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According to Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic theory, dreams have two levels of content. The manifest content is the literal storyline of the dream (searching for a lost key in a forest), whereas the latent content is the underlying, hidden psychological meaning of the dream (anxiety about losing control). Therefore, B is the correct answer.

1 mark for identifying 'Latent content' (B). Reject all other options.

Endogenous pacemakers are internal biological structures or mechanisms that regulate biological rhythms, such as the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN). Exogenous zeitgebers are external environmental cues, such as temperature, social cues, and light. Therefore, B is the correct answer.

1 mark for identifying the correct description of an endogenous pacemaker (B). Reject all other options.

According to the Activation-Synthesis Theory, the brain stem (specifically the pons) generates random electrical impulses (activation). The cerebral cortex then attempts to make sense of this random activity by synthesizing it, creating a dream narrative from stored memories. Therefore, C is the correct answer.

1 mark for identifying the role of the cerebral cortex as synthesis (C). Reject all other options.

Stimulus control is a behavioral treatment for insomnia that aims to re-associate the bed and bedroom with rapid sleep onset and to break the association with wakefulness or frustration. This is achieved by limiting activities in bed to only sleep and intimacy. Therefore, C is the correct answer.

1 mark for identifying 'Stimulus control' (C). Reject all other options.

Circadian rhythm (1) matches with definition B, as it refers to a biological cycle that occurs approximately once every 24 hours (such as the sleep-wake cycle). Ultradian rhythm (2) matches with definition A, as it refers to a biological cycle that repeats multiple times within a 24-hour period (such as the 90-minute sleep cycle containing REM and NREM sleep).

1 mark for each correct match: Circadian rhythm (1) matched to B (1 mark). Ultradian rhythm (2) matched to A (1 mark).

1. REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep: This is the dreaming stage where the brain is highly active, eye movements are rapid, and the body experiences temporary muscle paralysis.
2. NREM (Non-Rapid Eye Movement) sleep: This is the deeper, quieter phase of sleep where brain waves slow down (divided into stages 1-4) and the body repairs itself.

1.2 marks: Correctly identifying and describing REM sleep (e.g., rapid eye movements, active brain, dreaming).
1.2 marks: Correctly identifying and describing NREM sleep (e.g., slow brain activity, physical recovery, absence of rapid eye movements).
1.2 marks: Clearly contrasting the two types or linking them to Freya's notes (active vs relaxed states).

According to Freud's theory of dreaming:
- Manifest content: This is the literal storyline and imagery of the dream as recalled by the dreamer. In this scenario, it is Marcus being lost in a vast, empty desert and searching for his keys.
- Latent content: This is the hidden, symbolic psychological meaning of the dream, which stems from the unconscious mind. In this scenario, it is Marcus's feelings of loneliness at work and his desire to connect with others.

1.2 marks: Correct identification of the manifest content in Marcus's dream (desert and keys).
1.2 marks: Correct identification of the latent content in Marcus's dream (loneliness and desire to connect).
1.2 marks: Clear explanation of the difference between manifest content (surface/literal story) and latent content (hidden/symbolic meaning).

According to the Activation-Synthesis Theory:
- Activation: During REM sleep, random neurological activity is triggered in the pons of the brainstem. In Noah's case, these are the random electrical impulses.
- Synthesis: The cerebral cortex tries to make sense of these random signals by synthesis—putting them together into a storyline. Noah's brain synthesizes these random signals into a dream about flying through a supermarket.

1.2 marks: Explanation of 'Activation' as the generation of random brain activity in the brainstem during REM sleep, applied to Noah's electrical impulses.
1.2 marks: Explanation of 'Synthesis' as the cerebral cortex's attempt to interpret and create a story from these random signals.
1.2 marks: Direct application showing how Noah's bizarre dream of flying through a supermarket is the synthetic outcome of this process.

Cognitive Behavioural Therapy for Insomnia (CBT-I) treats insomnia by addressing both thoughts and behaviors:
- Cognitive component: It helps Aisha identify and challenge unrealistic thoughts, anxieties, or beliefs about sleep (e.g., 'I will never fall asleep' or worrying about the consequences of insomnia).
- Behavioural component: It introduces techniques like stimulus control (using the bed only for sleep to rebuild the psychological association between bed and sleep), sleep restriction, or relaxation training to establish a consistent sleep cycle.

