HKDSE · thinka-original Practice Paper

2025 HKDSE Physics Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka 2025 HKDSE-Style Mock — Physics

153 marks210 mins2025
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the 2025 HKDSE Physics paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from HKDSE.

Paper 1A

Answer all 33 multiple-choice questions. All questions carry equal marks.
33 Question · 33 marks
Question 1 · MCQ
1 marks
An immersion heater with a rated power of \(150\text{ W}\) is placed in an insulated container containing \(0.50\text{ kg}\) of a liquid. When switched on for \(6\text{ minutes}\), the temperature of the liquid increases from \(20\text{ }^\circ\text{C}\) to \(50\text{ }^\circ\text{C}\). Assuming that \(20\%\) of the energy supplied by the heater is dissipated to the surroundings and heat capacity of the container is negligible, what is the specific heat capacity of the liquid?
  1. A.\(2160\text{ J kg}^{-1}\text{ }^\circ\text{C}^{-1}\)
  2. B.\(2880\text{ J kg}^{-1}\text{ }^\circ\text{C}^{-1}\)
  3. C.\(3600\text{ J kg}^{-1}\text{ }^\circ\text{C}^{-1}\)
  4. D.\(4320\text{ J kg}^{-1}\text{ }^\circ\text{C}^{-1}\)
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Worked solution

Total electrical energy supplied by the heater:
\[ E_{\text{total}} = P \times t = 150 \times (6 \times 60) = 54\,000\text{ J} \]
Since \(20\%\) of energy is lost, the useful heat absorbed by the liquid is:
\[ Q = E_{\text{total}} \times (1 - 0.20) = 54\,000 \times 0.80 = 43\,200\text{ J} \]
Using \(Q = mc\Delta T\):
\[ 43\,200 = 0.50 \times c \times (50 - 20) = 15 \times c \]
\[ c = \frac{43\,200}{15} = 2880\text{ J kg}^{-1}\text{ }^\circ\text{C}^{-1} \]

Marking scheme

B (1 mark)
Question 2 · MCQ
1 marks
A toy car of mass \(0.80\text{ kg}\) is travelling at an initial velocity of \(4.0\text{ m s}^{-1}\) on a level rough track. A constant resistive force acts on the car, bringing it uniformly to rest over a distance of \(3.2\text{ m}\). What is the average power dissipated by the resistive force during this deceleration?
  1. A.\(2.0\text{ W}\)
  2. B.\(4.0\text{ W}\)
  3. C.\(8.0\text{ W}\)
  4. D.\(12.8\text{ W}\)
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Worked solution

Initial kinetic energy of the car:
\[ E_k = \frac{1}{2} m u^2 = \frac{1}{2} (0.80)(4.0)^2 = 6.4\text{ J} \]
Total work done against the resistive force is \(\Delta E_k = 6.4\text{ J}\).
For uniform deceleration to rest:
\[ s = \frac{u + v}{2} t \implies 3.2 = \frac{4.0 + 0}{2} t \implies t = 1.6\text{ s} \]
Average power dissipated:
\[ P_{\text{avg}} = \frac{\Delta E_k}{t} = \frac{6.4\text{ J}}{1.6\text{ s}} = 4.0\text{ W} \]

Marking scheme

B (1 mark)
Question 3 · MCQ
1 marks
Trolley \(A\) of mass \(2.0\text{ kg}\) moves at a velocity of \(3.0\text{ m s}^{-1}\) to the right along a smooth horizontal track and collides head-on with a stationary trolley \(B\) of mass \(1.0\text{ kg}\). Immediately after the collision, trolley \(A\) moves to the right at \(1.0\text{ m s}^{-1}\).

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) The speed of trolley \(B\) after collision is \(4.0\text{ m s}^{-1}\).
(2) The collision is elastic.
(3) The magnitude of impulse received by trolley \(A\) is equal to that received by trolley \(B\).
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(1) and (2) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
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Worked solution

(1) By conservation of linear momentum (taking right as positive):
\[ m_A u_A + m_B u_B = m_A v_A + m_B v_B \]
\[ (2.0)(3.0) + 0 = (2.0)(1.0) + (1.0)(v_B) \implies 6.0 = 2.0 + v_B \implies v_B = 4.0\text{ m s}^{-1} \]
Statement (1) is correct.

(2) Total initial kinetic energy:
\[ E_{k1} = \frac{1}{2}(2.0)(3.0)^2 = 9.0\text{ J} \]
Total final kinetic energy:
\[ E_{k2} = \frac{1}{2}(2.0)(1.0)^2 + \frac{1}{2}(1.0)(4.0)^2 = 1.0 + 8.0 = 9.0\text{ J} \]
Since total kinetic energy is conserved, the collision is elastic. Statement (2) is correct.

(3) By Newton's third law, the interaction forces are equal in magnitude and act for the same time, so the impulses received have equal magnitudes (\(|\Delta p_A| = |2.0(1.0 - 3.0)| = 4.0\text{ N s}\) and \(|\Delta p_B| = |1.0(4.0 - 0)| = 4.0\text{ N s}\)). Statement (3) is correct.

Marking scheme

D (1 mark)
Question 4 · MCQ
1 marks
Two identical coherent sound sources separated by a distance of \(1.6\text{ m}\) vibrate in phase in open air. A sound detector is moved along a line parallel to the line joining the sources at a perpendicular distance of \(4.0\text{ m}\). The separation between two adjacent points of maximum loudness is found to be \(0.85\text{ m}\). Taking the speed of sound in air to be \(340\text{ m s}^{-1}\), determine the frequency of the sound emitted.
  1. A.\(500\text{ Hz}\)
  2. B.\(850\text{ Hz}\)
  3. C.\(1000\text{ Hz}\)
  4. D.\(1700\text{ Hz}\)
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Worked solution

Using the interference fringe separation formula:
\[ \Delta y = \frac{\lambda D}{a} \]
where \(\Delta y = 0.85\text{ m}\), \(D = 4.0\text{ m}\), and \(a = 1.6\text{ m}\).
\[ \lambda = \frac{a \Delta y}{D} = \frac{1.6 \times 0.85}{4.0} = 0.34\text{ m} \]
Using the wave equation \(v = f \lambda\):
\[ f = \frac{v}{\lambda} = \frac{340\text{ m s}^{-1}}{0.34\text{ m}} = 1000\text{ Hz} \]

Marking scheme

C (1 mark)
Question 5 · MCQ
1 marks
An illuminated object is placed at a distance of \(15\text{ cm}\) in front of a thin converging lens. A sharp, inverted image with twice the height of the object is formed on a screen on the other side of the lens. If the object is now shifted to a distance of \(30\text{ cm}\) from the lens, what are the nature and position of the new image formed?
  1. A.Real, inverted, and \(15\text{ cm}\) from the lens
  2. B.Real, upright, and \(15\text{ cm}\) from the lens
  3. C.Virtual, upright, and \(15\text{ cm}\) from the lens
  4. D.Real, inverted, and \(60\text{ cm}\) from the lens
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Worked solution

