An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2024 CCEA A Level Environmental Technology 3930 paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from CCEA.
Section Assessment Unit A2 1
Answer all nine questions in the spaces provided. Complete in black ink only. Quality of written communication will be assessed in Questions 4(a), 5(c) and 9.
37 Question · 100 marks
Question 1 · Short Answer & Recall
1 marks
In the equation I = PAT, used to compare environmental impacts, state what the letter 'A' represents.
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Worked solution
In the I = PAT relationship, I represents impact, P represents population, A represents affluence (a measure of consumption/wealth per person), and T represents the damage caused by technology. The letter 'A' therefore represents affluence. Final answer: affluence.
Marking scheme
[1] affluence.
Question 2 · Short Answer & Recall
1 marks
State the term used to describe a model of development in which a person's demand on the Earth's resources is balanced with a fair, sustainable, per-person share of what the planet can supply.
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Worked solution
This concept, in which resource consumption is balanced against a fair, sustainable share of the Earth's resources per person, is known as One Planet Living (OPL). Final answer: One Planet Living (OPL).
Marking scheme
[1] One Planet Living (accept OPL).
Question 3 · Short Answer & Recall
2 marks
State two of the stages in the waste management hierarchy.
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Worked solution
The waste management hierarchy sets out a preferred order for dealing with waste, from most to least preferred: prevention, reduce, reuse, recycle, energy recovery, and disposal (as a last resort). Any two of these stages are acceptable. Final answer: any two of prevention, reduce, reuse, recycle, energy recovery, or disposal.
Marking scheme
[1] each for two correctly named stages of the waste management hierarchy, up to [2].
Question 4 · Short Answer & Recall
1 marks
Name the UK tax introduced to encourage a reduction in the amount of waste sent to landfill.
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Worked solution
This tax, charged on waste disposed of in landfill sites, is known as the landfill tax. Final answer: landfill tax.
Marking scheme
[1] landfill tax.
Question 5 · Short Answer & Recall
2 marks
State two common domestic waste items that are processed at a Materials Recovery Facility (MRF).
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Worked solution
A Materials Recovery Facility (MRF) sorts and processes common recyclable domestic waste items, including glass, aluminium, paper and plastics. Any two of these are acceptable. Final answer: any two of glass, aluminium, paper, or plastics.
Marking scheme
[1] each for two correctly named domestic waste items processed at an MRF, up to [2].
Question 6 · Short Answer & Recall
1 marks
Name the first stage of anaerobic digestion, in which large organic materials are physically broken down before biological digestion begins.
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Worked solution
Anaerobic digestion begins with mechanical pretreatment, in which the input material is physically broken down (for example, shredded or pulped) to prepare it for the subsequent biological stages (hydrolysis, acidogenesis, acetogenesis and methanogenesis). Final answer: mechanical pretreatment.
Marking scheme
[1] mechanical pretreatment.
Question 7 · Short Answer & Recall
1 marks
State what the abbreviation 'CHP', as delivered by anaerobic digestion, stands for.
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Worked solution
Anaerobic digestion can deliver both heat and power, described using the abbreviation CHP, which stands for Combined Heat and Power. Final answer: Combined Heat and Power.
Marking scheme
[1] Combined Heat and Power.
Question 8 · Short Answer & Recall
1 marks
State the type of pollutant treated by the micro-organism Pseudomonas putida in bioremediation.
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Worked solution
Pseudomonas putida is a named micro-organism used in bioremediation specifically to treat organic solvents. Final answer: organic solvents.
Marking scheme
[1] organic solvents.
Question 9 · Short Answer & Recall
2 marks
Name two of the pollutant types that can be treated using bioremediation on a contaminated brownfield site.
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Worked solution
Bioremediation uses micro-organisms to treat land contaminated with pollutants such as waste oil, heavy metals, chlorinated pesticides, polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) and diesel oil, for example on a brownfield site. Any two of these are acceptable. Final answer: any two of waste oil, heavy metals, chlorinated pesticides, PCBs, or diesel oil.
Marking scheme
[1] each for two correctly named pollutant types treatable by bioremediation, up to [2].
Question 10 · Short Answer & Recall
1 marks
Name the bacterium used in biohydrometallurgy (biorefining) to extract copper, zinc, lead and uranium from low-grade ore.
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Worked solution
The bacterium identified in biohydrometallurgy as capable of refining copper, zinc, lead and uranium from low-grade ore is Thiobacillus ferrooxidans. Final answer: Thiobacillus ferrooxidans.
Marking scheme
[1] Thiobacillus ferrooxidans.
Question 11 · Short Answer & Recall
2 marks
State two methods used for the bulk production of hydrogen.
