HKDSE · Answers & Marking Scheme

2021 HKDSE Biology Answers & Marking Scheme

Thinka 2021 DSE-Style Mock — Biology

160 marks210 mins2021
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of that year's HKDSE paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from the HKEAA.

Paper 1 Section A

Answer all 36 multiple-choice questions. All questions carry equal marks.
36 Question · 36 marks
Question 1 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The graph below shows the changes in the rate of transpiration and the rate of water uptake of a leafy shoot when it is transferred from still air to windy conditions at t = 10 minutes. Between t = 10 and t = 20 minutes, the rate of transpiration is significantly higher than the rate of water uptake. Which of the following statements is/are correct during this period (between 10 and 20 minutes)? (1) The water content of the leaf cells decreases. (2) The tension in the xylem vessels increases. (3) The rate of water loss from stomata is lower than the rate of water absorption by roots.
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(1) and (2) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

B

Worked solution

During the 10 to 20 minute period, the rate of transpiration (water loss) exceeds the rate of water uptake (water absorption). Therefore, (1) leaf cells experience a net loss of water, so their water content decreases. (2) As water is pulled out of the xylem faster than it is replaced, the negative pressure or tension within the xylem vessels increases. (3) is incorrect because the rate of water loss (transpiration) is higher, not lower, than the rate of water absorption.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option B. No partial marks.
Question 2 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An organic effluent is continuously discharged into a river. The levels of dissolved oxygen (DO), aerobic bacteria population, and algae population at different downstream distances are as follows: At 0 m (discharge point): DO = 8.0 mg/L, bacteria = 10 units, algae = 5 units. At 100 m: DO = 2.5 mg/L, bacteria = 95 units, algae = 2 units. At 500 m: DO = 1.2 mg/L, bacteria = 60 units, algae = 15 units. At 1000 m: DO = 5.5 mg/L, bacteria = 20 units, algae = 80 units. Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for why the dissolved oxygen concentration reaches its lowest level at 500 m downstream, even though the population of aerobic bacteria has started to decrease?
  1. A.The rate of algal photosynthesis is higher than the rate of bacterial respiration at 500 m.
  2. B.Aerobic decomposition by bacteria still exceeds the rate of oxygen replenishment from the atmosphere and photosynthesis.
  3. C.Algae consume more dissolved oxygen than aerobic bacteria at 500 m.
  4. D.The decrease in dissolved oxygen is mainly caused by the direct chemical absorption of oxygen by inorganic nutrients.

Answer

B

Worked solution

At 500 m, although the bacterial population has decreased from its peak at 100 m, it is still very high (60 units). The rate of oxygen consumption by these bacteria for aerobic decomposition of organic matter still exceeds the rate of oxygen replenishment from the air and the newly growing algae. Therefore, the net dissolved oxygen level continues to fall to its lowest point.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option B. No partial marks.
Question 3 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Blood vessels associated with a villus in the human small intestine are described below: Vessel X is the arteriole entering the villus. Vessel Y is the venule leaving the villus (draining into the hepatic portal vein). Two hours after a person has consumed a balanced meal rich in proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids, which of the following combinations correctly compares the concentration of amino acids, oxygen, and carbon dioxide in Vessel Y with Vessel X?
  1. A.Amino acids: Higher in Y than in X; Oxygen: Higher in Y than in X; Carbon dioxide: Lower in Y than in X
  2. B.Amino acids: Higher in Y than in X; Oxygen: Lower in Y than in X; Carbon dioxide: Higher in Y than in X
  3. C.Amino acids: Lower in Y than in X; Oxygen: Lower in Y than in X; Carbon dioxide: Higher in Y than in X
  4. D.Amino acids: Lower in Y than in X; Oxygen: Higher in Y than in X; Carbon dioxide: Lower in Y than in X

Answer

B

Worked solution

1. Amino acids are the digested products of proteins. They are absorbed into the blood capillary network of the villi by active transport and facilitated diffusion. Therefore, blood leaving the villus (Vessel Y) has a higher concentration of amino acids than blood entering (Vessel X). 2. The epithelial and other cells in the villi are metabolically active (e.g., performing active transport of nutrients) and carry out aerobic respiration. This consumes oxygen and produces carbon dioxide. Therefore, blood leaving the villus (Vessel Y) has a lower concentration of oxygen and a higher concentration of carbon dioxide than blood entering (Vessel X).

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option B. No partial marks.
Question 4 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A double-stranded DNA molecule contains 30% adenine (A). This DNA molecule, which contains only non-radioactive phosphorus (31P), undergoes two rounds of replication in a medium containing only nucleotides labeled with radioactive phosphorus (32P). Which of the following statements about the resulting DNA molecules is/are correct? (1) The ratio of adenine to guanine in the newly synthesized strands is 3:2. (2) 50% of the DNA molecules in the final pool contain one non-radioactive strand and one radioactive strand. (3) All of the DNA molecules in the final pool contain at least some radioactive 32P.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

D

Worked solution

For (1): Since the DNA is double-stranded with 30% A, then T = 30%. Therefore, G + C = 40%, meaning G = 20% and C = 20%. The ratio of A to G in the newly synthesized strands must match the original template composition, which is 30% : 20% = 3:2. Statement (1) is correct. For (2) and (3): The original non-radioactive DNA has 2 strands. After 2 rounds of semi-conservative replication, there are 4 DNA molecules (8 strands in total). The 2 original strands are distributed into 2 different DNA molecules, each paired with a newly synthesized radioactive strand. The remaining 2 DNA molecules are composed entirely of radioactive strands. Thus, 2 out of 4 (50%) DNA molecules are hybrid (one non-radioactive and one radioactive strand), and all 4 DNA molecules contain at least one radioactive strand. Statements (2) and (3) are correct.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option D. No partial marks.
Question 5 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An active suspension of chloroplasts is kept under constant light in a chamber with a continuous supply of carbon dioxide. The light source is suddenly switched off. Which of the following combinations correctly predicts the immediate changes in the concentrations of glycerate 3-phosphate (GP), ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP), and ATP in the chloroplasts?
  1. A.GP: Increases; RuBP: Decreases; ATP: Decreases
  2. B.GP: Decreases; RuBP: Increases; ATP: Decreases
  3. C.GP: Increases; RuBP: Decreases; ATP: Increases
  4. D.GP: Decreases; RuBP: Increases; ATP: Increases

Answer

A

Worked solution

When the light is switched off: 1. The light-dependent reactions stop, so ATP and NADPH production ceases, and their concentrations decrease. 2. In the Calvin cycle, the reduction of GP to triose phosphate requires ATP and NADPH. Since these are depleted, GP cannot be reduced and therefore accumulates, leading to an increase in GP concentration. 3. The regeneration of RuBP from triose phosphate also requires ATP. Because regeneration stops but RuBP continues to combine with available CO2 to form GP (which does not directly require light), the concentration of RuBP decreases rapidly.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option A. No partial marks.
Question 6 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The concentration of a non-biodegradable persistent organic pollutant (POP) in the tissues of four different organisms in a coastal marine ecosystem are as follows: Organism P: 0.05 ppm, Organism Q: 25.40 ppm, Organism R: 1.80 ppm, Organism S: 0.45 ppm. Based on this, which of the following represents the most likely food chain among these organisms, and what is the key reason for the difference in POP concentrations?
  1. A.Food chain: P -> S -> R -> Q; because the POP is broken down into more toxic and concentrated forms at higher trophic levels.
  2. B.Food chain: P -> S -> R -> Q; because the POP is non-biodegradable and accumulates in tissues, magnifying up the food chain.
  3. C.Food chain: Q -> R -> S -> P; because organisms at lower trophic levels require higher metabolic rates to excrete the POP.
  4. D.Food chain: Q -> R -> S -> P; because the POP is highly soluble in water and is lost more easily by top predators.

Answer

B

Worked solution

Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) undergo biomagnification. Because they are non-biodegradable and insoluble in water (but highly fat-soluble), they cannot be easily excreted. Organisms at higher trophic levels must consume large amounts of biomass from lower trophic levels to obtain energy, accumulating and concentrating the POP in their tissues. Thus, the concentration increases up the food chain. Based on the concentration: P (0.05) -> S (0.45) -> R (1.80) -> Q (25.40). Option B is correct.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option B. No partial marks.
Question 7 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The graph below represents the changes in air pressure within the alveoli relative to atmospheric pressure during a normal breathing cycle of a healthy human: - From t = 0 to t = 2 seconds, the alveolar pressure drops below atmospheric pressure and then returns to baseline. - From t = 2 to t = 4 seconds, the alveolar pressure rises above atmospheric pressure and then returns to baseline. Which of the following events occurs during the period from t = 0 to t = 2 seconds?
  1. A.The diaphragm muscle relaxes and becomes dome-shaped, decreasing thoracic volume.
  2. B.The external intercostal muscles contract, pulling the ribcage upwards and outwards.
  3. C.The internal intercostal muscles contract, pulling the ribcage downwards and inwards.
  4. D.Air flows out of the lungs because the alveolar pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure.