For the initial setup:
\[ u = 15\text{ cm}, \quad m = \frac{v}{u} = 2 \implies v = 30\text{ cm} \]
Using the lens formula:
\[ \frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{u} + \frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{15} + \frac{1}{30} = \frac{3}{30} = \frac{1}{10} \implies f = 10\text{ cm} \]
For the new setup with \(u' = 30\text{ cm}\):
\[ \frac{1}{v'} = \frac{1}{f} - \frac{1}{u'} = \frac{1}{10} - \frac{1}{30} = \frac{2}{30} = \frac{1}{15} \implies v' = 15\text{ cm} \]
Since \(v' > 0\) and \(u' > 2f\), the new image is real, inverted, diminished, and formed at \(15\text{ cm}\) on the opposite side of the lens.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark)
Question 6 · MCQ
1 marks
A battery of electromotive force \(\mathcal{E}\) and internal resistance \(r\) is connected across an external variable resistor of resistance \(R\). When \(R = 4.0\ \Omega\), the terminal voltage across the battery is \(8.0\text{ V}\). When \(R = 9.0\ \Omega\), the terminal voltage rises to \(9.0\text{ V}\). Find the e.m.f. \(\mathcal{E}\) and internal resistance \(r\) of the battery.
  1. A.\(\mathcal{E} = 10.0\text{ V},\ r = 1.0\ \Omega\)
  2. B.\(\mathcal{E} = 12.0\text{ V},\ r = 2.0\ \Omega\)
  3. C.\(\mathcal{E} = 10.0\text{ V},\ r = 0.5\ \Omega\)
  4. D.\(\mathcal{E} = 16.0\text{ V},\ r = 1.0\ \Omega\)
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Worked solution

Terminal potential difference is given by:
\[ V = \mathcal{E} \left(\frac{R}{R + r}\right) \]
For the first case:
\[ 8.0 = \mathcal{E} \left(\frac{4.0}{4.0 + r}\right) \implies \mathcal{E} = 2.0(4.0 + r) = 8.0 + 2.0r \quad \text{--- (1)} \]
For the second case:
\[ 9.0 = \mathcal{E} \left(\frac{9.0}{9.0 + r}\right) \implies \mathcal{E} = 9.0 + r \quad \text{--- (2)} \]
Equating (1) and (2):
\[ 8.0 + 2.0r = 9.0 + r \implies r = 1.0\ \Omega \]
Substituting \(r = 1.0\ \Omega\) into (2):
\[ \mathcal{E} = 9.0 + 1.0 = 10.0\text{ V} \]

Marking scheme

A (1 mark)
Question 7 · MCQ
1 marks
A circular coil consisting of \(200\) tightly wound turns with a cross-sectional area of \(5.0 \times 10^{-3}\text{ m}^2\) is placed with its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of flux density \(0.40\text{ T}\). If the magnetic field decreases at a constant rate to zero in \(0.050\text{ s}\), what is the magnitude of the average induced electromotive force in the coil?
  1. A.\(0.04\text{ V}\)
  2. B.\(0.80\text{ V}\)
  3. C.\(4.0\text{ V}\)
  4. D.\(8.0\text{ V}\)
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Worked solution

According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction:
\[ |\varepsilon| = N \frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t} = N A \frac{\Delta B}{\Delta t} \]
Given:
\[ N = 200, \quad A = 5.0 \times 10^{-3}\text{ m}^2, \quad \Delta B = 0.40\text{ T} - 0 = 0.40\text{ T}, \quad \Delta t = 0.050\text{ s} \]
\[ |\varepsilon| = 200 \times (5.0 \times 10^{-3}) \times \frac{0.40}{0.050} = 1.0 \times 8.0 = 8.0\text{ V} \]

Marking scheme

D (1 mark)
Question 8 · MCQ
1 marks
A freshly prepared radioactive source containing only nuclide \(X\) decays into a stable daughter nuclide \(Y\). The half-life of nuclide \(X\) is \(4.0\text{ hours}\). After a period of time \(t\), the ratio of the number of \(Y\) nuclei to the number of remaining \(X\) nuclei is measured to be \(7 : 1\). Find the elapsed time \(t\).
  1. A.\(8.0\text{ hours}\)
  2. B.\(12\text{ hours}\)
  3. C.\(16\text{ hours}\)
  4. D.\(28\text{ hours}\)
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Worked solution

Let \(N_0\) be the initial number of \(X\) nuclei.
At time \(t\), the number of remaining \(X\) nuclei is \(N_X\) and the number of formed \(Y\) nuclei is \(N_Y = N_0 - N_X\).
Given:
\[ \frac{N_Y}{N_X} = \frac{N_0 - N_X}{N_X} = 7 \implies \frac{N_0}{N_X} - 1 = 7 \implies \frac{N_X}{N_0} = \frac{1}{8} \]
Since \(\frac{1}{8} = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3\), exactly \(3\) half-lives have passed.
\[ t = 3 \times T_{1/2} = 3 \times 4.0\text{ hours} = 12\text{ hours} \]

Marking scheme

B (1 mark)
Question 9 · mcq
1 marks
Two solid metal blocks, $X$ and $Y$, of equal mass are initially at room temperature. Each is heated by a separate electric heater of identical power in an insulated setup. The temperature-time graphs for both blocks are straight lines before any phase change occurs. The rate of temperature increase of $X$ is $1.5$ times that of $Y$. What is the ratio of the specific heat capacity of $X$ to that of $Y$?
  1. A.$2 : 3$
  2. B.$3 : 2$
  3. C.$4 : 9$
  4. D.$9 : 4$
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Worked solution

The rate of heat supplied is given by $P = m c \frac{\Delta T}{\Delta t}$, which rearranges to $\frac{\Delta T}{\Delta t} = \frac{P}{m c}$. Since the power $P$ and mass $m$ are identical for both blocks, the rate of temperature rise is inversely proportional to specific heat capacity $c$. Therefore, $\frac{c_X}{c_Y} = \frac{(\Delta T / \Delta t)_Y}{(\Delta T / \Delta t)_X} = \frac{1}{1.5} = \frac{2}{3}$.

Marking scheme

1 mark for option A. [1A for recognizing inverse proportionality between rate of temperature rise and specific heat capacity: $c_X / c_Y = 1 / 1.5 = 2 : 3$].
Question 10 · mcq
1 marks
A model rocket ascends vertically from rest from the ground with a constant acceleration of $2.5\text{ m s}^{-2}$ for $4.0\text{ s}$. Its engine then suddenly cuts off. Neglecting air resistance and taking $g = 9.81\text{ m s}^{-2}$, what is the maximum height reached by the rocket above the ground?
  1. A.$20.0\text{ m}$
  2. B.$25.1\text{ m}$
  3. C.$30.2\text{ m}$
  4. D.$40.0\text{ m}$
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Worked solution

During the powered ascent ($0 \le t \le 4.0\text{ s}$):
Velocity at burnout: $v_1 = u + a t = 0 + (2.5)(4.0) = 10.0\text{ m s}^{-1}$.
Height attained at burnout: $s_1 = \frac{1}{2} a t^2 = \frac{1}{2}(2.5)(4.0)^2 = 20.0\text{ m}$.
During free flight under gravity until top of trajectory ($v = 0$):
$v^2 = v_1^2 - 2 g s_2 \implies 0 = 10.0^2 - 2(9.81) s_2 \implies s_2 = \frac{100}{19.62} \approx 5.10\text{ m}$.
Total maximum height $H = s_1 + s_2 = 20.0 + 5.10 = 25.1\text{ m}$.

Marking scheme

1 mark for option B. [1A for correctly summing powered ascent distance $20.0\text{ m}$ and free-flight distance $5.1\text{ m}$ to obtain $25.1\text{ m}$].
Question 11 · mcq
1 marks
A block of mass $4.0\text{ kg}$ is on a rough horizontal surface. It is connected by a light inextensible string passing over a frictionless pulley to a hanging mass of $1.0\text{ kg}$. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the surface is $0.15$. Find the magnitude of the tension in the string during motion. Take $g = 9.81\text{ m s}^{-2}$.
  1. A.$3.9\text{ N}$
  2. B.$5.9\text{ N}$
  3. C.$9.0\text{ N}$
  4. D.$9.8\text{ N}$
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Worked solution

Let $M = 4.0\text{ kg}$ and $m = 1.0\text{ kg}$.
Friction acting on $M$: $f_k = \mu_k M g = 0.15 \times 4.0 \times 9.81 = 5.886\text{ N}$.
Equation of motion for the system: $(M + m)a = m g - f_k \implies 5.0 a = (1.0)(9.81) - 5.886 = 3.924\text{ N} \implies a = 0.7848\text{ m s}^{-2}$.
Tension in the string: $T = m(g - a) = 1.0 \times (9.81 - 0.7848) \approx 9.03\text{ N} \approx 9.0\text{ N}$.

