CCEA GCSE · thinka-original Practice Paper

2023 CCEA GCSE Geography 3910 Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Jun 2023 CCEA GCSE-Style Mock — Geography 3910

240 marks240 mins2023
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2023 CCEA GCSE Geography 3910 paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from CCEA.

Section Unit 1: Understanding Our Natural World

Answer all four questions: Theme A (River Environments), Theme B (Coastal Environments), Theme C (Our Changing Weather and Climate), and Theme D (The Restless Earth). Black ink only. Total 100 marks.
22 Question · 100 marks
Question 1 · Stimulus matching & table completion
4 marks
Study the cross-sectional diagram of a meander bend, with labelled points P (outer bank) and Q (inner bank). Complete the table below by matching each term to its correct definition. Terms: Attrition, Hydraulic action, Solution, Slip-off slope. Definitions: (i) the sheer force of moving water compressing air in cracks in the river bank/bed; (ii) rock particles being worn down as they collide with each other during transport; (iii) the dissolving of soluble rock/minerals by the river water; (iv) the gently sloping deposit of sediment found on the inside bend of a meander.
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Worked solution

Attrition is particles wearing each other down through collision (ii). Hydraulic action is the sheer force of water compressing air in cracks (i). Solution is the dissolving of soluble rock (iii). The slip-off slope is the gently sloping depositional feature on the inside bend of a meander (iv).

Marking scheme

[1] each correct match: Attrition-(ii); Hydraulic action-(i); Solution-(iii); Slip-off slope-(iv) (max 4).
Question 2 · Stimulus matching & table completion
4 marks
Complete the table below to show whether each characteristic of a river typically increases or decreases moving from the source to the mouth along the long profile: (a) discharge; (b) gradient; (c) load (sediment) particle size; (d) channel width.
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Worked solution

As a river flows from source to mouth, discharge increases (more tributaries join), gradient decreases (the profile becomes gentler), load particle size decreases (through attrition and selective transport), and channel width increases.

Marking scheme

[1] each correct: (a) increases; (b) decreases; (c) decreases; (d) increases (max 4).
Question 3 · Stimulus matching & table completion
4 marks
Complete the table below by matching each coastal landform to whether it is primarily formed by erosion or deposition: (a) wave-cut platform; (b) spit; (c) stack; (d) sandy beach.
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Worked solution

A wave-cut platform and a stack are erosional landforms, formed by the wearing away of rock by wave action. A spit and a sandy beach are depositional landforms, formed by the accumulation of sediment transported by the sea.

Marking scheme

[1] each correct: (a) erosion; (b) deposition; (c) erosion; (d) deposition (max 4).
Question 4 · Stimulus matching & table completion
4 marks
Complete the table below by matching each air mass affecting the British Isles to its typical characteristic: (a) tropical maritime; (b) tropical continental; (c) polar maritime; (d) polar continental. Characteristics: (i) cold and dry; (ii) warm and dry; (iii) warm and moist; (iv) cold and moist.
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Worked solution

Tropical maritime air originates over warm tropical oceans, so it is warm and moist. Tropical continental air originates over hot land areas (e.g. the Sahara), so it is warm and dry. Polar maritime air originates over cold oceans, so it is cold and moist. Polar continental air originates over cold land areas (e.g. Scandinavia/Russia), so it is cold and dry.

Marking scheme

[1] each correct: tropical maritime-warm and moist; tropical continental-warm and dry; polar maritime-cold and moist; polar continental-cold and dry (max 4).
Question 5 · Stimulus matching & table completion
4 marks
Complete the table below by matching each instrument to the weather element it measures: (a) rain gauge; (b) anemometer; (c) barometer; (d) wind vane.
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Worked solution

A rain gauge measures precipitation (mm). An anemometer measures wind speed (knots). A barometer measures atmospheric pressure (millibars). A wind vane measures wind direction (compass points).

Marking scheme

[1] each correct: rain gauge-precipitation; anemometer-wind speed; barometer-atmospheric pressure; wind vane-wind direction (max 4).
Question 6 · Stimulus matching & table completion
3 marks
Complete the table below by matching each plate margin type to the landform it typically produces: (a) constructive margin; (b) destructive margin; (c) collision zone.
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Worked solution

At a constructive margin, plates move apart and magma rises to form a mid-ocean ridge. At a destructive margin, an oceanic plate is subducted beneath another plate, forming an ocean trench (and volcanoes). At a collision zone, two continental plates collide and crumple to form fold mountains.

Marking scheme

[1] each correct: constructive-mid-ocean ridge; destructive-ocean trench/subduction zone; collision zone-fold mountains (max 3).
Question 7 · Short definitions & term identification
2 marks
State the meaning of the term 'watershed'.
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Worked solution

A watershed is the imaginary line, usually following high ground, that marks the boundary of a drainage basin, separating it from the drainage basin(s) next to it.

Marking scheme

[1] boundary/edge of a drainage basin; [1] separates it from a neighbouring drainage basin (max 2).
Question 8 · Short definitions & term identification
3 marks
State the meaning of the term 'longshore drift'.
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Worked solution

Longshore drift is the process by which sediment (sand and shingle) is moved along a coastline in a zig-zag pattern. Swash carries material up the beach at the angle of the prevailing wind/waves, while backwash then carries it back down the beach at right angles to the shore under gravity, resulting in a net movement of material along the coast.

Marking scheme

[1] zig-zag movement of sediment along the coast; [1] swash moves material up the beach at an angle; [1] backwash moves it back down at right angles, under gravity (max 3).
Question 9 · Short definitions & term identification
3 marks
State the meaning of the term 'managed retreat' as a coastal management strategy, and give one reason why it might be used instead of hard engineering.
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Worked solution

Managed retreat is a soft-engineering coastal management strategy in which existing defences are removed or not maintained, allowing the sea to flood an area of low-value land, often creating new salt-marsh or wetland habitat in the process. It might be used instead of hard engineering because it is considerably cheaper in the long term, and avoids the problem of hard defences simply moving erosion further along the coast.

Marking scheme

[1] definition: deliberately allowing the sea to flood/reclaim low-value land (accept: removing/not maintaining existing defences); [1] correctly creating new wetland/salt-marsh habitat noted; [1] any one valid reason (cheaper than hard engineering; avoids displacing erosion elsewhere) (max 3).
Question 10 · Short definitions & term identification
2 marks
Distinguish between the terms 'weather' and 'climate'.
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Worked solution

Weather refers to the day-to-day or short-term condition of the atmosphere (temperature, rainfall, wind etc.) at a particular place and time. Climate refers to the average weather conditions of a place, usually measured over a long period of at least 30 years.

Marking scheme

[1] weather = short-term/day-to-day atmospheric conditions; [1] climate = long-term average weather conditions (max 2).
Question 11 · Short definitions & term identification
3 marks
State the meaning of the terms 'focus' and 'epicentre' of an earthquake, and state the scale used to measure earthquake magnitude.
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Worked solution

The focus is the point beneath the Earth's surface where the earthquake originates (where the rocks first fracture/slip). The epicentre is the point on the Earth's surface directly above the focus. Earthquake magnitude is measured using a seismograph on the Richter scale.