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Worked solution
Hydrogen can be produced in bulk by several methods, including steam reforming of fossil gases, electrolysis of water, and photocatalytic water splitting. Any two of these are acceptable. Final answer: any two of steam reforming of fossil gases, electrolysis of water, or photocatalytic water splitting.
Marking scheme
[1] each for two correctly named bulk hydrogen production methods, up to [2].
Question 12 · Short Answer & Recall
1 marks
Name one of the common types of hydrogen fuel cell.
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Worked solution
The common forms of hydrogen fuel cell include the Polymer Electrolyte Membrane (PEM), alkaline, phosphoric acid, molten carbonate and solid oxide fuel cells. Any one of these is acceptable. Final answer: any one of PEM, alkaline, phosphoric acid, molten carbonate, or solid oxide.
Marking scheme
[1] any one correctly named type of hydrogen fuel cell.
Question 13 · Short Answer & Recall
2 marks
Define what is meant by a building's 'U value'.
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Worked solution
A U value measures how effective a building material or element (such as a wall, roof or window) is as a thermal insulator, expressed as the rate of heat flow through a given area of that material per degree of temperature difference between the two sides. A lower U value indicates a better insulator, since it means heat flows through the material more slowly for a given area and temperature difference. Final answer: U value measures how effective a material/building element is as an insulator (rate of heat flow per unit area per degree of temperature difference); a lower U value means a better insulator.
Marking scheme
[1] identifies U value as a measure of a material's/building element's effectiveness as an insulator/rate of heat transfer; [1] correctly states that a lower U value indicates a better insulator (slower rate of heat loss).
Question 14 · Short Answer & Recall
2 marks
State the name and location of the tidal stream generator project in Northern Ireland.
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Worked solution
The named tidal stream generator project in Northern Ireland is SeaGen, located at Strangford Lough. Final answer: SeaGen, Strangford Lough.
Explain how an increasing world population increases demand for the Earth's finite resources, referring to at least two named resources.
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Worked solution
As the world's population grows, the total number of people requiring resources such as fuel/energy, water, food and shelter also grows, so the overall demand for these finite resources increases, even if the amount each individual person consumes stays the same. For example, a larger population requires more fresh water for drinking, sanitation and agriculture (to grow enough food), placing greater pressure on limited fresh water supplies; a larger population also requires more land and construction materials for housing and shelter, increasing demand for building resources and often leading to further land-use change. Since these resources are finite, an ever-increasing population intensifies the pressure on them, potentially at a rate faster than they can be sustainably replenished or managed. Final answer: population growth increases total demand for finite resources such as water, food, fuel/energy and land/shelter, since each additional person adds to the overall demand for these resources.
Marking scheme
[1] identifies that a growing population increases total demand for finite resources; [1] valid named resource (e.g. water, food, fuel/energy, land/shelter) with a brief explanation of increased demand; [1] a second valid named resource with a brief explanation of increased demand.
Explain the relationship between an ecological footprint and a carbon footprint.
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Worked solution
An ecological footprint is a measure of the total area of biologically productive land and water that would be needed to provide all the resources a person, or a nation, consumes, and to absorb (or otherwise deal with) all the waste, including carbon dioxide emissions, that they produce; it is often expressed in units of global hectares. A carbon footprint specifically measures the total amount of greenhouse gases, mainly carbon dioxide, released as a result of a person's or nation's activities and consumption. Because absorbing carbon dioxide emissions (for example, through forests or oceans) requires biologically productive land or water area, the carbon footprint forms a significant part of, and directly contributes to, the overall ecological footprint; a person or nation with a higher carbon footprint will therefore generally have a correspondingly larger overall ecological footprint, all else being equal. Final answer: an ecological footprint measures the total land/water area needed to support consumption and absorb waste; a carbon footprint measures greenhouse gas emissions specifically, and is one major component that contributes to the overall ecological footprint.
Marking scheme
[1] correctly describes an ecological footprint (area of land/water needed to support consumption and absorb waste); [1] correctly describes a carbon footprint (greenhouse gas/carbon dioxide emissions produced); [1] correctly explains that carbon footprint is a component of, and contributes to, the overall ecological footprint.
Discuss one way in which technology can help to reduce environmental impact, in the context of the I = PAT relationship.