Marking scheme

1 mark for option C. [1A for determining system acceleration $a = 0.785\text{ m s}^{-2}$ and computing $T = m(g - a) \approx 9.0\text{ N}$].
Question 12 · mcq
1 marks
A sinusoidal transverse wave travels along a horizontal stretched string with a speed of $4.0\text{ m s}^{-1}$ and a frequency of $2.0\text{ Hz}$. Consider a particle $Q$ on the string.
(1) The phase difference between two particles on the string separated by $0.50\text{ m}$ along the direction of wave travel is $\frac{\pi}{2}\text{ rad}$.
(2) In one period, the distance travelled by the wave pattern is equal to the total path distance travelled by particle $Q$.
(3) The direction of the velocity of particle $Q$ is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(2) only
  3. C.(1) and (3) only
  4. D.(2) and (3) only
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Worked solution

Wavelength $\lambda = \frac{v}{f} = \frac{4.0}{2.0} = 2.0\text{ m}$.
(1) Phase difference $\Delta \phi = \frac{2\pi}{\lambda}\Delta x = \frac{2\pi}{2.0} \times 0.50 = \frac{\pi}{2}\text{ rad}$. Statement (1) is correct.
(2) In one period $T$, the wave travels one wavelength $\lambda = 2.0\text{ m}$. The particle vibrates through a total distance of $4A$ (where $A$ is amplitude), which is generally not equal to $\lambda$. Statement (2) is incorrect.
(3) By definition of a transverse wave, the particle oscillation is perpendicular to the direction of propagation. Statement (3) is correct.
Therefore, only (1) and (3) are correct.

Marking scheme

1 mark for option C. [1A for correctly evaluating statements (1) and (3) as true and (2) as false].
Question 13 · mcq
1 marks
A ray of monochromatic light travels from a transparent liquid into a glass block of refractive index $1.60$. The angle of incidence in the liquid is $45^\circ$ and the angle of refraction in the glass is $30^\circ$. What is the critical angle for total internal reflection at a liquid-air boundary? (Refractive index of air $= 1.00$)
  1. A.$38.7^\circ$
  2. B.$48.6^\circ$
  3. C.$62.1^\circ$
  4. D.$71.8^\circ$
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Worked solution

Applying Snell's law at the liquid-glass boundary:
$n_{\text{liquid}} \sin 45^\circ = n_{\text{glass}} \sin 30^\circ$
$n_{\text{liquid}} \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right) = 1.60 \times 0.50 = 0.80$
$n_{\text{liquid}} = 0.80 \sqrt{2} \approx 1.1314$.
At the liquid-air interface, the critical angle $C$ satisfies:
$\sin C = \frac{n_{\text{air}}}{n_{\text{liquid}}} = \frac{1.00}{0.80\sqrt{2}} \approx 0.8839$
$C = \sin^{-1}(0.8839) \approx 62.1^\circ$.

Marking scheme

1 mark for option C. [1A for computing $n_{\text{liquid}} = 0.80\sqrt{2} \approx 1.131$ and finding $C = \sin^{-1}(1/n) = 62.1^\circ$].
Question 14 · mcq
1 marks
A power supply of electromotive force (e.m.f.) $E$ and internal resistance $r$ is connected across a variable resistor $R$. When $R = 1.0\,\Omega$, the terminal potential difference across the power supply is $3.0\text{ V}$. When $R$ is changed to $4.0\,\Omega$, the terminal potential difference becomes $4.8\text{ V}$. What is the e.m.f. $E$ of the power supply?
  1. A.$5.4\text{ V}$
  2. B.$6.0\text{ V}$
  3. C.$7.2\text{ V}$
  4. D.$8.0\text{ V}$
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Worked solution

Terminal potential difference $V = E - I r = E \frac{R}{R + r}$.
For $R_1 = 1.0\,\Omega$ and $V_1 = 3.0\text{ V}$:
$3.0 = \frac{E (1.0)}{1.0 + r} \implies E = 3.0(1.0 + r) = 3.0 + 3.0r$ --- (1)
For $R_2 = 4.0\,\Omega$ and $V_2 = 4.8\text{ V}$:
$4.8 = \frac{E (4.0)}{4.0 + r} \implies 4.8(4.0 + r) = 4.0E \implies 19.2 + 4.8r = 4.0E$ --- (2)
Substituting (1) into (2):
$19.2 + 4.8r = 4.0(3.0 + 3.0r) = 12.0 + 12.0r$
$7.2 = 7.2r \implies r = 1.0\,\Omega$.
Then $E = 3.0(1.0 + 1.0) = 6.0\text{ V}$.

Marking scheme

1 mark for option B. [1A for setting up simultaneous equations in $E$ and $r$ and solving for $E = 6.0\text{ V}$].
Question 15 · mcq
1 marks
A uniform magnetic field of flux density $B$ is directed perpendicularly out of the plane of the paper. A planar rectangular conductive loop of width $w$, total resistance $R$, and length $L$ is pulled horizontally out of the magnetic field at a constant velocity $v$. Which of the following gives the magnitude of the external mechanical force needed to maintain this motion at constant velocity?
  1. A.$\frac{B w v}{R}$
  2. B.$\frac{B^2 w v}{R}$
  3. C.$\frac{B^2 w^2 v}{R}$
  4. D.$\frac{B^2 w^2 v^2}{R}$
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Worked solution

As the loop leaves the field, the rate of change of magnetic flux is $\frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t} = B w v$.
The induced electromotive force is $\varepsilon = B w v$, resulting in an induced current $I = \frac{\varepsilon}{R} = \frac{B w v}{R}$.
The magnetic braking force on the leading edge within the field is $F_B = I w B = \left(\frac{B w v}{R}\right) w B = \frac{B^2 w^2 v}{R}$.
To move at constant velocity, the external applied force must balance this magnetic force, so $F_{\text{ext}} = \frac{B^2 w^2 v}{R}$.

Marking scheme

1 mark for option C. [1A for calculating induced current $I = B w v / R$ and force $F = I w B = B^2 w^2 v / R$].
Question 16 · mcq
1 marks
A radioactive sample of radionuclide $P$ has an initial activity of $640\text{ Bq}$ and a half-life of $3.0\text{ hours}$. Another sample of radionuclide $Q$ has an initial activity of $80\text{ Bq}$ and a half-life of $6.0\text{ hours}$. After how many hours from the beginning will both samples exhibit the same activity?
  1. A.$9.0\text{ hours}$
  2. B.$12\text{ hours}$
  3. C.$18\text{ hours}$
  4. D.$24\text{ hours}$
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Worked solution

The activities as functions of time $t$ (in hours) are:
$A_P(t) = 640 \times \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{t / 3.0}$
$A_Q(t) = 80 \times \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{t / 6.0}$
Setting $A_P(t) = A_Q(t)$:
$640 \times 2^{-t / 3} = 80 \times 2^{-t / 6}$
$\frac{640}{80} = 2^{t/3 - t/6}$
$8 = 2^{t/6}$
$2^3 = 2^{t/6} \implies \frac{t}{6} = 3 \implies t = 18\text{ hours}$.