Marking scheme

[1] focus correctly defined; [1] epicentre correctly defined; [1] Richter scale named (max 3).
Question 12 · Short definitions & term identification
2 marks
State the meaning of the term 'liquefaction' as a physical consequence of an earthquake.
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Worked solution

Liquefaction occurs when the intense shaking of an earthquake causes water-saturated, loosely packed soil or sediment to lose its strength and stiffness, causing it to behave temporarily like a liquid; this can cause buildings and other structures to sink, tilt or collapse.

Marking scheme

[1] water-saturated/loose soil loses strength during shaking; [1] behaves like a liquid, causing buildings to sink/tilt/collapse (max 2).
Question 13 · Diagram / Map interpretation & structured explanation
5 marks
Study the cross-sectional diagram of a waterfall, which shows a band of resistant rock overlying a band of less resistant rock, with a plunge pool at the base and an overhang above it. Explain, in a logical sequence, how a waterfall forms and retreats upstream over time. Refer to the processes and features shown in the diagram.
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Worked solution

Where a band of resistant (hard) rock overlies less resistant (soft) rock, the softer rock beneath is eroded more quickly by hydraulic action and abrasion, undercutting the resistant rock above and creating an overhang. Over time, the unsupported overhang becomes unstable and collapses under its own weight. The fallen rock debris is swirled around at the base by the turbulent water, deepening the plunge pool through abrasion. This process of undercutting and collapse repeats over time, causing the waterfall to retreat gradually upstream and leaving behind a steep-sided gorge.

Marking scheme

[1] each for: differential erosion of hard rock over soft rock creates a step; undercutting (hydraulic action/abrasion) of the softer rock forms an overhang; the overhang eventually collapses; collapsed debris deepens the plunge pool by abrasion; the process repeats, causing the waterfall to retreat upstream, leaving a gorge (max 5, in logical sequence).
Question 14 · Diagram / Map interpretation & structured explanation
5 marks
Study the cross-sectional diagram of a river channel during a flood event, showing the river overtopping its banks onto the surrounding flat land. Explain how floodplains and levees are formed.
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Worked solution

During a flood, the river's discharge exceeds the capacity of its channel and water spills out over the banks onto the adjacent flat land (the floodplain). As soon as the water leaves the confined channel, its velocity and energy drop sharply. The coarsest, heaviest sediment is deposited first, closest to the channel, and over repeated flood events this builds up raised banks called levees. Finer sediment is carried further across the floodplain before being deposited, gradually building up the fertile floodplain surface over many flood events.

Marking scheme

[1] each for: river overtops its banks during a flood; velocity/energy of the water drops rapidly once outside the channel; coarsest material is deposited first/nearest the channel; this builds up levees over repeated floods; finer material is deposited further away, building up the floodplain surface (max 5).
Question 15 · Diagram / Map interpretation & structured explanation
4 marks
Study the diagram of a stretch of coastline showing a headland with alternating bands of resistant and less resistant rock running perpendicular to the coast, being attacked by wave action. Explain how a cave, arch, stack and stump sequence forms at a headland over time.
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Worked solution

Waves attack a line of weakness (such as a crack or fault) in a headland, using hydraulic action and abrasion to erode it into a cave. Continued erosion, often from both sides of a narrow headland, eventually cuts right through to form an arch. The arch is progressively undercut and widened by further erosion until it becomes too weak to support its own roof, which collapses, leaving an isolated pillar of rock called a stack, separated from the headland. Ongoing erosion at the base of the stack continues to weaken it until it too collapses, leaving a low stump visible at low tide.

Marking scheme

[1] each for: erosion of a weakness/crack forms a cave; continued erosion cuts through to form an arch; undercutting/widening causes the arch roof to collapse, forming a stack; further erosion causes the stack to collapse into a stump (max 4, in correct sequence).
Question 16 · Diagram / Map interpretation & structured explanation
5 marks
Study the synoptic chart of a frontal depression approaching the British Isles from the west, showing a warm front followed by a cold front. Describe the sequence of weather experienced at a location as the warm front, warm sector and cold front pass over it in turn.
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Worked solution

As the warm front approaches, cloud gradually thickens and lowers, atmospheric pressure falls steadily, and prolonged, steady rainfall develops. Once the warm front has passed and the location is within the warm sector, temperatures rise noticeably, rainfall becomes lighter or stops (occasional drizzle), and pressure temporarily steadies. As the cold front then passes through, temperatures fall sharply, there is a short but often heavy burst of rain (sometimes with thunder), and pressure begins to rise again. After the cold front has passed, skies clear, visibility improves, and showery conditions may follow in the cooler polar maritime air behind the front.

Marking scheme

[1] each for: warm front — thickening/lowering cloud, falling pressure, prolonged steady rain; warm sector — rising temperature, lighter rain/drizzle, pressure steadies; cold front — sharp temperature fall, short heavy burst of rain, pressure rises; conditions after the cold front — clearer skies/improved visibility (max 5, in correct sequence).
Question 17 · Diagram / Map interpretation & structured explanation
4 marks
Study the synoptic chart showing an anticyclone (area of high pressure) centred over the British Isles. Describe the typical weather associated with an anticyclone in (a) winter and (b) summer.
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Worked solution

(a) In winter, an anticyclone typically brings clear skies, light winds and settled, dry conditions; with little cloud cover to trap heat, this results in cold days and very cold nights, often with ground frost and a risk of fog or mist forming overnight. (b) In summer, an anticyclone also brings clear skies and light winds, but with the sun much higher in the sky this produces warm to hot, sunny days and warm nights; prolonged anticyclonic conditions can lead to heatwaves and, if the high pressure eventually breaks down, thundery conditions.

Marking scheme

[1] winter: clear skies/light winds/settled dry conditions; [1] winter: cold days but very cold nights/frost/fog risk; [1] summer: clear skies/light winds/settled conditions; [1] summer: warm-hot sunny days/warm nights/heatwave or thundery breakdown risk (max 4).
Question 18 · Diagram / Map interpretation & structured explanation
4 marks
Study the diagram showing three rock samples: basalt, limestone and slate. Explain how each of these rock types is formed, and identify the rock category (igneous, sedimentary or metamorphic) to which each belongs.
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Worked solution

Basalt is an igneous rock, formed when molten lava cools and solidifies quickly at or near the Earth's surface, producing small crystals. Limestone is a sedimentary rock, formed from the compaction and cementation of shell, coral and other calcium-carbonate-rich fragments that accumulate in layers, often on the sea floor, over long periods. Slate is a metamorphic rock, formed when an existing rock (such as shale) is transformed by intense heat and/or pressure, without melting, causing its minerals to realign into thin, parallel layers.

