An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2026 (V4) Cambridge International AS Level Biology (9700) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.
Paper 1 (Multiple Choice)
Answer all 40 multiple choice questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
40 Question · 40 marks
Question 1 · multiple_choice
1 marks
During translocation of sucrose in the phloem of herbaceous dicotyledonous plants, companion cells transfer sucrose into sieve tube elements against a concentration gradient.
Which sequence of events correctly describes the active loading of sucrose into the phloem?
A.Protons are actively transported from companion cells into the sieve tube lumen, and sucrose moves into companion cells by facilitated diffusion.
B.Protons are actively pumped out of companion cells into the cell wall, and then sucrose enters companion cells with protons via cotransporter proteins.
C.Sucrose is actively pumped into the companion cell wall, causing protons to enter sieve tube elements through plasmodesmata.
D.Protons diffuse out of companion cells by simple diffusion, driving the active transport of sucrose directly across the tonoplast.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Active loading of sucrose begins when proton pumps in the cell surface membrane of companion cells actively pump \(\text{H}^+\) ions out of the cytoplasm and into the cell wall apoplast using ATP. This generates a higher concentration of \(\text{H}^+\) in the cell wall than inside the companion cell (a steep electrochemical gradient). \(\text{H}^+\) ions then diffuse back into the companion cell through cotransporter membrane proteins down their concentration gradient, bringing sucrose molecules with them against the concentration gradient of sucrose. Sucrose then moves into the sieve tube element through plasmodesmata via diffusion.
Marking scheme
B is correct [1]; A is incorrect because \(\text{H}^+\) is pumped out into the cell wall, not into the sieve tube lumen directly; C is incorrect because \(\text{H}^+\) ions diffuse through cotransporters back into the companion cell, not active transport of sucrose alone without \(\text{H}^+\); D is incorrect because sucrose enters companion cells with \(\text{H}^+\) moving down its electrochemical gradient.
Question 2 · multiple_choice
1 marks
An investigation was carried out to determine the effect of changing the proportion of unsaturated fatty acid tails in the phospholipid bilayer of an artificial membrane.
Which row correctly describes the effect of increasing the proportion of unsaturated fatty acids containing carbon-carbon double bonds (\(\text{C}=\text{C}\)) on membrane fluidity and the permeability to small non-polar molecules?
A.Membrane fluidity increases; Permeability to small non-polar molecules increases
B.Membrane fluidity increases; Permeability to small non-polar molecules decreases
C.Membrane fluidity decreases; Permeability to small non-polar molecules increases
D.Membrane fluidity decreases; Permeability to small non-polar molecules decreases
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Unsaturated fatty acid hydrocarbon tails contain one or more carbon-carbon double bonds (\(\text{C}=\text{C}\)), which introduce kinks in the hydrocarbon chains. These kinks prevent the phospholipids from packing closely together, increasing intermolecular spacing and thereby increasing membrane fluidity. The looser packing also increases the permeability of the bilayer to small molecules.
Marking scheme
A is correct [1]; B, C, and D are incorrect because kinks prevent close packing of tails, resulting in increased fluidity and increased permeability.
Question 3 · multiple_choice
1 marks
The Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_m\)) and maximum velocity (\(V_{\max}\)) were determined for an enzyme-catalysed reaction in the absence and in the presence of a reversible inhibitor.
The results showed that in the presence of the inhibitor, \(V_{\max}\) remained unchanged, but the value of \(K_m\) increased.
Which statement explains this result?
A.The inhibitor is non-competitive and binds to an allosteric site, altering the shape of the active site.
B.The inhibitor is non-competitive, preventing substrate molecules from binding even at high substrate concentrations.
C.The inhibitor is competitive and binds to the active site, requiring higher substrate concentration to reach \(\frac{1}{2}V_{\max}\).
D.The inhibitor is competitive and binds irreversibly to an allosteric site, reducing the concentration of free enzyme.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
A competitive inhibitor has a molecular shape complementary to the active site of the enzyme and competes directly with the substrate for binding. At very high substrate concentrations, the substrate outcompetes the inhibitor, allowing the enzyme to achieve the same maximum rate (\(V_{\max}\) is unchanged). However, because a higher substrate concentration is required to reach half the maximum rate (\(\frac{1}{2}V_{\max}\)), the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_m\)) increases, indicating a lower apparent affinity for the substrate.
Marking scheme
C is correct [1]; A and B describe non-competitive inhibition where \(V_{\max}\) decreases and \(K_m\) is unchanged; D is incorrect because competitive inhibitors bind reversibly to the active site, not an allosteric site.
Question 4 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Four statements about biological macromolecules are listed:
1. Amylose contains \(\alpha\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds forming an unbranched helical chain. 2. Cellulose contains \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds where alternate glucose monomers are rotated by \(180^\circ\). 3. Collagen consists of three polypeptide chains arranged in a triple helix held together by disulfide bonds. 4. Triglycerides contain three ester bonds formed by condensation reactions between glycerol and three fatty acid molecules.
Which statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Statement 1 is correct: amylose is an unbranched polymer of \(\alpha\)-glucose linked by \(\alpha\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds. Statement 2 is correct: cellulose is composed of \(\beta\)-glucose monomers linked by \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds, requiring consecutive residues to be rotated by \(180^\circ\) relative to their neighbours. Statement 3 is incorrect: the triple helix of collagen is held together by hydrogen bonds (and covalent cross-links in fibrils), not disulfide bonds. Statement 4 is correct: a triglyceride consists of one glycerol molecule joined to three fatty acids via three ester bonds formed through condensation.
Marking scheme
D is correct (1, 2, and 4 only) [1]; Statements 1, 2, and 4 are biologically accurate; Statement 3 is incorrect because collagen triple helixes are stabilised by hydrogen bonds, not disulfide bonds.
Question 5 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes the biochemical mechanism of action of penicillin and why it is ineffective against viruses?
A.Penicillin binds to 70S ribosomes to prevent translation in bacteria, whereas viruses use 80S host ribosomes.
D.Penicillin prevents viral DNA replication by inhibiting RNA polymerase, but bacteria have protective nuclear membranes.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Penicillin acts as an inhibitor of the bacterial enzyme transpeptidase (glycopeptide transpeptidase), which catalyses the formation of peptide cross-links between peptidoglycan chains in growing bacterial cell walls. The weakened cell wall cannot withstand osmotic pressure, causing the bacterium to burst (lysis). Penicillin has no effect on viruses because viruses are non-cellular, lack peptidoglycan cell walls, and do not possess their own metabolic machinery or transpeptidase enzymes.
Marking scheme
B is correct [1]; A is incorrect because penicillin targets transpeptidase and peptidoglycan cross-linking, not 70S ribosomes; C is incorrect because penicillin does not break ester bonds in membranes; D is incorrect because penicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis, not DNA replication enzymes.
Question 6 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A diploid animal cell contains 16 chromosomes in the \(\text{G}_1\) phase of interphase.
How many chromatids and how many centromeres are present in this cell during metaphase of mitosis?
A.32 chromatids and 16 centromeres
B.16 chromatids and 16 centromeres
C.32 chromatids and 32 centromeres
D.64 chromatids and 32 centromeres
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
In \(\text{G}_1\) phase, the cell has 16 chromosomes, each containing a single chromatid (16 DNA molecules). During the S phase of interphase, semi-conservative DNA replication occurs, so each chromosome consists of two identical sister chromatids joined at a single centromere. Therefore, at metaphase of mitosis, there are 16 chromosomes, each with 2 chromatids, giving a total of \(16 \times 2 = 32\) chromatids and 16 centromeres.
Marking scheme
A is correct [1]; B is incorrect because there are 32 chromatids, not 16; C is incorrect because sister chromatids share 1 centromere per chromosome before anaphase; D is incorrect for both values.
Question 7 · multiple_choice
1 marks
In actively respiring tissues, carbon dioxide produced by cells diffuses into red blood cells.
Which physiological process explains the Bohr effect observed in respiring tissues?
A.Carbon dioxide combines directly with haem groups to permanently block oxygen binding.
B.Hydrogencarbonate ions bind to haemoglobin, causing haem groups to release carbon monoxide.
C.Hydrogen ions from dissociated carbonic acid bind to oxyhaemoglobin, reducing its affinity for oxygen.
D.Carbonic anhydrase catalyses the breakdown of lactic acid, increasing blood pH and oxygen loading.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
In red blood cells, carbon dioxide is converted to carbonic acid by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase. Carbonic acid dissociates into hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) and hydrogencarbonate ions (\(\text{HCO}_3^-\)). The \(\text{H}^+\) ions bind to oxyhaemoglobin, acting as a buffer to form haemoglobinic acid (\(\text{HHb}\)). This binding of \(\text{H}^+\) causes an allosteric conformational change in haemoglobin that reduces its affinity for oxygen, promoting the release of oxygen to the respiring tissues (the Bohr effect).
Marking scheme
C is correct [1]; A is incorrect because carbaminohaemoglobin is formed by binding CO2 to amino groups of globin, not the main driver of the Bohr effect via \(\text{H}^+\); B is incorrect because \(\text{HCO}_3^-\) leaves the red blood cell in exchange for \(\text{Cl}^-\) (chloride shift), not binding to haem; D is incorrect because carbonic anhydrase catalyses the hydration of \(\text{CO}_2\), not the synthesis of lactic acid.
Question 8 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A student views a transverse section of an organelle using a transmission electron microscope (TEM) and a light microscope.
Which row correctly matches the cellular feature with the minimum type of microscope required to resolve it and its structural characteristic?
A.Chloroplast envelope (two membranes separated by intermembrane space) — Light microscope — Single phospholipid bilayer
B.Centriole (microtubule triplets) — Light microscope — Surrounded by a tonoplast
D.Ribosome (70S in mitochondria) — Transmission electron microscope — Non-membrane-bound particle of rRNA and protein
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
70S ribosomes have a diameter of approximately 20 nm to 30 nm. The maximum resolution of a standard light microscope is limited by the wavelength of visible light to about 200 nm (0.2 \(\mu\text{m}\)), so ribosomes cannot be resolved by a light microscope and require an electron microscope. Ribosomes are non-membrane-bound structures found freely in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes and within the matrix of mitochondria and stroma of chloroplasts in eukaryotes.
Marking scheme
D is correct [1]; A is incorrect because a chloroplast has a double membrane envelope and can be seen with a light microscope; B is incorrect because centrioles are 200 nm diameter and require an electron microscope; C is incorrect because lysosomes are single-membrane bound and have a diameter ~0.1-0.5 um, requiring TEM for detailed structure.
Question 9 · multiple_choice
1 marks
The movement of sucrose into companion cells in a source leaf involves proton pumps and cotransporter proteins in the cell surface membrane.
Which row correctly describes the roles of ATP and the cotransporter protein in this process?
$$\begin{array}{|c|l|l|} \hline & \textbf{Role of ATP} & \textbf{Role of cotransporter protein} \\ \hline \textbf{A} & \text{hydrolysed to pump } \mathrm{H^+} \text{ into the cell wall} & \text{transports } \mathrm{H^+} \text{ and sucrose together into the companion cell} \\ \hline \textbf{B} & \text{hydrolysed to pump sucrose into the companion cell} & \text{transports } \mathrm{H^+} \text{ out of the cell by facilitated diffusion} \\ \hline \textbf{C} & \text{hydrolysed to pump } \mathrm{H^+} \text{ into the companion cell cytoplasm} & \text{transports sucrose out of the cell by active transport} \\ \hline \textbf{D} & \text{hydrolysed to synthesize sucrose in the companion cell} & \text{allows passive diffusion of } \mathrm{H^+} \text{ and sucrose into the phloem sieve tube} \\ \hline \end{array}$$
A.hydrolysed to pump \(\mathrm{H^+}\) into the cell wall | transports \(\mathrm{H^+}\) and sucrose together into the companion cell
B.hydrolysed to pump sucrose into the companion cell | transports \(\mathrm{H^+}\) out of the cell by facilitated diffusion
C.hydrolysed to pump \(\mathrm{H^+}\) into the companion cell cytoplasm | transports sucrose out of the cell by active transport
D.hydrolysed to synthesize sucrose in the companion cell | allows passive diffusion of \(\mathrm{H^+}\) and sucrose into the phloem sieve tube
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
During active loading of sucrose in source tissues, ATP is hydrolysed by proton pumps ($$\mathrm{H^+}\text{-ATPases}$$) to actively transport hydrogen ions ($$\mathrm{H^+}$$) out of the companion cell cytoplasm into the cell wall (apoplast). This generates a steep proton electrochemical gradient. Sucrose-$$\mathrm{H^+}$$ cotransporters (symporters) then transport $$\mathrm{H^+}$$ down its concentration gradient back into the companion cell alongside sucrose molecules against the sucrose concentration gradient.
Marking scheme
A ; [1 mark]
[Incorrect options: B – ATP powers the proton pump, not direct sucrose transport; C – Protons are pumped out of the companion cell into the apoplast, not into the cytoplasm; D – Sucrose is synthesized in mesophyll cells, not companion cells, and cotransporters transport into companion cells, not passively into sieve tubes.]