1.2 marks: Explanation of the cognitive aspect (challenging negative or anxious thoughts/beliefs about sleep).
1.2 marks: Explanation of the behavioural aspect (such as stimulus control, sleep hygiene, or sleep restriction techniques).
1.2 marks: Linking these components to how they specifically help Aisha break her cycle of insomnia and develop healthy long-term sleep patterns without relying on medication.

- Sensory blockade: During REM sleep, the brain blocks incoming sensory signals (such as external sounds) from reaching the conscious areas of the brain, preventing the dreamer from waking up due to quiet background noises.
- Motor prevention: The brainstem blocks motor/movement commands sent from the brain, causing temporary muscle paralysis (atonia). This prevents Sarah from physically acting out her dreams.

1.2 marks: Identify and explain sensory blockade (shutting out external sensory input during REM sleep).
1.2 marks: Identify and explain motor prevention/muscle paralysis (blocking motor signals to prevent physical movement).
1.2 marks: Clearly link these processes to Sarah's experience (sensory blockade prevents her from hearing quiet background noises, and motor prevention prevents her from acting out her dreams).

According to the Multi-store Model of Memory, short-term memory has a limited duration of approximately 18 to 30 seconds (often simplified as 15 to 30 seconds) if maintenance rehearsal is prevented. Information in sensory memory lasts for less than 2 seconds, while long-term memory has a potentially lifetime duration.

1 mark for identifying the correct duration of short-term memory (Option B).

Bartlett used the phrase 'effort after meaning' to describe how people do not recall memories like a video recording; instead, they actively try to make sense of unfamiliar or strange information by reconstructing it to fit their existing schemas (mental frameworks).

1 mark for identifying the correct definition of 'effort after meaning' (Option B).

Anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new long-term memories after the onset of brain damage or trauma. Since the patient can recall memories from before the injury (their wedding ten years ago) but cannot form new memories (remembering the names of doctors met yesterday), they are experiencing anterograde amnesia.

1 mark for identifying the correct type of amnesia as anterograde amnesia (Option C).

1. Identification: Chloe is using maintenance rehearsal, which is the process of verbally repeating information to keep it within the short-term memory store. 2. Explanation: Because the short-term memory has a very limited duration of approximately 18 to 30 seconds and a limited capacity of 7 plus or minus 2 items, any distraction or interruption breaks the rehearsal loop. Without rehearsal, the information cannot be maintained and will be lost through decay (fading away over time) or displacement (pushed out by new incoming information).

Award 1 mark for correctly identifying 'maintenance rehearsal' (or 'rehearsal'). Award 1.42 marks for explaining that interruption disrupts this rehearsal, causing the information to be forgotten or lost from short-term memory due to limited duration or capacity (decay/displacement).

Arthur is experiencing anterograde amnesia. This condition is characterized by an inability to encode or store new long-term memories following brain trauma, meaning the individual cannot recall events that occurred after the injury, even though their long-term memories from before the injury remain completely intact.

Award 1 mark for identifying the type of amnesia as 'anterograde amnesia'. Award 1.42 marks for providing a clear definition: the inability to form or store new memories after the onset of brain damage, while past memories remain unaffected.

According to Bartlett's Theory of Reconstructive Memory, memory is not an exact recording but an active reconstruction of past events. Sarah's memory of the accident was influenced by the post-event information: the word 'smashing' activated her mental schema for a severe high-impact collision. In retrieving the memory, her brain filled in the gaps with schema-consistent details (such as broken glass) that were not actually present, whereas Maya's schema for 'hitting' did not trigger these false details.

Award 1 mark for stating that memory is an active reconstruction influenced by schemas. Award 1.42 marks for applying this to the scenario: explaining that the word 'smashing' activated Sarah's schema of a severe accident, leading her to reconstruct the event by adding false but schema-consistent details like broken glass.