Answer

B

Worked solution

Between t = 0 and t = 2 seconds, alveolar pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure, which drives air into the lungs (inhalation). Inhalation is an active process. It is brought about by: 1. The contraction of external intercostal muscles, which pulls the ribcage upwards and outwards. 2. The contraction of the diaphragm muscle, which flattens the diaphragm. These movements increase the volume of the thoracic cavity, lowering the pressure inside the lungs below atmospheric pressure, causing air to flow in.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option B. No partial marks.
Question 8 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A segment of a DNA template strand has the sequence: 3'- T A C G G T C A T T C A A C T -5'. Using the codon table provided (GUA codes for Valine, GAA codes for Glutamic acid, CCA codes for Proline, AGU codes for Serine), if a mutation occurs in the DNA where the 8th base from the 3' end (adenine) is replaced by thymine, what is the effect of this mutation on the resulting polypeptide?
  1. A.The polypeptide chain will be terminated prematurely because a stop codon is introduced.
  2. B.One amino acid in the polypeptide chain will be changed from valine to glutamic acid.
  3. C.The amino acid sequence of the polypeptide chain will remain unchanged due to degeneracy of the genetic code.
  4. D.A frameshift mutation will occur, changing all amino acids after the mutation site.

Answer

B

Worked solution

1. Transcribe the original template DNA sequence into mRNA: Template: 3'- T A C (1-3) G G T (4-6) C A T (7-9) T C A (10-12) A C T (13-15) -5'. mRNA: 5'- A U G (1-3) C C A (4-6) G U A (7-9) A G U (10-12) U G A (13-15) -3'. Codon 3 is GUA (Valine). 2. With the mutation, the 8th base from the 3' end of the template (which is A) is replaced by T. Mutated template: 3'- T A C G G T C T T T C A A C T -5'. 3. Transcribe the mutated template: Mutated mRNA: 5'- A U G C C A G A A A G U U G A -3'. Mutated codon 3 is GAA (Glutamic acid). Therefore, the amino acid valine in the original polypeptide is replaced by glutamic acid. This is a missense mutation.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option B. No partial marks.
Question 9 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A person is given two injections of Antigen X: the primary injection at day 0 and a booster injection at day 28. Which of the following statements correctly explains the differences between the primary and secondary immune responses observed? (1) The secondary response is faster because memory B cells already exist to rapidly proliferate and differentiate into antibody-secreting plasma cells. (2) The secondary response is stronger and longer-lasting, maintaining high antibody levels for a more extended period. (3) Killer T cells are the primary cells responsible for secreting the antibodies in both responses.
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(1) and (2) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

B

Worked solution

- Statement (1) is correct: The presence of memory B cells from the primary response allows for rapid recognition of the antigen during the secondary response, leading to immediate clonal expansion and differentiation into plasma cells. - Statement (2) is correct: The secondary response produces a significantly higher peak concentration of antibodies, and these antibodies persist in the bloodstream for a much longer time to clear the antigen. - Statement (3) is incorrect: Plasma cells (which are differentiated B-lymphocytes), not T-lymphocytes (like killer T cells), are responsible for producing and secreting antibodies.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option B. No partial marks.
Question 10 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following rows correctly compares the anaerobic respiration occurring in human skeletal muscle cells and in yeast cells?
  1. A.Human muscle cells: Carbon dioxide is produced; Yeast cells: Carbon dioxide is not produced
  2. B.Human muscle cells: Net ATP yield is 36 ATP per glucose; Yeast cells: Net ATP yield is 2 ATP per glucose
  3. C.Human muscle cells: The final organic product is lactic acid; Yeast cells: The final organic product is ethanol
  4. D.Human muscle cells: Occurs entirely in the mitochondria; Yeast cells: Occurs entirely in the cytoplasm

Answer

C

Worked solution

- Option A is incorrect: Human muscle cells perform lactic acid fermentation, which does not release carbon dioxide, whereas yeast cells perform ethanol fermentation, which releases carbon dioxide. - Option B is incorrect: The net ATP yield of anaerobic respiration for both human muscle cells and yeast is only 2 ATP per molecule of glucose (produced during glycolysis). - Option C is correct: The end product of lactic acid fermentation in muscle is lactic acid (lactate), while the end products of fermentation in yeast are ethanol and carbon dioxide. - Option D is incorrect: Anaerobic respiration (including glycolysis and fermentation steps) occurs entirely within the cytoplasm (cytosol) for both types of cells; it does not involve the mitochondria.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option C. No partial marks.
Question 11 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An investigation was carried out to study the effect of different environmental factors on the rate of water uptake of a leafy shoot. Which of the following combinations of environmental conditions would lead to the highest rate of transpiration?

(1) High light intensity
(2) High relative humidity
(3) Increased air movement
(4) Elevated ambient temperature
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1), (3) and (4) only
  3. C.(2), (3) and (4) only
  4. D.(1), (2), (3) and (4)

Answer

B

Worked solution

High light intensity causes stomata to open wider. Increased air movement removes water vapour near the stomata, maintaining a steep water vapour concentration gradient. Elevated ambient temperature increases the rate of evaporation of water. High relative humidity, however, decreases the concentration gradient of water vapour between the leaf interior and the atmosphere, thereby decreasing the transpiration rate. Thus, (1), (3), and (4) promote transpiration.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option B. No mark is given for other options.
Question 12 · multiple-choice
1 marks
In a photosynthesis experiment, a plant was supplied with carbon dioxide containing heavy oxygen isotope \(^{18}\text{O}\) and water containing normal oxygen \(^{16}\text{O}\). Which of the following substances produced by the plant during photosynthesis will contain \(^{18}\text{O}\)?

(1) Oxygen gas released
(2) Triose phosphate
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(2) only
  3. C.Both (1) and (2)
  4. D.Neither (1) nor (2)

Answer

B

Worked solution

During photosynthesis, the oxygen gas released originates entirely from the photolysis of water. Since the water provided contains normal oxygen (\(^{16}\text{O}\)), the released oxygen gas will not contain \(^{18}\text{O}\). On the other hand, carbon dioxide is fixed during the light-independent reaction to produce triose phosphate (and subsequently sugars/starch), meaning the carbon dioxide's oxygen (\(^{18}\text{O}\)) will be incorporated into triose phosphate.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option B. No mark is given for other options.
Question 13 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following are the immediate consequences of discharging domestic sewage rich in organic matter into a natural river?

(1) Rapid multiplication of aerobic decomposers
(2) Increase in dissolved oxygen (DO) levels
(3) Decrease in biological oxygen demand (BOD)
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(3) only
  3. C.(1) and (2) only
  4. D.(2) and (3) only

Answer

A

Worked solution

When domestic sewage rich in organic matter is discharged, aerobic decomposers (bacteria) multiply rapidly as they feed on the organic matter. This microbial activity consumes dissolved oxygen rapidly, leading to a decrease (not increase) in dissolved oxygen (DO) levels. At the same time, the biological oxygen demand (BOD) increases significantly because of the high organic load and high bacterial activity. Therefore, only (1) is correct.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option A. No mark is given for other options.
Question 14 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A synthetic pesticide, which is non-biodegradable and fat-soluble, was washed into a lake. Over time, the pesticide accumulated in the lake's food chain: Phytoplankton -> Herbivorous fish -> Carnivorous fish -> Fish-eating birds. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The concentration of pesticide is highest in the fish-eating birds due to biomagnification.
(2) The pesticide accumulates primarily in the fatty tissues of the organisms.
(3) The total biomass of the fish-eating birds in the lake is greater than that of the phytoplankton.
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(1) and (2) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

B

Worked solution

Since the pesticide is non-biodegradable, it cannot be broken down, and because it is fat-soluble, it accumulates in the fatty tissues of organisms (statement 2 is correct). As energy is lost at each trophic level, consumers must ingest a large amount of biomass from the lower trophic level, causing the toxin concentration to increase up the food chain (biomagnification), meaning fish-eating birds will have the highest concentration (statement 1 is correct). However, due to energy loss, the total biomass must decrease at higher trophic levels, so the biomass of fish-eating birds is much lower than that of phytoplankton (statement 3 is incorrect).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option B. No mark is given for other options.
Question 15 · multiple-choice
1 marks
If a patient has a major part of their ileum surgically removed due to a disease, which of the following functions of the digestive system would be most severely impaired?

(1) Secretion of digestive enzymes
(2) Absorption of digested nutrients
(3) Reabsorption of water
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(2) only
  3. C.(1) and (3) only
  4. D.(2) and (3) only

Answer

D

Worked solution

The ileum is the primary site for the absorption of digested food nutrients (such as glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, and glycerol) and also plays a major role in absorbing water from the alimentary canal. Removing the ileum will severely impair nutrient and water absorption (statements 2 and 3 are correct). However, most digestive enzymes in the small intestine are secreted by the pancreas (pancreatic juice), and the ileum itself does not secrete major digestive enzymes into the lumen (enzymes are mainly bound to the microvillar membranes), so enzyme secretion is not the primary function lost (statement 1 is incorrect).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option D. No mark is given for other options.
Question 16 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A healthy person had a meal rich in proteins and carbohydrates. Two hours later, blood samples were collected from the hepatic portal vein and the hepatic vein. Which of the following comparisons between the two blood vessels is/are correct?