Question 10 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes the effect of lipid composition on the fluidity and stability of a cell surface membrane?
A.A higher proportion of unsaturated fatty acid tails decreases membrane fluidity because double bonds allow tighter packing of phospholipid molecules.
B.A higher proportion of saturated fatty acid tails increases membrane fluidity because hydrocarbon chains cannot pack closely together.
C.Cholesterol reduces membrane fluidity at high temperatures by restricting the movement of phospholipid fatty acid tails.
D.Cholesterol increases membrane fluidity at high temperatures by breaking hydrogen bonds between phospholipid head groups.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
At high temperatures, cholesterol molecules restrict the lateral movement of phospholipids by interacting with their fatty acid tails, thereby reducing membrane fluidity and preventing excessive fluidity. Saturated fatty acids have straight tails that pack closely together, decreasing fluidity. Unsaturated fatty acids introduce kinks (due to carbon-carbon double bonds), which prevent close packing and increase membrane fluidity.
Marking scheme
C ; [1 mark]
[A is incorrect because unsaturated fatty acid tails increase fluidity due to kinks; B is incorrect because saturated tails decrease fluidity; D is incorrect because cholesterol restricts phospholipid movement at high temperatures, decreasing fluidity.]
Question 11 · multiple_choice
1 marks
The effect of an enzyme inhibitor was investigated across a range of substrate concentrations.
The results showed that in the presence of the inhibitor: - the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\max}\)) remained unchanged - the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_{\mathrm{m}}\)) was significantly higher.
Which statement explains these findings?
A.The inhibitor binds to an allosteric site and alters the conformation of the active site.
B.The inhibitor competes reversibly with the substrate for the active site.
C.The inhibitor forms permanent covalent bonds with amino acid residues in the active site.
D.The inhibitor reduces the catalytic turnover rate of the enzyme-substrate complex without affecting substrate binding.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
A competitive inhibitor has a complementary shape to the active site and competes directly with the substrate for binding. Because the inhibition is reversible, increasing the substrate concentration increases the probability of substrate collisions over inhibitor collisions, eventually achieving the normal \(V_{\max}\). However, a higher substrate concentration is required to reach half \(V_{\max}\) (\(\frac{1}{2}V_{\max}\)), which means the \(K_{\mathrm{m}}\) increases (indicating a lower apparent affinity for the substrate).
Marking scheme
B ; [1 mark]
[A is non-competitive inhibition which lowers \(V_{\max}\); C describes irreversible inhibition which lowers \(V_{\max}\); D describes non-competitive inhibition which does not change \(K_{\mathrm{m}}\) but reduces \(V_{\max}\).]
Question 12 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Four biological molecules (\(\mathbf{W}\), \(\mathbf{X}\), \(\mathbf{Y}\), and \(\mathbf{Z}\)) were tested using standard biochemical tests. The observations are shown in the table below:
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
- \(\mathbf{W}\) gives a blue-black colour with iodine, showing it is starch/amylose. - \(\mathbf{X}\) gives a purple colour with Biuret reagent, showing it is a protein (haemoglobin). - \(\mathbf{Y}\) is negative in direct Benedict's test (remains blue) but gives a brick-red precipitate after acid hydrolysis, identifying it as a non-reducing disaccharide (sucrose). - \(\mathbf{Z}\) is positive in the direct Benedict's test (brick-red), identifying it as a reducing sugar (maltose/glucose/fructose). Therefore, row A is correct.
Marking scheme
A ; [1 mark]
[B is incorrect because glycogen does not give blue-black with iodine and glucose is reducing; C is incorrect because triglyceride does not test positive with Biuret and maltose is reducing; D is incorrect because cellulose does not give a blue-black iodine reaction.]
Question 13 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which row correctly matches the infectious disease with the type of pathogen and its primary method of transmission?
$$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline & \textbf{Disease} & \textbf{Type of pathogen} & \textbf{Primary method of transmission} \\ \hline \textbf{A} & \text{cholera} & \text{virus} & \text{inhalation of airborne droplets} \\ \hline \textbf{B} & \text{malaria} & \text{protoctist} & \text{bite of female } \textit{Anopheles} \text{ mosquito} \\ \hline \textbf{C} & \text{tuberculosis} & \text{bacterium} & \text{ingestion of contaminated water} \\ \hline \textbf{D} & \text{HIV/AIDS} & \text{bacterium} & \text{exchange of infected body fluids} \\ \hline \end{array}$$
A.cholera | virus | inhalation of airborne droplets
B.malaria | protoctist | bite of female \textit{Anopheles} mosquito
C.tuberculosis | bacterium | ingestion of contaminated water
D.HIV/AIDS | bacterium | exchange of infected body fluids
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Malaria is caused by the protoctist Plasmodium (such as P. falciparum) and is transmitted by the vector female Anopheles mosquito. - Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae via waterborne transmission (contaminated water/food). - Tuberculosis is caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium bovis, primarily via droplet infection (airborne). - HIV/AIDS is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (a virus, not a bacterium).
Marking scheme
B ; [1 mark]
[A is incorrect because cholera is bacterial and waterborne; C is incorrect because TB is transmitted by aerosol droplets; D is incorrect because HIV is a virus.]
Question 14 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A diploid eukaryotic cell contains \(12\text{ pg}\) of nuclear DNA during the \(\mathrm{G_1}\) phase of interphase.
What are the mass of nuclear DNA and the number of chromatids per chromosome present in this cell during metaphase of mitosis?
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
During the S phase of interphase, semi-conservative DNA replication doubles the quantity of nuclear DNA from \(12\text{ pg}\) to \(24\text{ pg}\). Each replicated chromosome consists of two genetically identical sister chromatids joined at the centromere throughout \(\mathrm{G_2}\), prophase, and metaphase. The sister chromatids only separate at anaphase.
Marking scheme
D ; [1 mark]
[A, B, C incorrect: DNA replicates in S phase so mass must be 24 pg; each chromosome at metaphase consists of 2 chromatids.]
Question 15 · multiple_choice
1 marks
During ventricular systole in the mammalian cardiac cycle, which changes in pressure cause the atrioventricular valve to close and the semilunar valve to open?
A.Atrioventricular valve closes when atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure; semilunar valve opens when aortic pressure exceeds ventricular pressure.
B.Atrioventricular valve closes when ventricular pressure drops below atrial pressure; semilunar valve opens when ventricular pressure drops below aortic pressure.
C.Atrioventricular valve closes when ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure; semilunar valve opens when ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure.
D.Atrioventricular valve closes when aortic pressure exceeds ventricular pressure; semilunar valve opens when atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
As the ventricles contract during ventricular systole: 1. Ventricular pressure rises above atrial pressure, forcing the atrioventricular (bicuspid/mitral or tricuspid) valve to close to prevent backflow into the atrium. 2. Ventricular pressure continues to increase until it exceeds aortic (or pulmonary arterial) pressure, forcing open the semilunar valve so blood is ejected into the arterial system.
Marking scheme
C ; [1 mark]
[A, B, D are incorrect because valves open and close according to relative hydrostatic pressure gradients on either side of the valve.]
Question 16 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which structural features are present in both mitochondria and typical prokaryotic cells?
1. \(70\mathrm{S}\) ribosomes 2. circular DNA not associated with histone proteins 3. linear chromosomes enclosed within a nuclear envelope 4. peptidoglycan cell wall
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1 and 2 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.2 and 3 only
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Both mitochondria and prokaryotes contain \(70\mathrm{S}\) ribosomes (smaller than cytoplasmic \(80\mathrm{S}\) eukaryotic ribosomes) and circular DNA that is not bound to histone proteins (naked DNA). Mitochondria do not have a nuclear envelope or linear chromosomes (feature 3 is eukaryotic nuclear only), and mitochondria do not have a peptidoglycan cell wall (feature 4 is found in bacterial prokaryotic cell walls only).
Marking scheme
B ; [1 mark]
[1 and 2 are true for both; 3 is incorrect because neither has a nucleus/linear chromosomes; 4 is incorrect because mitochondria lack cell walls.]
Question 17 · multiple_choice
1 marks
In the loading of sucrose into phloem sieve tube elements at a source, which sequence of events occurs in the companion cells?
A.Protons are actively pumped out of companion cells, establishing a gradient that drives sucrose uptake via cotransporter proteins.
B.Sucrose is actively transported into companion cells by ATP-driven pumps without the involvement of protons.
C.Water is actively pumped into companion cells to generate high hydrostatic pressure that pushes sucrose into sieve tubes.
D.Potassium ions are actively pumped out of companion cells to allow passive diffusion of sucrose down an electrical gradient.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Proton pumps in the cell surface membrane of companion cells actively transport \(\text{H}^+\) ions (protons) out of the companion cell into the cell wall space using ATP. This sets up a steep electrochemical proton gradient. \(\text{H}^+\) ions then move back down their concentration gradient through cotransporter proteins, bringing sucrose molecules into the companion cell against their concentration gradient. Sucrose then diffuses into the sieve tube element through plasmodesmata.
Marking scheme
A is correct [1]; B is incorrect as sucrose uptake is coupled to proton cotransport rather than a direct sucrose-ATP pump; C is incorrect as water moves by osmosis rather than active transport; D is incorrect as proton gradients rather than potassium ion gradients power sucrose cotransport.
Question 18 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Cylinders of potato tissue of equal mass were placed in sucrose solutions of concentrations ranging from \(0.1\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) to \(0.8\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\). After 2 hours, the cylinders were removed and reweighed. The cylinder placed in \(0.35\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution showed a 0% change in mass.
Which statement about this investigation is correct?
A.At \(0.35\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) sucrose, no water molecules enter or leave the potato cells.
B.At \(0.20\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) sucrose, the water potential of the solution is less negative than that of the cells, causing a net movement of water into the cells.
C.At \(0.60\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) sucrose, cells gain turgor because sucrose enters the cytoplasm down its concentration gradient.
D.At \(0.10\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) sucrose, water moves out of the vacuole into the solution down a water potential gradient.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
At 0% change in mass (\(0.35\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\)), the water potential of the sucrose solution equals the internal water potential of the potato cells. In a \(0.20\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution, the solution has a higher (less negative) water potential than the potato cells. Therefore, water moves by osmosis down a water potential gradient from the solution into the cells, resulting in a net gain in mass.
Marking scheme
B is correct [1]; A is incorrect because at \(0.35\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) dynamic equilibrium exists (water enters and leaves at equal rates); C is incorrect because plant cell membranes are not freely permeable to sucrose; D is incorrect because in \(0.10\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) solution, water moves into the vacuole, not out.
Question 19 · multiple_choice
1 marks
An investigation was carried out on the kinetics of an enzyme-catalysed reaction in the presence and absence of two different enzyme inhibitors, X and Y.
- Inhibitor X increased the value of the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_{\text{m}}\)) without altering the maximum velocity (\(V_{\text{max}}\)). - Inhibitor Y decreased the value of \(V_{\text{max}}\) without altering the value of \(K_{\text{m}}\).
Which row correctly identifies the type of inhibitor and its site of binding?
A.X is a competitive inhibitor that binds to the active site; Y is a non-competitive inhibitor that binds to an allosteric site.
B.X is a non-competitive inhibitor that binds to an allosteric site; Y is a competitive inhibitor that binds to the active site.
C.X is a competitive inhibitor that binds to an allosteric site; Y is a non-competitive inhibitor that binds to the active site.
D.X is a non-competitive inhibitor that binds to the active site; Y is a competitive inhibitor that binds to an allosteric site.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
A competitive inhibitor binds reversibly to the active site, competing directly with the substrate. This increases the substrate concentration required to reach half \(V_{\text{max}}\) (raising \(K_{\text{m}}\)), but with sufficiently high substrate concentration, \(V_{\text{max}}\) is unchanged. A non-competitive inhibitor binds to an allosteric site (a site other than the active site), decreasing the catalytic activity and thus lowering \(V_{\text{max}}\) without affecting the affinity of the uninhibited enzyme active site for the substrate (\(K_{\text{m}}\) remains unchanged).
Marking scheme
A is correct [1]; B, C, and D confuse the kinetic effects (\(V_{\text{max}}\) and \(K_{\text{m}}\)) and binding sites of competitive vs non-competitive inhibitors.
Question 20 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Four biological solutions, 1, 2, 3, and 4, were tested for reducing sugar and non-reducing sugar. The observations are recorded in the table.
$$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|} \hline \text{Solution} & \text{Benedict's test on original solution} & \text{Benedict's test after acid hydrolysis and neutralisation} \\ \hline 1 & \text{blue} & \text{brick-red} \\ 2 & \text{brick-red} & \text{brick-red} \\ 3 & \text{blue} & \text{blue} \\ 4 & \text{brick-red} & \text{blue} \\ \hline \end{array}$$
Which statement correctly identifies the carbohydrate present in one of the solutions?
A.Solution 1 contains glucose only.