Marking scheme

1 mark for option C. [1A for equating activity expressions $640 \times 2^{-t/3} = 80 \times 2^{-t/6}$ and solving for $t = 18\text{ hours}$].
Question 17 · MCQ
1 marks
A metal block of mass $0.50\text{ kg}$ at a temperature of $100\ ^\circ\text{C}$ is placed into an insulated cup containing $0.25\text{ kg}$ of water at $20\ ^\circ\text{C}$. The final equilibrium temperature of the mixture is $36\ ^\circ\text{C}$. Given that the specific heat capacity of water is $4200\text{ J kg}^{-1}\ ^\circ\text{C}^{-1}$ and the heat capacity of the cup is negligible, find the specific heat capacity of the metal.
  1. A.$385\text{ J kg}^{-1}\ ^\circ\text{C}^{-1}$
  2. B.$460\text{ J kg}^{-1}\ ^\circ\text{C}^{-1}$
  3. C.$525\text{ J kg}^{-1}\ ^\circ\text{C}^{-1}$
  4. D.$640\text{ J kg}^{-1}\ ^\circ\text{C}^{-1}$
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Worked solution

Heat gained by water:
$$Q_{\text{gain}} = m_w c_w \Delta T_w = (0.25)(4200)(36 - 20) = 16800\text{ J}$$
Assuming no heat lost to surroundings:
$$Q_{\text{lost}} = m_m c_m \Delta T_m = (0.50) c_m (100 - 36) = 32 c_m$$
Equating heat lost and heat gained:
$$32 c_m = 16800 \implies c_m = 525\text{ J kg}^{-1}\ ^\circ\text{C}^{-1}$$
Hence, the correct option is C.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct calculation of heat exchange leading to C.
Question 18 · MCQ
1 marks
A trolley of mass $m$ travels at a velocity $u$ on a smooth horizontal track and collides with a stationary trolley of mass $2m$. The two trolleys stick together after the collision.

Which of the following statements about the collision is/are correct?
(1) Total momentum of the system is conserved.
(2) Total kinetic energy of the system is conserved.
(3) The ratio of the total kinetic energy after the collision to that before the collision is $1:3$.
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(1) and (2) only
  3. C.(1) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
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Worked solution

(1) By the principle of conservation of linear momentum, in the absence of net external force, total momentum is conserved. Thus, (1) is correct.
(2) The collision is completely inelastic because the two trolleys stick together, so mechanical/kinetic energy is not conserved (converted into internal energy/sound). Thus, (2) is incorrect.
(3) By conservation of momentum:
$$m u = (m + 2m) v \implies v = \frac{u}{3}$$
Initial kinetic energy:
$$E_{k1} = \frac{1}{2} m u^2$$
Final kinetic energy:
$$E_{k2} = \frac{1}{2}(3m) v^2 = \frac{1}{2}(3m)\left(\frac{u}{3}\right)^2 = \frac{1}{6} m u^2 = \frac{1}{3} E_{k1}$$
Thus, the ratio of total kinetic energy after to before is $1:3$. So, (3) is correct.
Therefore, (1) and (3) only are correct.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying statements (1) and (3) as correct.
Question 19 · MCQ
1 marks
A satellite of mass $m$ moves in a circular orbit of radius $R$ around a planet with orbital period $T$. If the radius of its circular orbit is increased to $4R$, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The new orbital period of the satellite becomes $8T$.
(2) The gravitational force acting on the satellite becomes $\frac{1}{16}$ of its initial value.
(3) The kinetic energy of the satellite becomes $\frac{1}{4}$ of its initial value.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
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Worked solution

(1) By Kepler's third law, $T^2 \propto R^3$. Therefore:
$$T' = T \left(\frac{4R}{R}\right)^{3/2} = T (4)^{3/2} = 8T$$
So (1) is correct.

(2) By Newton's law of universal gravitation, $F = \frac{GMm}{R^2}$. When the radius becomes $4R$:
$$F' = \frac{GMm}{(4R)^2} = \frac{1}{16} \frac{GMm}{R^2} = \frac{1}{16}F$$
So (2) is correct.

(3) For a circular orbit, $\frac{mv^2}{R} = \frac{GMm}{R^2} \implies E_k = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \frac{GMm}{2R}$. When radius is $4R$:
$$E_k' = \frac{GMm}{2(4R)} = \frac{1}{4} E_k$$
So (3) is correct.

Therefore, (1), (2) and (3) are all correct.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying that all three statements (1), (2), and (3) are correct.
Question 20 · MCQ
1 marks
A ray of monochromatic light travelling in medium 1 is incident on the flat boundary with medium 2 at an angle of incidence of $45^\circ$. The angle of refraction in medium 2 is $30^\circ$. What is the critical angle for total internal reflection when light travels from medium 2 into medium 1?
  1. A.$30^\circ$
  2. B.$42^\circ$
  3. C.$45^\circ$
  4. D.$60^\circ$
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Applying Snell's law at the interface:
$$n_1 \sin 45^\circ = n_2 \sin 30^\circ$$
$$\frac{n_1}{n_2} = \frac{\sin 30^\circ}{\sin 45^\circ} = \frac{0.5}{1/\sqrt{2}} = \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$$
Since $n_2 > n_1$, total internal reflection can occur when light travels from medium 2 to medium 1.
The critical angle $C$ is given by:
$$\sin C = \frac{n_1}{n_2} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \implies C = 45^\circ$$
Thus, the critical angle is $45^\circ$.

Marking scheme

1 mark for applying Snell's law and critical angle formula to obtain 45 degrees.
Question 21 · MCQ
1 marks
In a Young's double-slit experiment using monochromatic light, interference fringes are observed on a screen. Which of the following modifications, when performed alone, will HALVE the fringe separation on the screen?

(1) Doubling the separation between the two slits
(2) Doubling the distance between the slits and the screen
(3) Doubling the frequency of the light source
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(2) only
  3. C.(1) and (3) only
  4. D.(2) and (3) only
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Worked solution

The fringe separation is given by $\Delta y = \frac{\lambda D}{a}$, where $\lambda$ is the wavelength, $D$ is the distance to the screen, and $a$ is the slit separation.
(1) Doubling $a$ gives $\Delta y' = \frac{\lambda D}{2a} = \frac{1}{2}\Delta y$ (halved). Thus (1) is correct.
(2) Doubling $D$ gives $\Delta y' = \frac{\lambda (2D)}{a} = 2\Delta y$ (doubled). Thus (2) is incorrect.
(3) Since $c = f\lambda$, doubling the frequency $f$ halves the wavelength $\lambda' = \frac{\lambda}{2}$. Then $\Delta y' = \frac{(\lambda/2) D}{a} = \frac{1}{2}\Delta y$ (halved). Thus (3) is correct.
Therefore, (1) and (3) only will halve the fringe separation.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying (1) and (3) as correct.
Question 22 · MCQ
1 marks
A battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) $\mathcal{E}$ and internal resistance $r$ is connected in series with an external variable resistor $R$. When $R = 3.0\ \Omega$, the current in the circuit is $2.0\text{ A}$. When $R = 8.0\ \Omega$, the current decreases to $1.0\text{ A}$. Find the internal resistance $r$ of the battery.
  1. A.$1.0\ \Omega$
  2. B.$2.0\ \Omega$
  3. C.$3.0\ \Omega$
  4. D.$4.0\ \Omega$
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Using the equation $\mathcal{E} = I(R + r)$ for the two cases:
Case 1: $\mathcal{E} = 2.0(3.0 + r) = 6.0 + 2.0r$
Case 2: $\mathcal{E} = 1.0(8.0 + r) = 8.0 + 1.0r$
Equating the two expressions for $\mathcal{E}$:
$$6.0 + 2.0r = 8.0 + 1.0r$$
$$1.0r = 2.0 \implies r = 2.0\ \Omega$$
Hence, the correct option is B.

