and AO2, 6 marks).
Level 3 (5-6 marks): Gives a complete, correctly sequenced explanation of natural selection applied to the plants (variation from mutation, selection pressure, differential survival/reproduction, inheritance, change in allele frequency) AND describes a named modern example with how selection acted. Clear and logical.
Level 2 (3-4 marks): Gives most steps of natural selection applied to the context, with some missing links; modern example mentioned with limited explanation.
Level 1 (1-2 marks): Limited statements, e.g. tolerant plants survive / plants adapt; example absent or vague. Little sequence.
0 marks: no creditworthy response.

Indicative content:
- variation in tolerance exists in the population due to random, spontaneous mutation (allele(s) for tolerance)
- metal in soil is a selection pressure / environmental factor
- tolerant plants more likely to survive, grow and reproduce / non-tolerant die
- tolerance allele passed on to offspring
- allele frequency increases over many generations
- modern evidence: antibiotic resistance in bacteria (e.g. MRSA, TB) OR pesticide/herbicide resistance OR other valid observed example, with selection by the antibiotic/pesticide explained
ALLOW AW. DO NOT ALLOW 'plants chose to adapt' / 'plants mutated because of the metal' (Lamarckian wording) for the variation and mutation points. IGNORE reference to Darwin or Wallace unless linked to the explanation.
Question 9 · Graph sketch
1 marks
The graph shows the oxygen dissociation curve for adult human haemoglobin at a normal blood carbon dioxide concentration. Axes: x-axis, partial pressure of oxygen (kPa), 0 to 14; y-axis, percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, 0 to 100. The curve is S-shaped, passing through approximately (3, 40), (5, 70) and (8, 92), and levelling off close to 100% at 14 kPa.

During vigorous exercise, the carbon dioxide concentration in the blood passing through muscle tissue increases.

On the same axes, sketch the curve you would expect for haemoglobin at this higher carbon dioxide concentration. Label your curve X. [1]
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Worked solution

Increased carbon dioxide lowers the pH of the blood (carbonic acid forms and releases hydrogen ions). This reduces the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen (the Bohr effect), so haemoglobin releases oxygen more readily at a given partial pressure of oxygen. The dissociation curve therefore shifts to the right: at any intermediate partial pressure the percentage saturation is lower than on the original curve. Both curves start at the origin and approach 100% saturation at high partial pressures of oxygen.

Marking scheme

Question: Sketch of curve X | Marks: 1 | AO2 | Guidance:
1 mark: curve X is S-shaped (sigmoid), labelled X, and lies to the right of / below the original curve at intermediate partial pressures of oxygen (approximately 2 to 10 kPa), starting at the origin and reaching or approaching the same plateau near 100% at high partial pressure of oxygen.
ALLOW curve X converging with the original curve at the top right.
IGNORE small differences in exact shape provided the curve is clearly shifted right.
DO NOT ALLOW a curve that lies to the left/above the original, a curve that crosses the original curve at intermediate values, a curve that does not start at or near 0, or an unlabelled curve.
Question 10 · Short answer and explanation
1 marks
A spherical bacterial cell has a radius of 0.8 \(\mu m\). Calculate its surface area to volume ratio. Use surface area = \(4\pi r^2\) and volume = \(\frac{4}{3}\pi r^3\). Give your answer to 2 significant figures, in \(\mu m^{-1}\).
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The ratio simplifies to \(\frac{4\pi r^2}{\frac{4}{3}\pi r^3} = \frac{3}{r}\). So ratio = 3 / 0.8 = 3.75, which is 3.8 to 2 significant figures (\(\mu m^{-1}\)).

Marking scheme

Answer 3.8 (\(\mu m^{-1}\)) = 1 mark (AO2). ALLOW 3.75 only if rounded to 3.8 as required; DO NOT ALLOW 3.7. Correct unit and 2 s.f. needed for the mark. Method guidance: 3/r or separate calculation of surface area (8.04) and volume (2.14) both accepted.
Question 11 · Short answer and explanation
1 marks
Cubes of beetroot are placed in water at 70 \(^\circ C\) and the water turns red. Explain this observation by stating what happens to the cell membranes.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Heat denatures the channel and carrier proteins and makes the phospholipid bilayer more fluid, so the membrane becomes more permeable and the red pigment diffuses out.