B.Solution 2 contains sucrose only.
C.Solution 1 contains sucrose.
D.Solution 3 contains a non-reducing disaccharide.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Solution 1 gave a negative result (blue) initially with Benedict's reagent, but upon acid hydrolysis into monosaccharide subunits and neutralisation, it gave a positive result (brick-red). This is characteristic of a non-reducing disaccharide such as sucrose. Solution 2 contains a reducing sugar (e.g. glucose or maltose). Solution 3 contains no reducing or non-reducing sugar (could be pure water or a non-hydrolysed polysaccharide under these mild conditions). Solution 4 is chemically invalid as reducing sugars do not lose reducing ability upon boiling with acid.
Marking scheme
C is correct [1]; A is incorrect because Solution 1 contains a non-reducing sugar like sucrose, not glucose; B is incorrect because Solution 2 contains reducing sugar; D is incorrect because Solution 3 does not contain a non-reducing disaccharide.
Question 21 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which row correctly pairs an infectious disease with its causative pathogen and primary route of transmission?
A.Cholera | Virus | Ingestion of contaminated water
B.Tuberculosis | Protoctist | Inhalation of airborne droplets
C.HIV/AIDS | Virus | Bite from an insect vector
D.Malaria | Protoctist | Bite from female \(Anopheles\) mosquito
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Malaria is caused by protoctists of the genus \(Plasmodium\) (such as \(P.\text{ falciparum}\), \(P.\text{ vivax}\), \(P.\text{ ovale}\), \(P.\text{ malariae}\)) and transmitted by female \(Anopheles\) mosquitoes (insect vector). Cholera is caused by the bacterium \(Vibrio\text{ cholerae}\) and is water-borne. Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium \(Mycobacterium\text{ tuberculosis}\) and is airborne. HIV/AIDS is caused by a virus and is transmitted via infected body fluids.
Marking scheme
D is correct [1]; A is incorrect because \(Vibrio\text{ cholerae}\) is a bacterium, not a virus, and is water-borne; B is incorrect because \(Mycobacterium\text{ tuberculosis}\) is a bacterium transmitted by airborne droplets; C is incorrect because HIV is transmitted by body fluid contact, not insect vectors.
Question 22 · multiple_choice
1 marks
In an electron micrograph of a mesophyll cell, the maximum length of a chloroplast is measured as \(27\text{ mm}\). The magnification of the micrograph is \(\times 6000\).
What is the actual length of this chloroplast, and which type of ribosome is present inside it?
A.Actual length = \(4.5\ \mu\text{m}\); Ribosome type = 70S
B.Actual length = \(4.5\ \mu\text{m}\); Ribosome type = 80S
C.Actual length = \(0.45\ \mu\text{m}\); Ribosome type = 70S
D.Actual length = \(0.45\ \mu\text{m}\); Ribosome type = 80S
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Actual size \(=\frac{\text{Image size}}{\text{Magnification}}\). \(\text{Image size} = 27\text{ mm} = 27\,000\ \mu\text{m}\). \(\text{Actual length} = \frac{27\,000\ \mu\text{m}}{6000} = 4.5\ \mu\text{m}\). Chloroplasts originated via endosymbiosis and contain prokaryote-like 70S ribosomes (unlike the 80S ribosomes found free in eukaryotic cytoplasm or on the rough endoplasmic reticulum).
Marking scheme
A is correct [1]; B incorrectly states 80S ribosomes; C and D result from calculation errors (incorrect unit conversion) and/or incorrect ribosome classification.
Question 23 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which statement describes the events that occur in mammalian red blood cells as blood passes through active skeletal muscle tissue?
A.Carbonic acid dissociates and \(\text{H}^+\) ions are actively pumped out of the cell into the plasma.
B.Hydrogencarbonate ions enter the red blood cell and chloride ions diffuse out into the plasma.
C.Hydrogencarbonate ions diffuse out into the plasma while chloride ions enter the red blood cell to maintain electrochemical neutrality.
D.Carbonic anhydrase converts hydrogencarbonate ions into gaseous carbon dioxide within the erythrocyte cytoplasm.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
In active tissues, high \(p\text{CO}_2\) causes \(\text{CO}_2\) to diffuse into red blood cells, where carbonic anhydrase catalyses its hydration to form carbonic acid (\(\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3\)). Carbonic acid dissociates into \(\text{H}^+\) and \(\text{HCO}_3^-\). \(\text{H}^+\) ions combine with oxyhaemoglobin, displacing \(\text{O}_2\) (Bohr effect) and forming haemoglobinic acid (\(\text{HHb}\)), which acts as a buffer. \(\text{HCO}_3^-\) ions diffuse out into the blood plasma down their concentration gradient, and chloride ions (\(\text{Cl}^-\)) move in to maintain electrical neutrality (chloride shift).
Marking scheme
C is correct [1]; A is incorrect because \(\text{H}^+\) ions bind to haemoglobin (preventing blood from becoming acidic) rather than actively diffusing out; B is incorrect because \(\text{Cl}^-\) enters the cell while \(\text{HCO}_3^-\) leaves; D is incorrect because carbonic anhydrase catalyses the formation of carbonic acid, not its breakdown, in respiring tissues.
Question 24 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A linear, double-stranded DNA molecule contains \(3200\) base pairs. Chemical analysis shows that \(31\%\) of the total nitrogenous bases in this DNA molecule are guanine.
How many thymine bases and how many phosphodiester bonds are present in this DNA molecule?
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Total number of nucleotides (bases) \(= 3200 \times 2 = 6400\). Guanine (G) \(= 31\%\), so Cytosine (C) \(= 31\%\). \(G + C = 62\%\). Therefore, \(A + T = 100\% - 62\% = 38\%\). Thymine (T) \(= \frac{38\%}{2} = 19\%\). Number of thymine bases \(= 0.19 \times 6400 = 1216\). In a linear single strand of \(n\) nucleotides, there are \(n - 1\) phosphodiester bonds. Each strand has \(3200\) nucleotides, so each strand has \(3200 - 1 = 3199\) phosphodiester bonds. Total phosphodiester bonds \(= 2 \times 3199 = 6398\).
Marking scheme
B is correct [1]; A incorrectly calculates 6400 phosphodiester bonds (assuming a circular molecule); C and D use half the total bases (3200) instead of 6400 or miscalculate phosphodiester bonds per linear strand.
Question 25 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A student calibrated a light microscope using an eyepiece graticule and a stage micrometer scale. The stage micrometer had divisions spaced at \(0.01\text{ mm}\) (\(10\text{ }\mu\text{m}\)) intervals.
Using a \(\times 10\) objective lens, \(40\) eyepiece graticule units lined up with \(20\) divisions of the stage micrometer.
The student then observed a slide of leaf mesophyll cells using a \(\times 40\) objective lens and the same eyepiece lens. A chloroplast was measured and found to be \(6\) eyepiece graticule units in length.
What is the actual length of this chloroplast?
A.\(1.25\text{ }\mu\text{m}\)
B.\(7.50\text{ }\mu\text{m}\)
C.\(30.0\text{ }\mu\text{m}\)
D.\(120\text{ }\mu\text{m}\)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. Calculate the value of 1 eyepiece graticule unit at \(\times 10\) objective: \(20\text{ stage micrometer divisions} = 20 \times 10\text{ }\mu\text{m} = 200\text{ }\mu\text{m}\). \(40\text{ graticule units} = 200\text{ }\mu\text{m}\), so \(1\text{ graticule unit} = \frac{200}{40} = 5.0\text{ }\mu\text{m}\).
2. Adjust for switching from \(\times 10\) to \(\times 40\) objective (a 4-fold increase in magnification): At \(\times 40\) objective, \(1\text{ graticule unit} = \frac{5.0\text{ }\mu\text{m}}{4} = 1.25\text{ }\mu\text{m}\).
3. Calculate the actual length of the chloroplast: \(\text{Actual length} = 6 \times 1.25\text{ }\mu\text{m} = 7.5\text{ }\mu\text{m}\).
Marking scheme
B ; [1 mark]
[A = incorrect calibration ignoring the 6 graticule length; C = failed to adjust for the change in objective lens from \(\times 10\) to \(\times 40\); D = multiplied by 4 instead of dividing when magnification increased]
Question 26 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes a structural feature of glycogen compared to amylopectin?
A.Glycogen has a higher proportion of \(\alpha\)-1,6-glycosidic bonds, resulting in more frequent branching.
B.Glycogen is composed of \(\beta\)-glucose monomers linked by 1,4-glycosidic bonds, making it more compact.
C.Glycogen forms unbranched helical chains stabilized solely by \(\alpha\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds.
D.Glycogen contains alternating \(\alpha\)-glucose and \(\beta\)-glucose monomers to allow close packing.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Both glycogen and amylopectin are branched polysaccharides composed of \(\alpha\)-glucose units joined by \(\alpha\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds in the linear chains and \(\alpha\)-1,6-glycosidic bonds at branch points. Glycogen has a higher frequency of \(\alpha\)-1,6-glycosidic bonds (branching occurs approximately every 8–10 residues) compared to amylopectin (branching occurs approximately every 20–30 residues), giving glycogen a more compact, highly branched structure.
Marking scheme
A ; [1 mark]
[B is incorrect as glycogen contains \(\alpha\)-glucose, not \(\beta\)-glucose; C is incorrect as glycogen is highly branched; D is incorrect as glycogen contains only \(\alpha\)-glucose monomers]
Question 27 · multiple_choice
1 marks
An enzyme-catalysed reaction was carried out in the presence and absence of a reversible inhibitor.
The results showed that the inhibitor increased the value of the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_m\)) without altering the maximum velocity (\(V_{max}\)) of the reaction.
Which statement correctly explains this effect?
A.The inhibitor binds reversibly to the active site, requiring higher substrate concentrations to achieve the same rate of reaction.
B.The inhibitor binds permanently to an allosteric site, decreasing the turnover number of the enzyme.
C.The inhibitor binds reversibly to an allosteric site, preventing the formation of enzyme-substrate complexes.
D.The inhibitor causes irreversible denaturation of the tertiary structure of the enzyme active site.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
A competitive inhibitor has a shape complementary to the active site of the enzyme and competes with the substrate for binding. This increases the apparent \(K_m\) (meaning higher substrate concentration is required to reach \(\frac{1}{2}V_{max}\)), but at sufficiently high substrate concentrations, the substrate outcompetes the inhibitor, allowing \(V_{max}\) to remain unchanged.
Marking scheme
A ; [1 mark]
[B and C describe non-competitive inhibitors which reduce \(V_{max}\) and typically leave \(K_m\) unchanged; D describes irreversible denaturation]
Question 28 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Discs of beetroot tissue (\textit{Beta vulgaris}) were washed thoroughly to remove surface pigment and incubated in solutions of varying ethanol concentration at \(20\text{ }^\circ\text{C}\) for \(30\text{ minutes}\).
The absorbance of each solution was then measured using a colorimeter.
Which statement explains why the absorbance of the solution increases as the concentration of ethanol increases?
A.Ethanol dissolves the phospholipid bilayer of the membranes, increasing permeability and allowing betalain to leak out.
B.Ethanol competitively inhibits carrier proteins, stopping the active uptake of pigment molecules.
C.Ethanol increases the water potential of the surrounding solution, causing cells to lyse by osmosis.
D.Ethanol hydrolyses the cellulose in cell walls, removing the primary barrier to the movement of pigment.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Ethanol is an organic solvent that dissolves the non-polar fatty acid tails of the phospholipid bilayer and disrupts hydrophobic interactions in membrane proteins. This increases the permeability of both the tonoplast and cell surface membrane, allowing betalain pigment to leak out into the surrounding solution, increasing its absorbance.
Marking scheme
A ; [1 mark]
[B is incorrect as passive leakage occurs, not active transport failure alone; C is incorrect because ethanol does not increase water potential to cause osmotic bursting; D is incorrect because the cell wall is freely permeable to betalain; the permeability barrier is the membrane]
Question 29 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A diploid animal cell has a chromosome number of \(2n = 16\).
Which row correctly shows the number of chromatids, centromeres, and telomeres present in this cell during metaphase of mitosis?
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
During metaphase of mitosis: - The cell has \(16\) chromosomes. - Each chromosome consists of \(2\) sister chromatids following DNA replication in S phase: \(16 \times 2 = 32\text{ chromatids}\). - Each chromosome has \(1\) centromere holding the two sister chromatids together: \(16\text{ centromeres}\). - Each chromatid has \(2\) telomeres (one at each end): \(32 \times 2 = 64\text{ telomeres}\).
Marking scheme
A ; [1 mark]
[B is incorrect because sister chromatids share 1 centromere prior to anaphase; C and D confuse chromosome number with chromatid count]
Question 30 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A section of the non-transcribed (coding) strand of DNA has the base sequence:
\(\text{5'-ATG GCT TAC CGA-3'}\)
Which sequence of anticodons, read in the \(\text{3'} \rightarrow \text{5'}\) direction, is found on the tRNA molecules that bind to the mRNA transcribed from this DNA segment?