Marking scheme

1 mark for setting up simultaneous equations and solving for r = 2.0 ohms.
Question 23 · MCQ
1 marks
A flat circular coil with 50 turns and cross-sectional area $0.040\text{ m}^2$ is placed in a uniform magnetic field directed perpendicularly to the plane of the coil. The magnetic field changes steadily from $0.20\text{ T}$ pointing into the page to $0.60\text{ T}$ pointing out of the page in a time interval of $0.40\text{ s}$. What is the magnitude of the average induced e.m.f. in the coil during this time?
  1. A.$1.0\text{ V}$
  2. B.$2.0\text{ V}$
  3. C.$4.0\text{ V}$
  4. D.$8.0\text{ V}$
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Worked solution

Let the direction out of the page be positive.
Initial magnetic flux density: $B_1 = -0.20\text{ T}$
Final magnetic flux density: $B_2 = +0.60\text{ T}$
Change in magnetic field:
$$\Delta B = B_2 - B_1 = 0.60 - (-0.20) = 0.80\text{ T}$$
Change in magnetic flux linkage per turn:
$$\Delta \Phi = A \Delta B = (0.040\text{ m}^2)(0.80\text{ T}) = 0.032\text{ Wb}$$
By Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, the magnitude of the induced e.m.f. is:
$$\varepsilon = N\frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t} = 50 \times \frac{0.032\text{ Wb}}{0.40\text{ s}} = 4.0\text{ V}$$
Hence, the magnitude of the induced e.m.f. is $4.0\text{ V}$.

Marking scheme

1 mark for applying Faraday's law with total delta B = 0.80 T to obtain 4.0 V.
Question 24 · MCQ
1 marks
A radioactive sample initially consists entirely of a radionuclide $X$. Radionuclide $X$ decays directly into a stable daughter nuclide $Y$ with a half-life of $6.0\text{ hours}$. What is the ratio of the number of nuclei of $Y$ to the number of nuclei of $X$ after $18.0\text{ hours}$?
  1. A.$3 : 1$
  2. B.$7 : 1$
  3. C.$8 : 1$
  4. D.$1 : 7$
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Worked solution

The elapsed time is $t = 18.0\text{ hours}$, which corresponds to:
$$n = \frac{18.0\text{ h}}{6.0\text{ h}} = 3\text{ half-lives}$$
Let the initial number of nuclei of $X$ be $N_0$.
The remaining number of nuclei of $X$ after 3 half-lives is:
$$N_X = N_0 \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3 = \frac{1}{8} N_0$$
Since each decayed nucleus of $X$ forms one stable nucleus of $Y$, the number of nuclei of $Y$ formed is:
$$N_Y = N_0 - N_X = N_0 - \frac{1}{8} N_0 = \frac{7}{8} N_0$$
Therefore, the ratio of the number of nuclei of $Y$ to $X$ is:
$$\frac{N_Y}{N_X} = \frac{7/8 N_0}{1/8 N_0} = 7 : 1$$
Hence, the correct option is B.

Marking scheme

1 mark for determining the remaining and decayed fractions after 3 half-lives to find the ratio 7 : 1.
Question 25 · MCQ
1 marks
A metal block of mass \(0.50\text{ kg}\) at an initial temperature of \(100^\circ\text{C}\) is placed into \(0.20\text{ kg}\) of a liquid at \(20^\circ\text{C}\) inside a well-insulated container of negligible heat capacity. The specific heat capacity of the metal is \(400\text{ J kg}^{-1}\text{ }^\circ\text{C}^{-1}\) and that of the liquid is \(2500\text{ J kg}^{-1}\text{ }^\circ\text{C}^{-1}\). Assuming no heat is lost to the surroundings or the container, what is the final equilibrium temperature of the mixture?
  1. A.\(36.4^\circ\text{C}\)
  2. B.\(42.9^\circ\text{C}\)
  3. C.\(52.5^\circ\text{C}\)
  4. D.\(60.0^\circ\text{C}\)
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Worked solution

By conservation of energy, heat lost by metal = heat gained by liquid:
\[ m_m c_m (100 - T) = m_l c_l (T - 20) \]
\[ (0.50)(400)(100 - T) = (0.20)(2500)(T - 20) \]
\[ 200(100 - T) = 500(T - 20) \]
\[ 2(100 - T) = 5(T - 20) \]
\[ 200 - 2T = 5T - 100 \]
\[ 7T = 300 \implies T \approx 42.9^\circ\text{C} \]

Marking scheme

Correct Answer: B (1 mark)
Question 26 · MCQ
1 marks
A small ball is projected vertically upwards from the ground with an initial speed \(u\). When it reaches a height \(h\) above the ground, its speed is reduced to \(\frac{u}{3}\). Neglecting air resistance, what is the maximum height reached by the ball from the ground?
  1. A.\(\frac{4}{3}h\)
  2. B.\(\frac{9}{8}h\)
  3. C.\(\frac{8}{7}h\)
  4. D.\(\frac{3}{2}h\)
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Worked solution

Using the equation of motion \(v^2 = u^2 - 2gs\):
At height \(h\):
\[ \left(\frac{u}{3}\right)^2 = u^2 - 2gh \implies \frac{u^2}{9} = u^2 - 2gh \implies 2gh = \frac{8}{9}u^2 \implies u^2 = \frac{9}{4}gh \]
At the maximum height \(H\), the speed is \(0\):
\[ 0 = u^2 - 2gH \implies H = \frac{u^2}{2g} = \frac{\frac{9}{4}gh}{2g} = \frac{9}{8}h \]

Marking scheme

Correct Answer: B (1 mark)
Question 27 · MCQ
1 marks
Monochromatic light of wavelength \(600\text{ nm}\) is incident normally on a diffraction grating. The third-order principal maximum is observed at an angle of \(30.0^\circ\) to the normal. What is the number of lines per millimetre of the grating?
  1. A.139
  2. B.278
  3. C.417
  4. D.556
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Worked solution

Using the grating equation \(d \sin\theta = n\lambda\):
\[ d \sin(30.0^\circ) = 3 \times (600 \times 10^{-9}\text{ m}) \]
\[ d(0.50) = 1.80 \times 10^{-6}\text{ m} \implies d = 3.60 \times 10^{-6}\text{ m} \]
The number of lines per millimetre is:
\[ N = \frac{1\text{ mm}}{d} = \frac{10^{-3}\text{ m}}{3.60 \times 10^{-6}\text{ m}} \approx 278\text{ lines mm}^{-1} \]

Marking scheme

Correct Answer: B (1 mark)
Question 28 · MCQ
1 marks
A light ray travels in a transparent medium \(P\) of refractive index \(1.80\). It enters a parallel-sided slab \(Q\) of refractive index \(1.60\) with an angle of incidence of \(60^\circ\). It then reaches the boundary between slab \(Q\) and medium \(R\). If total internal reflection just occurs at the boundary between \(Q\) and \(R\), what is the refractive index of medium \(R\)?
  1. A.1.25
  2. B.1.39
  3. C.1.56
  4. D.1.60
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Across parallel boundaries, Snell's law gives:
\[ n_P \sin\theta_P = n_Q \sin\theta_Q = n_R \sin\theta_R \]
For total internal reflection to just occur at the \(Q-R\) boundary, the angle of refraction in medium \(R\) is \(\theta_R = 90^\circ\):
\[ n_P \sin\theta_P = n_R \sin(90^\circ) \]
\[ 1.80 \sin(60^\circ) = n_R \times 1 \]
\[ n_R = 1.80 \times \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \approx 1.56 \]