The marketing company is applying the concept of rehearsal. By repeating the brand name multiple times within a short duration, they encourage the audience to mentally or verbally rehearse the name. According to cognitive memory theories, this rehearsal prevents the information from decaying in the short-term memory and facilitates its transfer and consolidation into the long-term memory, ensuring the audience retains the brand name.

Award 1 mark for identifying the use of repetition or rehearsal. Award 1.42 marks for explaining that rehearsal prevents decay in short-term memory and aids the transfer of the product name into the long-term memory for storage.

Clara is experiencing retrograde amnesia. Retrograde amnesia involves the loss of pre-existing memories that were formed prior to the brain trauma (in Clara's case, the three hours before her fall). This is different from anterograde amnesia, which does not affect past memories but instead prevents a person from encoding and storing new information after the brain damage has occurred.

Award 1 mark for identifying 'retrograde amnesia'. Award 1.42 marks for explaining the contrast clearly (retrograde amnesia is the loss of memories before the event, whereas anterograde amnesia is the inability to create new memories after the event).

The phenomenon George experiences is handled by the sensory register, which is the first store in the Multi-store Model of Memory. Specifically, this involves visual sensory memory, known as iconic memory. The typical duration of the sensory register is extremely brief, lasting for less than half a second (typically between 250 milliseconds and 500 milliseconds) before the information decays if not attended to.

Award 1 mark for correctly naming the 'sensory register' or 'sensory memory' (accept 'iconic memory' or 'iconic store'). Award 1.42 marks for stating the correct duration (accept answers stating 'less than half a second', 'up to 0.5 seconds', or 'a fraction of a second').

Bartlett used the term 'effort after meaning' to describe how individuals actively try to make sense of unfamiliar information. Because the British children did not have developed mental schemas for traditional Native American cultural terms like 'canoe' or 'paddles', they rationalized and reconstructed the story during recall. They substituted these terms with familiar concepts from their own cultural schemas ('boat' and 'oars') to make the story fit their expectations and make sense to them.

Award 1 mark for identifying the term 'effort after meaning' (also accept 'rationalisation' or 'schema reconstruction'). Award 1.42 marks for explaining that children used their existing cultural schemas to reconstruct and alter unfamiliar concepts into familiar terms that made sense within their own experience.

First, calculate the range for Condition 1: \( \text{Maximum score} - \text{Minimum score} = 5 - 2 = 3 \). Next, calculate the range for Condition 2: \( 10 - 6 = 4 \). Finally, find the difference between the two ranges: \( 4 - 3 = 1 \).

1 mark for showing correct workings that calculate the two ranges (3 and 4 respectively).
1 mark for the correct final answer of 1.

First, calculate the mean for Week 1: \( (8 + 11 + 9 + 12 + 10) / 5 = 50 / 5 = 10 \). Second, calculate the mean for Week 2: \( (14 + 16 + 15 + 13 + 17) / 5 = 75 / 5 = 15 \). Third, calculate the percentage increase: \( ((15 - 10) / 10) \times 100 = (5 / 10) \times 100 = 50\% \).

1 mark for showing the correct calculation of the two means (10 and 15) in the workings.
1 mark for the correct final answer of 50% (or 50).

Milgram's research variations showed that physical proximity of the authority figure has a strong influence on obedience. When the experimenter gave instructions over the phone rather than being physically present in the same room, obedience rates dropped significantly (from 65% to 20.5%). This confirms that increased distance from the authority figure decreases obedience levels.

1 mark for the correct answer A. 0 marks for any other option.

Locus of control is a dispositional factor (an individual personality characteristic). People with an internal locus of control believe they have personal control over their behavior and are less likely to conform. In contrast, group size, task difficulty, and anonymity are situational factors (features of the environment).

1 mark for the correct answer D. 0 marks for any other option.

Obedience is defined as complying with the direct orders of an individual who has legitimate authority. Option A describes normative conformity, Option C describes deindividuation, and Option D describes reactance or non-conformity.

1 mark for the correct answer B. 0 marks for any other option.

Award 1 mark for identifying the situational factor as proximity (or physical proximity/distance). Award 1 mark for explaining that closer physical presence increases pressure to obey, whereas distance (using a telephone) reduces the authority figure's influence, making it easier to refuse.