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Worked solution
In the I = PAT relationship, environmental impact (I) depends on population (P), affluence (A) and the damage caused by the technology used (T). Developing and adopting more efficient, cleaner technology can reduce the value of T, meaning that for the same population and level of affluence (consumption), the overall environmental impact is reduced. For example, replacing fossil-fuel power generation with renewable energy technology, such as wind or solar power, reduces the amount of environmental damage (such as carbon dioxide emissions) produced per unit of energy generated, lowering the T factor and therefore the overall impact (I), even without reducing population or affluence. Final answer: cleaner/more efficient technology reduces the T value in I = PAT, lowering overall environmental impact for a given population and affluence, e.g. renewable energy technology reducing emissions per unit of energy used.
Marking scheme
[1] identifies that better/cleaner technology reduces the T (technology damage) term in I = PAT; [1] gives a valid example/explanation of how this reduces overall environmental impact.
Discuss two difficulties associated with Northern Ireland's continued reliance on landfill for waste disposal.
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Worked solution
Northern Ireland's continued reliance on landfill for waste disposal creates several difficulties. One difficulty is that it is becoming increasingly hard to locate and develop suitable new landfill sites, due to a combination of limited available land, environmental restrictions, and local planning objections (opposition from nearby communities). A second difficulty is the environmental impact of landfill itself: as waste decomposes in landfill, it produces methane, a potent greenhouse gas that contributes to climate change if it escapes uncontrolled, and it also produces leachate, a contaminated liquid that can pollute groundwater and surrounding watercourses if it is not properly managed and contained. Final answer: difficulty in finding/developing new landfill sites (limited land, planning objections), and the environmental problems caused by landfill, including methane emissions (climate change) and leachate (groundwater contamination risk).
Marking scheme
[1] valid difficulty (e.g. difficulty finding/developing new landfill sites); [1] a second, distinct valid difficulty (e.g. methane emissions/leachate contamination risk); [1] further developed explanation of either difficulty.
Explain the difference between 'dry tomb' and 'bioreactor' engineered landfill designs, in terms of how they manage decomposition.
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Worked solution
A dry tomb landfill design aims to minimise the moisture reaching the buried waste, using liners and covers to keep the site as dry as possible; by limiting moisture, microbial decomposition of the waste is slowed down significantly, which in turn limits (and slows) the rate at which leachate and methane are produced, effectively sealing the waste to remain largely inert over a long period. A bioreactor landfill design, in contrast, deliberately introduces and recirculates liquid (often leachate collected from the site itself) back into the waste mass, in order to actively encourage and speed up microbial decomposition. This accelerated decomposition produces methane more quickly, which can be captured and used as an energy source, and results in the landfill stabilising (finishing most of its decomposition and settlement) much faster than a dry tomb design, though it requires more active management of leachate and gas during this accelerated process. Final answer: dry tomb landfill keeps waste dry to slow decomposition and limit leachate/methane production; bioreactor landfill deliberately adds/recirculates liquid to speed up decomposition, producing methane faster (for energy capture) and stabilising the site sooner.
Marking scheme
[1] correctly describes dry tomb design (kept dry to minimise/slow decomposition and limit leachate/methane); [1] correctly describes bioreactor design (liquid added/recirculated to accelerate decomposition and methane production); [1] valid further detail/contrast (e.g. methane captured for energy in bioreactor design, or faster site stabilisation).
State two issues, other than energy supply, that underpin the development of sustainable rural communities.
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Worked solution
The development of sustainable rural communities depends on several issues, in addition to energy supply, including the cost and environmental impact of connecting isolated dwellings to water, waste water, communication and transport networks; the potential to make use of local water sources rather than relying on distant infrastructure; the use of small-scale waste water treatment solutions, such as septic tanks, where connection to a mains sewage network is impractical; the environmental, economic and social benefits of local food production and consumption; and the impact that communication technologies can have on improving accessibility to rural areas without necessarily generating additional travel demand. Any two of these are acceptable. Final answer: any two of infrastructure connection costs/impacts, local water sources, small-scale waste water treatment, local food production benefits, or communication technology accessibility.
Marking scheme
[1] each for two valid issues underpinning sustainable rural community development, other than energy supply, up to [2].
Explain two advantages of recovering energy from waste through incineration.
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Worked solution
One advantage of recovering energy from waste through incineration is that it significantly reduces the volume of waste requiring disposal, since much of the combustible material is burned away, leaving a much smaller volume of ash to be dealt with (for example, in landfill); this helps to reduce pressure on limited landfill capacity. A second advantage is that incineration generates useful heat and/or electricity from the energy content of the waste material as it is burned, which would otherwise simply be lost if the waste were sent directly to landfill; this recovered energy can reduce reliance on other energy sources, including fossil fuels, to meet energy demand. Final answer: incineration reduces the volume of waste needing landfill disposal, and recovers useful heat/electricity from the waste's energy content, reducing reliance on other energy sources.