Marking scheme

[1] basalt: igneous, formed by rapid cooling of lava/magma; [1] limestone: sedimentary, formed by compaction/cementation of shell/coral/mineral fragments; [1] slate: metamorphic, formed by heat and/or pressure altering existing rock; [1] all three correctly categorised as igneous/sedimentary/metamorphic respectively (max 4).
Question 19 · Extended case-study evaluation (QWC)
9 marks
For a named case study of flooding from the British Isles, describe the physical and human causes of the flooding and evaluate the effectiveness of the management strategies used to reduce future flood risk. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills, including the use of specialist geographical terms.
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Worked solution

Case study: the Somerset Levels, south-west England, flooded extensively during the winter of 2013-14. Physical causes: the region experienced an exceptionally wet winter, with prolonged and heavy rainfall over several weeks; the ground became fully saturated, so it could no longer absorb further rainfall; the Somerset Levels are low-lying, flat land close to sea level, so water drained away only very slowly once the rivers (the Tone and the Parrett) could not cope with the volume of water. Human causes: critics argued that a lack of regular dredging of the rivers had reduced their capacity to carry water, allowing silt to build up on the river beds; continued building and farming on the floodplain increased the amount of property and land at risk. Management strategies: following the floods, the rivers Tone and Parrett were dredged to increase their channel capacity; new and upgraded pumping stations were installed to remove floodwater more quickly; embankments and flood barriers were raised and strengthened in vulnerable villages. Evaluation: these measures have reduced the risk of a repeat of the 2013-14 flooding and reassured local residents and farmers; however, dredging and pumping are costly and require ongoing maintenance, and some environmentalists criticised the loss of wetland wildlife habitats, arguing that the strategy addresses the symptoms rather than the underlying causes of increasingly extreme winter rainfall linked to climate change. Overall, the strategy has been reasonably effective in the short to medium term but its long-term sustainability is questionable given rising costs and the likelihood of more extreme weather in future.

Marking scheme

Level 3 (7-9): detailed, accurate named case study with specific physical AND human causes, at least two named management strategies with a balanced evaluation and an explicit concluding judgement; fluent use of specialist terminology. Level 2 (4-6): sound case study knowledge covering causes and management, some evaluation, but unbalanced or only partially developed; generally accurate terminology. Level 1 (1-3): basic, general statements about flooding and management with limited case-study detail or terminology; little or no evaluation. Level 0 (0): no creditable content. Indicative content: physical causes (prolonged/exceptional rainfall, saturated ground, low-lying land); human causes (reduced dredging, building/farming on the floodplain); management (dredging, pumping stations, raised embankments/flood barriers); evaluation (reduced risk vs high ongoing cost and environmental/habitat concerns).
Question 20 · Extended case-study evaluation (QWC)
9 marks
For a named case study of coastal management from the British Isles, describe the coastal management strategy used and evaluate its sustainability. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills, including the use of specialist geographical terms.
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Worked solution

Case study: Newcastle, County Down, a coastal town backed by the Mourne Mountains, relies heavily on tourism and has a promenade and properties at risk from coastal erosion and storm waves from the Irish Sea. Management strategy: a concrete sea wall has been built along much of the promenade to absorb and reflect wave energy and protect the town's properties and tourist infrastructure; rock armour and groynes have been placed along sections of the beach to reduce erosion and trap sediment moved by longshore drift; beach nourishment has also been used, adding sand to maintain a wide, attractive beach for tourism and to provide a natural buffer against wave energy. Evaluation: the sea wall and rock armour are effective at protecting high-value property and the tourist economy, and beach nourishment maintains an attractive, natural-looking beach that also absorbs wave energy, making it a relatively sustainable soft-engineering option. However, hard engineering structures such as sea walls and groynes are expensive to build and maintain, can look unattractive, and may starve beaches further along the coast of sediment by interrupting longshore drift, increasing erosion problems elsewhere; beach nourishment itself needs to be repeated periodically, adding to long-term cost. Overall, Newcastle's combined hard-and-soft strategy has been reasonably successful in protecting the town in the short to medium term, but the ongoing cost and the risk of increased erosion elsewhere along the coast raise questions about its long-term sustainability.

Marking scheme

Level 3 (7-9): detailed, accurate named case study describing at least two management methods (hard and/or soft) with a balanced evaluation of costs/benefits and sustainability, and an explicit concluding judgement; fluent specialist terminology. Level 2 (4-6): sound case study knowledge of management methods used, some evaluation but unbalanced or partially developed; generally accurate terminology. Level 1 (1-3): basic, general statements with limited case-study detail; little or no evaluation. Level 0 (0): no creditable content. Indicative content: hard engineering (sea wall, rock armour/groynes); soft engineering (beach nourishment); evaluation (protects property/tourism vs high cost, visual impact, interruption of longshore drift/erosion displaced elsewhere, need for repeated maintenance).
Question 21 · Extended case-study evaluation (QWC)
8 marks
For a named case study of extreme weather (tornado, drought or hurricane) from outside the British Isles, describe the impacts of the extreme weather event on people and property. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills, including the use of specialist geographical terms.
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Worked solution

Case study: Hurricane Katrina struck the Gulf Coast of the United States in late August 2005, making landfall as a powerful hurricane near New Orleans, Louisiana. Impacts on people: the storm surge and subsequent failure of the city's levee (flood defence) system led to catastrophic flooding across much of New Orleans; approximately 1,800 people were killed, many in the flooding that followed the levee breaches; hundreds of thousands of residents were displaced from their homes, with many never able to return, and the disaster disproportionately affected poorer communities who had fewer resources to evacuate or rebuild. Impacts on property: tens of thousands of homes and businesses were destroyed or severely damaged by wind, storm surge and flooding; key infrastructure, including roads, bridges, the electricity grid and hospitals, was badly damaged, disrupting emergency response; total economic losses from the hurricane are estimated at over $100 billion, making it one of the costliest natural disasters in US history.

Marking scheme

Level 3 (6-8): detailed, accurate named case study with specific, well-explained impacts on BOTH people and property, using accurate facts/figures and specialist terminology, coherent structure. Level 2 (3-5): sound case study knowledge with some impacts on people and/or property, generally accurate but less detailed or one-sided. Level 1 (1-2): basic, general statements about the event with limited case-study detail. Level 0 (0): no creditable content. Indicative content: impacts on people (deaths, displacement/homelessness, disproportionate impact on poorer communities); impacts on property (destroyed homes/businesses, damaged infrastructure, high economic cost).
Question 22 · Extended case-study evaluation (QWC)
9 marks
For a named case study of an earthquake from an MEDC or an LEDC, identify the plates involved, describe the short-term and long-term impacts on people and the environment, and evaluate how the country prepared for and responded to the earthquake. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills, including the use of specialist geographical terms.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Case study: the Haiti earthquake struck on 12 January 2010, with its epicentre near the capital, Port-au-Prince. Haiti lies on the boundary between the Caribbean Plate and the North American Plate; the two plates slide past each other along the Enriquillo-Plantain Garden fault zone, a conservative (transform) plate margin, and the sudden release of built-up stress along this fault caused the magnitude 7.0 earthquake. Short-term impacts on people and the environment: an estimated 200,000 or more people were killed, with hundreds of thousands more injured; poorly constructed buildings, including homes, hospitals and government buildings, collapsed on a massive scale because Haiti, as one of the world's poorest countries, had few enforced building regulations; over a million people were left homeless, living in makeshift camps; damaged water and sanitation systems led to outbreaks of disease, including cholera, in the months that followed; numerous aftershocks hampered rescue efforts. Long-term impacts: the economy, already fragile before the earthquake, was severely disrupted, with damage estimated at billions of dollars; reconstruction was slow, and many people remained in temporary camps for years afterwards; the earthquake worsened existing poverty and reduced access to education and healthcare for many families. Preparation and response: as an LEDC, Haiti had limited earthquake preparedness, weak building codes and poor enforcement, and a government with limited capacity to respond effectively; the immediate response relied heavily on international aid agencies and foreign governments providing emergency food, water, medical care and shelter; however, the response was criticised for being slow to reach some areas, poorly coordinated, and for the long-term recovery and reconstruction effort progressing very slowly, leaving Haiti still recovering from the disaster many years later. In contrast, an equivalent-magnitude earthquake in an MEDC, with stricter building codes and better-resourced emergency services, would typically result in far fewer deaths and a faster recovery, illustrating how a country's level of development strongly influences both the impact of, and response to, a major earthquake.