Marking scheme

1 mark (AO2): membrane proteins denatured / phospholipid bilayer damaged AND membrane more permeable so pigment leaves. Both linked elements required. IGNORE 'membrane melts' without reference to permeability or leakage. ALLOW 'betalain' for pigment.
Question 12 · Short answer and explanation
1 marks
The rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction is \(2.4\ \mu mol\ s^{-1}\) at 20 \(^\circ C\) and \(5.0\ \mu mol\ s^{-1}\) at 30 \(^\circ C\). Calculate the temperature coefficient, \(Q_{10}\). Give your answer to 2 significant figures.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

\(Q_{10} = R_2 / R_1 = 5.0 / 2.4 = 2.083\), which is 2.1 to 2 significant figures.

Marking scheme

2.1 = 1 mark (AO2). ALLOW 2.08 only if followed by 2.1. DO NOT ALLOW 2.0 or 0.48 (inverted). No unit required; IGNORE a unit if given as none.
Question 13 · Short answer and explanation
1 marks
A population of insects is sprayed repeatedly with an insecticide. Over several generations most of the insects become resistant. Explain how natural selection led to this change.
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Worked solution

Resistant individuals already existed through random mutation. The insecticide is a selection pressure: resistant insects survive and reproduce, passing the allele to offspring, so the allele frequency rises in successive generations.

Marking scheme

1 mark (AO2): resistant insects survive and reproduce AND pass on the resistance allele so its frequency increases. Linked elements required. ALLOW 'gene' for allele. DO NOT ALLOW the insects 'adapted' / 'mutated because of the insecticide'.
Question 14 · Short answer and explanation
1 marks
A student investigates the effect of pH on the activity of amylase by timing how long starch takes to disappear from a mixture, using iodine solution. State one variable that must be controlled and explain why it must be controlled.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Any variable other than pH that alters enzyme activity must be kept constant, for example temperature, which changes kinetic energy and enzyme denaturation. Otherwise the result cannot be attributed to pH.

Marking scheme

1 mark (AO3): a valid variable (temperature / concentration or volume of amylase / concentration or volume of starch) with a linked reason that it affects rate so the change cannot be attributed to pH. Both parts required. DO NOT ALLOW 'to make it a fair test' alone. IGNORE time or pH.
Question 15 · Short answer and explanation
2 marks
A beetle population lives on dark volcanic soil. Beetles with dark wing cases are more common than beetles with pale wing cases. Birds hunt the beetles by sight.

Explain how natural selection could have led to dark wing cases becoming the more common form. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Predation selects against the pale form; dark beetles survive and breed, passing on the advantageous allele to offspring.

Marking scheme

1. Dark beetles are less visible/better camouflaged so are more likely to survive predation (ORA) [AO2]
2. Survivors reproduce and pass on the allele for dark wing cases, so the allele frequency increases over generations (AW) [AO2]
IGNORE 'adapt' on its own. DO NOT ALLOW beetles 'chose' to change colour.
Question 16 · Short answer and explanation
2 marks
A student measured the mass of a potato cylinder before and after 30 minutes in a salt solution. The initial mass was 2.40 g and the final mass was 2.04 g.

Calculate the percentage change in mass. Give your answer to 2 significant figures. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Change = 2.04 - 2.40 = -0.36 g. Percentage change = \(\frac{-0.36}{2.40} \times 100 = -15\) %.

Marking scheme

1. (2.04 - 2.40) / 2.40 × 100 (method) [AO2]
2. -15 (%) / 15 % decrease, to 2 s.f. (accuracy) [AO2]
Correct answer gains both marks. ALLOW 1 mark for 15 % given without a sign or the word decrease only if method is shown. DO NOT ALLOW -15.0 or -14.9 for the precision mark.
Question 17 · Short answer and explanation
2 marks
Homologous chromosomes pair up during the first division of meiosis.

Describe what happens to the homologous chromosomes in anaphase I, and state why this makes the daughter cells haploid. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In anaphase I the members of each homologous pair are pulled apart to opposite poles, halving the chromosome number.