1 mark: Identifies 'proximity' or 'physical proximity'. 1 mark: Explains how closeness increases obedience or how distance decreases obedience in this scenario.

Award 1 mark for identifying the Authoritarian personality type. Award 1 mark for describing an appropriate characteristic, such as rigid beliefs, respect for tradition, cognitive inflexibility, or hostility towards lower-status individuals.

1 mark: Correctly identifies the Authoritarian personality. 1 mark: States a valid characteristic of this personality type according to the OCR syllabus.

Award 1 mark for identifying the concept of deindividuation. Award 1 mark for explaining that being in a crowd leads to a loss of individual identity and personal accountability, which decreases inhibitions.

1 mark: Correctly identifies the concept as 'deindividuation'. 1 mark: Explains how a loss of self-awareness or increased anonymity leads to reduced personal responsibility.

Award 1 mark for identifying consistency (or diachronic consistency). Award 1 mark for explaining that keeping a message stable and unchanging over time shows commitment and prompts the majority to reconsider their stance.

1 mark: Identifies 'consistency' as the minority influence behaviour. 1 mark: Explains how consistency demonstrates commitment and forces cognitive conflict or re-evaluation by the majority.

### Indicative Content

#### AO1: Knowledge and Understanding
* **Situational Factors:** These are external influences that affect obedience, including:
* *Uniform:* Wearing a uniform represents legitimate authority (e.g., Milgram's experimenter wearing a grey lab coat). When the experimenter was replaced by an 'ordinary member of the public' in everyday clothes, obedience dropped significantly.
* *Proximity:* How close the authority figure is to the participant (e.g., when instructions were given over the phone in Milgram's variation, obedience dropped to 20.5%) or how close the victim is (e.g., in the same room).
* *Location/Status:* The prestigious nature of the environment (e.g., obedience was higher at Yale University than in a run-down office in Bridgeport).
* **Dispositional Factors:** These are internal, personality-driven characteristics that affect obedience, including:
* *Authoritarian Personality:* Proposed by Adorno, individuals with this personality type have extreme respect for authority, are highly submissive to superiors, and are hostile to those they perceive as inferior. It is typically developed through strict, cold parenting.
* *Locus of Control:* Individuals with an internal locus of control believe they have personal agency over their actions and are less likely to blindly obey, whereas those with an external locus of control believe their lives are determined by outside forces and are more submissive to authority.

#### AO3: Evaluation and Analysis
* **Support for Situational Factors:**
* Milgram's research heavily supports situational factors because systematically changing variables (like uniform or location) drastically altered obedience rates in otherwise identical participant samples.
* Bickman's (1974) field study showed that passers-by were much more likely to obey orders (e.g., picking up litter) from someone dressed as a guard than someone in civilian clothes or a milkman's uniform.
* **Limitations of Situational Factors / Support for Dispositional Factors:**
* Situational explanations cannot explain individual differences within the same situation. For example, in Milgram's baseline study, 35% of participants *resisted* authority and did not administer the maximum 450V shock, despite being in the exact same situation. This suggests personality (disposition) played a key role.
* Elms and Milgram (1966) found that highly obedient participants in Milgram's studies scored significantly higher on the F-Scale (Authoritarianism) compared to defiant participants, providing empirical support for the dispositional argument.
* **Limitations of Dispositional Factors:**
* Adorno's F-scale relies on correlational data; we cannot establish cause-and-effect that an authoritarian personality *causes* obedience.
* It is difficult for dispositional factors to explain widespread obedience across entire societies at specific points in history (e.g., Nazi Germany) where individual personalities must have varied immensely, meaning situational propaganda and pressure are more likely explanations.
* **Conclusion:** Obedience is rarely determined by one factor alone. A modern interactionist perspective is more useful, where situational factors provide the external pressure but dispositional traits (like locus of control) determine whether an individual yields to or resists that pressure.

### Assessment Objectives
* **AO1 (6 marks):** Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of situational and dispositional factors in obedience, including relevant theories and research.
* **AO3 (7 marks):** Analyse and evaluate the view, presenting a balanced debate with supported conclusions.