Marking scheme

Level 3 (7-9): detailed, accurate named case study correctly identifying the plates/boundary type involved, with well-developed short-term AND long-term impacts on people and the environment, and an evaluative discussion of preparation and response; fluent specialist terminology. Level 2 (4-6): sound case study knowledge of plates involved and impacts, with some discussion of response, but less balanced or less detailed. Level 1 (1-3): basic, general statements with limited case-study detail, plates not clearly identified or impacts vague. Level 0 (0): no creditable content. Indicative content: plates (Caribbean Plate and North American Plate, conservative/transform boundary); short-term impacts (deaths, building collapse, homelessness, disease outbreaks); long-term impacts (economic disruption, slow reconstruction, worsened poverty); response (weak building codes/preparedness, reliance on international aid, criticised slow/uneven long-term recovery).

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Practice This Topic

Section Unit 2: Living in Our World

Answer all four questions: Theme A (Population and Migration), Theme B (Changing Urban Areas), Theme C (Contrasts in World Development), and Theme D (Managing Our Environment). Use provided OS map extract. Total 100 marks.
26 Question · 100 marks
Question 1 · Cloze passage / matching / classification
4 marks
Complete the passage below about the Demographic Transition Model by choosing the correct word from the pair provided in each case. In Stage 1, both birth rates and death rates are (high/low). In Stage 2, death rates begin to (rise/fall) due to improvements in healthcare and food supply, while birth rates remain high, causing population to (grow rapidly/decline). In Stage 5, some MEDCs may experience birth rates falling below death rates, causing (natural increase/natural decrease).
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Worked solution

Stage 1: both birth and death rates are high, so population is stable/low growth. Stage 2: death rates fall due to improved healthcare/food supply while birth rates stay high, so population grows rapidly. Stage 5: birth rates falling below death rates produces natural decrease.

Marking scheme

[1] each correct: high; fall; grow rapidly; natural decrease (max 4).
Question 2 · Cloze passage / matching / classification
4 marks
Complete the sentences below by choosing the correct word from the pair provided. (a) An LEDC population pyramid typically has a (wide/narrow) base. (b) This wide base shows a (high/low) birth rate. (c) An LEDC's population is typically (youth/aged) dependent. (d) An MEDC's population, with a greater proportion of elderly people, is typically (youth/aged) dependent.
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Worked solution

LEDCs typically have high birth rates, giving population pyramids a wide base and a youth-dependent population structure. MEDCs, with lower birth rates and greater life expectancy, have a larger elderly population and are typically aged-dependent.

Marking scheme

[1] each correct: (a) wide; (b) high; (c) youth; (d) aged (max 4).
Question 3 · Cloze passage / matching / classification
4 marks
Complete the passage below about issues facing inner city areas in MEDCs by choosing the correct word from the pair provided. Many inner city areas suffer from (poor-quality/modern) housing, though some areas undergo (gentrification/depopulation) as wealthier residents move in and renovate older housing. Traffic (congestion/flow) is often a major problem, affecting air quality and journey times, while (public/private) transport can be expensive and infrequent.
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Worked solution

Inner city areas often have poor-quality older housing, though gentrification can occur as wealthier residents move in and renovate. Traffic congestion is a common problem affecting air quality and journey times, and public transport in some inner city areas can be expensive or infrequent.

Marking scheme

[1] each correct: poor-quality; gentrification; congestion; public (max 4).
Question 4 · Cloze passage / matching / classification
4 marks
Complete the passage below about strategies to reduce the development gap, by choosing the correct word from the pair provided. The United Nations' 2030 Agenda includes a set of (Sustainable Development Goals/Trade Tariffs) which aim to reduce poverty and inequality worldwide. (Appropriate/Advanced) technology refers to simple, low-cost technology suited to the skills and resources available in an LEDC. (Fair/Free) trade guarantees producers in LEDCs a minimum, stable price for their goods, helping to (increase/reduce) poverty.
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Worked solution

The UN's 2030 Agenda includes the Sustainable Development Goals. Appropriate technology is simple, low-cost technology suited to local skills/resources in an LEDC. Fair trade guarantees LEDC producers a minimum, stable price, helping to reduce poverty.

Marking scheme

[1] each correct: Sustainable Development Goals; Appropriate; Fair; reduce (max 4).
Question 5 · Cloze passage / matching / classification
4 marks
Complete the passage below about managing resources sustainably, by choosing the correct word from the pair provided. The waste hierarchy prioritises (reducing/disposing of) waste in the first instance, followed by (reusing/burning) items, and then recycling materials into new products. (Renewable/Non-renewable) energy sources, such as wind power, do not run out and produce (more/fewer) greenhouse gas emissions than fossil fuels.
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Worked solution

The waste hierarchy prioritises reducing waste first, then reusing items, then recycling. Renewable energy sources such as wind power do not run out and produce fewer greenhouse gas emissions than fossil fuels.

Marking scheme

[1] each correct: reducing; reusing; Renewable; fewer (max 4).
Question 6 · Definitions & term identification
3 marks
State the meaning of the terms 'crude birth rate' and 'crude death rate', and define 'natural change'.
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Worked solution

The crude birth rate is the number of live births per 1,000 people in a population in a given year. The crude death rate is the number of deaths per 1,000 people in a population in a given year. Natural change is the difference between the birth rate and the death rate — natural increase occurs when births exceed deaths, and natural decrease occurs when deaths exceed births.

Marking scheme

[1] crude birth rate correctly defined (per 1,000 population per year); [1] crude death rate correctly defined (per 1,000 population per year); [1] natural change correctly defined as the difference between birth and death rates (max 3).
Question 7 · Definitions & term identification
2 marks
State the meaning of the term 'gentrification'.
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Worked solution

Gentrification is the process by which a run-down inner city area is renovated and improved as wealthier residents and businesses move in, raising property values but often displacing the original, poorer residents who can no longer afford to live there.