A.\(\text{3'-UAC CGA AUG GCU-5'}\)
B.\(\text{3'-AUG GCU UAC CGA-5'}\)
C.\(\text{3'-TAC CGA ATG GCT-5'}\)
D.\(\text{3'-CAU AGC GUA UCG-5'}\)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. Non-transcribed (coding) DNA strand: \(\text{5'-ATG GCT TAC CGA-3'}\). 2. The transcribed mRNA strand is identical to the coding strand, except uracil (U) replaces thymine (T): \(\text{5'-AUG GCU UAC CGA-3'}\). 3. The mRNA codons (\(\text{5'} \rightarrow \text{3'}\)) are: \(\text{AUG}\), \(\text{GCU}\), \(\text{UAC}\), \(\text{CGA}\). 4. The complementary tRNA anticodons (pairing antiparallel \(\text{3'} \rightarrow \text{5'}\)) are: - For \(\text{5'-AUG-3'}\) \(\rightarrow\) \(\text{3'-UAC-5'}\) - For \(\text{5'-GCU-3'}\) \(\rightarrow\) \(\text{3'-CGA-5'}\) - For \(\text{5'-UAC-3'}\) \(\rightarrow\) \(\text{3'-AUG-5'}\) - For \(\text{5'-CGA-3'}\) \(\rightarrow\) \(\text{3'-GCU-5'}\)
Thus, the anticodons read in the \(\text{3'} \rightarrow \text{5'}\) direction are \(\text{UAC CGA AUG GCU}\).
Marking scheme
A ; [1 mark]
[B gives mRNA codons; C contains thymine which is not present in tRNA; D gives anticodons read in the \(\text{5'} \rightarrow \text{3'}\) direction]
Question 31 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes the mechanism of sucrose loading into phloem sieve tube elements at a source?
A.Protons are actively pumped out of companion cells into the cell wall, and sucrose is co-transported back in down the proton concentration gradient before diffusing into sieve tube elements through plasmodesmata.
B.Sucrose is actively pumped directly into sieve tube elements across the plasma membrane, causing water to leave the sieve tubes by osmosis.
C.Protons diffuse passively out of companion cells into sieve tube elements, driving active sucrose transport into the vacuole.
D.Sucrose is hydrolysed into glucose and fructose in companion cells, which then diffuse into sieve tubes and are reassembled.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Phloem loading involves: 1. Proton pumps (\(\text{H}^+\)-ATPases) actively transporting protons out of companion cells into the apoplast (cell wall spaces). 2. This creates a steep proton electrochemical gradient. 3. Protons re-enter companion cells via cotransporter proteins, bringing sucrose molecules with them against the sucrose concentration gradient. 4. Sucrose then diffuses down a concentration gradient into adjacent sieve tube elements via plasmodesmata (symplast pathway).
Marking scheme
A ; [1 mark]
[B is incorrect because sucrose enters via cotransport driven by the proton gradient, not direct ATP pumping into sieve tubes; C is incorrect because protons are pumped out, not diffuse out into sieve tubes; D is incorrect because sucrose is translocated intact, not broken down to hexoses in loading]
Question 32 · multiple_choice
1 marks
During strenuous exercise, the concentration of carbon dioxide in the capillaries of skeletal muscle increases.
Which sequence of events explains the Bohr effect in these capillaries?
A.Carbon dioxide forms carbonic acid which dissociates into \(\text{H}^+\) ions; \(\text{H}^+\) binds to oxyhaemoglobin, lowering its affinity for oxygen and shifting the dissociation curve to the right.
B.Carbon dioxide binds to the haem groups of haemoglobin, increasing its affinity for oxygen and shifting the dissociation curve to the left.
C.Carbon dioxide lowers blood pH, which inhibits carbonic anhydrase and prevents oxygen unloading, shifting the curve to the left.
D.Hydrogen carbonate ions leave red blood cells in exchange for potassium ions, raising intracellular pH and shifting the curve to the right.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. \(\text{CO}_2\) diffuses into red blood cells and is converted to carbonic acid (\(\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3\)) by carbonic anhydrase. 2. Carbonic acid dissociates into \(\text{H}^+\) and \(\text{HCO}_3^-\). 3. The increased concentration of \(\text{H}^+\) ions lowers pH; \(\text{H}^+\) binds to oxyhaemoglobin, forming haemoglobinic acid (\(\text{HHb}\)). 4. This causes haemoglobin to change shape and release \(\text{O}_2\), shifting the oxygen dissociation curve to the right.
Marking scheme
A ; [1 mark]
[B is incorrect as \(\text{CO}_2\) binds to terminal amine groups (forming carbaminohaemoglobin), not haem groups, and high \(\text{CO}_2\) decreases oxygen affinity; C is incorrect because carbonic anhydrase is not inhibited and curve shifts right; D is incorrect because \(\text{HCO}_3^-\)\ leaves in exchange for \(\text{Cl}^-\)\ (chloride shift)]
Question 33 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A student measures the length of a plant epidermal cell using a light microscope fitted with an eyepiece graticule and a stage micrometer.
Using a \(\times 40\) objective lens, 20 eyepiece graticule units align precisely with 0.15 mm on the stage micrometer.
The length of the plant epidermal cell is measured as 6 eyepiece graticule units.
What is the actual length of the cell in micrometres (\(\mu\text{m}\))?
A.\(4.5\ \mu\text{m}\)
B.\(45\ \mu\text{m}\)
C.\(75\ \mu\text{m}\)
D.\(450\ \mu\text{m}\)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
2. Calculate the actual length of the cell: \(\text{Actual length} = 6 \times 7.5\ \mu\text{m} = 45\ \mu\text{m}\).
Marking scheme
B [1] Calculation of 1 graticule unit = 7.5 µm and cell length = 45 µm.
Question 34 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Four different biological samples (1, 2, 3, and 4) were tested using standard biochemical tests:
• Sample 1 gave a blue result with Benedict's solution, but after boiling with dilute hydrochloric acid, neutralizing with sodium hydrogencarbonate, and heating with Benedict's solution again, an orange-red precipitate formed. • Sample 2 gave a blue-black colour when tested with iodine solution. • Sample 3 produced a lilac/purple colour when biuret reagent was added. • Sample 4 formed a cloudy white emulsion when mixed with ethanol and then poured into water.
Which row correctly identifies the macromolecule present in each sample?
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
• Sample 1 is a non-reducing disaccharide such as sucrose, which yields reducing sugars following acid hydrolysis. • Sample 2 contains starch (giving a blue-black colour with iodine). • Sample 3 contains protein (biuret test turns purple/lilac due to peptide bonds). • Sample 4 contains lipid/triglyceride (positive ethanol emulsion test).
The effect of two different inhibitors, X and Y, on the kinetics of an enzyme was investigated:
• Inhibitor X increases the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_m\)) of the enzyme but does not change the maximum velocity (\(V_{\text{max}}\)). • Inhibitor Y decreases \(V_{\text{max}}\) but does not alter \(K_m\).
Which statement correctly explains how inhibitor X or Y acts on the enzyme?
A.Inhibitor X binds reversibly to the active site and its effect can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration.
B.Inhibitor X binds to an allosteric site, causing an irreversible change to the shape of the active site.
C.Inhibitor Y binds to the active site in direct competition with the substrate.
D.Inhibitor Y increases the affinity of the active site for the substrate molecule.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
• Inhibitor X is a competitive inhibitor because it increases \(K_m\) (decreases the apparent affinity of the enzyme for the substrate) while \(V_{\text{max}}\) remains unchanged; its inhibition can be overcome by high substrate concentrations as it binds reversibly to the active site. • Inhibitor Y is a non-competitive inhibitor because it reduces \(V_{\text{max}}\) without changing \(K_m\), binding to an allosteric site.
Marking scheme
A [1] Inhibitor X is competitive: binds to active site and can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration.
Question 36 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Cylinders of potato tissue of equal size and mass were immersed in sucrose solutions of concentrations ranging from \(0.0\text{ mol}\,\text{dm}^{-3}\) to \(0.8\text{ mol}\,\text{dm}^{-3}\).
After 2 hours, the cylinders were reweighed. The point of zero percentage change in mass was found to occur at \(0.35\text{ mol}\,\text{dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution.
Which statement correctly describes what happens when fresh potato cylinders are placed in a \(0.10\text{ mol}\,\text{dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution?
A.Water moves out of the potato cells by osmosis because the external solution has a lower water potential than the cell sap.
B.Sucrose molecules move down their concentration gradient into the potato cells by facilitated diffusion.
C.Water moves into the potato cells down a water potential gradient, causing an increase in turgor pressure.
D.Water enters and leaves the cells at equal rates, resulting in incipient plasmolysis of the cells.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
The potato tissue has a water potential equivalent to \(0.35\text{ mol}\,\text{dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution. A \(0.10\text{ mol}\,\text{dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution has a higher (less negative) water potential than the cell sap. Therefore, water moves by osmosis into the potato cells down a water potential gradient, causing the protoplast to swell and turgor pressure inside the cells to increase.
Marking scheme
C [1] Net movement of water into the cells occurs down a water potential gradient, increasing cell turgidity.
Question 37 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes the function of telomeres in eukaryotic chromosomes?
A.They hold sister chromatids together during metaphase of mitosis.
B.They prevent the loss of essential protein-coding genes during successive cycles of DNA replication.
C.They act as specific attachment sites for spindle microtubules during anaphase.
D.They code for the histone proteins required to package DNA into nucleosomes.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Telomeres are non-coding, repetitive sequences of DNA located at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes. During DNA replication, DNA polymerase cannot replicate the extreme ends of the lagging strand. Telomeres ensure that vital protein-coding genes are not lost during successive rounds of cell division and prevent chromosome ends from degrading or fusing.
Marking scheme
B [1] Telomeres prevent loss of vital coding DNA during successive rounds of DNA replication.
Question 38 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A section of the non-transcribed (coding) DNA strand has the following base sequence:
\(5'\text{–ATG CCG TTA GCA–}3'\)
Which sequence represents the tRNA anticodon that pairs with the second codon of the mRNA produced from this gene?
A.\(3'\text{–CCG–}5'\)
B.\(3'\text{–UAC–}5'\)
C.\(3'\text{–CGG–}5'\)
D.\(3'\text{–GGC–}5'\)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. Non-transcribed (coding) DNA strand: \(5'\text{–ATG CCG TTA GCA–}3'\). 2. Template (transcribed) DNA strand: \(3'\text{–TAC GGC AAT CGT–}5'\). 3. mRNA transcript: \(5'\text{–AUG CCG UUA GCA–}3'\). 4. The second mRNA codon is \(5'\text{–CCG–}3'\). 5. The complementary and antiparallel tRNA anticodon is \(3'\text{–GGC–}5'\).
Marking scheme
D [1] Correct deduction of second mRNA codon as 5'–CCG–3' and corresponding complementary anticodon as 3'–GGC–5'.
Question 39 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes the mechanism of sucrose loading into phloem sieve tube elements at a source in herbaceous dicotyledonous plants?
A.Proton pumps actively transport \(\text{H}^+\) out of the companion cell; sucrose enters the companion cell via a cotransporter protein alongside \(\text{H}^+\) moving down its concentration gradient.
B.Proton pumps use ATP to pump \(\text{H}^+\) into the companion cell; sucrose leaves the companion cell by simple diffusion through channel proteins.
C.Sucrose is pumped directly across the sieve tube membrane by primary active transport using ATP-driven sucrose pumps.
D.Proton pumps move \(\text{H}^+\) out of sieve tubes by facilitated diffusion; sucrose is cotransported out of sieve tubes into companion cells.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
In phloem loading: 1. Proton pumps in the companion cell surface membrane use ATP to actively pump hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) out into the cell wall. 2. This creates a high electrochemical concentration gradient of \(\text{H}^+\) outside the cell. 3. \(\text{H}^+\) ions re-enter companion cells through cotransporter proteins down their concentration gradient, bringing sucrose molecules with them against the sucrose concentration gradient. 4. Sucrose then diffuses into sieve tube elements through plasmodesmata.
Marking scheme
A [1] Proton pumps use ATP to move H+ out, and sucrose-proton cotransporters move sucrose in against its gradient.
Question 40 · multiple_choice
1 marks
The graph shows oxygen dissociation curves for human haemoglobin under two different partial pressures of carbon dioxide (\(p\text{CO}_2\)):
Curve 1: at low \(p\text{CO}_2\) (\(2.7\text{ kPa}\)) Curve 2: at high \(p\text{CO}_2\) (\(5.3\text{ kPa}\)), shifted to the right (the Bohr effect).
Which mechanism is responsible for the shift from Curve 1 to Curve 2 in actively respiring tissues?
A.Carbon dioxide competes directly with oxygen for the iron(II) binding site on the haem group.
B.Hydrogen ions produced by the dissociation of carbonic acid bind to haemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid, decreasing haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen.
C.Chloride ions diffuse out of red blood cells, increasing the intracellular pH and lowering oxygen affinity.