(1) The glucose concentration in the hepatic portal vein is higher than that in the hepatic vein.
(2) The amino acid concentration in the hepatic portal vein is higher than that in the hepatic vein.
(3) The urea concentration in the hepatic vein is higher than that in the hepatic portal vein.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

D

Worked solution

Two hours after a meal, digestion and absorption are highly active. Glucose and amino acids absorbed from the small intestine enter the hepatic portal vein, making their concentrations higher than in the hepatic vein (statements 1 and 2 are correct), as the liver regulates blood glucose by storing excess as glycogen and uses/deaminates excess amino acids. Since the liver is the site of deamination where excess amino acids are broken down into urea, the blood leaving the liver via the hepatic vein contains a higher concentration of urea than the blood entering it (statement 3 is correct).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option D. No mark is given for other options.
Question 17 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A section of double-stranded DNA has the following sequence for the template strand:

`3'- T A C G G C T T A -5'`

What is the base sequence of the mRNA transcribed from this template strand?
  1. A.`5'- A U G C C G A A U -3'`
  2. B.`5'- U A C G G C U U A -3'`
  3. C.`5'- U A G G C C G U A -3'`
  4. D.`5'- A U C C G G U U A -3'`

Answer

A

Worked solution

During transcription, RNA polymerase reads the template DNA strand in the 3' to 5' direction to synthesize the mRNA strand in the 5' to 3' direction. The bases on mRNA are complementary to those on the template DNA strand, with Adenine (A) pairing with Uracil (U) instead of Thymine (T). Thus:
- 3'-T pairs with 5'-A
- A pairs with U
- C pairs with G
- G pairs with C
- G pairs with C
- C pairs with G
- T pairs with A
- T pairs with A
- 5'-A pairs with 3'-U
This gives `5'- A U G C C G A A U -3'`.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option A. No mark is given for other options.
Question 18 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A single nucleotide substitution occurred in a gene coding for a functional polypeptide. This mutation resulted in a polypeptide that was significantly shorter than the original one. Which of the following codon changes in the mRNA is most likely responsible for this mutation?
  1. A.A codon for lysine (`5'-AAG-3'`) mutated to a codon for arginine (`5'-AGG-3'`).
  2. B.A codon for glutamic acid (`5'-GAG-3'`) mutated to a stop codon (`5'-UAG-3'`).
  3. C.A codon for leucine (`5'-UUG-3'`) mutated to a codon for phenylalanine (`5'-UUU-3'`).
  4. D.A codon for glycine (`5'-GGA-3'`) mutated to a codon for alanine (`5'-GCA-3'`).

Answer

B

Worked solution

A mutation that changes an amino acid codon to a stop codon (nonsense mutation) causes translation to terminate prematurely, resulting in a significantly truncated (shorter) polypeptide. Options A, C, and D are missense mutations that only change a single amino acid in the polypeptide without affecting its length.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option B. No mark is given for other options.
Question 19 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following statements about the transport of organic substances in the phloem of a plant is/are correct?

(1) Sucrose is actively loaded into the sieve tubes at the source.
(2) Water enters the sieve tubes from the xylem by osmosis near the source, increasing the hydrostatic pressure.
(3) The transport of organic substances in the phloem can only occur in a downward direction.
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(1) and (2) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

B

Worked solution

At the source (e.g., photosynthesizing leaves), sucrose is actively loaded into the sieve tubes (statement 1 is correct). This lowers the water potential inside the sieve tubes, causing water to enter from the adjacent xylem by osmosis. The influx of water increases the hydrostatic pressure at the source, driving the bulk flow of sap toward the sink (statement 2 is correct). The transport of organic substances in phloem (translocation) can occur both upward (e.g., to flowers, fruits, or young leaves) and downward (e.g., to roots), depending on the location of sources and sinks (statement 3 is incorrect).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option B. No mark is given for other options.
Question 20 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following human activities contribute to the increase of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere?

(1) Clearing forests for agricultural land
(2) Extensive use of nitrogen-based chemical fertilizers
(3) Combustion of coal in power stations
  1. A.(1) and (3) only
  2. B.(1) and (2) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

D

Worked solution

Clearing forests (deforestation) releases stored carbon as carbon dioxide (\(\text{CO}_2\)) when trees are burned or decomposed, and also reduces carbon dioxide uptake via photosynthesis (statement 1 is correct). Extensive use of nitrogen-based chemical fertilizers leads to the release of nitrous oxide (\(\text{N}_2\text{O}\)) by soil microbes, which is a potent greenhouse gas (statement 2 is correct). Combustion of coal in power stations directly releases large amounts of carbon dioxide (statement 3 is correct). Thus, all three activities contribute to the increase of greenhouse gases.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option D. No mark is given for other options.
Question 21 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Under which of the following conditions would the rate of water absorption of a leafy shoot be significantly lower than its rate of transpiration?
  1. A.Moving the shoot from a dark and humid room to a bright and windy room.
  2. B.Moving the shoot from a bright and windy room to a dark and humid room.
  3. C.Placing the shoot in a constant, highly humid environment for several hours.
  4. D.Smearing petroleum jelly on both surfaces of all the leaves of the shoot.

Answer

A

Worked solution

When a shoot is moved from a dark and humid environment to a bright and windy environment, stomata open rapidly and the concentration gradient of water vapor between the leaf and air increases greatly, leading to a sudden surge in transpiration. However, the cohesive force and tension take time to develop in the xylem vessels, so the increase in water absorption lags behind transpiration. Thus, during this transition, the rate of water absorption is significantly lower than the transpiration rate.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option (A). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 22 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The following table shows the rate of carbon dioxide uptake of a plant under different environmental conditions:\n\n| Condition | Light intensity (units) | Temperature (\(^{\circ}\text{C}\)) | \(\text{CO}_2\) concentration (%) | Rate of \(\text{CO}_2\) uptake (arbitrary units) |\n|---|---|---|---|---|\n| 1 | 100 | 20 | 0.03 | 15 |\n| 2 | 100 | 20 | 0.12 | 15 |\n| 3 | 500 | 20 | 0.03 | 30 |\n| 4 | 500 | 20 | 0.12 | 45 |\n| 5 | 500 | 30 | 0.12 | 65 |\n\nWhich of the following statements is correct?
  1. A.In Condition 1, the limiting factor is carbon dioxide concentration.
  2. B.In Condition 2, the limiting factor is temperature.
  3. C.In Condition 3, the limiting factor is carbon dioxide concentration.
  4. D.In Condition 4, the limiting factor is light intensity.

Answer

C

Worked solution

By comparing Condition 3 and Condition 4, only the \(\text{CO}_2\) concentration is increased (from 0.03% to 0.12%), while light intensity and temperature remain constant. This change leads to an increase in the rate of \(\text{CO}_2\) uptake from 30 to 45. Therefore, in Condition 3, the limiting factor is \(\text{CO}_2\) concentration. (In Condition 1, increasing \(\text{CO}_2\) to 0.12% in Condition 2 does not change the rate, but increasing light to 500 in Condition 3 does, meaning light is the limiting factor in Condition 1).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option (C). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 23 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Organic sewage is discharged into a river. Soon, a large population of aerobic decomposers (bacteria and fungi) develops downstream. Which of the following changes will occur downstream as a direct or indirect result of this decomposer activity?\n(1) The dissolved oxygen level in the river decreases.\n(2) The concentration of inorganic nutrients (such as nitrate) increases.\n(3) The population of algae increases further downstream.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

D

Worked solution

Aerobic decomposers break down the organic matter in sewage through aerobic respiration, consuming dissolved oxygen and causing its levels to decrease (1). During decomposition, organic nitrogenous compounds are broken down into ammonium ions, which are subsequently oxidized by nitrifying bacteria into nitrites and nitrates, increasing inorganic nutrient concentrations (2). Further downstream, as mineral nutrients become rich and the water recovers, algae absorb these nutrients and multiply rapidly, increasing the algal population (3). Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option (D). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 24 · multiple-choice
1 marks
In Hong Kong, trawling has been banned in marine waters since 2012. Which of the following are the primary conservation benefits of this ban?\n(1) It prevents the physical destruction of benthic (seabed) habitats.\n(2) It reduces the non-selective capture of non-target marine species.\n(3) It directly reduces the input of plastic pollutants into the marine environment.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

A

Worked solution

Trawling involves dragging heavily weighted nets along the seabed, which physically destroys delicate benthic habitats like coral reefs and sea grass beds (1 is a primary benefit). Trawling is also highly non-selective, capturing massive amounts of non-target species and juveniles as by-catch (2 is a primary benefit). While fishing activities can generate plastic debris (like lost nets), the ban on trawling is not a direct measure aimed at reducing the input of plastic pollutants into the sea (3 is not a primary benefit). Therefore, only (1) and (2) are correct.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option (A). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 25 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following descriptions about the digestion and absorption of lipids in the human small intestine is correct?
  1. A.Bile salts chemically digest lipids into fatty acids and glycerol.
  2. B.Fatty acids and monoglycerides enter the villus epithelial cells by active transport.
  3. C.Within the villus epithelial cells, fatty acids and monoglycerides are recombined into triglycerides.
  4. D.The packaged lipid droplets (chylomicrons) are absorbed directly into the blood capillaries of the villi.