Marking scheme

1. Homologous chromosomes separate/are pulled to opposite poles (by spindle fibres) [AO1]
2. Each daughter cell receives one chromosome from each pair / half the chromosome number, so haploid [AO1]
DO NOT ALLOW chromatids separating in anaphase I. IGNORE 'half the DNA' without reference to chromosome number.
Question 18 · Short answer and explanation
2 marks
In a bony fish, water flows over the gills in the opposite direction to the flow of blood in the gill capillaries.

Explain why this arrangement allows more oxygen to be absorbed than if both flowed in the same direction. [2]
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Worked solution

Blood always meets water with a higher oxygen concentration, so a favourable gradient persists along the gill.

Marking scheme

1. Blood always meets water of higher oxygen concentration / concentration gradient maintained along the whole length of the capillary (ORA) [AO1]
2. So oxygen continues to diffuse into the blood along the whole length, giving a higher percentage of oxygen absorbed / blood reaches equilibrium later (AW) [AO2]
IGNORE 'faster diffusion' without reference to gradient.
Question 19 · Short answer and explanation
2 marks
A sample of fruit juice gives a negative result with Benedict's reagent. The juice is then boiled with dilute hydrochloric acid, neutralised and tested again with Benedict's reagent.

State the result of the second test if the juice contains sucrose, and explain this result. [2]
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Worked solution

Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar. Hydrolysis by acid gives reducing monosaccharides that reduce copper(II) ions to give a coloured precipitate.

Marking scheme

1. Colour change to orange/brick-red/red precipitate (ALLOW green/yellow if described as positive) [AO1]
2. Acid hydrolyses the glycosidic bond in sucrose, releasing reducing sugars glucose and fructose [AO1]
DO NOT ALLOW 'sucrose is broken down' without naming reducing sugars / hydrolysis.
Question 20 · Short answer and explanation
2 marks
A plant cell with a water potential of -600 kPa is placed in a solution with a water potential of -200 kPa.

State the net direction of water movement and explain your answer. [2]
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Worked solution

-200 kPa is higher than -600 kPa, so water moves from the solution into the cell by osmosis across the partially permeable membrane.

Marking scheme

1. Into the cell / from the solution into the cell by osmosis [AO2]
2. The solution has a higher (less negative) water potential than the cell, so water moves down the water potential gradient (across a partially permeable membrane) [AO2]
DO NOT ALLOW 'higher concentration of water' as the only explanation without link to gradient. Direction must be correct to credit mark 2.
Question 21 · Short answer and explanation
2 marks
The rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction was 0.80 arbitrary units at 20 °C and 1.70 arbitrary units at 30 °C.

Calculate the temperature coefficient, \(Q_{10}\), for this reaction. Give your answer to 2 significant figures. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The temperatures differ by 10 °C. \(Q_{10} = \frac{R_2}{R_1} = \frac{1.70}{0.80} = 2.125 \approx 2.1\).

Marking scheme

1. 1.70 / 0.80 (method) [AO2]
2. 2.1 (accuracy, 2 s.f.) [AO2]
Correct answer gains both marks. ALLOW 2.125 for the method mark only. Inverted ratio (0.47) gains 0 marks.
Question 22 · Short answer and explanation
2 marks
At rest, a person has a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 70 cm\(^3\).

Calculate the cardiac output in cm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\). Show your working. [2]
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Worked solution

Cardiac output = heart rate × stroke volume = \(72 \times 70 = 5040\) cm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\).

Marking scheme

1. 72 × 70 (method) [AO2]
2. 5040 cm^3 min^-1 (accuracy, unit required) [AO2]
Correct answer with no working gains both marks. ALLOW 5.04 dm^3 min^-1 if unit is correct. Missing or incorrect unit loses the second mark.
Question 23 · Short answer and explanation
2 marks
DNA replication is described as semi-conservative.

Explain what this means and state the role of DNA polymerase in the process. [2]
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Worked solution

Both strands act as templates. Each daughter molecule retains one parental strand. DNA polymerase catalyses joining of free nucleotides to the growing strand.