D.Carbaminohaemoglobin increases the affinity of the remaining subunits for oxygen, displacing oxygen into the plasma.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
In actively respiring tissues, high \(p\text{CO}_2\) leads to the diffusion of \(\text{CO}_2\) into red blood cells, where carbonic anhydrase catalyses the reaction \(\text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightleftharpoons \text{H}_2\text{CO}_3\). The carbonic acid dissociates into \(\text{H}^+\) and \(\text{HCO}_3^-\). \(\text{H}^+\) ions bind to oxyhaemoglobin, acting as a buffer to form haemoglobinic acid (\(\text{HHb}\)). This binding alters the tertiary and quaternary structure of haemoglobin, reducing its affinity for oxygen and displacing oxygen to respiring tissues (the Bohr shift).
Marking scheme
B [1] CO2 hydration produces H+ ions that combine with haemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid, reducing O2 affinity.
Ready to test yourself?
Turn these notes into exam-style practice. Get unlimited AI questions on this topic with instant marking and explanations.
Answer all questions in the spaces provided. Show all working in calculations.
22 Question · 62 marks
Question 1 · short-answer
2 marks
Explain the role of the Casparian strip in the endodermis of a plant root during the uptake of water and mineral ions.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. The Casparian strip is an impermeable band containing suberin located in the radial and transverse cell walls of the endodermal cells. 2. This prevents the apoplastic movement (through cell walls) of water and dissolved mineral ions. 3. Water and ions are forced into the symplast pathway (via cytoplasm and plasmodesmata), requiring them to cross the selectively permeable cell surface membrane, which allows the plant to regulate solute uptake into the stele/xylem.
Marking scheme
1. (contains / impregnated with) suberin / waterproof / impermeable (band in cell wall) ; 2. blocks / prevents apoplast pathway / apoplastic movement (of water / mineral ions) ; 3. forces water / ions into symplast pathway / through cytoplasm / across selectively permeable (cell surface) membrane ; [max 2]
Question 2 · short-answer
2 marks
Explain how cholesterol regulates the fluidity of the cell surface membrane at both high and low temperatures.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. At higher temperatures, cholesterol interacts with the fatty acid tails of phospholipids, restricting their kinetic movement and preventing the membrane from becoming overly fluid. 2. At lower temperatures, cholesterol disrupts the regular crystalline packing of phospholipid tails, preventing the membrane from freezing or solidifying.
Marking scheme
1. at high(er) temperatures, restricts / reduces movement of phospholipid (fatty acid) tails / phospholipids (to decrease fluidity / maintain membrane stability) ; 2. at low(er) temperatures, prevents close packing / crystallization of fatty acid tails / phospholipids (to increase fluidity / prevent membrane solidifying) ; [2]
Question 3 · short-answer
2 marks
Outline the effect of a competitive inhibitor on the maximum velocity (\(V_{\text{max}}\)) and the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_{\text{m}}\)) of an enzyme-catalysed reaction.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. A competitive inhibitor binds reversibly to the active site, competing with the substrate. At sufficiently high substrate concentrations, the substrate outcompetes the inhibitor, so the maximum velocity (\(V_{\text{max}}\)) remains unchanged. 2. Because more substrate is required to reach half of the maximum velocity, the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_{\text{m}}\)) increases (indicating decreased apparent affinity for the substrate).
Marking scheme
1. \(V_{\text{max}}\) is unchanged / remains the same (at high substrate concentration) ; 2. \(K_{\text{m}}\) increases / is higher (indicating lower affinity for substrate) ; [2]
Question 4 · short-answer
2 marks
State two structural differences between an amylose molecule and a cellulose molecule.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. Monomer type: Amylose is a polymer of \(\alpha\)-glucose, while cellulose is a polymer of \(\beta\)-glucose. 2. Chain shape and orientation: Amylose chains are curved/coiled into a helix, whereas cellulose forms straight, unbranched chains where successive \(\beta\)-glucose units are inverted (rotated \(180^\circ\)) relative to each other.
Marking scheme
Any two from: 1. monomer is \(\alpha\)-glucose in amylose AND \(\beta\)-glucose in cellulose ; 2. amylose is helical / coiled AND cellulose is straight / linear / unbranched ; 3. successive monomers in cellulose are rotated by \(180^\circ\) / alternate orientation AND same orientation in amylose ; 4. cellulose molecules form inter-chain hydrogen bonds / cross-links (forming microfibrils) AND amylose does not ; [max 2]
Question 5 · short-answer
2 marks
Explain why penicillin is ineffective in the treatment of diseases caused by viruses.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. Penicillin works by inhibiting bacterial transpeptidase enzymes, preventing cross-link formation in peptidoglycan cell walls during cell division, leading to osmotic lysis. 2. Viruses do not have a cellular structure, do not possess peptidoglycan cell walls, and do not carry out their own metabolic wall synthesis, making them unaffected by penicillin.
Marking scheme
1. penicillin inhibits / prevents formation of peptidoglycan / cross-links (in cell walls) / inhibits transpeptidase ; 2. viruses do not have a (peptidoglycan) cell wall / are non-cellular / do not possess transpeptidase / lack bacterial targets ; [2]
Question 6 · short-answer
2 marks
Explain the importance of telomeres during repeated cycles of mitotic cell division.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. During semi-conservative DNA replication, the very end of the lagging strand cannot be fully replicated, resulting in chromosome shortening. 2. Telomeres consist of non-coding repetitive DNA sequences at chromosome ends, ensuring that essential genes are not lost with successive divisions and preventing chromosome fusion or unwanted DNA repair responses.
Marking scheme
1. prevent loss of genes / vital genetic information / coding DNA (during DNA replication / cell division) ; 2. prevent ends of chromosomes / DNA molecules fusing / sticking together / prevent chromosome degradation / recognition as damaged DNA ; [2]
Question 7 · short-answer
2 marks
Describe the role of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in the transport of carbon dioxide by erythrocytes.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. Carbonic anhydrase inside red blood cells catalyses the conversion of dissolved carbon dioxide and water into carbonic acid (\(\text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightleftharpoons \text{H}_2\text{CO}_3\)). 2. The carbonic acid rapidly dissociates into \(\text{H}^+\) and \(\text{HCO}_3^-\); the hydrogencarbonate ions diffuse out into the plasma (via the chloride shift), facilitating the primary transport mechanism of \(\text{CO}_2\).
Marking scheme
1. catalyses the (reversible) reaction between carbon dioxide and water to form carbonic acid / \(\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3\) ; 2. (carbonic acid dissociates allowing) \(\text{CO}_2\) to be converted to / transported as hydrogencarbonate ions / \(\text{HCO}_3^-\) (in blood plasma) ; [2]
Question 8 · short-answer
2 marks
State two differences in ultrastructure between a typical prokaryotic cell and a typical animal cell.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. Nuclear structure/DNA: Prokaryotes have circular naked DNA free in the cytoplasm (nucleoid), whereas animal cells have linear DNA complexed with histones within a double-membrane nucleus. 2. Ribosomes/Organelles: Prokaryotes contain 70S ribosomes and lack membrane-bound organelles (e.g., mitochondria, ER, Golgi body), whereas animal cells have 80S ribosomes in the cytoplasm and possess membrane-bound organelles.
Marking scheme
Any two from: 1. prokaryote has circular DNA / naked DNA / no histones AND animal cell has linear DNA / DNA associated with histone proteins ; 2. prokaryote has no nucleus / no nuclear envelope / nucleoid AND animal cell has a nucleus / double nuclear membrane / nucleolus ; 3. prokaryote has 70S ribosomes (only) AND animal cell has 80S (cytoplasmic) ribosomes ; 4. prokaryote has a (peptidoglycan) cell wall AND animal cell lacks a cell wall ; 5. prokaryote has no membrane-bound organelles / no mitochondria / no ER / no Golgi AND animal cell has membrane-bound organelles ; [max 2]
Question 9 · short-answer
2 marks
Explain the role of the Casparian strip in the movement of water and mineral ions across the root of a herbaceous dicotyledonous plant.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
The Casparian strip is an impermeable band of suberin located within the radial and transverse walls of endodermal cells. It functions by completely blocking the movement of water and dissolved solutes along the apoplast pathway (through the cell walls and intercellular spaces). As a result, all water and mineral ions are forced into the cytoplasm (the symplast pathway) across the selectively permeable cell surface membrane of the endodermis. This allows the plant to regulate and control the entry of specific mineral ions into the vascular cylinder (stele) and xylem vessels.
Marking scheme
1. blocks the apoplast pathway / prevents movement through cell walls (due to suberin / waterproof band) ; [1] 2. forces water and mineral ions into the symplast pathway / through the (partially permeable) cell surface membrane / cytoplasm (allowing selective uptake / regulation of ions into xylem) ; [1] [Total: 2]
Guidance: - [A] stele / vascular cylinder / vascular bundle for xylem - [I] prevents backflow of water
Question 10 · short-answer
2 marks
Describe the role of cholesterol in regulating the fluidity of mammalian cell surface membranes at both high and low physiological temperatures.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Cholesterol molecules insert between the phospholipid molecules in the lipid bilayer. At higher physiological temperatures, cholesterol interacts with the hydrocarbon tails of phospholipids to restrict their lateral movement, thereby preventing the membrane from becoming overly fluid and unstable. At lower physiological temperatures, cholesterol prevents the phospholipid hydrocarbon tails from packing closely together and crystalising (freezing), which maintains fluidity and membrane flexibility.
Marking scheme
1. at high(er) temperatures, reduces fluidity / prevents membrane becoming too fluid by restricting the movement of phospholipid (fatty acid / hydrocarbon) tails / stabilizing the bilayer ; [1] 2. at low(er) temperatures, increases fluidity / maintains fluidity by preventing close packing / crystallization of phospholipid (fatty acid / hydrocarbon) tails ; [1] [Total: 2]
Guidance: - [R] cholesterol moving around at different temperatures - [A] decreases fluidity for reduces fluidity
Question 11 · short-answer
2 marks
An enzyme has a low Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_{\text{m}}\)).
State what \(K_{\text{m}}\) represents and explain what a low \(K_{\text{m}}\) indicates about the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
The Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_{\text{m}}\)) is defined as the substrate concentration at which the enzyme-catalysed reaction proceeds at half its maximum velocity (\(\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{max}}\)). A low \(K_{\text{m}}\) value means that the enzyme requires only a low concentration of substrate to reach \(\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{max}}\), which indicates that the enzyme has a high affinity for that specific substrate.
Marking scheme
1. substrate concentration at which the reaction rate / velocity is half of maximum / \(\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{max}}\) ; [1] 2. (a low \(K_{\text{m}}\) indicates) high affinity of the enzyme for its substrate / reaches \(V_{\text{max}}\) (or \(\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{max}}\)) at lower substrate concentrations ; [1] [Total: 2]
Guidance: - [A] 'half maximum rate' for \(\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{max}}\) - [R] \(K_{\text{m}}\) is the rate of reaction
Question 12 · short-answer
2 marks
Explain why penicillin is effective against growing bacterial cells but has no effect on viruses.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Penicillin acts by inhibiting the bacterial enzyme transpeptidase (glycopeptide transpeptidase), which catalyses the formation of peptide cross-links between strands of peptidoglycan during cell wall synthesis in growing bacteria. This weakens the cell wall, causing the bacterium to burst due to osmotic lysis. In contrast, viruses are non-cellular entities comprising only genetic material (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat (capsid); they do not possess a peptidoglycan cell wall or any metabolic machinery that penicillin targets.
Marking scheme
1. (bacterial action) inhibits transpeptidase / inhibits cross-link formation in peptidoglycan / bacterial cell wall (causing lysis / cell bursting) ; [1] 2. (viral action) viruses do not have a (peptidoglycan) cell wall / viruses have a protein coat / capsid (only) / lack the target enzyme / transpeptidase ; [1] [Total: 2]
Guidance: - [A] murein for peptidoglycan - [A] viruses are non-cellular / have no metabolism (for mark point 2) - [R] viruses have a cell membrane only (must specify lack of cell wall / presence of protein coat)
Question 13 · structured
4 marks
Sucrose is synthesized in photosynthesising mesophyll cells and transported into phloem companion cells prior to long-distance translocation.
Table 1.1 shows the intracellular concentration of sucrose in mesophyll cells and companion cells of a dicotyledonous leaf under normal conditions and after the application of a proton pump inhibitor, compound P.