Marking scheme
[1] identifies reduced waste volume/landfill space as an advantage; [1] identifies energy (heat/electricity) recovery as an advantage; [1] further developed explanation of either advantage (e.g. reduced reliance on other energy sources).
Explain why composting is unsuitable for treating catering waste.
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Worked solution
Catering waste often contains meat, fish and other animal by-products, as well as cooked food. Standard (open) composting methods do not reach or maintain temperatures high enough, or provide sufficiently controlled conditions, to safely and hygienically break down this type of waste; if catering waste is composted using standard methods, it poses a risk of spreading disease-causing organisms and can attract vermin and pests to the site. Because of these risks, catering waste generally requires specific, regulated treatment methods, such as in-vessel composting (carried out in an enclosed, controlled system), rather than standard open composting. Final answer: catering waste (containing meat/animal by-products/cooked food) poses a disease/pest risk and cannot be safely broken down by standard composting, requiring specific, licensed treatment instead.
Marking scheme
[1] identifies the disease/pest risk associated with meat or animal by-products/cooked food in catering waste; [1] correctly explains that standard composting cannot safely/hygienically treat this waste, requiring alternative, licensed treatment.
Discuss two factors that influence the rate at which methane and leachate are produced in a landfill site.
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Worked solution
Several factors influence the rate at which methane and leachate are produced within a landfill site. One key factor is the moisture content of the waste: more moisture penetrating the waste speeds up microbial decomposition (since micro-organisms need water to survive and function), which increases both the rate of methane production and the volume of leachate generated. A second key factor is temperature: higher temperatures within the landfill (often generated by the decomposition process itself) speed up the rate of microbial activity and therefore decomposition, increasing methane production, whereas cooler conditions slow this process down. The type and composition of the waste present also plays a role, since waste with a higher proportion of biodegradable material (such as food or garden waste) will produce methane at a faster rate than waste that is largely inert or non-biodegradable. Final answer: moisture content (more moisture speeds up decomposition/leachate production) and temperature (higher temperature speeds up decomposition/methane production) are two key factors, along with the biodegradability of the waste present.
Marking scheme
[1] valid factor (e.g. moisture content); [1] a second, distinct valid factor (e.g. temperature, or type/composition of waste); [1] further developed explanation of how either factor influences the rate of methane/leachate production.
Explain two advantages of using biodiesel as a substitute fuel, compared with conventional diesel.
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Worked solution
One advantage of biodiesel is that it is produced from renewable vegetable oil crops, which can be regrown, unlike conventional (fossil-fuel) diesel, which is derived from crude oil, a finite resource that takes millions of years to form. A second advantage is that burning biodiesel can result in lower net carbon dioxide emissions than burning conventional diesel; the carbon dioxide released when biodiesel is burned was recently absorbed from the atmosphere by the growing energy crop through photosynthesis, meaning the overall process is closer to carbon-neutral than burning fossil-fuel diesel, which releases carbon that has been locked away underground for millions of years. A further advantage is that biodiesel can often be used in existing diesel engines with little or no modification required, making it a relatively straightforward substitute fuel to adopt. Final answer: biodiesel is renewable (produced from vegetable oil crops that can be regrown), and can reduce net carbon dioxide emissions (closer to carbon-neutral, since the crop absorbed CO2 as it grew), and can generally be used in existing diesel engines.
Marking scheme
[1] identifies biodiesel as renewable (from regrowable crops), unlike finite fossil-fuel diesel; [1] identifies reduced/closer-to-neutral net carbon dioxide emissions as an advantage; [1] further developed explanation (e.g. why emissions are closer to carbon-neutral, or compatibility with existing engines).
State the two chemicals used, alongside vegetable oil, in the manufacture of biodiesel.
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Worked solution
Biodiesel is manufactured from vegetable oils using methanol and sodium hydroxide, in a chemical process that converts the oil into biodiesel (and a by-product, glycerol). Final answer: methanol and sodium hydroxide.
Discuss one environmental concern associated with the increasing global production of biofuels.
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Worked solution
One significant environmental concern is that intensively farming energy crops, such as palm oil, to meet growing demand for biofuels can lead to the destruction of natural habitats, for example through deforestation to create new plantations, resulting in a loss of biodiversity and the release of stored carbon from cleared vegetation and soil. A related concern is that land which could otherwise be used to grow food crops is instead designated for growing cash energy crops, a particular concern in the developing world, where this can reduce local food production, potentially affecting food security and pushing up food prices, while also displacing local communities or traditional land uses. Final answer: any one valid concern, such as destruction of natural habitats/loss of biodiversity from intensive energy crop farming (e.g. palm oil), or land being diverted from food production to energy crops, particularly affecting food security in the developing world.