Marking scheme

Correct Answer: C (1 mark)
Question 29 · MCQ
1 marks
A battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) \(12\text{ V}\) and internal resistance \(2\,\Omega\) is connected in series with a fixed resistor of resistance \(4\,\Omega\) and a variable resistor. When the resistance of the variable resistor is gradually increased from \(0\,\Omega\) to \(10\,\Omega\), how do the terminal voltage of the battery and the power dissipated by the \(4\,\Omega\) fixed resistor change?

| | Terminal voltage of battery | Power dissipated by \(4\,\Omega\) resistor |
|---|---|---|
| A. | increases | increases |
| B. | increases | decreases |
| C. | decreases | increases |
| D. | decreases | decreases |
  1. A.increases / increases
  2. B.increases / decreases
  3. C.decreases / increases
  4. D.decreases / decreases
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Worked solution

As the resistance of the variable resistor increases:
1. Total resistance of the circuit increases, so the circuit current \(I\) decreases.
2. Terminal voltage \(V = \mathcal{E} - Ir\). As \(I\) decreases, the lost volts \(Ir\) decrease, so \(V\) increases.
3. Power dissipated in the fixed resistor is \(P = I^2 R\). Since \(I\) decreases and \(R\) is fixed, \(P\) decreases.

Marking scheme

Correct Answer: B (1 mark)
Question 30 · MCQ
1 marks
A horizontal square conducting loop of wire is released from rest and falls vertically through a uniform horizontal magnetic field directed perpendicularly into the page. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) As the bottom edge of the loop enters the magnetic field, the induced current in the loop flows in an anticlockwise direction.
(2) While the entire loop is completely inside the uniform magnetic field, the induced current is zero.
(3) When the loop is exiting the magnetic field, the net magnetic force acting on the loop is directed vertically upwards.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(1) When entering, the magnetic flux into the page increases. By Lenz's law, the induced current produces a magnetic field directed out of the page to oppose the change, which corresponds to an anticlockwise current. (Correct)
(2) When the loop is entirely inside the uniform magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop remains constant (\(\Delta \Phi / \Delta t = 0\)), so the induced e.m.f. and induced current are zero. (Correct)
(3) According to Lenz's law, the induced effects always oppose the motion producing them. Therefore, as the loop leaves the field, the magnetic force acts upwards to oppose the downward fall. (Correct)
Thus, (1), (2), and (3) are all correct.

Marking scheme

Correct Answer: D (1 mark)
Question 31 · MCQ
1 marks
Two satellites, \(A\) and \(B\), are in circular orbits around the Earth. The orbital radius of \(B\) is 4 times that of \(A\). The mass of satellite \(B\) is twice the mass of satellite \(A\). What is the ratio of the kinetic energy of \(A\) to that of \(B\)?
  1. A.\(1 : 2\)
  2. B.\(1 : 1\)
  3. C.\(2 : 1\)
  4. D.\(4 : 1\)
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Worked solution

For a satellite of mass \(m\) in a circular orbit of radius \(r\) around Earth of mass \(M\):
\[ \frac{G M m}{r^2} = \frac{m v^2}{r} \implies E_k = \frac{1}{2} m v^2 = \frac{G M m}{2r} \]
Therefore, the ratio of kinetic energies is:
\[ \frac{E_{k,A}}{E_{k,B}} = \frac{m_A / r_A}{m_B / r_B} = \left(\frac{m_A}{m_B}\right) \left(\frac{r_B}{r_A}\right) = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right) (4) = 2 = 2 : 1 \]

Marking scheme

Correct Answer: C (1 mark)
Question 32 · MCQ
1 marks
A radioactive nuclide \(X\) decays into a stable nuclide \(Y\) with a half-life of \(4.0\text{ hours}\). Initially, a sample contains only pure \(X\). After a time \(t\), the ratio of the number of \(Y\) nuclei to the number of \(X\) nuclei in the sample is found to be \(7 : 1\). Find the value of \(t\).
  1. A.8.0 hours
  2. B.12.0 hours
  3. C.16.0 hours
  4. D.28.0 hours
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Worked solution

Let \(N_0\) be the initial number of \(X\) nuclei.
Since each decayed nucleus of \(X\) becomes a nucleus of \(Y\):
\[ N_X + N_Y = N_0 \]
Given \(N_Y / N_X = 7\), we have \(N_Y = 7 N_X\):
\[ N_X + 7 N_X = N_0 \implies 8 N_X = N_0 \implies N_X = \frac{1}{8} N_0 = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3 N_0 \]
This corresponds to 3 half-lives.
Thus, \(t = 3 \times 4.0\text{ hours} = 12.0\text{ hours}\).

Marking scheme

Correct Answer: B (1 mark)
Question 33 · MCQ
1 marks
A small ball is projected horizontally from the edge of a vertical cliff of height \(h\) with an initial speed \(u\). The ball hits the horizontal ground below at an angle of \(45^\circ\) to the horizontal. Neglecting air resistance, what is the horizontal distance travelled by the ball before it lands?
  1. A.\(\frac{1}{2}h\)
  2. B.\(h\)
  3. C.\(\sqrt{2}h\)
  4. D.\(2h\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Let \(t\) be the time of flight of the ball.

For the vertical motion under gravity from rest:
\[ h = \frac{1}{2}gt^2 \implies t = \sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}} \]
The vertical component of velocity just before landing is:
\[ v_y = gt = g\sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}} = \sqrt{2gh} \]
Since the ball moves at an angle of \(45^\circ\) to the horizontal upon landing, the magnitude of the horizontal velocity \(v_x\) is equal to the magnitude of the vertical velocity \(v_y\):
\[ \tan 45^\circ = \frac{v_y}{v_x} = 1 \implies v_x = v_y = \sqrt{2gh} \]
Since there is no horizontal acceleration, the initial projection speed is \(u = v_x = \sqrt{2gh}\).

The horizontal distance \(s_x\) travelled is:
\[ s_x = u \times t = \sqrt{2gh} \times \sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}} = \sqrt{4h^2} = 2h \]
Therefore, the correct option is D.

Marking scheme

Correct option: D (1 mark)

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Paper 1B

Answer all questions in the spaces provided. Show calculations and diagrams where appropriate.
12 Question · 85 marks
Question 1 · Short Question
5 marks
An electric kettle containing \(0.80\text{ kg}\) of water at \(24^\circ\text{C}\) is switched on. The kettle has a power rating of \(1800\text{ W}\). It takes \(150\text{ s}\) for the water to reach its boiling point of \(100^\circ\text{C}\).

(Given: specific heat capacity of water \(= 4200\text{ J kg}^{-1}\text{ }^\circ\text{C}^{-1}\))

(a) Calculate the energy absorbed by the water to reach \(100^\circ\text{C}\). (2 marks)

(b) Determine the average rate of heat loss from the kettle to the surroundings during this heating process. (2 marks)

(c) Suggest ONE design feature of an electric kettle that helps reduce heat loss to the surroundings. (1 mark)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Energy absorbed by the water:
\[ Q = mc\Delta T = (0.80)(4200)(100 - 24) = 2.5536 \times 10^5\text{ J} \approx 2.55 \times 10^5\text{ J} \]

(b) Total electrical energy supplied:
\[ E_{\text{in}} = P t = (1800)(150) = 2.70 \times 10^5\text{ J} \]
Total heat lost:
\[ Q_{\text{loss}} = E_{\text{in}} - Q = 2.70 \times 10^5 - 2.5536 \times 10^5 = 14640\text{ J} \]
Average rate of heat loss:
\[ \text{Rate} = \frac{Q_{\text{loss}}}{t} = \frac{14640}{150} = 97.6\text{ W} \]
(Using unrounded values gives \(97.6\text{ W}\); accept \(97.3\text{ W}\) to \(98.0\text{ W}\)).