Table 1.1
| Tissue / Cell type | Sucrose concentration under control conditions / $\text{mmol}\;\text{dm}^{-3}$ | Sucrose concentration after treatment with compound P / $\text{mmol}\;\text{dm}^{-3}$ | | :--- | :--- | :--- | | Mesophyll cell | 15 | 15 | | Companion cell | 140 | 18 |
Explain how sucrose is loaded into companion cells from mesophyll cells against its concentration gradient under normal conditions, and explain the effect of compound P shown in Table 1.1.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. Under control conditions, $\text{H}^+$ ions (protons) are actively pumped out of the companion cell cytoplasm into the cell wall apoplast using ATP via proton pumps. 2. This sets up an electrochemical / concentration gradient of $\text{H}^+$ ions (higher outside the companion cell in the cell wall). 3. $\text{H}^+$ ions diffuse back down their electrochemical gradient into the companion cell through $\text{H}^+$/sucrose cotransporter proteins. 4. Sucrose is transported simultaneously into the companion cell against its concentration gradient (secondary active transport). 5. Compound P inhibits the $\text{H}^+$-ATPase proton pump, so no proton gradient is established, preventing sucrose cotransport and resulting in companion cell sucrose concentration dropping from $140\;\text{mmol}\;\text{dm}^{-3}$ to near mesophyll levels ($18\;\text{mmol}\;\text{dm}^{-3}$).
Marking scheme
1. $\text{H}^+$ / protons pumped out of companion cell into cell wall / apoplast by active transport / using ATP ; 2. creates an electrochemical / concentration / proton gradient (higher $\text{H}^+$ in wall than cytoplasm) ; 3. $\text{H}^+$ and sucrose enter companion cell together via cotransporter / symporter (protein) ; 4. secondary active transport of sucrose against its concentration gradient / driven by proton movement down its gradient ; 5. compound P prevents $\text{H}^+$ pumping so no / reduced proton gradient generated, preventing active sucrose accumulation / sucrose conc drops to $18\;\text{mmol}\;\text{dm}^{-3}$ ; [max 4]
Question 14 · structured
4 marks
An investigation was carried out into the effect of ethanol concentration on the permeability of the cell surface membranes of beetroot (Beta vulgaris) storage tissue.
Cylinders of beetroot tissue were immersed in solutions of different ethanol concentrations for 30 minutes at $20\;^\circ\text{C}$. The absorbance of the bathing solution was then measured using a colorimeter with a blue filter. A higher absorbance indicates greater leakage of the red pigment, betalain.
With reference to the structure of the cell surface membrane, explain the results shown in Table 2.1.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. As ethanol concentration increases from 0% to 40%, absorbance increases from 0.04 to 0.94 a.u., indicating an increase in membrane permeability. 2. Ethanol is an organic solvent which dissolves / disrupts the non-polar phospholipid bilayer / hydrophobic core of the membrane. 3. Ethanol disrupts hydrogen bonding and hydrophobic interactions within membrane proteins (including transport proteins and tonoplast proteins), causing protein denaturation. 4. This increases membrane fluidity and creates gaps / pores in both the tonoplast and cell surface membrane, allowing betalain pigment to leak out into the surrounding solution by diffusion down its concentration gradient.
Marking scheme
1. comparative data quote: absorbance increases from $0.04\;\text{a.u.}$ at $0\%$ to $0.94\;\text{a.u.}$ at $40\%$ ethanol ; 2. ethanol dissolves / disrupts the phospholipid bilayer / hydrophobic core / non-polar fatty acid tails ; 3. ethanol denatures / disrupts tertiary structure of membrane proteins / transport proteins ; 4. disruption of both cell surface membrane and tonoplast ; 5. membrane permeability increases / larger gaps form, allowing more betalain pigment to diffuse out ; [max 4]
Question 15 · structured
4 marks
The rate of reaction of an enzyme-catalysed reaction was measured at different substrate concentrations in the absence and presence of a fixed concentration of inhibitor W. The maximum rate of reaction ($V_{\text{max}}$) and the Michaelis-Menten constant ($K_{\text{m}}$) were determined for both conditions.
- In the absence of inhibitor W: $V_{\text{max}} = 120\;\mu\text{mol}\;\text{dm}^{-3}\;\text{min}^{-1}$, $K_{\text{m}} = 0.35\;\text{mmol}\;\text{dm}^{-3}$ - In the presence of inhibitor W: $V_{\text{max}} = 120\;\mu\text{mol}\;\text{dm}^{-3}\;\text{min}^{-1}$, $K_{\text{m}} = 1.10\;\text{mmol}\;\text{dm}^{-3}$
State the type of inhibition caused by inhibitor W and explain the effects of inhibitor W on $V_{\text{max}}$ and $K_{\text{m}}$.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. Inhibitor W is a competitive inhibitor. 2. Inhibitor W has a molecular shape complementary / similar to the substrate and competes with substrate molecules for binding to the active site of the enzyme. 3. Because it occupies active sites temporarily, a higher substrate concentration is required to achieve half the maximum rate of reaction, which causes $K_{\text{m}}$ to increase from $0.35$ to $1.10\;\text{mmol}\;\text{dm}^{-3}$ (indicating lower enzyme affinity for the substrate). 4. $V_{\text{max}}$ remains unchanged at $120\;\mu\text{mol}\;\text{dm}^{-3}\;\text{min}^{-1}$ because at very high substrate concentrations, substrate molecules outcompete the inhibitor for the active sites, forming enzyme-substrate complexes at the maximum possible rate.
Marking scheme
1. (type of inhibition:) competitive (inhibition) ; 2. inhibitor has similar / complementary shape to substrate AND binds to / blocks the active site ; 3. $K_{\text{m}}$ increases because higher substrate concentration is needed to reach half-$V_{\text{max}}$ / affinity of enzyme for substrate decreases ; 4. $V_{\text{max}}$ is unchanged because at high substrate concentration, substrate outcompetes the inhibitor / all active sites occupied by substrate ; [max 4]
Question 16 · structured
4 marks
Polysaccharides play essential structural and storage roles in plant cells.
(a) State two structural differences between amylose and cellulose.
(b) Explain how the molecular structure of cellulose relates to its function in plant cell walls.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Amylose consists of $\alpha$-glucose monomers joined by $\alpha$-1,4-glycosidic bonds and forms a coiled/helical chain. Cellulose consists of $\beta$-glucose monomers joined by $\beta$-1,4-glycosidic bonds where alternate monomers are rotated by $180^\circ$, forming a straight, unbranched chain.
(b) Straight, unbranched chains of $\beta$-glucose lie parallel to one another. Many hydrogen bonds form between hydroxyl ($\text{-OH}$) groups of adjacent chains, bundling them into strong microfibrils and macrofibrils. This provides high tensile strength to the plant cell wall, allowing it to withstand internal turgor pressure without bursting and maintain cell rigidity.
Marking scheme
(a) any two differences: - $\alpha$-glucose in amylose vs $\beta$-glucose in cellulose ; - $\alpha$-1,4-glycosidic bonds in amylose vs $\beta$-1,4-glycosidic bonds in cellulose ; - coiled / helical chain in amylose vs straight / unbranched chain in cellulose ; - all monomers in same orientation in amylose vs alternate monomers rotated by $180^\circ$ in cellulose ; [max 2]
(b) 1. parallel chains held together by many hydrogen bonds (between $\text{-OH}$ groups) ; 2. form microfibrils / fibres / macrofibrils ; 3. gives high tensile strength to resist osmotic / turgor pressure / prevents cell bursting ; [max 2]
Question 17 · structured
3 marks
Penicillin is an antibiotic widely used to treat bacterial infections such as those caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.
(a) Explain the mode of action of penicillin on dividing bacterial cells.
(b) Explain why penicillin has no effect on human host cells or viruses.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Penicillin acts as an enzyme inhibitor of transpeptidase (glycopeptide transpeptidase), the enzyme that forms peptide cross-links between peptidoglycan chains in the bacterial cell wall during growth and division. Without cross-links, newly synthesised cell walls are weak and unable to withstand internal osmotic pressure (turgor pressure). Water enters the bacterium by osmosis, causing the cell wall to rupture and the bacterium to lyse.
(b) Human cells do not possess peptidoglycan or a cell wall, so they lack the target enzyme/structure. Viruses are non-cellular (acellular) and lack cell walls, cytoplasm, and transpeptidase enzymes, relying entirely on host cell machinery.
Marking scheme
(a) 1. inhibits transpeptidase / prevents formation of peptide cross-links between peptidoglycan chains ; 2. weakens cell wall / cell wall cannot withstand turgor / osmotic pressure ; 3. cell bursts / lyses as water enters by osmosis during division / growth ; [max 2]
(b) 1. human cells do not have a cell wall / peptidoglycan ; 2. viruses are non-cellular / do not have cell walls / lack enzymes / transpeptidase (A: antibiotics only target living cells/bacteria) ; [max 1]
Question 18 · structured
4 marks
Figure 6.1 shows the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curves at two different partial pressures of carbon dioxide ($p\text{CO}_2$): $4.0\;\text{kPa}$ and $8.0\;\text{kPa}$.
- At $p\text{O}_2 = 4.0\;\text{kPa}$ and $p\text{CO}_2 = 4.0\;\text{kPa}$, haemoglobin percentage saturation is $58\%$. - At $p\text{O}_2 = 4.0\;\text{kPa}$ and $p\text{CO}_2 = 8.0\;\text{kPa}$, haemoglobin percentage saturation is $32\%$.
Explain the mechanism responsible for the shift in the oxygen dissociation curve when $p\text{CO}_2$ increases from $4.0\;\text{kPa}$ to $8.0\;\text{kPa}$, and explain its physiological importance in respiring tissues.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. Carbon dioxide diffuses into red blood cells and reacts with water to form carbonic acid ($\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3$), catalysed by carbonic anhydrase. 2. Carbonic acid dissociates into hydrogen ions ($\text{H}^+$) and hydrogencarbonate ions ($\text{HCO}_3^-$). 3. $\text{H}^+$ ions bind to oxyhaemoglobin, acting as a buffer to form haemoglobinic acid ($\text{HHb}$). 4. This causes an allosteric change in haemoglobin structure, lowering its affinity for oxygen and releasing oxygen molecules. 5. In actively respiring tissues, high $p\text{CO}_2$ shifts the curve to the right (Bohr effect), allowing more oxygen to be unloaded at a given $p\text{O}_2$ ($32\%$ vs $58\%$ saturation, meaning an extra $26\%$ of oxygen is delivered) to meet the aerobic metabolic demand of tissues.
Marking scheme
1. $\text{CO}_2$ reacts with $\text{H}_2\text{O}$ to form $\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3$ catalysed by carbonic anhydrase ; 2. $\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3$ dissociates into $\text{H}^+$ and $\text{HCO}_3^-$ ; 3. $\text{H}^+$ ions bind to haemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid / $\text{HHb}$ ; 4. lowers affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen / causes haemoglobin to release $\text{O}_2$ (Bohr shift) ; 5. allows more $\text{O}_2$ to be unloaded / released in actively respiring tissue / muscle where $\text{CO}_2$ is high ; [max 4]
Question 19 · structured
4 marks
A student prepared a root tip squash from garlic (Allium sativum) to observe cells in different stages of the cell cycle.
In a single field of view containing 180 cells in total, the student recorded the following numbers of cells in each phase of mitosis: - Prophase: 14 - Metaphase: 6 - Anaphase: 3 - Telophase: 4
(a) Calculate the mitotic index of this root tip tissue. Give your answer to two significant figures.
(b) Outline the structural role of telomeres during DNA replication throughout repeated mitotic cell cycles.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Total number of dividing cells undergoing mitosis = $14 + 6 + 3 + 4 = 27$. Total number of cells = $180$. $\text{Mitotic index} = \frac{27}{180} = 0.15$ or $15\%$.
(b) During DNA replication, DNA polymerase cannot replicate the extreme ends of the lagging strand. Telomeres consist of non-coding repetitive DNA sequences at chromosome ends. They act as sacrificial buffers, ensuring that with each cycle of DNA replication, non-coding telomeric DNA is shortened rather than vital gene-coding sequences. They also prevent chromosome ends from being recognised as DNA damage / prevent sticky ends from fusing together.
Marking scheme
(a) $\frac{27}{180} \times 100$ / $\frac{27}{180}$ ; $= 15\%$ or $0.15$ (must be 2 sig figs) ; [2]
(b) any two from: 1. repetitive non-coding DNA sequences at the tips of chromosomes ; 2. prevent loss of genes / vital genetic information as chromosome shortens during replication ; 3. prevent chromosome ends from fusing / prevent ends being detected as DNA damage / double-strand breaks ; [max 2]
Question 20 · structured
3 marks
Monoclonal antibodies are widely used in medicine for targeted cancer therapy and diagnostic tests.
(a) Outline the main steps involved in the production of monoclonal antibodies using the hybridoma method.
(b) Explain why myeloma cells are used in the production of hybridoma cells.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) 1. An antigen is injected into a mammal (such as a mouse) to trigger an immune response. 2. B-lymphocytes (plasma cells) producing the specific complementary antibody are extracted from the spleen. 3. These B-cells are fused with mutant myeloma (cancer) cells using a fusing agent such as polyethylene glycol (PEG) to form hybridoma cells. 4. Hybridoma cells are cultured on selective medium, screened for production of the desired antibody, cloned, and grown in fermenters to harvest large quantities of identical monoclonal antibodies.
(b) Normal plasma cells have a limited lifespan and cannot divide in culture. Myeloma cells are cancerous and can divide indefinitely (immortal), conferring longevity and rapid cell division to the hybridoma.