### Level Descriptors

* **Level 4 (11-13 marks):**
* Excellent knowledge and understanding of both situational and dispositional factors.
* Coherent, well-selected research references (e.g., Milgram, Bickman, Adorno).
* Evaluation is highly developed, balanced, and critically analyses both viewpoints.
* Clear, logical structure with a well-reasoned conclusion.

* **Level 3 (8-10 marks):**
* Good knowledge and understanding of both situational and dispositional factors, though there may be minor inaccuracies or omissions.
* Relevant research is used to support points.
* Evaluation is balanced and offers clear arguments on both sides, but may lack depth in some areas.

* **Level 2 (5-7 marks):**
* Reasonable knowledge of situational and/or dispositional factors, but might heavily focus on one side.
* Research references are basic, descriptive, or generalized.
* Evaluation is present but superficial, one-sided, or lacks development.

* **Level 1 (1-4 marks):**
* Basic knowledge of why people obey, with little to no distinction between situational and dispositional factors.
* Little or no relevant psychological research is cited.
* Evaluation is absent, highly anecdotal, or purely descriptive.

The correct sampling method is random sampling because names are selected purely by chance (via computer program) from the target population. A key strength is that it reduces researcher bias as the researcher has no influence over who is selected.

1 mark for identifying the sampling method as random sampling. 1 mark for stating a valid strength (e.g., reduces researcher bias / more likely to be representative of the target population).

To calculate the median, first put the numbers in order from lowest to highest: 2, 3, 4, 7, 9. The middle number is 4.

1 mark for ordering the numbers correctly (2, 3, 4, 7, 9). 1 mark for identifying the median as 4.

Unstructured interviews are highly flexible. This allows the interviewer to ask follow-up questions based on the participant's previous answers, yielding richer, more detailed qualitative data about their attitudes.

1 mark for identifying a valid advantage (e.g. flexibility / detailed qualitative data). 1 mark for applying it to the context of the study (exploring attitudes/responses in detail).

The Independent Variable (IV) is the factor being manipulated (chewing gum or not). The Dependent Variable (DV) is the factor being measured (the number of errors made on the puzzle task).

1 mark for correctly identifying the Independent Variable (IV). 1 mark for correctly identifying the Dependent Variable (DV).

The researcher misled the participants about the true nature of the study, which is deception. This can be resolved by debriefing the participants immediately after, explaining the true aims of the study and offering them the right to withdraw their data.

1 mark for identifying deception as the ethical issue. 1 mark for explaining a valid way to deal with it (e.g., conducting a debrief / revealing the true aim and offering retrospective consent).

The detailed written descriptions represent qualitative data because they are non-numerical. A key limitation of qualitative data is that it is subjective, which can make it harder to systematically compare or analyze statistically.

1 mark for identifying the data type as qualitative. 1 mark for stating a valid limitation (e.g., subjective, hard to analyze, time-consuming).

Range is calculated by subtracting the lowest value from the highest value. For Group A: \(9 - 5 = 4\). For Group B: \(10 - 4 = 6\).

1 mark for calculating Group A's range correctly as 4. 1 mark for calculating Group B's range correctly as 6.

The researcher is using the same participants in both conditions of the independent variable (Week 1: warm water, and Week 2: chamomile tea). This is known as a repeated measures design.

1 mark for identifying 'repeated measures' or 'repeated measures design'. Do not accept 'matched pairs' or 'independent measures'.

Opportunity sampling involves selecting participants who are readily available at the time and place the study is being conducted. Since the researcher approached the first 15 students who walked past, this is opportunity sampling.

1 mark for identifying 'opportunity sampling' or 'opportunity sample'. Do not accept 'random sampling' or 'volunteer sampling'.

The mode is the most frequently occurring value in a data set. In this data set, the number \(7\) appears three times, which is more frequent than any other number (\(6\) appears twice, \(8\) appears twice, \(5\) and \(9\) appear once). Therefore, the mode is \(7\).

1 mark for stating '7' or '7 hours'. Do not accept any other number.

A closed question is one that limits the participant to a fixed set of responses (such as a rating scale from \(1\) to \(5\), or yes/no). Since participants must choose a number from \(1\) to \(5\), this is a closed question.

1 mark for identifying 'closed question' or 'closed'. Do not accept 'open question'.