Marking scheme

[1] wealthier residents move in and renovate/improve a run-down area; [1] raises property values, often displacing original/poorer residents (max 2).
Question 8 · Definitions & term identification
3 marks
Define 'appropriate technology', and state one advantage of using appropriate technology (rather than advanced/expensive technology) in an LEDC.
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Worked solution

Appropriate technology refers to simple, low-cost technology that is suited to the skills, resources and needs of the local community using it, often in an LEDC context. One advantage is that it is affordable and can typically be built, operated and repaired using local materials and skills, without relying on expensive imported parts or specialist expertise.

Marking scheme

[2] appropriate technology correctly defined (simple/low-cost; suited to local skills/resources/needs) — 2 marks for a full definition, 1 for a partial definition; [1] valid advantage given (max 3).
Question 9 · Definitions & term identification
2 marks
State the meaning of the term 'carbon footprint'.
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Worked solution

A carbon footprint is a measure of the total amount of greenhouse gases, expressed as carbon dioxide equivalent, that are produced directly or indirectly by an individual, organisation, product, event or activity, usually over the course of a year.

Marking scheme

[1] total amount of greenhouse gases/carbon dioxide produced; [1] by an individual/organisation/product/activity (max 2).
Question 10 · OS Map skills (distance, grid ref, direction, features)
2 marks
Study the 1:50,000 OS map extract showing the towns of Ashford (grid reference 412 268) and Milbrook (grid reference 448 301), connected by a minor road, with a river valley, a wooded area and a golf course symbol shown between them. Give the four-figure grid reference of the square in which the town of Ashford is located.
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Worked solution

The four-figure grid reference is read by taking the easting (first two digits of the six-figure reference, 41) followed by the northing (first two digits, 26), giving 4126.

Marking scheme

[2] 4126 (2 marks for both digit pairs correct in the right order; 1 mark if only one pair is correct).
Question 11 · OS Map skills (distance, grid ref, direction, features)
2 marks
Using the OS map extract, calculate the straight-line distance, in kilometres, between Ashford (412 268) and Milbrook (448 301).
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Worked solution

The easting difference is 448-412=36 (i.e. 3.6 km) and the northing difference is 301-268=33 (i.e. 3.3 km). Using Pythagoras: distance = √(3.6²+3.3²) = √(12.96+10.89) = √23.85 ≈ 4.9 km.

Marking scheme

[1] correct method shown (Pythagoras using the easting and northing differences); [1] correct answer of approximately 4.9 km (accept 4.8-5.0 km) (max 2).
Question 12 · OS Map skills (distance, grid ref, direction, features)
2 marks
Using the OS map extract, give the compass direction (one of the eight compass points) of Milbrook (448 301) from Ashford (412 268).
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Worked solution

Milbrook is both north and east of Ashford by a similar amount (36 units east, 33 units north), placing it in the north-east direction from Ashford, using the eight-point compass.

Marking scheme

[2] North-east/NE (award 1 for 'north' or 'east' alone).
Question 13 · OS Map skills (distance, grid ref, direction, features)
2 marks
Using the OS map extract, identify the type of land use suggested by the golf course symbol shown between Ashford and Milbrook, and state one reason why this type of land use is often found on the edge of settlements (the rural-urban fringe) rather than in the town centre.
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Worked solution

The golf course symbol indicates recreational/leisure land use. Golf courses require large areas of land, which is cheaper and more readily available on the edge of settlements (the rural-urban fringe) than in the expensive, built-up town centre.

Marking scheme

[1] recreational/leisure land use identified; [1] valid reason (requires large areas of cheaper/available land not found in the town centre) (max 2).
Question 14 · OS Map skills (distance, grid ref, direction, features)
2 marks
Using the OS map extract, describe the pattern of settlement shown between Ashford and Milbrook, referring to the relief and the river valley shown on the map.
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Worked solution

Settlements and the connecting road tend to be located along the flatter land of the river valley between Ashford and Milbrook, avoiding the steeper slopes and higher ground shown elsewhere on the map, since flat land is easier and cheaper to build on and provides easier transport routes.

Marking scheme

[1] settlement/routes follow the valley/flatter land; [1] avoids steep slopes/higher ground (max 2).
Question 15 · OS Map skills (distance, grid ref, direction, features)
2 marks
Using the OS map extract, give the six-figure grid reference of the centre of the wooded area shown midway between Ashford and Milbrook (approximately 430 285).
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Worked solution

The six-figure grid reference for the centre of the wooded area, as given in the question, is 430285 (easting 430, northing 285).

Marking scheme

[2] 430285 (2 marks for a fully correct six-figure reference in the correct order; 1 mark if eastings/northings are individually correct but reversed or a digit is wrong).
Question 16 · OS Map skills (distance, grid ref, direction, features)
2 marks
Using the OS map extract, state the four-figure grid reference of the square containing Milbrook, and name one renewable energy resource that the river valley shown on the map could potentially be used to generate.
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Worked solution

The four-figure grid reference for Milbrook is 4430 (44, 30). The river shown in the valley could potentially be used to generate hydroelectric power (HEP).

Marking scheme

[1] 4430; [1] hydroelectric power/HEP (max 2).
Question 17 · OS Map skills (distance, grid ref, direction, features)
2 marks
Using the OS map extract, suggest one reason why the area of higher ground to the north of Milbrook might be a suitable location for a wind farm, based on what the map shows.
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Worked solution

Areas of higher ground, as shown to the north of Milbrook, are typically more exposed and experience stronger, more consistent wind speeds than sheltered valley locations, making them more suitable for wind turbines. Such upland areas are also often sparsely populated, reducing the number of people affected by noise or visual impact and reducing the likelihood of local objections.

Marking scheme

[1] higher/exposed ground has stronger, more consistent winds; [1] sparsely populated/rural, so fewer people affected/objections (max 2).
Question 18 · Structured explanation & data extraction
4 marks
Study the population pyramid for an LEDC, which shows a wide base narrowing sharply towards the top. Describe two social and two economic implications of a youth-dependent population for this country.
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Worked solution

Social implications: a youth-dependent population places significant pressure on schools and healthcare services (such as maternity and child healthcare) to meet the needs of a large child population. Economic implications: a high youth dependency ratio means a relatively small working-age population must support a large number of dependants, straining government spending and reducing the amount available for savings and investment; the country will also need to create a large number of new jobs in the future as this young population reaches working age.

Marking scheme

[1] each for any two social implications (e.g. pressure on schools; pressure on child/maternal healthcare services; housing pressure for growing families) and any two economic implications (e.g. high dependency ratio/burden on the working-age population; less available for savings/investment; future need to create many new jobs) (max 4).
Question 19 · Structured explanation & data extraction
4 marks
Describe two problems caused by traffic congestion in inner city areas, and describe one way in which a city could try to reduce congestion.
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Worked solution

Two problems: traffic congestion increases vehicle emissions, reducing local air quality and contributing to respiratory health problems for residents; congestion also increases journey times, reducing efficiency for commuters and businesses. One solution: cities can invest in improved and cheaper public transport (such as more frequent buses or trams) and park-and-ride schemes to encourage people to leave their cars outside the city centre, reducing the number of vehicles in the inner city.