Marking scheme
(a) 1. antigen injected into animal / mouse to stimulate B-lymphocytes / plasma cells ; 2. B-cells extracted (from spleen) and fused with myeloma / cancer cells (using PEG / electric shock) ; 3. hybridoma cells screened / selected for required antibody AND cloned / cultured ; [max 2]
(b) 1. myeloma cells can divide indefinitely / are immortal / divide rapidly (unlike plasma cells) ; [1]
Question 21 · structured
4 marks
An investigation was conducted to study the mechanism of sucrose loading into phloem sieve tube elements. Disks cut from mature leaves of Vicia faba were incubated in a buffered solution containing \(20\text{ mmol dm}^{-3}\) radioactive sucrose in the presence and absence of compound X, an inhibitor of ATP synthesis.
Table 1.1 shows the rate of radioactive sucrose uptake and the pH of the external incubation medium measured after \(30\text{ minutes}\).
Table 1.1
| Treatment | Rate of sucrose uptake / \(\mu\text{mol g}^{-1}\text{ h}^{-1}\) | pH of external medium after \(30\text{ min}\) | | :--- | :--- | :--- | | Control (no inhibitor) | \(14.8\) | \(5.2\) | | Added compound X | \(1.9\) | \(6.8\) |
(a) With reference to Table 1.1, calculate the percentage decrease in the rate of sucrose uptake when compound X is added. Show your working.
(b) Using the data in Table 1.1 and your biological knowledge, explain how sucrose is loaded into companion cells and sieve tube elements in the control treatment.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
(b) Explanation of sucrose loading: 1. In the control, ATP is used by proton pumps in the companion cell surface membrane to actively transport protons (\(\text{H}^+\)) out into the cell wall / apoplast. 2. This active transport of \(\text{H}^+\) lowers the external pH (to pH \(5.2\)) and creates a steep electrochemical / proton concentration gradient. 3. Protons diffuse back into the companion cells through cotransporter / symport proteins, moving down their concentration gradient. 4. The movement of \(\text{H}^+\) drives the transport of sucrose against its concentration gradient into the companion cell. 5. Sucrose diffuses from the companion cell into the adjacent sieve tube element through plasmodesmata.
Marking scheme
(a) [1 mark total] - \(87.2\%\) or \(87\%\) ; [A \(87.16\%\) | A correct working shown: \(\frac{14.8 - 1.9}{14.8} \times 100\) if rounding error occurs]
(b) [3 marks max] 1. ATP (from respiration) is used to actively pump / transport \(\text{H}^+\) / protons out of companion cells (into the cell wall / apoplast) ; 2. (causes lower pH / higher \([\text{H}^+]\) outside) creates a proton / \(\text{H}^+\) concentration / electrochemical gradient ; 3. \(\text{H}^+\) / protons diffuse / move back into companion cell via cotransporter / symporter (protein) AND bring / transport sucrose against its concentration gradient (into companion cell) ; 4. sucrose diffuses / moves into sieve tube element (from companion cell) via plasmodesmata ;
Question 22 · structured
4 marks
A student investigated the effect of substrate concentration on the initial rate of reaction of the enzyme beta-galactosidase in two forms: free in solution and immobilised in calcium alginate beads.
Table 2.1 shows the initial rate of reaction (\(V\)) at different substrate concentrations for both forms of the enzyme.
(a) State the maximum velocity (\(V_{\max}\)) for the free enzyme and determine the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_m\)) for the free enzyme using the data in Table 2.1.
(b) Suggest and explain why the immobilised enzyme has a lower initial rate of reaction than the free enzyme at low substrate concentrations (such as \(1.0\text{ mmol dm}^{-3}\)), even though both forms reach the same \(V_{\max}\).
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
**(a) Determination of \(V_{\max}\) and \(K_m\):** - From Table 2.1, the maximum rate reaches a plateau at \(60.0\text{ }\mu\text{mol dm}^{-3}\text{ s}^{-1}\). Thus, \(V_{\max} = 60.0\text{ }\mu\text{mol dm}^{-3}\text{ s}^{-1}\). - Half the maximum rate (\(\frac{1}{2}V_{\max}\)) is \(\frac{60.0}{2} = 30.0\text{ }\mu\text{mol dm}^{-3}\text{ s}^{-1}\). - The substrate concentration required to achieve an initial rate of \(30.0\text{ }\mu\text{mol dm}^{-3}\text{ s}^{-1}\) can be derived or estimated from the table: at \([S] = 2.5\text{ mmol dm}^{-3}\), \(V = 37.5\); at \([S] = 1.0\text{ mmol dm}^{-3}\), \(V = 22.0\); interpolation gives \(K_m \approx 1.8\) to \(2.0\text{ mmol dm}^{-3}\) (or from standard Michaelis-Menten kinetics \(K_m = 1.72\text{ mmol dm}^{-3}\), or read directly from data where \(K_m\) is the substrate concentration at \(\frac{1}{2}V_{\max}\)).
(b) Explanation of lower initial rate for immobilised enzyme: 1. Substrate molecules must diffuse through the alginate gel matrix / pores to reach the active sites of the immobilised enzymes. 2. At low substrate concentrations, the rate of diffusion into the alginate beads is slow / limiting, so substrate concentration inside the bead active sites is lower than in the surrounding bulk solution. 3. This leads to fewer successful collisions and fewer enzyme-substrate complexes (ESCs) formed per unit time compared to the free enzyme. 4. At high substrate concentrations, the diffusion gradient is sufficiently steep to supply substrate rapidly enough to saturate the active sites, allowing \(V_{\max}\) to be reached.
Marking scheme
(a) [2 marks total] 1. \(V_{\max} = 60.0\) (\(\mu\text{mol dm}^{-3}\text{ s}^{-1}\)) ; 2. \(K_m =\) value in range \(1.6\) to \(2.0\) (\(\text{mmol dm}^{-3}\)) ; [A correct method mark if candidate states \(K_m\) is substrate concentration at \(\frac{1}{2}V_{\max}\) / \(30\text{ }\mu\text{mol dm}^{-3}\text{ s}^{-1}\) but derives an incorrect numerical value]
(b) [2 marks max] 1. alginate / matrix acts as a barrier to diffusion / substrate must diffuse through alginate beads to reach active sites ; 2. (at low \([S]\)) diffusion rate of substrate is slow / limiting OR concentration of substrate inside beads is lower than outside ; 3. fewer collisions between substrate and active site / fewer enzyme-substrate complexes / ESCs formed per unit time ;
Paper 3 (Advanced Practical Skills)
Answer all questions. Show working and units for all calculations and biological drawings.
14 Question · 40 marks
Question 1 · free_response
2.375 marks
A student was provided with a 1.00\text{ mol dm}^{-3} stock solution of sucrose, labelled S, and distilled water, W.
(a) Complete the table below to show how you would prepare a simple proportional dilution to produce \(20.0\text{ cm}^3\) of each of the concentrations: \(0.80\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\), \(0.40\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\), and \(0.20\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\).
| Concentration of sucrose / \(\text{mol dm}^{-3}\) | Volume of stock solution S / \(\text{cm}^3\) | Volume of distilled water W / \(\text{cm}^3\) | | :--- | :--- | :--- | | 0.80 | | | | 0.40 | | | | 0.20 | | |
(b) State the independent variable in this investigation.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
To calculate the volume of stock solution \(V_1\) needed to make total volume \(V_2 = 20.0\text{ cm}^3\) of target concentration \(C_2\) from stock \(C_1 = 1.00\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\): \[V_1 = \frac{C_2 \times V_2}{C_1}\] - For \(0.80\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\): \(V_1 = \frac{0.80 \times 20.0}{1.00} = 16.0\text{ cm}^3\) of S; Volume of W \(= 20.0 - 16.0 = 4.0\text{ cm}^3\). - For \(0.40\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\): \(V_1 = \frac{0.40 \times 20.0}{1.00} = 8.0\text{ cm}^3\) of S; Volume of W \(= 20.0 - 8.0 = 12.0\text{ cm}^3\). - For \(0.20\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\): \(V_1 = \frac{0.20 \times 20.0}{1.00} = 4.0\text{ cm}^3\) of S; Volume of W \(= 20.0 - 4.0 = 16.0\text{ cm}^3\).
The independent variable is the factor changed by the experimenter, which is the concentration of the sucrose solution.
Marking scheme
(a) Correct volumes of S and W for all three concentrations; Total volume for each row adds to 20.0 cm^3;
(b) Concentration of sucrose (solution) / sucrose concentration; [A] molarity of sucrose [R] volume of sucrose / amount of sucrose
Question 2 · free_response
2.375 marks
A student investigated the effect of sucrose concentration on potato cylinder mass. Cylinders of initial length \(40\text{ mm}\) were immersed in solutions for 60 minutes.
(a) Calculate the percentage change in mass for the potato cylinder immersed in \(0.40\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution. Show your working.
(b) Explain why calculating percentage change in mass is more valid than comparing the change in mass alone.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Percentage change in mass is calculated as: \[\text{Percentage change} = \left( \frac{\text{Change in mass}}{\text{Initial mass}} \right) \times 100\] \[\text{Percentage change} = \left( \frac{-0.05}{2.52} \right) \times 100 = -1.984\% \approx -2.0\% \text{ (or } -1.98\% \text{ to 3 s.f.)}\]
(b) Potatoes cylinders cut to the same length still differ in starting mass due to variation in diameter or density. Calculating percentage change normalises for these variations in initial mass, allowing fair comparison.
Marking scheme
(a) Correct calculation with correct sign / negative sign shown: -2.0(%) or -1.98(%); [A] answer rounded to 1 decimal place or 3 significant figures [R] positive value / omitting negative sign
(b) Initial masses of potato cylinders were not identical / different / varied; Percentage change accounts for / normalises differences in initial mass (allowing valid comparison / AW);
Question 3 · free_response
2.375 marks
A light microscope with an eyepiece graticule and a stage micrometer was used to measure xylem vessels in a plant stem.
- The stage micrometer scale has divisions spaced at \(0.01\text{ mm}\) intervals. - At \(\times 100\) magnification, \(40\) small graticule units span exactly \(10\) small divisions on the stage micrometer.
(a) Calculate the actual value of \(1\) eyepiece graticule unit in micrometres (\(\mu\text{m}\)).
(b) A xylem vessel element viewed under the same magnification has an internal diameter of \(18\) graticule units. Calculate the actual internal diameter of this xylem vessel in \(\mu\text{m}\).
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Distance on stage micrometer \(= 10 \times 0.01\text{ mm} = 0.10\text{ mm} = 100\,\mu\text{m}\). Since \(40\) graticule units \(= 100\,\mu\text{m}\): \[1\text{ graticule unit} = \frac{100\,\mu\text{m}}{40} = 2.5\,\mu\text{m}\]
(b) Actual diameter of xylem vessel: \[\text{Diameter} = 18 \times 2.5\,\mu\text{m} = 45\,\mu\text{m}\]
Marking scheme
(a) 100 µm / 0.10 mm divided by 40; 2.5 (µm);
(b) 18 × 2.5 (or ecf from part (a)); 45 (µm);
Question 4 · free_response
2.375 marks
An investigation measured the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide by catalase from turnip tissue. The volume of oxygen gas evolved was recorded over a \(5\)-minute period.
(b) Between 60 s and 240 s, the concentration of hydrogen peroxide (substrate) decreases because it is being converted into water and oxygen. Therefore, there are fewer enzyme-substrate complexes formed per unit time as collision frequency drops. At 240 s, all substrate has been converted into product, so no more oxygen can be produced.
Marking scheme
(a) 14.5 / 30; 0.483 or 0.48 (cm^3 s^-1); [R] answers without proper rounding or units omitted if requested
(b) Substrate / hydrogen peroxide is used up / concentration decreases (leading to fewer collisions / fewer enzyme-substrate complexes / ESCs formed); All substrate is converted to product / substrate becomes limiting / no substrate left by 240 s;
Question 5 · free_response
2.375 marks
Agar cubes containing phenolphthalein and sodium hydroxide were cut to three different side lengths: \(10\text{ mm}\), \(20\text{ mm}\), and \(30\text{ mm}\). The cubes were immersed in dilute hydrochloric acid (\(0.10\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\)), and the time taken for complete decolourisation to the centre was recorded.
(a) Complete the calculation to find the surface area to volume ratio (\(\text{SA}:\text{V}\)) of the \(10\text{ mm}\) cube.
(b) State two variables that must be kept constant during this experiment to ensure reliable comparisons.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
(b) Control variables include: temperature of the acid bath, concentration of hydrochloric acid, volume/depth of hydrochloric acid covering the cubes, and concentration of indicator/alkali inside the agar.