Answer

C

Worked solution

Bile salts only perform physical digestion (emulsification) to increase the surface area of lipids, not chemical digestion (A is incorrect). Fatty acids and monoglycerides are lipid-soluble and enter the epithelial cells of the villi by simple diffusion, not active transport (B is incorrect). Once inside the epithelial cells, they are recombined into triglycerides in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (C is correct). These triglycerides are then packaged into chylomicrons and released into the lacteals (lymphatic capillaries) rather than directly into the blood capillaries (D is incorrect).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option (C). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 26 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During a normal inhalation in humans, which of the following changes occur?\n(1) The external intercostal muscles and diaphragm muscles contract.\n(2) The volume of the thoracic cavity increases, which increases the pressure inside the lungs.\n(3) Air flows into the lungs because the atmospheric pressure is higher than the intra-alveolar pressure.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

B

Worked solution

During inhalation, the external intercostal muscles and diaphragm muscles contract (1 is correct). This muscle contraction increases the volume of the thoracic cavity and the lungs. An increase in lung volume causes the air pressure inside the lungs (intra-alveolar pressure) to decrease below atmospheric pressure, not increase (2 is incorrect). Since atmospheric pressure is now higher than the intra-alveolar pressure, air flows from the atmosphere into the lungs down the pressure gradient (3 is correct).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option (B). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 27 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following combinations correctly describes the state of the heart valves when the pressure in the left ventricle is higher than the pressure in the left atrium but lower than the pressure in the aorta?
  1. A.Bicuspid valve: Open; Semilunar valve: Open
  2. B.Bicuspid valve: Closed; Semilunar valve: Closed
  3. C.Bicuspid valve: Open; Semilunar valve: Closed
  4. D.Bicuspid valve: Closed; Semilunar valve: Open

Answer

B

Worked solution

When the pressure in the left ventricle exceeds the pressure in the left atrium, it pushes the bicuspid valve closed to prevent the backflow of blood into the atrium. At the same time, because the ventricular pressure is still lower than the pressure in the aorta, it cannot push the semilunar valves open, so they remain closed. This phase corresponds to the isovolumetric ventricular contraction where both valves are closed.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option (B). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 28 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A double-stranded DNA molecule contains 3000 base pairs. If \(22\%\) of the total nitrogenous bases in this DNA molecule are adenine (A), what is the total number of guanine (G) bases in this DNA molecule?
  1. A.660
  2. B.840
  3. C.1320
  4. D.1680

Answer

D

Worked solution

1. The DNA molecule has 3000 base pairs, which means it contains a total of \(3000 \times 2 = 6000\) bases.\n2. Since adenine (A) is \(22\%\), according to Chargaff's rules, thymine (T) is also \(22\%\). Thus, A + T = \(44\%\).\n3. This leaves cytosine (C) and guanine (G) to make up the remaining percentage: C + G = \(100\% - 44\% = 56\%\).\n4. Since G = C, guanine (G) makes up \(56\% / 2 = 28\%\) of the total bases.\n5. The total number of G bases is \(6000 \times 28\% = 1680\).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option (D). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 29 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The following is a section of a template strand of DNA:\n3'- T A C G G C T T A A T C -5'\nWhich of the following tRNA anticodons (written in the 5' to 3' direction) would bind to the mRNA codon transcribed from the third triplet of this template strand?
  1. A.5'-AAU-3'
  2. B.5'-UUA-3'
  3. C.5'-AUU-3'
  4. D.5'-UAA-3'

Answer

C

Worked solution

1. The template DNA strand is read in the 3' to 5' direction. The third triplet is 3'-TTA-5'.\n2. During transcription, complementary base pairing produces the mRNA codon: 5'-AAU-3'.\n3. During translation, the tRNA anticodon binds to the mRNA codon in an antiparallel, complementary manner. The complementary sequence to 5'-AAU-3' is 3'-UUA-5'.\n4. Reading this tRNA anticodon in the 5' to 3' direction yields 5'-AUU-3'.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option (C). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 30 · multiple-choice
1 marks
In a grassland ecosystem, the pyramid of numbers is upright. However, in a forest ecosystem, the pyramid of numbers can sometimes be inverted. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this difference?
  1. A.The primary producers in the forest have a much larger individual body size than those in the grassland.
  2. B.The transfer efficiency of energy from primary producers to primary consumers is much lower in the forest than in the grassland.
  3. C.The rate of photosynthesis per unit area of the forest is lower than that of the grassland.
  4. D.The decomposers in the forest break down organic matter much faster than those in the grassland.

Answer

A

Worked solution

In a forest ecosystem, the primary producers are often very large trees, whereas in a grassland they are tiny grasses. A single massive tree has a huge biomass and can support a very large number of small herbivorous insects (primary consumers). Therefore, fewer individuals are needed at the producer level than at the primary consumer level, leading to an inverted pyramid of numbers. The size of individual organisms, rather than energy transfer efficiency or photosynthetic rates, is the key determinant of the shape of the pyramid of numbers.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option (A). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 31 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An experiment was conducted using four identical leafy shoots to study the effect of environmental factors on the rate of transpiration. The four setups were placed under different conditions:
Setup P: Still air, \(25^\circ\text{C}\)
Setup Q: Still air, \(35^\circ\text{C}\)
Setup R: Moving air, \(25^\circ\text{C}\)
Setup S: Enclosed in a plastic bag, \(25^\circ\text{C}\)

Which of the following comparisons of transpiration rate is/are correct?
(1) P > S because the relative humidity of the air around the leaves in S increases.
(2) Q > P because the kinetic energy of water molecules is higher in Q.
(3) R > P because moving air removes the water vapor boundary layer around the leaves.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

D

Worked solution

All three statements are correct:
(1) In Setup S, enclosing the shoot in a plastic bag traps transpirational water vapor, increasing the relative humidity around the leaf. This reduces the concentration gradient of water vapor between the leaf and the atmosphere, reducing the transpiration rate compared to Setup P (P > S).
(2) In Setup Q, the higher temperature (\(35^\circ\text{C}\) vs \(25^\circ\text{C}\) in P) increases the kinetic energy of water molecules, leading to faster evaporation from the mesophyll cell walls into the air spaces, thus increasing transpiration rate (Q > P).
(3) In Setup R, moving air (wind) sweeps away the water vapor accumulating around the stomata, preventing the formation of a humid boundary layer and maintaining a steep water vapor concentration gradient, thus increasing transpiration rate compared to still air (R > P).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option D. No marks are awarded for incorrect options.
Question 32 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The diagram below shows a food web in a coastal marine ecosystem:
Phytoplankton -> Zooplankton -> Small fish -> Sea birds
Phytoplankton -> Benthic invertebrates -> Large fish -> Sea birds

A persistent organic pollutant (chemical X) that cannot be metabolized or excreted is released into this ecosystem. Which of the following statements is correct?
  1. A.The concentration of chemical X is lowest in sea birds because they have the highest metabolic rate.
  2. B.Phytoplankton has the highest total biomass and therefore contains the highest concentration of chemical X per unit body mass.
  3. C.Large fish have a higher concentration of chemical X than benthic invertebrates because of biomagnification.
  4. D.Chemical X is biodegraded as it passes along the food chain, reducing its toxicity in top predators.

Answer

C

Worked solution

C is correct because chemical X is a persistent organic pollutant that cannot be metabolized or excreted. As it is transferred along the food chain, its concentration increases at each successive trophic level due to biomagnification. Since large fish occupy a higher trophic level than benthic invertebrates, they accumulate a higher concentration of chemical X.
A is incorrect because biomagnification leads to the highest concentration of chemical X in top predators (sea birds).
B is incorrect because although producers have the highest total biomass, they have the lowest concentration of the pollutant per unit body mass as it has not undergone biomagnification.
D is incorrect because persistent organic pollutants are resistant to biodegradation.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option C. No marks are awarded for incorrect options.
Question 33 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The list below describes some major blood vessels connected to the liver and kidneys in the human body:
- Vessel P connects the small intestine to the liver
- Vessel Q connects the liver to the vena cava
- Vessel R connects the aorta to the kidney
- Vessel S connects the kidney to the vena cava

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) Two hours after a protein-rich meal, the concentration of amino acids in P is higher than that in Q.
(2) The concentration of urea in Q is higher than that in S.
(3) The concentration of oxygen in S is higher than that in R.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

A

Worked solution

(1) is correct: Vessel P is the hepatic portal vein and Vessel Q is the hepatic vein. Two hours after a protein-rich meal, amino acids are actively absorbed from the small intestine into the hepatic portal vein (P). As blood passes through the liver, excess amino acids are deaminated or utilized, so the concentration of amino acids in the hepatic vein (Q) is lower.
(2) is correct: Urea is produced in the liver during deamination, so blood leaving the liver via the hepatic vein (Q) has a high urea concentration. Conversely, urea is filtered out of the blood in the kidneys, so blood leaving the kidneys via the renal vein (S) has a very low urea concentration. Thus, the concentration of urea in Q is higher than in S.
(3) is incorrect: Vessel R is the renal artery (carrying oxygenated blood), while Vessel S is the renal vein (carrying deoxygenated blood). The kidney cells consume oxygen for respiration, so the concentration of oxygen in R is higher than in S.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option A. No marks are awarded for incorrect options.
Question 34 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The table below shows some mRNA codons and the corresponding amino acids they code for:
Codon | Amino Acid
GAC | Aspartic acid (Asp)
CAG | Glutamine (Gln)
GUC | Valine (Val)
CUG | Leucine (Leu)