Marking scheme

1. Each new DNA molecule consists of one original strand and one new strand [AO1]
2. DNA polymerase joins (complementary) nucleotides / catalyses formation of phosphodiester bonds in the new strand [AO1]
IGNORE 'half the DNA' without reference to strands. DO NOT ALLOW DNA polymerase unwinding the helix.
Question 24 · Short answer and explanation
2 marks
A student measured the volume of oxygen released by a catalase reaction in 60 seconds. At 20 °C the volume was 3.0 cm\(^3\). At 30 °C the volume was 7.5 cm\(^3\).

Calculate the temperature coefficient, \(Q_{10}\), for this reaction. Show your working.

\(Q_{10}\) = ............................ [2]
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Worked solution

Rates are proportional to the volume released in equal times (60 s). \(Q_{10} = R_2 / R_1\), where the temperature interval is 10 °C. \(Q_{10} = 7.5 / 3.0 = 2.5\).

Marking scheme

Question: Calculate Q10 | Answer: 2.5 | Marks: 2 | AO2 (quantitative data)

Guidance: Correct answer of 2.5 = 2 marks. If the answer is incorrect or missing, award 1 mark (method) for 7.5 / 3.0 (rate at 30 °C divided by rate at 20 °C). ALLOW 1 mark for 7.5/60 divided by 3.0/60 (working with rates). DO NOT ALLOW 0.4 (inverted ratio) for the accuracy mark; this may earn the method mark only if the working is shown as 3.0/7.5. ALLOW 2.50. IGNORE a missing unit as Q10 has no unit.
Question 25 · Short answer and explanation
2 marks
In a woodland, pale and dark forms of a moth species are present. The dark form is controlled by an allele that arises through a random, spontaneous mutation. After tree trunks become darkened by pollution, birds eat fewer dark moths than pale moths.

Explain how the proportion of dark moths in the population can increase over many generations. [2]
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Worked solution

Dark moths are camouflaged on dark trunks and are less likely to be predated. They therefore survive longer, reproduce more and pass the advantageous allele to their offspring. Over generations the frequency of the allele, and so the proportion of dark moths, increases (natural selection).

Marking scheme

Question: Explain how the proportion of dark moths can increase | Marks: 2 | AO2 (theoretical context)

Marking points (max 2):
1. dark moths are better camouflaged / less likely to be eaten (by birds) / have a selective advantage, so more survive AW;
2. (more dark moths) reproduce / breed and pass on the (advantageous) allele to offspring;
3. allele frequency / proportion of dark moths increases over generations AW.

Guidance: ALLOW 'survival of the fittest' only if linked to survival and reproduction. IGNORE 'moths adapt / change colour / need to be dark'. DO NOT ALLOW 'the mutation is caused by pollution'.
Question 26 · Short answer and explanation
3 marks
A student measured the volume of oxygen taken up by germinating pea seeds in a respirometer. At 15 °C the seeds took up 3.9 cm\(^3\) of oxygen in 10 minutes. At 25 °C the seeds took up 8.8 cm\(^3\) of oxygen in 10 minutes.

(a) Calculate the temperature coefficient, \(Q_{10}\), for oxygen uptake over this temperature range. Give your answer to 2 significant figures. Show your working. [2]

(b) The student predicted that \(Q_{10}\) would be lower between 45 °C and 55 °C. Suggest and explain why. [1]
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Worked solution

(a) Rate at 15 °C = 3.9 / 10 = 0.39 cm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\); rate at 25 °C = 8.8 / 10 = 0.88 cm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\). The temperature interval is 10 °C, so \(Q_{10} = R_2 / R_1 = 0.88 / 0.39 = 2.256... = 2.3\) (2 s.f.). (b) At temperatures near 55 °C, enzymes involved in respiration begin to denature (hydrogen bonds break and active sites change shape), so rate increases less, or falls, giving a lower Q10.