Marking scheme
(a) Correct calculation of surface area (600 mm^2) and volume (1000 mm^3); 0.6 (:1) or 6:1 (or 0.6 mm^-1);
(b) Any two from: - Temperature (of acid / water bath); - Concentration of hydrochloric acid; - Volume of hydrochloric acid / cubes completely submerged; - Composition / batch / concentration of alkali / indicator in agar cubes; [I] size of cube / time
Question 6 · free_response
2.375 marks
A potometer was used to measure the rate of water uptake by a leafy shoot. The capillary tube had an internal diameter of \(0.80\text{ mm}\).
Over a \(15\)-minute period, the air bubble moved a distance of \(75\text{ mm}\).
(a) Calculate the volume of water taken up by the shoot in \(\text{mm}^3\). (Volume of cylinder \(= \pi r^2 h\); use \(\pi = 3.142\)).
(b) The ruler used to measure the bubble movement had a smallest division of \(1\text{ mm}\). Calculate the percentage uncertainty in measuring the \(75\text{ mm}\) distance.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
(b) The uncertainty in a ruler measurement (involving two readings, start and end, each \(\pm 0.5\text{ mm}\), or total absolute uncertainty \(\pm 1.0\text{ mm}\), or for single reading \(\pm 0.5\text{ mm}\)): Standard Cambridge Paper 3 calculation: \[\text{Percentage uncertainty} = \frac{1.0\text{ mm}}{75\text{ mm}} \times 100 = 1.33\%\] (or \(\frac{0.5}{75} \times 100 = 0.67\%\) depending on method).
Marking scheme
(a) Correct substitution into formula: 3.142 × (0.40)^2 × 75; 37.7 (mm^3) / 37.70 (mm^3); [R] using diameter (0.80) as radius without dividing by 2
(b) Calculation shown: (1 / 75) × 100 or (0.5 / 75) × 100; 1.33(%) or 1.3(%) / 0.67(%) or 0.7(%);
Question 7 · free_response
2.375 marks
A student made a low-power plan diagram of a transverse section of a dicotyledonous root.
(a) State two rules that must be followed when producing a biological plan drawing of tissue layers.
(b) On the slide, the diameter of the stele (vascular cylinder) is \(1.2\text{ mm}\) and the total diameter of the root is \(4.8\text{ mm}\). Calculate the percentage of the root diameter occupied by the cortex and epidermis together.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Biological plan drawing rules: 1. Draw clear, continuous, sharp single lines with no sketchy or overlapping strokes. 2. Do not draw any individual cells. 3. Do not include any shading or cross-hatching. 4. Maintain correct relative proportions of tissue layers.
(a) Any two from: - Sharp, clear, continuous / unbroken lines (no sketchiness / no feathering); - No individual cells drawn (tissue plan only); - No shading / no cross-hatching / stippling; - Proportions accurate / representative of specimen;
A student carried out semi-quantitative Benedict's tests on four unknown carbohydrate samples, A, B, C, and D, using a standardized heating time of 5 minutes in a boiling water bath.
| Sample | Colour of mixture after 5 minutes | Time for first colour change / \(\text{s}\) | | :--- | :--- | :--- | | A | Green | 185 | | B | Red-brown precipitate | 35 | | C | Blue | No change | | D | Yellow-orange | 85 |
(a) Rank the samples in order of increasing reducing sugar concentration (from lowest/none to highest).
(b) Suggest two improvements to the method to determine the concentration of reducing sugar in sample D quantitatively.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Blue indicates no reducing sugar (sample C). The green colour with a slow change (185 s) indicates a very low concentration (A). Yellow-orange with a faster change (85 s) indicates moderate concentration (D). Red-brown precipitate appearing quickly (35 s) indicates highest concentration (B). Order from lowest to highest: C, A, D, B.
(b) Quantitative improvements: 1. Make a series of standard solutions of known reducing sugar (e.g. glucose) concentrations and test them with Benedict's reagent under identical conditions. 2. Use a colorimeter with an appropriate filter (e.g. red filter) to measure the absorbance (or transmission) of the supernatant after centrifuging/filtering, then plot a calibration curve and read off the unknown concentration. Alternatively, filter, dry, and weigh the precipitate formed on a high-precision mass balance.
Marking scheme
(a) C, A, D, B / C < A < D < B;
(b) Any two from: - Prepare known concentrations / standard solutions of glucose / reducing sugar; - Perform Benedict's test on standards (under identical conditions) and use a colorimeter to measure absorbance / transmission; - Plot a calibration / standard curve (absorbance against concentration); - Read unknown concentration of D from calibration curve; - [Alternative] Filter, dry to constant mass, and weigh precipitate using a balance (for standards and D);
Question 9 · free-response
3.5 marks
Slide J1 shows a transverse section through the stem of a herbaceous dicotyledonous plant.
Make a large, labelled plan diagram of a sector representing one-quarter (¼) of the stem section on slide J1 to show the arrangement and proportions of tissues.
Do not draw any individual cells. Use a sharp pencil. Annotate your drawing with one label line to identify the xylem tissue.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
To produce a high-scoring plan drawing: 1. Draw a clear sector representing approximately one-quarter of the circular stem section. 2. Use sharp, unfeathered, continuous pencil lines with no overlapping lines and no shading. 3. Accurately represent the proportional thickness of the outer epidermis, cortex layer, vascular bundle ring, and central pith region. 4. Clearly delineate xylem towards the inside and phloem towards the outside within the vascular bundles without drawing individual cells. 5. Include a ruled horizontal label line terminating on the xylem tissue with the label 'xylem'.
Marking scheme
1. Quality of drawing: clean, single, unbroken continuous lines of uniform thickness, no shading, drawing occupies at least 50% of the available space provided; [1] 2. Proportions and accuracy: sector representing one-quarter of the stem TS showing epidermis as a single outer line, distinct cortex, vascular bundle showing xylem and phloem layers, and central pith, with no individual cells drawn; [1.5] 3. Correct label and label line: ruled label line touching the inner vascular tissue, unambiguously labelled 'xylem' (A: 'xylem tissue' / 'xylem vessel region'; R: if arrowheads are used, R: if label line does not touch the tissue). [1]
Question 10 · free-response
3.5 marks
A student uses a light microscope fitted with an eyepiece graticule and a stage micrometer to measure cells in a transverse section of a stem.
The stage micrometer scale has divisions spaced at intervals of 0.01 mm. When calibrated using the ×40 objective lens, 50 eyepiece graticule units (epu) align precisely with 22 small divisions of the stage micrometer.
(a) Calculate the actual distance in micrometres (μm) represented by 1 eyepiece graticule unit at this magnification. Show your working. [1.5 marks]
(b) The lumen diameter of a xylem vessel element is measured as 16 eyepiece graticule units using the same objective lens. Calculate the actual lumen diameter in μm. [2.0 marks]
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
(a) 22 divisions = \(0.22\text{ mm}\) or \(220\text{ \mu m}\); [0.5] \(\frac{220}{50} = 4.4\text{ (\mu m)}\); [1.0] (b) Shows multiplication of candidate's 1 epu value by 16 (\(16 \times 4.4\)); [1.0] Correct final value: \(70.4\text{ \mu m}\) (A: 70 / 70.4 / 70.40) (ecf allowed if calculation in (a) is incorrect). [1.0]
Question 11 · free-response
3.5 marks
Slide K1 shows a transverse section through the root of a dicotyledonous plant.
Select a region of the central vascular cylinder showing xylem vessel elements and adjacent parenchyma cells.
Make a high-power drawing of a group of four touching cells: two adjacent xylem vessel elements and two adjacent parenchyma cells.
Do not draw more than four cells. Use a sharp pencil. Label one cell wall and one cell lumen.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. Draw exactly four cells: two xylem vessels (with thicker walls, generally larger/angular lumens) touching two parenchyma cells (thinner walls, rounded or polyhedral). 2. Double lines representing cell walls with middle lamella / junction between cells shown. 3. No artistic shading or cross-hatching. 4. Proportions must be biologically accurate (xylem cell wall noticeably thicker than parenchyma wall). 5. Straight label lines drawn with a ruler indicating 'cell wall' and 'lumen'.
Marking scheme
1. Drawing composition: exactly four touching cells drawn (two xylem elements + two parenchyma cells), occupies >50% of drawing space, clear continuous lines with no gaps, overlaps, or shading; [1] 2. Anatomical features: cell walls drawn with double lines, xylem cell walls noticeably thicker than parenchyma cell walls, intercellular junctions correctly represented; [1.5] 3. Labels: straight ruled label line touching a cell wall labelled 'cell wall' AND ruled label line pointing inside a cell labelled 'lumen' (R: label lines with arrows, R: ambiguous lines). [1]
Question 12 · free-response
3.5 marks
Figure 1.1 shows photomicrographs of transverse sections of a muscular artery (Vessel A) and a vein of similar external diameter (Vessel B) viewed under the same magnification.
Prepare a ruled table to record two observable structural differences and one observable structural similarity between Vessel A and Vessel B.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Construct a comparison table with clear headings ('Feature', 'Vessel A (Artery)', 'Vessel B (Vein)'). Record two clear observable structural differences (such as thickness of wall, thickness of tunica media, regularity/shape of lumen, presence of folded endothelium) and one structural similarity (both have a lumen, both have multi-layered walls consisting of tunica intima, media, and externa).
Marking scheme
1. Table format: fully ruled table with clear, appropriate column and row headings separating features, Vessel A, and Vessel B; [0.5] 2. Two valid observable differences (e.g., Vessel A has thicker wall / thicker tunica media compared to Vessel B; Vessel A has round/regular lumen while Vessel B has irregular/folded/collapsed lumen; Vessel A has smaller lumen diameter to wall thickness ratio than Vessel B) (1 mark per valid comparative difference); [2.0] 3. One valid observable similarity (e.g., both possess three tissue layers / tunica intima, media, and externa; both possess an internal lumen; both possess an endothelial lining). [1.0]
Question 13 · free-response
3.5 marks
A transverse section of a mammalian bronchus is examined under a light microscope.
(a) The total thickness of the bronchus wall is measured as 32 eyepiece graticule units (epu) and the thickness of the C-shaped hyaline cartilage plate within the wall is measured as 12 epu. (i) Express the ratio of cartilage thickness to total wall thickness as the simplest whole number ratio. [1.0 mark] (ii) Calculate the percentage of the bronchus wall thickness occupied by the cartilage plate. Give your answer to 3 significant figures. [1.0 mark]
(b) State three drawing rules that must be followed when producing a low-power tissue plan diagram of the bronchus wall. [1.5 marks]
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a)(i) Ratio = 12 : 32. Dividing both by 4 gives 3 : 8. (a)(ii) Percentage = \(\frac{12}{32} \times 100 = 37.5\%\). (b) Essential plan drawing rules: 1. Clean, continuous single lines without feathering; 2. No shading; 3. No individual cells drawn; 4. Proportions of tissue layers accurate; 5. Large drawing filling at least half the space.
Marking scheme
(a)(i) \(3 : 8\) (A: 3 to 8; R: 12 : 32 or decimal ratios); [1.0] (a)(ii) \(37.5(\%)\); [1.0] (b) Any three from: [1.5 max, 0.5 each] - Single, clear, continuous lines / no sketched or feathered lines; - No shading / cross-hatching / stippling anywhere on the diagram; - No individual cells drawn / only tissue layer boundaries shown; - Drawing occupies at least 50% of the provided space / large drawing; - Correct proportions of tissue layers shown.
Question 14 · free-response
3.5 marks
Slide M1 shows a transverse section of a marram grass (Ammophila) xerophytic leaf, and slide M2 shows a transverse section of a privet (Ligustrum) mesophytic leaf.
(a) Complete Table 1.1 to describe two observable structural differences in cross-section between the xerophytic leaf (M1) and the mesophytic leaf (M2). [2.0 marks]
(b) Explain how one of the observable features in M1 helps to reduce transpiration in xerophytic environments. [1.5 marks]
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) State two clear observable anatomical differences: leaf rolling / hinge cells, presence of trichomes (hairs), sunken stomata in crypts, thicker cuticle on outer surface. (b) State the feature (e.g. rolled leaf / hairs / sunken stomata) and explain the mechanism: traps moist air/water vapour, increases humidity around stomata, reduces the water vapour potential gradient, reducing water loss by transpiration.
Marking scheme
(a) Two valid comparative differences between M1 and M2; [2.0, 1 mark per difference] e.g., M1 leaf is rolled / curled / folded whereas M2 is flat / unrolled; e.g., M1 has epidermal hairs / trichomes / ridges whereas M2 lacks hairs / has a smooth surface; e.g., M1 has stomata sunken in pits / crypts whereas M2 has stomata on the lower surface / not in pits; e.g., M1 has a thicker outer cuticle than M2.
(b) Feature named (e.g. rolled leaf / hairs / sunken stomata) AND explanation: traps moist air / water vapour / creates microclimate of high humidity; [1.0] Reduces the water vapour potential gradient between inside the substomatal chamber and the external air (A: transpiration rate decreases / less diffusion of water vapour). [0.5]
Wondering how well you actually know this?
thinka is an AI practice app for IGCSE & IB students: unlimited questions, instant auto-marking, and detailed step-by-step solutions. 100,000+ students use it to confirm they actually know it, not just think they do.