A segment of a template strand of DNA has the sequence: `3'-CAG-GAC-GTC-CTG-5'`.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of the polypeptide synthesized from this template DNA?
  1. A.Val - Leu - Gln - Asp
  2. B.Asp - Gln - Val - Leu
  3. C.Leu - Val - Asp - Gln
  4. D.Gln - Asp - Val - Leu

Answer

A

Worked solution

The template strand is written in the 3' to 5' direction: `3'-CAG-GAC-GTC-CTG-5'`.
The complementary mRNA strand is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction using complementary base-pairing (A-U, T-A, C-G, G-C):
`5'-GUC-CUG-CAG-GAC-3'`
Now we read the codons from 5' to 3':
- 1st codon: `GUC` -> Valine (Val)
- 2nd codon: `CUG` -> Leucine (Leu)
- 3rd codon: `CAG` -> Glutamine (Gln)
- 4th codon: `GAC` -> Aspartic acid (Asp)
Thus, the correct polypeptide sequence is Val - Leu - Gln - Asp.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option A. No marks are awarded for incorrect options.
Question 35 · multiple-choice
1 marks
To study the transport of substances in plants, radioactive carbon dioxide (\(^{14}\text{CO}_2\)) was supplied to a single leaf in the middle of a herbaceous plant stem. After several hours, the distribution of radioactivity in the plant was analyzed. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) Radioactive organic substances can be detected in both the roots and the young growing shoot tips.
(2) If a ring of bark (containing phloem) is removed from the stem just below the supplied leaf, no radioactivity will be detected in the roots.
(3) The translocation of these radioactive organic substances requires metabolic energy (ATP).
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

D

Worked solution

- (1) is correct: The supplied leaf acts as a 'source' of photosynthates. The radioactive sucrose synthesized during photosynthesis is translocated via the phloem to various 'sinks', which include both downward sinks (roots) and upward sinks (growing shoot tips and young leaves).
- (2) is correct: Organic nutrients are transported through the phloem. Removing a ring of bark (which includes the phloem) below the supplied leaf blocks the pathway for downward translocation, so no radioactivity can reach the roots.
- (3) is correct: Phloem translocation relies on active loading of sucrose into sieve tubes at the source, which requires metabolic energy (ATP) provided by companion cells.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option D. No marks are awarded for incorrect options.
Question 36 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following human activities contributes to global warming by both increasing the source of greenhouse gases and reducing their sink?
  1. A.Burning fossil fuels in power plants
  2. B.Large-scale deforestation of tropical rainforests
  3. C.Intensive use of chemical nitrogen fertilizers in agriculture
  4. D.Throwing food and organic waste into landfills

Answer

B

Worked solution

B is correct because:
1. Cutting down and burning or allowing forest vegetation to decay releases large amounts of carbon dioxide (\(\text{CO}_2\)) into the atmosphere, which increases the source of greenhouse gases.
2. Deforestation removes trees, which are major carbon sinks that absorb \(\text{CO}_2\) from the atmosphere via photosynthesis. Thus, it reduces the sink of greenhouse gases.

A, C, and D are incorrect because they increase the sources of greenhouse gases (carbon dioxide from fossil fuels, nitrous oxide from fertilizers, and methane from landfills, respectively) but do not directly reduce greenhouse gas sinks.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option B. No marks are awarded for incorrect options.

Paper 1 Section B

Answer all conventional questions in the spaces provided. One essay question is included.
11 Question · 85 marks
Question 1 · structured-short
7 marks
A student sets up a flask potometer to study the rate of water uptake by a leafy shoot.

(a) Explain why a layer of oil is added on top of the water in the flask. (2 marks)

(b) The student compares the rate of water uptake under still air and moving air (using a fan). Describe and explain the difference in the rate of water uptake. (3 marks)

(c) Suggest why the rate of water uptake measured by the potometer might not exactly equal the rate of transpiration. (2 marks)

Answer

(a) Prevents direct water evaporation from the flask surface. (b) Moving air increases water uptake rate as it sweeps away accumulated water vapor around leaves, maintaining a steeper concentration gradient. (c) Some absorbed water is used in photosynthesis or to maintain turgidity.

Worked solution

(a) The layer of oil prevents the direct evaporation of water from the surface of the flask, ensuring that any water loss measured is solely due to absorption by the plant shoot.

(b) The rate of water uptake is higher in moving air than in still air. Moving air sweeps away the water vapor accumulating around the leaves. This maintains a steeper water vapor concentration gradient between the leaf interior and the atmosphere, increasing the rate of transpiration and thus water uptake.

(c) The potometer measures water uptake rather than transpiration. Some of the water taken up is used in photosynthesis or metabolic processes, and some is used to maintain cell turgidity.

Marking scheme

(a) Prevents direct evaporation of water from flask surface (1); ensuring measured water loss is only due to plant absorption/transpiration (1).
(b) Higher water uptake in moving air (1); air movement sweeps away water vapor from leaf surface (1); maintains a steeper water vapor concentration gradient (1).
(c) Some water is used in photosynthesis/metabolism (1); some water is used to maintain cell turgidity/cell growth (1).
Question 2 · structured-short
7 marks
An agricultural runoff containing synthetic fertilizers entered a nearby river.

(a) Describe the immediate change in algal population in the river, and explain why this occurs. (2 marks)

(b) Explain how the rapid growth of algae eventually leads to a depletion of dissolved oxygen in the water. (3 marks)

(c) Apart from the death of aquatic organisms, suggest one negative ecological consequence of this phenomenon. (2 marks)

Answer

(a) Algal population increases rapidly due to abundance of mineral nutrients (nitrates and phosphates). (b) Submerged plants die due to light blockage, then aerobic decomposers multiply and consume oxygen during respiration. (c) Biodiversity decline and food web disruptions.

Worked solution

(a) The algal population increases rapidly, causing an algal bloom. This is because fertilizers contain high levels of nitrates and phosphates, which act as nutrients that promote rapid cell division and growth of algae.

(b) The thick layer of algae blocks sunlight from reaching submerged aquatic plants, preventing photosynthesis and causing them to die. When the algae and plants die, aerobic decomposers (bacteria) multiply rapidly to decompose the dead organic matter. These decomposers consume large amounts of dissolved oxygen during aerobic respiration.

(c) It can lead to a severe decline in biodiversity as sensitive species disappear, and it can disrupt food chains/webs as certain species lose their natural food sources or habitats.

Marking scheme

(a) Rapid increase / algal bloom occurs (1); due to abundance of nitrates/phosphates as nutrients promoting growth (1).
(b) Algae block light, causing submerged plants to die (1); dead organic matter is decomposed by aerobic bacteria/decomposers (1); decomposers consume oxygen during aerobic respiration (1).
(c) Loss of biodiversity (1); disruption of food chains/webs (1); potential release of algal toxins (1) [Any two, max 2 marks].
Question 3 · structured-short
8 marks
The human digestive system is adapted for efficient lipid digestion and absorption.

(a) Contrast the physical state of lipids before and after emulsification by bile salts, and explain how this aids chemical digestion. (3 marks)

(b) Describe how the products of lipid digestion are absorbed across the epithelial cells of the villi and transported away. (3 marks)

(c) State one structural feature of the lacteal that facilitates this transport. (2 marks)

Answer

(a) Large fat droplets are broken into tiny lipid droplets, increasing the surface area for lipase action. (b) Fatty acids and glycerol diffuse into epithelial cells, recombine into lipids/chylomicrons, and enter lacteals. (c) Highly permeable wall with large pores between endothelial cells.

Worked solution

(a) Before emulsification, lipids exist as large fat droplets, which have a small surface-area-to-volume ratio. After emulsification by bile salts, they are broken down into numerous tiny lipid droplets. This physical breakdown greatly increases the surface area of lipids available for lipase to act on, speeding up chemical digestion.

(b) Fatty acids and glycerol, being lipid-soluble, diffuse directly across the phospholipid bilayer of the microvilli into the epithelial cells. Inside these cells, they are recombined into triglycerides (lipids) and packaged into chylomicrons. They then leave the cells by exocytosis and enter the lacteals to be transported via the lymphatic system.

(c) The lacteal wall is highly permeable because its endothelial cells have larger intercellular gaps (pores) compared to blood capillaries. This allows the relatively large chylomicrons to enter the lymphatic vessel easily.

Marking scheme

(a) Large fat droplets (before) vs tiny fat droplets (after) (1); increase in surface area (1); speeds up chemical digestion by lipase (1).
(b) Fatty acids and glycerol enter epithelial cells by diffusion (1); recombine into lipids/lipoproteins/chylomicrons inside cells (1); enter lacteals for lymphatic transport (1).
(c) Highly permeable wall / thin wall (1); presence of large pores/gaps between cells to allow large molecules to pass (1).
Question 4 · structured-short
7 marks
The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is widely used in biotechnology to amplify specific DNA sequences.