Marking scheme

[1] each for any two problems (reduced air quality/pollution from emissions; increased journey times; noise pollution; road safety issues) (max 2); [2] for a valid, developed solution (e.g. improved/cheaper public transport; park-and-ride schemes; congestion charging), 1 mark for a solution named without development (max 4 total).
Question 20 · Structured explanation & data extraction
4 marks
Describe two issues associated with cultural mix in MEDC inner city areas.
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Worked solution

Inner city areas in MEDCs are often ethnically and culturally diverse, which can bring economic and cultural benefits but can also lead to issues. Ethnic and religious tensions can arise between different community groups, sometimes linked to competition for housing, jobs or resources. Language barriers can make it difficult for some residents to access services such as healthcare and education, or to integrate fully into the wider community.

Marking scheme

[1] each for any two of: ethnic tensions between community groups; religious tensions between community groups; language barriers affecting access to services/integration; competition for housing/jobs/resources between groups (max 4, 2 marks per developed point or 1 mark each for four brief points).
Question 21 · Structured explanation & data extraction
4 marks
Describe and evaluate the success of one named appropriate technology product as a sustainable solution to the problem of unequal development.
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Worked solution

The Hippo Water Roller is a large, barrel-shaped plastic container that can be rolled along the ground rather than carried on the head or back, making it much easier for people, often women and children, to collect and transport water over long distances in areas without piped water supplies. It has been successful in reducing the time and physical strain involved in water collection, freeing up time for activities such as education or income generation, and it can carry several times more water than a traditional container in a single trip. However, its success is limited in some areas because the initial cost may still be too high for the very poorest households without support from charities or aid organisations, and it works best on reasonably flat, even ground, so it is less effective in hilly or very rough terrain.

Marking scheme

[1] each for: clear description of what the Hippo Water Roller is/does; explanation of how it helps (saves time/reduces physical strain/carries more water); one valid strength/success; one valid limitation (max 4).
Question 22 · Structured explanation & data extraction
4 marks
Evaluate the benefits and disadvantages of using wind power as a renewable energy source.
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Worked solution

Benefits: wind power is a renewable resource that will not run out, and it produces no direct greenhouse gas emissions while generating electricity, helping to reduce a country's carbon footprint and reliance on fossil fuels; once built, wind turbines have relatively low running costs. Disadvantages: wind power is intermittent and unreliable, since electricity is only generated when the wind is blowing at a suitable speed, so it usually needs to be backed up by other energy sources; wind turbines and wind farms can also have a significant visual impact on the landscape and generate noise, which can lead to local objections, and the initial cost of building a wind farm is high.

Marking scheme

[1] each for any two benefits (renewable/does not run out; no direct emissions during operation; low running costs) (max 2); [1] each for any two disadvantages (intermittent/unreliable, needs backup; visual/noise impact and local objections; high initial construction cost) (max 2) — total max 4.
Question 23 · Extended case study & policy evaluation (QWC)
9 marks
Compare the population structure of a named MEDC with a named LEDC, using population pyramids, and assess the social and economic implications of aged and youth dependency for each country. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills, including the use of specialist geographical terms.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

MEDC example — Japan: Japan's population pyramid has a narrow base and a wide top, reflecting a low birth rate and long life expectancy; this gives an aged-dependent population structure. Social implications include increasing demand for healthcare, care homes and pension provision for a growing elderly population; economic implications include a shrinking working-age population that must support a growing number of elderly dependants through taxation, rising government spending on pensions and healthcare, and potential labour shortages in some sectors. LEDC example — Nigeria: Nigeria's population pyramid has a wide base narrowing sharply towards the top, reflecting a high birth rate and a young population structure; this gives a youth-dependent population. Social implications include significant pressure on schools, and on maternal and child healthcare services, to meet the needs of a large and growing child population; economic implications include a high dependency ratio, with a relatively small working-age population supporting many young dependants, which can limit a family's or government's ability to save and invest, though this large youth population also represents significant future workforce potential if adequately educated and employed. In both cases, the shape of the population pyramid has significant, but very different, consequences for government spending priorities and economic planning.

Marking scheme

Level 3 (7-9): detailed comparison of named MEDC and LEDC population structures with accurate reference to pyramid shape, and well-developed social AND economic implications for both aged and youth dependency; fluent specialist terminology. Level 2 (4-6): sound comparison with some accurate implications, but less balanced or detailed for one country. Level 1 (1-3): basic, general statements about population structure with limited implications discussed. Level 0 (0): no creditable content. Indicative content: MEDC (narrow base/wide top pyramid, aged dependency, rising healthcare/pension costs, shrinking workforce); LEDC (wide base/narrow top pyramid, youth dependency, pressure on schools/child healthcare, high dependency ratio, future workforce potential).
Question 24 · Extended case study & policy evaluation (QWC)
9 marks
For a named MEDC urban planning scheme, evaluate how successfully it has regenerated and improved housing, employment opportunities, transport and the environment in the inner city zone. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills, including the use of specialist geographical terms.
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Worked solution

Case study: the Titanic Quarter in Belfast is a large-scale urban regeneration scheme built on former shipyard and derelict industrial land beside the River Lagan, previously part of the Harland and Wolff shipyard. Housing: the scheme has built large numbers of new apartments and residential developments, bringing people back to live in a previously derelict, disused part of the inner city. Employment: it has created thousands of jobs, including through the Titanic Belfast visitor attraction (a major tourist landmark), a growing digital and creative industries hub, and office and retail space for businesses relocating to the area. Transport: new roads, cycle paths and public transport links (including a dedicated Metro service) have improved accessibility to and within the Quarter, which was previously an isolated, derelict dockland area. Environment: the scheme has transformed a heavily polluted, derelict industrial waterfront into an attractive public realm, with landscaped walkways and green/public spaces along the River Lagan, significantly improving the visual and environmental quality of the area. Evaluation: the Titanic Quarter has been successful in attracting significant private and public investment, boosting tourism (particularly through the Titanic Belfast attraction) and creating substantial employment, and has considerably improved the physical environment of a previously derelict brownfield site. However, the scheme has been criticised for being led by high-value commercial and luxury residential development, meaning relatively little affordable housing has been provided for lower-income residents from the surrounding, more deprived, traditional inner city communities, so the benefits of regeneration have not been shared equally with everyone in the wider inner city area.