(c) Using a double-walled / vacuum-insulated body (or having a polished/shiny exterior surface to reduce radiation).

Marking scheme

(a)
1M: Use of \(Q = mc\Delta T\)
1A: \(2.55 \times 10^5\text{ J}\) (or \(255\text{ kJ}\))

(b)
1M: Finding total energy supplied \(Pt\) and computing \(Q_{\text{loss}} / t\) or \(P - mc\Delta T/t\)
1A: \(97.6\text{ W}\) (accept \(97.3\text{ W} - 98.0\text{ W}\))

(c)
1A: Double-walled vacuum structure / plastic casing / shiny reflective exterior body (any ONE valid reason)
Question 2 · Short Question
6 marks
A small ball is launched horizontally from the edge of a flat, elevated platform of height \(1.25\text{ m}\) above horizontal ground. It lands on the ground at a horizontal distance of \(3.0\text{ m}\) from the base of the platform. Air resistance is negligible. Take \(g = 9.81\text{ m s}^{-2}\).

(a) Find the time of flight of the ball. (2 marks)

(b) Calculate the horizontal projection speed of the ball. (2 marks)

(c) Find the magnitude and direction of the velocity of the ball just before it hits the ground. (2 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Considering vertical motion from rest:
\[ s_y = \frac{1}{2}gt^2 \implies 1.25 = \frac{1}{2}(9.81)t^2 \]
\[ t = \sqrt{\frac{2 \times 1.25}{9.81}} = 0.5048\text{ s} \approx 0.505\text{ s} \]

(b) Horizontal speed:
\[ u_x = \frac{s_x}{t} = \frac{3.0}{0.5048} = 5.943\text{ m s}^{-1} \approx 5.94\text{ m s}^{-1} \]

(c) Vertical velocity just before hitting the ground:
\[ v_y = gt = (9.81)(0.5048) = 4.952\text{ m s}^{-1} \text{ (downwards)} \]
Magnitude of velocity:
\[ v = \sqrt{u_x^2 + v_y^2} = \sqrt{(5.943)^2 + (4.952)^2} = 7.736\text{ m s}^{-1} \approx 7.74\text{ m s}^{-1} \]
Direction:
\[ \theta = \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{v_y}{u_x}\right) = \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{4.952}{5.943}\right) = 39.8^\circ \text{ below the horizontal} \]

Marking scheme

(a)
1M: Use of \(h = \frac{1}{2}gt^2\)
1A: \(t = 0.505\text{ s}\) (accept \(0.50\text{ s} - 0.51\text{ s}\))

(b)
1M: Use of \(u_x = s_x / t\)
1A: \(5.94\text{ m s}^{-1}\) (or e.c.f. from (a))

(c)
1M: Finding \(v_y = gt\) and combining components \(v = \sqrt{v_x^2 + v_y^2}\)
1A: \(7.74\text{ m s}^{-1}\) at \(39.8^\circ\) below the horizontal (accept \(39.7^\circ - 40.0^\circ\))
Question 3 · Short Question
6 marks
A car of mass \(1200\text{ kg}\) travels over the crest of a curved bridge of radius of curvature \(R = 45\text{ m}\) in the vertical plane. Take \(g = 9.81\text{ m s}^{-2}\).

(a) State the forces acting on the car at the highest point of the bridge and write down an equation relating them to the centripetal acceleration. (2 marks)

(b) If the car passes the top of the bridge at a speed of \(14.0\text{ m s}^{-1}\), calculate the normal reaction force exerted by the road on the car. (2 marks)

(c) Determine the maximum speed the car can have at the highest point without losing contact with the road. (2 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) The forces are:
1. Weight \(W = mg\) acting vertically downwards.
2. Normal reaction \(N\) acting vertically upwards.
Equation of motion:
\[ mg - N = \frac{mv^2}{R} \]

(b) Normal reaction \(N\):
\[ N = m\left(g - \frac{v^2}{R}\right) = 1200\left(9.81 - \frac{14.0^2}{45}\right) \]
\[ N = 1200(9.81 - 4.3556) = 1200(5.4544) = 6545.3\text{ N} \approx 6550\text{ N} \text{ (or } 6.55\text{ kN)} \]

(c) At the verge of losing contact, \(N = 0\):
\[ mg = \frac{mv_{\max}^2}{R} \implies v_{\max} = \sqrt{gR} \]
\[ v_{\max} = \sqrt{(9.81)(45)} = 21.01\text{ m s}^{-1} \approx 21.0\text{ m s}^{-1} \]

Marking scheme

(a)
1A: Identifying weight downwards and normal reaction upwards
1A: Correct net force equation \(mg - N = \frac{mv^2}{R}\)

(b)
1M: Correct substitution into the equation for \(N\)
1A: \(N = 6550\text{ N}\) (accept \(6540\text{ N} - 6550\text{ N}\))

(c)
1M: Setting \(N = 0\) to get \(v = \sqrt{gR}\)
1A: \(v_{\max} = 21.0\text{ m s}^{-1}\)
Question 4 · Short Question
6 marks
Two small loudspeakers \(S_1\) and \(S_2\), placed \(1.50\text{ m}\) apart, are connected to the same audio signal generator so that they emit coherent sound waves in phase with a frequency of \(680\text{ Hz}\). A microphone is moved along a line parallel to and \(4.00\text{ m}\) away from the line joining \(S_1\) and \(S_2\). The speed of sound in air is \(340\text{ m s}^{-1}\).

(a) Calculate the wavelength of the sound waves. (2 marks)

(b) Determine the separation between two consecutive positions of maximum sound intensity detected by the microphone. (2 marks)

(c) Explain what change, if any, will be observed in the fringe spacing of maximum intensity if the frequency of the audio generator is increased. (2 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Wavelength:
\[ \lambda = \frac{v}{f} = \frac{340}{680} = 0.500\text{ m} \]

(b) Using the fringe separation formula for double-source interference:
\[ \Delta y = \frac{\lambda D}{a} \]
where \(D = 4.00\text{ m}\), \(a = 1.50\text{ m}\), and \(\lambda = 0.500\text{ m}\):
\[ \Delta y = \frac{(0.500)(4.00)}{1.50} = 1.333\text{ m} \approx 1.33\text{ m} \]

(c) By \(v = f\lambda\), when frequency \(f\) increases, the wavelength \(\lambda\) decreases since the wave speed \(v\) remains constant.
Since fringe spacing \(\Delta y = \frac{\lambda D}{a} \propto \lambda\), the separation between consecutive maxima will decrease.

Marking scheme

(a)
1M: Use of \(v = f\lambda\)
1A: \(\lambda = 0.500\text{ m}\)

(b)
1M: Use of \(\Delta y = \frac{\lambda D}{a}\)
1A: \(\Delta y = 1.33\text{ m}\) (accept \(\frac{4}{3}\text{ m}\))

(c)
1A: Stating that wavelength decreases as frequency increases
1A: Explaining that fringe spacing decreases because \(\Delta y \propto \lambda\)
Question 5 · Short Question
6 marks
A narrow ray of monochromatic light is incident from air onto the flat face of a semicircular glass block of refractive index \(n = 1.52\) at an angle of incidence of \(50.0^\circ\).