(a) State the role of primers in PCR and explain why two different primers are required. (3 marks)

(b) Why is a thermostable DNA polymerase (like Taq polymerase) used instead of human DNA polymerase? (2 marks)

(c) After 3 cycles of PCR starting with a single double-stranded DNA molecule, how many copies of the target double-stranded DNA sequence are theoretically produced? Show your calculation. (2 marks)

Answer

(a) Primers provide starting points for DNA polymerase. Two different primers are needed because the two DNA template strands are antiparallel and have different sequences. (b) Thermostable polymerase does not denature at the high denaturation temperature (95°C). (c) \(2^3 = 8\) molecules.

Worked solution

(a) Primers are short single-stranded DNA sequences that bind to the target DNA. They provide a free 3'-OH end, acting as starting points for DNA polymerase to bind and begin synthesizing the complementary DNA strands. Two different primers are required because the two separated DNA template strands are antiparallel (running in opposite directions) and have different, complementary base sequences at their respective 3' ends.

(b) The first step of each PCR cycle involves heating the mixture to around 95°C (denaturation) to separate the double-stranded DNA. Human DNA polymerase would denature and lose its activity at this temperature, whereas thermostable DNA polymerase (e.g., Taq polymerase) is stable and remains functional at high temperatures.

(c) In PCR, the number of DNA molecules doubles in each cycle. The formula is \(2^n\), where \(n\) is the number of cycles.
With 1 template molecule and 3 cycles:
Number of copies = \(2^3 = 8\) molecules.

Marking scheme

(a) Provide starting points for DNA polymerase / allow binding of polymerase (1); two different primers are needed because template strands are antiparallel (1); and have different base sequences at their 3' ends (1).
(b) Denaturation step requires high temperatures (~95°C) (1); human polymerase would denature/lose function while Taq polymerase is heat-resistant and remains stable (1).
(c) Formula/working: \(2^3\) (1); Correct answer: 8 copies (1).
Question 5 · structured-short
8 marks
Photosynthesis consists of the light-dependent reactions and the Calvin cycle.

(a) Explain how light energy absorbed by chlorophyll is converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH. (3 marks)

(b) Describe how the products of the light-dependent stage are utilized in the Calvin cycle to form triose phosphate (3C sugar). (3 marks)

(c) If a plant is kept in darkness, why does the concentration of ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP, 5C) rapidly decrease? (2 marks)

Answer

(a) Light excites electrons in chlorophyll, which pass along carriers to generate ATP, and are accepted along with H+ by NADP+ to form NADPH. (b) ATP and NADPH are used to reduce GP (formed from CO2 and RuBP) into triose phosphate. (c) RuBP regeneration stops due to lack of ATP/NADPH, while existing RuBP is still consumed by combining with CO2.

Worked solution

(a) Light energy absorbed by chlorophyll excites electrons to a higher energy level. These high-energy electrons are emitted and passed along a series of electron carriers. The energy released during this electron transport is used to synthesize ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. At the end of the pathway, the electrons and hydrogen ions (from photolysis of water) are accepted by NADP+ to form NADPH.

(b) In the carbon-fixing stage (Calvin cycle), carbon dioxide combines with RuBP to form unstable 6C compounds, which split into glycerate 3-phosphate (GP). ATP and NADPH produced in the light-dependent stage are then used: ATP provides energy and NADPH provides reducing power / hydrogen atoms to reduce GP into triose phosphate (3C sugar).

(c) In darkness, the light-dependent stage ceases, meaning no ATP and NADPH are produced. Without ATP and NADPH, GP cannot be reduced to triose phosphate, and RuBP cannot be regenerated. However, the existing RuBP continues to combine with carbon dioxide to form GP, leading to a rapid decline in RuBP concentration.

Marking scheme

(a) Light energy excites electrons in chlorophyll which are passed along electron carriers (1); energy released is used to synthesize ATP (1); electrons and hydrogen ions are accepted by NADP+ to form NADPH (1).
(b) Carbon dioxide combines with RuBP to form GP (1); ATP provides energy and NADPH provides reducing power / hydrogen (1); to reduce GP to triose phosphate (1).
(c) No ATP and NADPH are produced in darkness (1); RuBP regeneration stops, but existing RuBP continues to combine with CO2, depleting its concentration (1).
Question 6 · structured-short
7 marks
Microplastics are tiny plastic particles that pollute marine environments.

(a) Define "bioaccumulation" and explain how microplastics accumulate in higher trophic levels of a marine food web. (3 marks)

(b) Distinguish between bioaccumulation and biomagnification. (2 marks)

(c) State two measures humans can take to reduce the impact of plastic pollution in the oceans. (2 marks)

Answer

(a) Bioaccumulation is the build-up of toxins/substances in an organism. Non-biodegradable microplastics are ingested and transferred up the food chain as predators consume multiple prey. (b) Bioaccumulation is within one organism over time, while biomagnification occurs across trophic levels. (c) Banning single-use plastics and improving microplastic filtration in wastewater plants.

Worked solution

(a) Bioaccumulation is the process by which substances (like microplastics or toxins) accumulate in the tissue of an organism over time. When lower-trophic-level organisms ingest microplastics, the particles cannot be digested or excreted, so they remain inside the body. When predators eat many of these prey, the microplastics are transferred and accumulated in much larger quantities at higher trophic levels.

(b) Bioaccumulation refers to the increase in concentration of a substance in a single organism's body over its lifespan. Biomagnification refers to the progressive increase in the concentration of a substance in organisms at successively higher trophic levels along a food chain.

(c) Humans can reduce plastic pollution by: 1. Implementing policies to ban or reduce single-use plastic items, and 2. Improving filtration technologies in municipal wastewater treatment plants to trap microplastics before they reach aquatic environments.

Marking scheme

(a) Definition of bioaccumulation as accumulation of substance/toxin in an organism (1); microplastics are non-biodegradable/cannot be excreted (1); transferred up the food chain as predators consume many prey individuals (1).
(b) Bioaccumulation is within a single organism/over time (1); biomagnification is across different trophic levels/along a food chain (1).
(c) Reduce/ban single-use plastics (1); improve wastewater treatment filtration (1); promote plastic recycling (1) [Any two, max 2 marks].
Question 7 · structured-short
8 marks
The human respiratory and circulatory systems are structurally adapted for efficient oxygen transport.

(a) Explain how the structure of an alveolus is adapted to maximize the rate of oxygen diffusion into the blood. (4 marks)

(b) Red blood cells (RBCs) lack a nucleus and mitochondria. Explain how each of these structural features is an adaptation for oxygen transport. (4 marks)

Answer

(a) One-cell-thick wall reduces diffusion distance; capillary network maintains concentration gradient; moist surface dissolves oxygen; millions of alveoli increase surface area. (b) No nucleus allows more space for hemoglobin. No mitochondria prevents consumption of oxygen by RBC.

Worked solution

(a) The structural adaptations of an alveolus include:
1. It has a wall that is only one-cell-thick, which greatly minimizes the diffusion distance for oxygen.
2. It is surrounded by a dense network of capillaries with flowing blood, which maintains a steep oxygen concentration gradient.
3. The inner surface is covered with a thin layer of moisture, allowing oxygen to dissolve before diffusing across the membrane.
4. There are millions of alveoli in the lungs, providing a very large surface area to increase the overall rate of diffusion.

(b) 1. Lack of a nucleus: This provides more internal space inside the cell to accommodate more hemoglobin molecules. As a result, each red blood cell can bind and carry a larger amount of oxygen.
2. Lack of mitochondria: This ensures that the red blood cell does not consume the oxygen it is transporting. Without mitochondria, the cell respires anaerobically, leaving all transported oxygen to be delivered to the body tissues.

Marking scheme

(a) Wall is one-cell-thick / shortens diffusion distance (1); dense capillary network / maintains steep concentration gradient (1); moist inner surface / dissolves oxygen (1); numerous alveoli / large surface area (1).
(b) Lack of nucleus: provides more space (1); to pack more hemoglobin / increase oxygen-carrying capacity (1); Lack of mitochondria: prevents RBC from using oxygen (1); via aerobic respiration / leaves all oxygen for tissue delivery (1).
Question 8 · structured-short
7 marks
A point mutation occurs in a protein-coding gene, changing a codon from UGG (coding for Tryptophan) to UGA (a stop codon).

(a) Name this type of mutation and describe its direct effect on translation. (3 marks)

(b) Explain how this mutation affects the final protein's structure and function. (3 marks)

(c) Suggest why some mutations do not change the amino acid sequence of a protein. (1 mark)

Answer

(a) Nonsense mutation. It causes premature termination of translation, resulting in a truncated polypeptide chain. (b) The truncated protein lacks key domains, folds abnormally, and loses its function. (c) The genetic code is degenerate.

Worked solution

(a) This is a nonsense mutation (a type of substitution mutation). It introduces a premature stop codon, which causes the ribosome to stop translation earlier than normal. As a result, a truncated (shorter-than-normal) polypeptide chain is synthesized.

(b) The truncated polypeptide lacks many amino acids, including those needed for proper folding and active site formation. Therefore, it cannot fold into its correct three-dimensional conformation. This leads to a loss of the protein's biological function or activity.

(c) The genetic code is degenerate (redundant), which means that several different codons can code for the same amino acid. A mutation that changes a codon to another codon representing the same amino acid (silent mutation) will not affect the amino acid sequence.