Marking scheme

Level 3 (7-9): detailed, accurate named case study addressing housing, employment, transport AND environment, with a balanced evaluation of successes and limitations and an explicit concluding judgement; fluent specialist terminology. Level 2 (4-6): sound case study knowledge of the scheme covering most of the four aspects, some evaluation but unbalanced or partially developed. Level 1 (1-3): basic, general statements with limited case-study detail; little or no evaluation. Level 0 (0): no creditable content. Indicative content: housing (new apartments/residential development on former derelict land); employment (Titanic Belfast attraction, digital/creative industries, offices); transport (new roads/cycle paths/Metro links improving accessibility); environment (transformed derelict/polluted waterfront into an attractive public realm); evaluation (successful investment/tourism/employment vs limited affordable housing for original community).
Question 25 · Extended case study & policy evaluation (QWC)
8 marks
For a named BRICS country, discuss how globalisation has both helped and hindered its development. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills, including the use of specialist geographical terms.
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Worked solution

Case study: India, a BRICS country, has experienced significant globalisation over recent decades. How globalisation has helped development: India has become a major global centre for IT services, software development and business process outsourcing (such as call centres), attracting large amounts of foreign direct investment (FDI) from multinational companies; this has created millions of jobs, particularly in cities such as Bangalore and Hyderabad, raised incomes for many skilled workers, and contributed to rapid economic growth and a growing urban middle class. How globalisation has hindered development: rapid industrial growth linked to globalisation has contributed to serious environmental problems, including air and water pollution in major cities; the benefits of globalisation have also been unevenly distributed, with a widening gap between prosperous, globally-connected urban areas and poorer rural regions that have benefited far less; in some globalised industries, workers face long hours, low pay and poor working conditions, as companies seek to keep production costs low to remain internationally competitive. Overall, globalisation has clearly boosted India's economic growth and created significant opportunities, but its benefits have not been shared equally across the whole population, and it has brought considerable environmental and social costs alongside the economic gains.

Marking scheme

Level 3 (6-8): detailed, accurate named BRICS country case study with well-developed points on BOTH how globalisation has helped AND hindered development, fluent specialist terminology. Level 2 (3-5): sound case study knowledge with some balanced discussion, but less developed on one side. Level 1 (1-2): basic, general statements about globalisation with limited case-study detail. Level 0 (0): no creditable content. Indicative content: helped (FDI/outsourcing/IT industry growth, job creation, rising incomes, economic growth); hindered (pollution/environmental damage, unequal distribution of benefits/widening inequality, poor working conditions in some industries).
Question 26 · Extended case study & policy evaluation (QWC)
8 marks
Describe and evaluate the 2015 International Climate Change Agreement (the Paris Agreement) as a strategy to manage the causes and effects of climate change. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills, including the use of specialist geographical terms.
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Worked solution

In 2015, at the UN Climate Change Conference in Paris, nearly 200 countries adopted the Paris Agreement, the first legally binding global agreement of its kind on climate change. Its central aim is to limit the rise in global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels, while pursuing efforts to limit the increase to 1.5°C, in order to significantly reduce the risks and impacts of climate change. To achieve this, each participating country submits its own Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) — its own targets and plans for reducing greenhouse gas emissions — which are reviewed and are intended to be strengthened over time. Evaluation: the Paris Agreement was a landmark achievement in bringing almost every country in the world, including both MEDCs and LEDCs, together to commit to tackling climate change, and it has raised the profile of climate action and encouraged growth in renewable energy investment globally. However, the agreement has been criticised because the individual national targets (NDCs) are not legally binding or enforceable, meaning there is no guarantee that countries will meet their commitments, and current pledges are widely considered insufficient on their own to limit warming to 1.5°C; progress has also been uneven between countries, and some major emitters have wavered in their commitment over time. Overall, the Paris Agreement represents an important step in international cooperation on climate change, but its long-term success depends heavily on countries' willingness to strengthen and actually deliver on their voluntary commitments.

Marking scheme

Level 3 (6-8): detailed, accurate description of the Paris Agreement's aims/mechanism (e.g. temperature target, NDCs) with a balanced evaluation of its strengths and limitations, fluent specialist terminology. Level 2 (3-5): sound description of the agreement with some evaluation, but less developed or less balanced. Level 1 (1-2): basic, general statements about climate change agreements with limited accurate detail. Level 0 (0): no creditable content. Indicative content: description (nearly 200 countries, 2015, Paris; aim to limit warming to well below 2°C/pursue 1.5°C; Nationally Determined Contributions); evaluation (near-universal landmark agreement/raised profile of climate action vs non-binding/unenforceable targets, insufficient current pledges, uneven progress).

Section Unit 3: Fieldwork

Answer all four questions based on your own primary geographical fieldwork investigation. Submit fieldwork booklet with exam paper. Total 40 marks.
11 Question · 40 marks
Question 1 · Enquiry stages flowchart & planning definitions
3 marks
A student carried out a fieldwork investigation into how selected characteristics of a river change with distance downstream, with the aim: 'To investigate how river channel width, depth and velocity change with distance downstream.' State, in the correct order, the six stages of the geographical enquiry process, from initial planning through to evaluation.
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Worked solution

The geographical enquiry process follows six stages in sequence: (1) planning, including establishing aims and hypotheses; (2) fieldwork techniques and data collection; (3) processing and presenting data; (4) analysing and interpreting data; (5) drawing conclusions; and (6) evaluating the fieldwork.

Marking scheme

[1] correct stages named; [1] correct sequence/order; [1] all six stages included with no significant omission (max 3, awarded holistically).
Question 2 · Enquiry stages flowchart & planning definitions
3 marks
State the meaning of the terms 'hypothesis' and 'primary data', and give one example of a primary data collection method that could be used to measure river velocity.
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Worked solution

A hypothesis is a testable statement or prediction, made before data collection, that can be proved or disproved using the evidence gathered during the enquiry. Primary data is data collected first-hand by the student during their own fieldwork, rather than data obtained from an existing source. River velocity can be measured directly using the float method: timing how long a floating object takes to travel a measured distance along the river, then calculating speed as distance divided by time.

Marking scheme

[1] hypothesis correctly defined; [1] primary data correctly defined; [1] valid primary method for measuring velocity (e.g. float method) (max 3).
Question 3 · Enquiry stages flowchart & planning definitions
2 marks
Give one potential risk involved in carrying out fieldwork on a river, and state one way this risk could be reduced.
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Worked solution

One risk when carrying out river fieldwork is slipping or falling into the river, particularly on wet, slippery or uneven river banks. This risk can be reduced by wearing appropriate footwear, such as wellington boots or sturdy walking boots, and by always working in pairs or small groups under teacher supervision rather than alone.

Marking scheme

[1] valid risk identified; [1] valid, relevant method of reducing that risk (max 2).
Question 4 · Data source distinction & primary methodology evaluation
4 marks
Distinguish between primary and secondary data sources, and give one example of a secondary data source that could have been used alongside the primary data collected for this river investigation.
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Worked solution

Primary data is data collected first-hand by the researcher during their own fieldwork (such as the width, depth and velocity measurements taken at each site). Secondary data is data that already exists, having been collected previously by someone else, and is obtained from an existing source rather than collected directly by the student. For this river investigation, a useful secondary source would be an Ordnance Survey map, to identify site locations and the distance from the source, or existing river flow/gauge data published by the relevant environment agency.