Marking scheme
[1] identifies a valid environmental/related concern (e.g. habitat destruction, or land diverted from food to energy crops); [1] developed explanation linking this to a specific consequence (e.g. loss of biodiversity, or effect on food security); [1] further valid development or a second linked point.
Discuss two challenges associated with using hydrogen as an energy source.
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Worked solution
One challenge of using hydrogen as an energy source is the production cost: producing hydrogen, for example by electrolysis of water, itself requires a significant input of energy, meaning the overall process can be expensive and, unless that input energy comes from a renewable source, may offset some of hydrogen's environmental benefits. A second challenge is transport: hydrogen has a very low density as a gas, meaning large volumes (or high-pressure/cryogenic storage) are needed to transport a useful amount of energy, making transport and distribution infrastructure costly and complex to develop. A further challenge is safe storage, since hydrogen is highly flammable and can form explosive mixtures with air, requiring specialised, robust storage systems and safety precautions to prevent leaks or accidents. Final answer: any two of production costs (energy-intensive production), transport issues (low density, difficult/costly to transport), or safe storage (flammability/explosion risk, requiring specialised storage).
Marking scheme
[1] valid challenge (e.g. production cost); [1] a second, distinct valid challenge (e.g. transport issues, or safe storage); [1] further developed explanation of either challenge.
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Worked solution
Hydrogen fuel cells have a range of applications, including stationary generation, used as backup power or in remote locations without easy access to the electricity grid; stand-alone power supplies for telecommunications installations; and transport, including use in cars, buses, trains, boats, or portable power generators. Any two of these are acceptable. Final answer: any two of stationary generation (backup/remote locations), stand-alone power for telecommunications, or transport applications.
Marking scheme
[1] each for two correctly named applications of hydrogen fuel cells, up to [2].
Compare tidal stream generators and tidal barrages as two methods of generating tidal power, giving one named example of each.
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Worked solution
Tidal stream generators, such as SeaGen at Strangford Lough, work like underwater wind turbines, generating electricity directly from the flow (kinetic energy) of tidal currents as they pass through the turbine blades; because they do not require a large dam-like structure, their visual and environmental impact is relatively low, though they are limited to sites with strong, suitable tidal currents. Tidal barrages, such as the one at the Rance Estuary in France, are large, dam-like structures built across a tidal estuary; as the tide rises and falls, water is forced to flow through turbines built into the barrage, generating electricity. Tidal barrages can generate large amounts of electricity, but because they span an entire estuary, they have a much greater impact on the local ecosystem (affecting tidal flows, sediment movement and habitats), and are generally far more costly to build than tidal stream generators. Final answer: tidal stream generators (e.g. SeaGen, Strangford Lough) use underwater turbines in the tidal flow, with lower environmental impact; tidal barrages (e.g. Rance Estuary, France) are large dam structures across an estuary, generating more power but with greater environmental impact and cost.
Marking scheme
[1] correctly describes tidal stream generators with a valid named example (e.g. SeaGen, Strangford Lough); [1] correctly describes tidal barrages with a valid named example (e.g. Rance Estuary, France), including a valid point of comparison (e.g. environmental impact or cost).
Explain how each of the following factors influences the energy efficiency of a building: insulation and air tightness.
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Worked solution
Insulation reduces the rate at which heat is lost through a building's fabric, such as the walls, roof and floor, mainly by reducing heat transfer by conduction; a well-insulated building retains heat for longer, meaning less energy needs to be supplied (for example, by a heating system) to maintain a comfortable indoor temperature. Air tightness refers to how well a building prevents uncontrolled air leakage, or draughts, through gaps, cracks or poorly sealed joints; a building with poor air tightness loses heated (or cooled) air to the outside, and allows cold outside air to enter, increasing the energy needed to maintain a comfortable temperature, whereas a building with good air tightness minimises this unwanted air exchange, improving energy efficiency. Final answer: insulation reduces heat loss through the building fabric (by conduction), reducing energy demand; air tightness reduces uncontrolled draughts/air leakage, also reducing energy demand.
Marking scheme
[1] correctly explains how insulation improves energy efficiency (reduces heat loss/conduction through the building fabric); [1] correctly explains how air tightness improves energy efficiency (reduces uncontrolled air leakage/draughts).
State what BREEAM stands for, and state its purpose.
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Worked solution
BREEAM stands for Building Research Establishment Environmental Assessment Method. It is the principal environmental building performance measurement system used to assess the environmental performance of buildings, including zero carbon buildings, evaluating factors such as energy use, materials and overall environmental impact. Final answer: BREEAM = Building Research Establishment Environmental Assessment Method; it is used to assess/measure the environmental performance of buildings.