Marking scheme

(a) Nonsense mutation / substitution mutation (1); premature termination of translation (1); produces a truncated/shorter polypeptide (1).
(b) Lacks essential amino acids / functional domains (1); incorrect folding into 3D structure (1); loss of biological function/activity (1).
(c) Genetic code is degenerate / different codons can code for the same amino acid (1).
Question 9 · structured-short
7 marks
Stomata regulate gas exchange and water loss in plants.

(a) Describe the mechanism of stomatal opening in response to light, in terms of solute concentration and water potential of guard cells. (4 marks)

(b) Why do stomata close during a severe drought, even if there is bright sunlight? Explain the adaptive significance of this response. (3 marks)

Answer

(a) In light, potassium ions enter guard cells, increasing solute concentration and lowering water potential. Water enters by osmosis, making them turgid and curving outwards to open. (b) Drought triggers abscisic acid, causing potassium ions to exit and stomata to close. This prevents excessive water loss to avoid wilting.

Worked solution

(a) In response to light, potassium ions (\(K^+\)) are actively transported from surrounding epidermal cells into the guard cells. This increases the solute concentration inside the guard cells, lowering their water potential. Consequently, water enters the guard cells by osmosis. The guard cells swell and become turgid; because their inner walls (facing the pore) are thicker and less elastic than their outer walls, the guard cells bend outward, opening the stomatal pore.

(b) During a severe drought, the plant experiences water stress and produces a plant hormone, abscisic acid (ABA). ABA triggers potassium ions to rapidly leave the guard cells, increasing their water potential and causing water to leave by osmosis. The guard cells become flaccid and the stomata close. The adaptive significance is to prevent excessive water loss via transpiration, conserving water and preventing the plant from wilting and dying under dry conditions.

Marking scheme

(a) Active transport of potassium ions (\(K^+\)) into guard cells (1); increases solute concentration / lowers water potential inside guard cells (1); water enters guard cells by osmosis (1); guard cells become turgid and bend outwards because inner walls are thicker (1).
(b) Drought stress triggers ABA production causing stomatal closure (1); prevents excessive water loss/transpiration (1); avoids wilting / maintains water balance for survival (1).
Question 10 · structured-short
8 marks
A new highway is constructed through a dense, pristine forest ecosystem, splitting it into two isolated parts.

(a) Explain how habitat fragmentation caused by the highway can lead to a decrease in genetic diversity of a small mammal species. (3 marks)

(b) Suggest two mitigation measures that can be implemented to reduce the negative impact of the highway on wildlife. (2 marks)

(c) Describe how conservationists could monitor the effectiveness of these mitigation measures over time. (3 marks)

Answer

(a) The highway blocks gene flow, forcing smaller isolated populations to inbreed, leading to genetic drift and decreased diversity. (b) Green bridges/ecoducts and wildlife fencing. (c) Use camera traps to monitor usage, track animals with GPS collars, and analyze genetic diversity of the populations.

Worked solution

(a) The highway acts as a physical barrier that prevents the small mammals on either side from crossing and mating with each other. This restricts gene flow between the two now-isolated populations. In each small population, inbreeding increases, and genetic drift is more pronounced. Over generations, this leads to the loss of alleles and an overall decrease in genetic diversity.

(b) 1. Constructing wildlife crossings, such as green bridges (ecoducts) or underpasses, to allow animals to safely cross over or under the highway.
2. Installing wildlife-proof fencing along the roadside to prevent animals from entering the highway, reducing roadkill and directing them toward the wildlife crossings.

(c) Conservationists could:
1. Install motion-activated camera traps at the wildlife crossings to document which species and how many individuals are using them.
2. Perform genetic sampling (e.g., extracting DNA from hair or feces) of the populations on both sides over several generations to test if gene flow has been re-established.
3. Attach GPS tracking collars to individual animals to study their movement patterns and confirm if they cross the highway using the provided crossings.

Marking scheme

(a) Highway acts as barrier, preventing interbreeding/gene flow (1); leads to inbreeding within small isolated populations (1); increases genetic drift, causing loss of alleles/diversity (1).
(b) Green bridges/underpasses/ecoducts (1); wildlife fencing along the highway (1).
(c) Install camera traps to monitor animal passage (1); perform genetic analysis of populations over time to verify gene flow (1); track animal movements using GPS collars (1).
Question 11 · essay
11 marks
Describe and compare the mechanisms of water transport in the xylem and translocation of organic nutrients in the phloem. Discuss how prolonged drought with high temperatures affects both transport processes.

Answer

N/A

Worked solution

Water transport in xylem is a passive process driven by transpiration pull (created by evaporation of water from leaves) and maintained by cohesion between water molecules and adhesion to vessel walls, resulting in a continuous upward, unidirectional flow. In contrast, translocation of organic nutrients in phloem is active and bidirectional, explained by the pressure-flow hypothesis: sucrose is actively loaded into sieve tubes at the source (using ATP), generating high hydrostatic pressure as water enters by osmosis, which drives mass flow towards the lower-pressure sink. Under prolonged drought and high temperatures, plants close stomata to conserve water, which drastically reduces transpiration pull and xylem transport. Stomatal closure also limits carbon dioxide intake, decreasing photosynthesis rates, which leads to lower sugar production and consequently slows down phloem translocation.

Marking scheme

Water transport in xylem (max 3 marks):
- Transpiration of water from leaves creates a tension / transpiration pull that pulls water upwards. (1 mark)
- Cohesion between water molecules and adhesion between water molecules and xylem walls maintain a continuous, unbroken column of water. (1 mark)
- It is a passive process driven by solar energy (evaporation) without expenditure of metabolic energy (ATP). (1 mark)

Translocation in phloem (max 3 marks):
- Sugars (sucrose) are actively loaded into sieve tubes at the source (leaves), requiring metabolic energy / ATP. (1 mark)
- This lowers the water potential, causing water to enter from adjacent xylem by osmosis, generating a high hydrostatic pressure. (1 mark)
- At the sink (e.g., roots), sugars are unloaded, raising water potential and causing water to leave, creating low hydrostatic pressure; the pressure gradient drives mass flow of materials from source to sink. (1 mark)

Comparison (max 1 mark):
- Xylem transport is strictly unidirectional (upward from roots to leaves), whereas phloem translocation is bidirectional (from source to sink). (1 mark)

Effects of drought and high temperature (max 2 marks):
- Under drought/high temperature, plants close stomata to prevent excessive water loss, which greatly reduces transpiration, thereby decreasing xylem water transport. (1 mark)
- Stomatal closure restricts carbon dioxide intake, reducing photosynthesis rate; this decreases sugar production at the source, thus slowing down phloem translocation. (1 mark)

Communication skills (2 marks):
- 1 mark for systematic and logical structure (distinct sections for xylem, phloem, comparison, and environmental effects).
- 1 mark for scientific clarity and appropriate terminology without major misconceptions.

Paper 2 Electives

Choose any TWO sections out of A, B, C, and D. Answer all parts of the chosen sections.
2 Question · 40 marks
Question 1 · elective-structured
20 marks
Section A: Human Physiology: Regulation and Control\n\nAn athlete participates in a 20-kilometer run on a hot (33 degrees Celsius) and humid (85% relative humidity) day.\n\n(a) (i) Explain why the high ambient temperature and high relative humidity pose a severe challenge to the athlete's thermoregulation during the run. (4 marks)\n(ii) Describe how the cardiovascular system responds to help lower body temperature under such conditions, and explain how this response affects the oxygen supply to the skeletal muscles. (3 marks)\n\n(b) During the run, the athlete loses a significant amount of water through sweating, leading to dehydration.\n(i) Explain how the body detects this water loss and regulates the reabsorption of water in the kidneys to conserve water. State the specific hormone and target cells involved. (6 marks)\n(ii) Describe the expected trend of the solute concentration of the athlete's urine over the course of the 2-hour run. Explain your answer. (3 marks)\n\n(c) After completing the run, the athlete rapidly consumes a large volume (3 litres) of pure water in a short period. Explain why this action might lead to cell swelling (especially in the brain), and how the kidneys respond to restore normal blood osmotic pressure. (4 marks)

Answer

Refer to the detailed solution and marking scheme for the complete breakdown of the 20 marks.