Marking scheme

[2] primary data correctly defined (collected first-hand by the student); [1] secondary data correctly defined (collected by someone else/existing source); [1] valid, relevant secondary source example given (max 4).
Question 5 · Data source distinction & primary methodology evaluation
4 marks
Describe the method used to measure river width at each site, and evaluate one limitation of this method.
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Worked solution

River width was measured by stretching a tape measure directly across the river from one bank to the other, at right angles to the direction of flow, and reading the distance in metres. One limitation of this method is that it can be difficult to identify the exact edge of the bank, particularly where the bank is uneven, overgrown with vegetation, or where the water level fluctuates, which can reduce the accuracy and consistency of the width measurements taken at different sites.

Marking scheme

[2] correct, clearly described method (tape measure stretched bank-to-bank at right angles to flow); [2] valid, well-explained limitation (e.g. difficulty identifying exact bank edge/vegetation/fluctuating water level reducing accuracy) (max 4).
Question 6 · Data source distinction & primary methodology evaluation
4 marks
Describe the float method used to measure river velocity, and explain why it is good practice to repeat each velocity measurement several times and calculate a mean.
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Worked solution

The float method involves placing a floating object (such as an orange or a small piece of wood) into the river at the upstream end of a measured section of the channel, and timing how long it takes to travel to the downstream end. Velocity is then calculated as the distance travelled divided by the time taken. It is good practice to repeat this measurement several times at each site and calculate a mean average, because a single reading could be affected by an anomaly (for example the float becoming briefly caught in an eddy, or being blown off course by wind), so taking a mean of several repeats reduces the impact of any one inaccurate reading and produces a more reliable, representative result.

Marking scheme

[2] correct, clearly described float method (timed over a measured distance; velocity = distance ÷ time); [2] valid, well-explained reason for repeating and averaging (reduces impact of an anomalous/inaccurate single reading, improving reliability) (max 4).
Question 7 · Full graphical presentation on grid
8 marks
The student's data table recorded river width at six sites: Site 1 (0.5 km from source): 1.2 m; Site 2 (2 km): 2.1 m; Site 3 (4 km): 3.4 m; Site 4 (6 km): 4.8 m; Site 5 (8 km): 6.5 m; Site 6 (10 km): 8.0 m. Using this data, plot a line graph on the grid provided to show how river width changes with distance downstream. Your graph should include a suitable title, correctly labelled and scaled axes, and accurately plotted points joined by a ruled or smooth line.
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Worked solution

The graph should have distance downstream (km) on the x-axis, correctly scaled from 0 to at least 10 km, and river width (m) on the y-axis, correctly scaled from 0 to at least 8 m, with both axes clearly labelled including units. The six data points — (0.5 km, 1.2 m), (2 km, 2.1 m), (4 km, 3.4 m), (6 km, 4.8 m), (8 km, 6.5 m) and (10 km, 8.0 m) — should be plotted accurately and joined with a ruled or smooth line to show the overall increasing trend. The graph should have a clear, appropriate title, such as 'Graph to show the change in river width with distance downstream'.

Marking scheme

[1] suitable, appropriate title; [1] x-axis correctly labelled (distance downstream, km) with appropriate scale; [1] y-axis correctly labelled (river width, m) with appropriate scale; up to [4] for accurate plotting of points, awarded in bands (all 6 points accurate = 4; 4-5 accurate = 3; 2-3 accurate = 2; 0-1 accurate = 1); [1] points correctly joined with a ruled/smooth line (max 8 total).
Question 8 · Graph trend analysis (quoting figures) & anomaly definition
3 marks
The student's data table also recorded mean river depth at the same six sites: Site 1 (0.5 km): 0.15 m; Site 2 (2 km): 0.22 m; Site 3 (4 km): 0.31 m; Site 4 (6 km): 0.28 m; Site 5 (8 km): 0.42 m; Site 6 (10 km): 0.51 m. Describe the trend shown by river depth as distance from the source increases, quoting figures from the data table in your answer.
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Worked solution

River depth generally increases with distance downstream, rising from 0.15 m at Site 1 (0.5 km from the source) to 0.51 m at Site 6 (10 km from the source) — an overall increase of 0.36 m. However, the increase is not perfectly steady at every site.

Marking scheme

[1] correct overall trend identified (depth generally increases with distance downstream); [1] correct figure(s) quoted from the table (e.g. 0.15 m at Site 1, 0.51 m at Site 6); [1] valid additional comment (e.g. overall increase of 0.36 m, or noting the increase is not perfectly steady) (max 3).
Question 9 · Graph trend analysis (quoting figures) & anomaly definition
3 marks
Define the term 'anomaly' in the context of fieldwork data, and identify one anomaly in the depth data shown above, quoting figures to support your answer.
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Worked solution

An anomaly is a data value or result that does not fit the general pattern or trend shown by the rest of the data set — an unexpected or unusually high or low reading. In the depth data, Site 4 (6 km from the source) is an anomaly: its depth of 0.28 m is lower than both the preceding Site 3 (0.31 m) and the following Site 5 (0.42 m), breaking the otherwise generally increasing trend in depth with distance downstream.

Marking scheme

[1] anomaly correctly defined (a value that does not fit the general trend/pattern); [1] correct anomaly identified (Site 4, 6 km); [1] correct supporting figures quoted (0.28 m at Site 4, compared with 0.31 m at Site 3 and/or 0.42 m at Site 5) (max 3).
Question 10 · Fieldwork interpretation & study extension
3 marks
Suggest one possible explanation for the anomaly identified in the depth data at Site 4, and evaluate one limitation of the depth data collection method that could have contributed to this anomaly.
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Worked solution

One possible explanation for the shallower depth recorded at Site 4 is that the river channel may be locally wider at that point, spreading the same volume of water (discharge) over a greater width and therefore reducing its average depth, or Site 4 may coincide with a naturally shallower, faster-flowing riffle section of the channel bed. A limitation of the depth data collection method that could have contributed to this anomaly is that depth is often measured at only a limited number of points across the width of the channel; if the river bed is uneven, this may not accurately represent the true mean depth at that site, potentially explaining the unusually low reading.

Marking scheme

[1] valid, plausible explanation for the anomaly (e.g. locally wider channel/riffle section reducing depth); [2] valid, well-explained methodological limitation that could contribute to the anomaly (e.g. depth measured at too few points across an uneven channel bed, not representing true mean depth) (max 3).
Question 11 · Fieldwork interpretation & study extension
3 marks
Suggest one way in which this river fieldwork investigation could be extended to develop the study further.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The investigation could be extended by repeating the data collection at the same six sites at a different time of year, such as after a period of heavy rainfall or in a different season, to compare how the river's characteristics vary over time as well as with distance downstream. Alternatively, the study could be extended further downstream to include additional sites closer to the river's mouth, giving a more complete picture of how width, depth and velocity change along the river's full long profile, or could be developed to calculate and compare discharge (width × depth × velocity) at each site.

Marking scheme

[1] valid, relevant way to extend the study; [2] the suggestion is clearly explained/developed with a reason why it would improve or extend the investigation (max 3).

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