Marking scheme
[1] correctly states BREEAM stands for Building Research Establishment Environmental Assessment Method; [1] correctly states its purpose (assessing/measuring environmental building performance).
State two constraints on developing wave and tidal energy technology.
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Worked solution
Several constraints limit the development of wave and tidal energy technology, including the limited availability of sites with suitable conditions (for example, strong enough tidal currents or wave energy, in appropriate water depths); the high cost of developing and installing this technology, particularly in challenging marine environments; the environmental impact on marine life and habitats; and potential conflict with other users of the sea, such as fishing or shipping. Any two of these are acceptable. Final answer: any two of limited availability of suitable sites, high cost of development, environmental impact on marine life/habitats, or conflict with other sea users.
Marking scheme
[1] each for two valid constraints on developing wave and tidal energy technology, up to [2].
Question 33 · Quantitative Calculation
3 marks
A wall has a U value of \( 0.35 \text{ W/m}^2\text{K} \), an area of 40 m\(^2\), and there is a temperature difference of 15 \( ^\circ \)C between the inside and outside of the wall. Calculate the rate of heat flow through this wall, using the equation rate of heat flow = U value \( \times \) area \( \times \) temperature difference. Show your working and state the correct unit.
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Worked solution
Using rate of heat flow = U value x area x temperature difference: rate of heat flow = 0.35 x 40 x 15. First, 0.35 x 40 = 14. Then, 14 x 15 = 210. So the rate of heat flow through this wall is 210 W. Final answer: 210 W.
Marking scheme
[1] correct substitution (0.35 x 40 x 15); [1] correct intermediate working shown (e.g. 0.35 x 40 = 14); [1] correct final answer, 210 W (unit required).
Question 34 · Quantitative Calculation
3 marks
A second, better-insulated wall of the same area (40 m\(^2\)) and the same temperature difference (15 \( ^\circ \)C) has a lower U value of \( 0.20 \text{ W/m}^2\text{K} \). Calculate the rate of heat flow through this second wall, and state how much lower this is than the rate of heat flow you calculated for the first wall in the previous question (210 W).
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Worked solution
Using rate of heat flow = U value x area x temperature difference for the second wall: rate of heat flow = 0.20 x 40 x 15 = 120 W. Comparing this with the rate of heat flow through the first wall, calculated previously as 210 W: 210 - 120 = 90 W. So the rate of heat flow through the second, better-insulated wall is 90 W lower than through the first wall, showing that the lower U value (better insulation) results in a significantly lower rate of heat loss for the same area and temperature difference. Final answer: 120 W; 90 W lower than the first wall.
Marking scheme
[1] correct substitution/working for the second wall (0.20 x 40 x 15); [1] correct answer for the second wall, 120 W; [1] correct comparison, 90 W lower (210 - 120), with own-figure rule applied if the answer to the previous question differs.
Question 35 · Extended Prose & QWC (Level of Response)
10 marks
Discuss the potential of emerging technologies to help reduce environmental impact. Your answer should make specific reference to: the benefits and constraints of wave and tidal technology; the three phases of carbon capture and storage; and the risks associated with geo-engineering. The quality of your written communication will be assessed in this question.