Marking scheme

(a) 2 marks. Correct final answer 2.3 = 2 marks (ALLOW 2.26 or 2.256 for 1 mark only if not rounded to 2 s.f.). Method mark: \(R_2/R_1\) = 8.8/3.9 OR 0.88/0.39 (1 mark). DO NOT ALLOW inverted ratio. Units not required (Q10 has no unit); IGNORE a unit if given. AO2 (quantitative data). (b) 1 mark: enzymes / proteins (of respiration) denature / lose shape of active site at higher temperature AW, so rate does not increase as much / decreases (the linking of denaturation to a lower rate increase is needed). IGNORE 'enzymes die'. DO NOT ALLOW 'enzymes are killed'. AO2 (theoretical context).
Question 27 · Short answer and explanation
4 marks
A student measured the rate at which an enzyme from a cold-water fish broke down a substrate. At 10 °C the rate was 0.80 mg of substrate per minute. At 20 °C the rate was 1.90 mg of substrate per minute.

(a) Calculate the temperature coefficient, \(Q_{10}\), for this reaction. Give your answer to 2 significant figures. [2]

(b) The student repeated the investigation between 40 °C and 50 °C and found that \(Q_{10}\) was less than 1. Explain this result. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) \(Q_{10} = R_2 / R_1 = 1.90 / 0.80 = 2.375\), which is 2.4 to 2 significant figures.
(b) Between 40 °C and 50 °C the enzyme is denatured: hydrogen and ionic bonds break, the tertiary structure and active site change shape, and substrate can no longer bind. Fewer enzyme-substrate complexes form, so the rate at 50 °C is lower than at 40 °C and \(R_2 / R_1 < 1\).

Marking scheme

(a) 2 marks (AO2, quantitative).
Correct answer 2.4 = 2 marks.
If the answer is wrong or not to 2 s.f.: 1 mark for 1.90 / 0.80 (method) OR 2.375 / 2.38 seen (unrounded). ALLOW 2.4 with no working for 2 marks.
(b) 2 marks (AO2, theoretical).
1. Enzyme denatured / active site changes shape / tertiary structure altered (by bonds breaking) at high temperature;
2. Fewer enzyme-substrate complexes formed / substrate no longer fits active site, so rate decreases (AW);
DO NOT ALLOW 'enzyme killed'. IGNORE 'enzyme dies'. ALLOW a mark for 'hydrogen bonds break' for point 1.
Question 28 · Short answer and explanation
4 marks
A small flatworm is 0.5 mm long, 0.5 mm wide and 0.5 mm thick. A larger worm of similar shape is 4.0 mm in each of these dimensions. Treat both as cubes. Neither has a gas exchange system.

(a) Calculate the surface area to volume ratio of each worm. Show your working. [2]

(b) Using your answers to (a), explain why the larger worm would need a specialised gas exchange surface if it was an active animal. [2]
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Worked solution

(a) Small worm: surface area = \(6 \times 0.5^2 = 1.5\) mm²; volume = \(0.5^3 = 0.125\) mm³; ratio = \(1.5 / 0.125 = 12\) (12:1).
Large worm: surface area = \(6 \times 4.0^2 = 96\) mm²; volume = \(4.0^3 = 64\) mm³; ratio = \(96 / 64 = 1.5\) (1.5:1).
(b) The larger worm has a much lower surface area to volume ratio. Its surface area is too small relative to the oxygen demand of its large volume of respiring cells, and diffusion distances to inner cells are long, so diffusion alone is too slow. A specialised exchange surface (large surface area, thin, with a concentration gradient maintained) is needed.

Marking scheme

(a) 2 marks (AO2, quantitative).
1. Surface area and volume both calculated correctly for at least one worm (1.5 and 0.125, or 96 and 64) (method);
2. Both ratios correct: 12 (:1) and 1.5 (:1) (accuracy).
ALLOW ECF for one ratio if an arithmetic slip is made in the other. Units mm⁻¹ allowed but not required.
(b) 2 marks (AO2, theoretical).
1. Larger worm has smaller surface area to volume ratio (ORA) / ratio is 8 times smaller;
2. Diffusion distance is greater / surface area too small to supply enough oxygen for the volume (of respiring cells) / diffusion too slow to meet demand (AW);
IGNORE 'bigger so needs more oxygen' without reference to ratio or diffusion.
Question 29 · Table and sentence completion
2 marks
A student compares the features of the three domains used to classify living organisms.

Complete the sentences by writing the correct term in each gap.

Bacteria belong to the domain called ......................................... .