Worked solution

(a) (i) During exercise, active skeletal muscles generate a large amount of metabolic heat. The high ambient temperature (33 degrees Celsius) reduces heat loss by radiation, conduction, and convection. Evaporation of sweat is the primary mechanism of heat loss in hot environments. However, high relative humidity (85%) significantly reduces the rate of sweat evaporation, meaning sweat drips off without cooling the body, leading to inefficient heat loss and risk of hyperthermia.\n(ii) Vasodilation of arterioles in the skin occurs, increasing blood flow to the skin to facilitate heat loss by radiation and convection. Since blood is diverted away from active skeletal muscles and internal organs toward the skin, this redirection of blood flow reduces the rate of oxygen and nutrient delivery to skeletal muscles, potentially speeding up the onset of fatigue.\n\n(b) (i) Water loss via sweat increases the solute concentration / osmotic pressure of the blood. This is detected by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus stimulates the posterior pituitary gland to secrete / release more antidiuretic hormone (ADH) into the bloodstream. ADH travels via the blood to the kidneys, increasing the permeability of the cells in the collecting ducts (and distal convoluted tubules) to water by inserting more aquaporins into the cell membranes. Consequently, more water is reabsorbed from the filtrate back into the surrounding capillaries by osmosis, resulting in a smaller volume of highly concentrated urine.\n(ii) Trend: The solute concentration of the urine increases steadily over the 2-hour run, eventually reaching a high plateau. Explanation: As the run progresses, dehydration intensifies, leading to progressive increases in ADH secretion. Max water reabsorption occurs in the collecting ducts, making the urine hypertonic to blood plasma and highly concentrated.\n\n(c) Rapid intake of a large volume of pure water dilutes the extracellular fluid, significantly lowering its osmotic pressure. This creates an osmotic gradient where the water potential of the extracellular fluid is higher than that of the intracellular fluid, causing water to enter body cells (including brain cells) by osmosis, leading to cell swelling. In response, the low blood osmotic pressure is detected by hypothalamic osmoreceptors, which suppress the secretion of ADH. The kidney collecting ducts become less permeable to water, reducing water reabsorption, resulting in the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine to remove excess water and restore osmotic balance.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) (Max 4 marks)\n- Active skeletal muscles generate a large amount of metabolic heat. (1)\n- High ambient temperature reduces heat loss by radiation, conduction, and convection. (1)\n- Evaporation of sweat is the primary mechanism of heat loss. (1)\n- High relative humidity significantly reduces the rate of sweat evaporation, leading to inefficient heat loss / risk of hyperthermia. (1)\n(a) (ii) (Max 3 marks)\n- Vasodilation of arterioles in the skin to increase skin blood flow / facilitate heat loss. (1)\n- Blood is diverted away from active skeletal muscles to the skin. (1)\n- This reduces the delivery of oxygen / nutrients to skeletal muscles, accelerating fatigue. (1)\n\n(b) (i) (Max 6 marks)\n- Sweating increases blood solute concentration / blood osmotic pressure. (1)\n- Detected by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus. (1)\n- Stimulates posterior pituitary gland to secrete more antidiuretic hormone (ADH). (1)\n- ADH increases the permeability of collecting ducts / distal convoluted tubules to water. (1)\n- Insertion of aquaporins into the cell membrane. (1)\n- More water is reabsorbed into capillaries by osmosis, producing concentrated urine. (1)\n(b) (ii) (Max 3 marks)\n- Urine solute concentration increases steadily and plateaus. (1)\n- Dehydration intensifies, stimulating maximum ADH secretion. (1)\n- Max water reabsorption in collecting ducts makes urine highly hypertonic to plasma. (1)\n\n(c) (Max 4 marks)\n- Dilutes extracellular fluid / lowers its osmotic pressure. (1)\n- Water potential of extracellular fluid becomes higher than intracellular fluid, water enters cells by osmosis, causing swelling. (1)\n- Hypothalamic osmoreceptors detect low osmotic pressure, suppressing ADH secretion. (1)\n- Collecting ducts become less permeable to water, leading to excretion of large volume of dilute urine. (1)
Question 2 · elective-structured
20 marks
Section D: Biotechnology\n\nRecombinant DNA technology is widely used to produce human therapeutic proteins, such as erythropoietin (EPO) which is used to treat anemia.\n\n(a) (i) Explain why mRNA, rather than genomic DNA, is isolated from human cells to synthesize the EPO gene using reverse transcriptase. (3 marks)\n(ii) Describe how the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is used to amplify the synthesized cDNA, specifying the roles of primers and DNA polymerase. (4 marks)\n\n(b) The amplified cDNA is then inserted into a plasmid vector.\n(i) Explain the importance of using the same restriction endonuclease to cut both the cDNA and the plasmid vector. (3 marks)\n(ii) Besides the target gene, the recombinant plasmid contains a promoter sequence and a selectable marker gene (e.g., ampicillin resistance gene). Explain the function of each of these two components in the production process. (4 marks)\n\n(c) The recombinant plasmid is introduced into host cells for protein expression.\n(i) If Escherichia coli (bacterium) is used as the host, explain why the expressed EPO protein may not be biologically active. (2 marks)\n(ii) Suggest one alternative eukaryotic host system that can be used to overcome the limitation mentioned in (c)(i). State two biosafety or ethical concerns associated with using genetically modified organisms for pharmaceutical production. (4 marks)

Answer

Refer to the detailed solution and marking scheme for the complete breakdown of the 20 marks.

Worked solution

(a) (i) Human genomic DNA contains introns (non-coding regions) and exons (coding regions). Bacteria (if used as hosts) lack the splicing machinery to remove introns from primary mRNA transcripts. Using cDNA synthesized from mRNA ensures that the synthetic gene consists only of coding sequences (exons) that can be correctly transcribed and translated into the complete, functional human protein without needing splicing.\n(ii) First, denaturation occurs by heating to high temperature (approx. 95 degrees Celsius) to separate the double-stranded cDNA template into single strands. Second, annealing occurs by cooling (approx. 50-60 degrees Celsius) to allow primers to bind specifically to the complementary sequences flanking the target gene on the single-stranded DNA templates. Third, extension occurs by heating (approx. 72 degrees Celsius) for thermostable DNA polymerase to synthesize the complementary strands by adding free nucleotides starting from the primers. Primers provide a starting point with a free 3'-OH group for the DNA polymerase; the thermostable DNA polymerase can withstand repeated exposure to high temperatures without denaturation.\n\n(b) (i) Using the same restriction enzyme ensures that both the target gene (cDNA) and the cut plasmid have complementary sticky ends (single-stranded overhangs). This allows the complementary bases of the sticky ends to pair up via hydrogen bonding (annealing). Then, DNA ligase can easily join them together by forming phosphodiester bonds, increasing the efficiency of ligation.\n(ii) Promoter: It is a specific DNA sequence that acts as a signal for RNA polymerase to bind and initiate transcription of the target gene (EPO). Without a promoter, the target gene cannot be expressed into mRNA. Selectable marker gene: It allows researchers to distinguish and select host cells that have successfully taken up the recombinant plasmid from those that have not. Host cells containing the plasmid can survive on a medium containing the corresponding antibiotic, while non-transformed cells die.\n\n(c) (i) E. coli is a prokaryote, which lacks membrane-bound organelles like the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus. It cannot perform post-translational modifications, such as glycosylation (adding carbohydrate chains), which are crucial for the proper folding, stability, and biological activity of complex human glycoproteins like EPO.\n(ii) Alternative eukaryotic host system: Yeast (e.g., Saccharomyces cerevisiae) / Mammalian cell culture (e.g., Chinese Hamster Ovary cells) / Transgenic plants (e.g., tobacco). [Any one]\nBiosafety/ethical concerns (any two):\n1. Risk of gene flow / cross-pollination: The transgene from genetically modified plants could spread to wild relatives, potentially disrupting natural ecosystems.\n2. Potential allergenicity: The recombinant proteins produced in alternative hosts might trigger unexpected allergic reactions in humans due to altered glycosylation patterns.\n3. Animal welfare concerns: If transgenic animals are used, the insertion of foreign genes may cause physiological harm or suffering to the animals.\n4. 'Playing God' / Ethical boundary: Concerns regarding human interference with natural genomes and patenting of life forms.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) (Max 3 marks)\n- Genomic DNA contains introns and exons. (1)\n- Eukaryotic splicing machinery is absent in bacterial host cells / in vitro systems cannot remove introns. (1)\n- cDNA (derived from mRNA) contains only exons, ensuring proper translation of the functional protein. (1)\n(a) (ii) (Max 4 marks)\n- Heating to 95 degrees Celsius denatures double-stranded cDNA into single strands. (1)\n- Cooling to 50-60 degrees Celsius allows primers to anneal to complementary sites flanking the target gene. (1)\n- Heating to 72 degrees Celsius allows Taq/DNA polymerase to synthesize complementary strands using free nucleotides. (1)\n- Primers provide a starting point (free 3'-OH); Taq polymerase is thermostable and resists denaturation at high temperatures. (1)\n\n(b) (i) (Max 3 marks)\n- Produces complementary sticky ends (single-stranded overhangs) on both cDNA and plasmid. (1)\n- Allows complementary base pairing (annealing) of sticky ends. (1)\n- DNA ligase can then join them efficiently by forming phosphodiester bonds. (1)\n(b) (ii) (Max 4 marks)\n- Promoter: Site where RNA polymerase binds (1) to initiate transcription/expression of the target gene. (1)\n- Selectable marker gene: Allows identification/selection of transformed cells (1) by survival on an antibiotic-containing medium. (1)\n\n(c) (i) (Max 2 marks)\n- E. coli (prokaryote) lacks endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus. (1)\n- Cannot perform glycosylation / post-translational modifications, leading to inactive / improperly folded protein. (1)\n(c) (ii) (Max 4 marks)\n- Eukaryotic host: Yeast / mammalian cell culture / plant cells. (1)\n- Biosafety/ethical concern 1: Gene flow / cross-pollination to wild relatives disrupting ecosystems. (1)\n- Biosafety/ethical concern 2: Altered glycosylation in non-human hosts may cause unexpected allergic reactions. (1)\n- (Accept other valid points like animal welfare, ethical concerns of 'playing God').