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Worked solution
Wave and tidal technology harnesses the movement of the sea to generate electricity, and is a priority area for a region such as Northern Ireland, with extensive coastline and strong tidal currents. Its key benefit is that it provides a predictable, renewable source of energy (unlike wind or solar, tidal patterns can be forecast with great accuracy), with no direct carbon dioxide emissions produced during electricity generation, helping to reduce reliance on fossil fuels. However, the technology faces significant constraints: there are only a limited number of sites with the right combination of strong, reliable tidal currents or wave energy and suitable water depth, and developing wave and tidal technology is very costly, both due to the difficulty of working in a harsh marine environment and the specialist engineering required. There are also environmental impacts to consider, including effects on marine life and habitats, noise and visual impact, and potential conflict with other users of the sea, such as fishing or shipping. Carbon capture and storage (CCS) offers a different approach, aiming to reduce the carbon dioxide emissions released by fossil fuel power plants rather than replacing them outright. CCS involves three main phases: first, trapping and separating carbon dioxide from the emissions produced at a power plant, so that it does not reach the atmosphere; second, transporting this captured carbon dioxide, often by pipeline, to a suitable storage location; and third, storing the carbon dioxide long-term, either underground (for example, in depleted oil and gas fields or deep saline rock formations) or underwater. CCS has significant potential to reduce carbon dioxide emissions from existing fossil fuel infrastructure while cleaner alternatives are developed further, though it is costly and does not address other environmental impacts of fossil fuel extraction and use. Geo-engineering refers to the deliberate, large-scale modification of the Earth's atmosphere, intended to counteract or offset the effects of climate change, for example by reflecting more sunlight away from the Earth or by removing carbon dioxide directly from the atmosphere. While geo-engineering offers the prospect of directly and rapidly addressing global climate change on a large scale, it carries substantial risks: the full global consequences of deliberately modifying the atmosphere are not fully understood and could be unpredictable or unintended, potentially disrupting weather patterns or ecosystems in ways that are difficult to reverse; geo-engineering approaches can also be extremely costly, and raise significant ethical and governance questions about who has the authority to make decisions that would affect the entire planet. Overall, wave and tidal technology, carbon capture and storage, and geo-engineering each offer different potential contributions to reducing environmental impact, but each is constrained by significant technical, economic, environmental or ethical challenges that must be carefully weighed against their potential benefits. Final answer: wave/tidal technology offers predictable, low-carbon energy but is constrained by limited sites, high cost and environmental/marine impacts; CCS traps, transports and stores CO2 from fossil fuel plants (three phases), reducing emissions but at significant cost; geo-engineering could directly offset climate change on a large scale but carries major risks of unpredictable global consequences, high cost, and ethical/governance concerns.
Marking scheme
Level 1 (1-3 marks): Basic identification of one or two points about emerging technologies, e.g. 'tidal power is renewable', with limited detail; writing has basic accuracy and a limited range of specialist terms; may require support. Level 2 (4-7 marks): Clear description of at least two of the three named technologies (wave/tidal, CCS, geo-engineering), with some accurate detail (e.g. naming the three phases of CCS, or a benefit/constraint of wave/tidal), and some evaluative comment; writing is reasonably accurate with an adequate range of specialist vocabulary. Level 3 (8-10 marks): Thorough, well-structured discussion covering all three named technologies in detail — benefits and constraints of wave/tidal technology, the three phases of CCS (trapping/separating, transport, storage), and the risks of geo-engineering (unpredictable consequences, cost, ethical/governance issues) — with a reasoned overall conclusion comparing their potential and limitations; writing is well organised, accurate, and uses specialist vocabulary confidently and precisely.
Question 36 · Extended Prose & QWC (Level of Response)
10 marks
Discuss the main characteristics of a sustainable urban development that links sustainability, zero carbon concepts and the role of technology. Your answer should make specific reference to: reduced energy use and microgeneration; integrated and flexible transport facilities; and the use of green spaces to benefit both people and wildlife. The quality of your written communication will be assessed in this question.
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Worked solution
A sustainable urban development aims to link sustainability, zero carbon concepts and the use of technology across many aspects of how the community is designed and functions. In terms of energy, sustainable urban developments are designed to reduce the energy needed for both heating and cooling, for example through good building orientation, insulation and design. They also make use of microgeneration, meaning small-scale, local generation of energy, such as solar panels or small wind turbines installed on or near buildings, often coordinated using smart grid technology, which can intelligently balance local energy supply and demand, making the most efficient use of the energy generated and reducing reliance on centralised, often fossil-fuel-based, power generation. Transport is another key characteristic: sustainable urban developments provide integrated and flexible transport facilities, meaning that public transport, cycling routes and pedestrian routes are carefully planned and connected as part of the overall design of the development, rather than being an afterthought; this makes it easier and more attractive for residents to choose lower-carbon ways of getting around, reducing reliance on private cars and the associated carbon emissions, congestion and air pollution. Green spaces also play an important role: they can be used to moderate the urban heat island effect (the tendency for built-up urban areas to become significantly warmer than surrounding rural areas, due to the heat-absorbing properties of concrete, tarmac and other building materials), helping to keep the local environment cooler and more comfortable. Green spaces can also be designed to work for both people and wildlife, for example by incorporating areas for food production (such as community gardens or allotments) within the urban area, which brings environmental, social and even economic benefits, while also supporting local biodiversity and providing habitats within the built environment. Taken together, these characteristics — reduced energy demand supported by microgeneration and smart technology, well-integrated low-carbon transport options, and multi-functional green spaces — represent a coordinated, technology-supported approach to building genuinely more sustainable urban communities. Final answer: sustainable urban developments combine reduced energy demand with local microgeneration and smart grid technology; integrated, flexible transport (public transport, walking, cycling) to reduce car dependency; and multi-functional green spaces that moderate the urban heat island, support biodiversity and enable local food production, all working together to reduce environmental impact.