The ribosomes of members of the domain Eukarya are described as ......................................... S ribosomes. [2]
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Worked solution

The three domain system comprises Archaea, Bacteria and Eukarya. Bacteria are their own domain, named Bacteria. Eukaryotic cells have larger 80S ribosomes in the cytoplasm, whereas prokaryotes have 70S ribosomes.

Marking scheme

Q1 | Gap 1: Bacteria (1 mark, AO1). ALLOW Eubacteria. DO NOT ALLOW Prokaryotae / Prokaryota / Monera.
Gap 2: 80 (1 mark, AO1). IGNORE 70. Both gaps are independent; no ECF is needed.
Question 30 · Table and sentence completion
2 marks
The table shows features of two gas exchange systems.

Complete the table by writing the correct term in each empty box.

| Feature | Insect | Bony fish |
|---|---|---|
| Name of the gas exchange structure that opens to the outside of the body | Spiracle | ......................... |
| Direction of water flow compared with blood flow across the exchange surface | Not applicable | ......................... |

[2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In a bony fish, water enters through the mouth and leaves under the operculum. Blood in the gill lamellae flows in the opposite direction to the water, which is a counter-current system. This maintains a concentration gradient for oxygen along the whole length of the lamella.

Marking scheme

Q2 | Box 1: operculum / gill slit / gill opening (1 mark, AO1). IGNORE gill alone; DO NOT ALLOW spiracle.
Box 2: counter-current / opposite (direction) / flow in opposite directions (1 mark, AO1). DO NOT ALLOW parallel / concurrent / co-current. Boxes are marked independently.
Question 31 · Table and sentence completion
3 marks
Complete the passage about movement of substances across cell surface membranes by writing the correct term in each gap.

Glucose enters an intestinal epithelial cell against its concentration gradient by ........................ , which requires energy from ATP and a specific carrier protein. Oxygen crosses the phospholipid bilayer by ........................ because it is small and non-polar. Water moves into a cell placed in a solution with a less negative water potential than the cytoplasm by ........................ . [3]
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Worked solution

Movement against a concentration gradient using ATP and carriers is active transport. Small non-polar molecules such as oxygen pass freely down a concentration gradient through the bilayer by simple diffusion. Movement of water from a higher (less negative) water potential to a lower (more negative) water potential across a partially permeable membrane is osmosis.

Marking scheme

Question: 1 | Marks: 3 | AO1 x2, AO2 x1
1 mark each for:
- active transport (ALLOW primary active transport; DO NOT ALLOW facilitated diffusion)
- (simple) diffusion (ALLOW passive diffusion; DO NOT ALLOW facilitated diffusion)
- osmosis (IGNORE diffusion of water unless osmosis stated)
Guidance: Mark each gap independently. Spelling must be unambiguous.
Question 32 · Table and sentence completion
3 marks
The table shows features of three gas exchange systems. Complete the table by writing the missing information in the three empty boxes.

| Organism | Gas exchange surface | Method of moving the respiratory medium over the surface |
|---|---|---|
| Locust | Tracheoles | (i) ........................ |
| Bony fish | (ii) ........................ | Water flows over the surface in the opposite direction to blood flow |
| Human | Alveoli | (iii) ........................ |

[3]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Insects move air through the tracheal system partly by diffusion and partly by abdominal pumping that changes pressure in the tracheae. Bony fish exchange gases across the thin gill lamellae on gill filaments, using counter-current flow. In humans, contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles increases thoracic volume, lowering pressure so air is drawn in.

Marking scheme

Question: 2 | Marks: 3 | AO1 x3
1 mark each for:
(i) abdominal pumping / contraction and relaxation of abdominal muscles (AW); ALLOW air moves through spiracles by diffusion; DO NOT ALLOW lungs or breathing through the skin
(ii) (gill) lamellae / secondary lamellae / gill filaments; IGNORE gills alone; DO NOT ALLOW alveoli
(iii) diaphragm and (external) intercostal muscles contract/move, changing volume and pressure in the thorax (AW); ALLOW ventilation / breathing in and out by pressure changes; IGNORE just 'breathing' or 'inhaling'
Guidance: Mark each box independently.

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