Marking scheme
Level 1 (1-3 marks): Basic identification of one or two characteristics of sustainable urban development, e.g. 'they use solar panels', with limited detail; writing has basic accuracy and a limited range of specialist terms; may require support. Level 2 (4-7 marks): Clear description of at least two of the three named areas (energy/microgeneration, transport, green spaces), with some accurate detail and some evaluative comment; writing is reasonably accurate with an adequate range of specialist vocabulary. Level 3 (8-10 marks): Thorough, well-structured discussion covering all three named areas in detail — reduced energy use with microgeneration and smart grid technology; integrated, flexible transport facilities reducing car dependency; and multi-functional green spaces supporting people, wildlife and food production, including moderating the urban heat island — with a reasoned overall conclusion on how these link sustainability, zero carbon concepts and technology; writing is well organised, accurate, and uses specialist vocabulary confidently and precisely.
Question 37 · Extended Prose & QWC (Level of Response)
9 marks
Evaluate the economic and environmental benefits of using bioremediation technology, compared with traditional methods, to treat contaminated land. Your answer should make specific reference to: named micro-organisms used and the pollutants they treat; the use of genetic engineering to enhance bioremediation; and the use of in situ bioreactor systems. The quality of your written communication will be assessed in this question.
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Worked solution
Bioremediation uses specific micro-organisms to break down pollutants contaminating land, such as a brownfield site. Named examples include Pseudomonas putida, used to treat organic solvents; Pseudomonas aeruginosa, used to treat oil contamination; and Dehalococcoides ethenogenes, used to treat halogenated hydrocarbons. Each of these micro-organisms is capable of metabolising (breaking down) its specific target pollutant, converting it into less harmful substances. Genetic engineering can be used to modify these micro-organisms further, potentially enhancing their ability to break down a wider range of pollutants, or to work more effectively or more quickly than naturally occurring strains; however, this raises issues, including the risk of unforeseen outcomes from introducing genetically modified organisms into the environment, and concerns about whether such organisms could spread beyond the intended treatment site with unpredictable ecological consequences. In situ bioreactor systems allow contaminated soil to be treated directly on site (in situ), rather than being excavated and moved elsewhere, and are particularly suited to treating small to medium scale amounts of contaminated soil, by creating controlled conditions (such as circulating nutrients, oxygen or the chosen micro-organisms) that encourage the breakdown of pollutants where they are found. Compared with traditional treatment methods, such as excavating contaminated soil and transporting it to landfill, or using energy-intensive thermal treatment to destroy pollutants, bioremediation generally offers significant economic and environmental benefits. Economically, it is often considerably cheaper, since it avoids the substantial costs of excavation, transport and landfill disposal (including landfill tax), and can frequently be carried out using less specialised, less energy-intensive equipment. Environmentally, bioremediation avoids the disturbance and carbon emissions associated with excavating and transporting large volumes of contaminated soil, and, particularly with in situ methods, avoids further disruption to the site itself. However, bioremediation is not without limitations: it can take considerably longer to achieve full decontamination than more aggressive traditional methods, and may not be effective, or may be effective only very slowly, for very high concentrations of certain pollutants, or for pollutant types that are resistant to microbial breakdown, meaning it is not always a suitable substitute for traditional methods in every situation. Final answer: named micro-organisms (e.g. Pseudomonas putida for organic solvents, Pseudomonas aeruginosa for oil, Dehalococcoides ethenogenes for halogenated hydrocarbons) target specific pollutants; genetic engineering can broaden/enhance their effectiveness but raises risks of unforeseen outcomes; in situ bioreactor systems treat soil on site without excavation; overall, bioremediation is generally cheaper and less environmentally disruptive than traditional excavation/landfill or thermal treatment, though slower and not suitable for all pollutant types/concentrations.
Marking scheme
Level 1 (1-2 marks): Basic identification of one or two points about bioremediation, e.g. 'bacteria are used to clean up pollution', with limited detail; writing has basic accuracy and a limited range of specialist terms; may require support. Level 2 (3-6 marks): Clear description of some named micro-organisms and their target pollutants, and/or some discussion of genetic engineering or in situ bioreactor systems, with some evaluative comment on economic/environmental benefits compared with traditional methods; writing is reasonably accurate with an adequate range of specialist vocabulary. Level 3 (7-9 marks): Thorough, well-structured evaluation covering named micro-organisms and their specific target pollutants, the role and risks of genetic engineering, and the use of in situ bioreactor systems, with a balanced, reasoned comparison of the economic and environmental benefits and limitations of bioremediation against traditional treatment methods; writing is well organised, accurate, and uses specialist vocabulary confidently and precisely.
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