(a) Calculate the angle of refraction inside the glass block. (2 marks)

(b) Find the critical angle for the glass-air boundary. (2 marks)

(c) The ray travels through the glass and reaches the curved surface of the block. State and explain whether the ray will undergo total internal reflection at the curved boundary. (2 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) By Snell's Law:
\[ n_{\text{air}} \sin i = n_{\text{glass}} \sin r \]
\[ (1.00)\sin(50.0^\circ) = 1.52 \sin r \]
\[ \sin r = \frac{\sin 50.0^\circ}{1.52} = \frac{0.7660}{1.52} = 0.5040 \]
\[ r = \sin^{-1}(0.5040) = 30.26^\circ \approx 30.3^\circ \]

(b) Critical angle \(C\):
\[ \sin C = \frac{1}{n} = \frac{1}{1.52} = 0.6579 \]
\[ C = \sin^{-1}(0.6579) = 41.14^\circ \approx 41.1^\circ \]

(c) No, total internal reflection will not occur.
The ray emerges from the center of the flat side and travels along a radius of the semicircle. Therefore, it strikes the curved surface normally (at an angle of incidence of \(0^\circ\)), which is less than the critical angle \(C\), so it passes straight out without deviation.

Marking scheme

(a)
1M: Use of \(n_1 \sin \theta_1 = n_2 \sin \theta_2\)
1A: \(r = 30.3^\circ\) (accept \(30.2^\circ - 30.3^\circ\))

(b)
1M: Use of \(\sin C = \frac{1}{n}\)
1A: \(C = 41.1^\circ\)

(c)
1A: Stating that the light ray travels along the radius / hits normally (angle of incidence \(= 0^\circ\))
1A: Concluding no total internal reflection occurs because the incident angle is less than the critical angle
Question 6 · Short Question
6 marks
A circuit consists of a \(12.0\text{ V}\) power supply of negligible internal resistance connected in series with a fixed resistor of resistance \(R_1 = 4.0\text{ k}\Omega\) and a light-dependent resistor (LDR). A high-resistance voltmeter is connected across the fixed resistor \(R_1\).

(a) In bright light, the resistance of the LDR is \(1.0\text{ k}\Omega\). Calculate the reading on the voltmeter. (2 marks)

(b) In dim light, the voltmeter reading drops to \(3.0\text{ V}\). Determine the resistance of the LDR in dim light. (2 marks)

(c) State and explain how the voltmeter reading changes when the surroundings become darker. (2 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) By the potential divider formula:
\[ V_1 = V_{\text{total}} \times \frac{R_1}{R_1 + R_{\text{LDR}}} = 12.0 \times \frac{4.0}{4.0 + 1.0} = 12.0 \times \frac{4}{5} = 9.60\text{ V} \]

(b) When \(V_1 = 3.0\text{ V}\), the voltage across the LDR is:
\[ V_{\text{LDR}} = 12.0 - 3.0 = 9.0\text{ V} \]
Since current is the same throughout the series circuit:
\[ \frac{R_{\text{LDR}}}{R_1} = \frac{V_{\text{LDR}}}{V_1} \implies R_{\text{LDR}} = 4.0\text{ k}\Omega \times \frac{9.0}{3.0} = 12.0\text{ k}\Omega \]

(c) When the surroundings become darker, the resistance of the LDR increases.
As the total circuit resistance increases, the current decreases (or the LDR takes a greater fraction of the total voltage), so the potential difference across the fixed resistor \(R_1\) decreases, causing the voltmeter reading to decrease.

Marking scheme

(a)
1M: Use of potential divider formula \(V_1 = V \frac{R_1}{R_1 + R_{\text{LDR}}}\) or finding current \(I = \frac{12}{5000}\text{ A}\)
1A: \(V_1 = 9.60\text{ V}\)

(b)
1M: Expressing ratio \(V_1 / V_{\text{LDR}} = R_1 / R_{\text{LDR}}\) or solving \(3.0 = 12\frac{4}{4 + R_{\text{LDR}}}\)
1A: \(R_{\text{LDR}} = 12.0\text{ k}\Omega\) (or \(1.20 \times 10^4\ \Omega\))

(c)
1A: Stating that LDR resistance increases in darker conditions
1A: Explaining that smaller proportion of voltage drops across \(R_1\) / circuit current decreases, hence voltmeter reading decreases
Question 7 · Short Question
6 marks
A straight metal rod of length \(L = 0.25\text{ m}\) and resistance \(R = 0.50\ \Omega\) slides horizontally at a constant speed of \(v = 4.0\text{ m s}^{-1}\) on two frictionless, parallel metal rails of negligible resistance. A uniform magnetic field of strength \(B = 0.80\text{ T}\) acts perpendicular to the plane of the rails.

(a) Calculate the electromotive force (e.m.f.) induced across the ends of the rod. (2 marks)

(b) Find the magnitude of the induced current flowing through the rod. (1 mark)

(c) (i) Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the moving rod. (2 marks)
(ii) State the direction of this magnetic force relative to the rod's motion. (1 mark)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Induced e.m.f.:
\[ \varepsilon = B L v = (0.80)(0.25)(4.0) = 0.80\text{ V} \]

(b) Induced current:
\[ I = \frac{\varepsilon}{R} = \frac{0.80}{0.50} = 1.60\text{ A} \]

(c) (i) Magnetic force on the rod:
\[ F_B = B I L = (0.80)(1.60)(0.25) = 0.32\text{ N} \]

(c) (ii) By Lenz's law, the magnetic force opposes the motion of the rod, so its direction is opposite to the velocity / direction of motion of the rod.

Marking scheme

(a)
1M: Use of \(\varepsilon = B L v\)
1A: \(\varepsilon = 0.80\text{ V}\)

(b)
1A: \(I = 1.60\text{ A}\)

(c)(i)
1M: Use of \(F = B I L\)
1A: \(F = 0.32\text{ N}\)

(c)(ii)
1A: Opposite to the direction of motion (or opposing the motion)
Question 8 · Short Question
5 marks
A radioactive sample contains a single radionuclide that emits beta (\(\beta^-\)) particles. The initial count rate measured by a GM counter close to the source is \(520\text{ counts per minute (cpm)}\). The background count rate is constant at \(40\text{ cpm}\). After \(18.0\text{ hours}\), the measured count rate drops to \(100\text{ cpm}\).

(a) Determine the corrected initial count rate and the corrected count rate after \(18.0\text{ hours}\). (1 mark)

(b) Calculate the half-life of this radionuclide. (2 marks)

(c) State TWO properties of beta radiation that distinguish it from alpha radiation. (2 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Corrected initial count rate \(C_0 = 520 - 40 = 480\text{ cpm}\).
Corrected count rate after \(18.0\text{ hours}\): \(C(t) = 100 - 40 = 60\text{ cpm}\).

(b) Ratio of corrected count rates:
\[ \frac{C(t)}{C_0} = \frac{60}{480} = \frac{1}{8} = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3 \]
This corresponds to 3 half-lives:
\[ 3 t_{1/2} = 18.0\text{ hours} \implies t_{1/2} = \frac{18.0}{3} = 6.0\text{ hours} \]

(c) Any TWO differences:
1. Beta particles have higher penetrating power (can pass through paper, stopped by a few mm of aluminum) than alpha particles.
2. Beta particles have lower ionizing power than alpha particles.
3. Beta particles are negatively charged fast-moving electrons, whereas alpha particles are positively charged helium-4 nuclei.
4. Beta particles have much smaller mass than alpha particles.

Marking scheme

(a)
1A: Both corrected values correct: \(480\text{ cpm}\) and \(60\text{ cpm}\)

(b)
1M: Recognizing \(60/480 = (1/2)^n\) with \(n = 3\) or using \(N = N_0 e^{-kt}\)
1A: \(t_{1/2} = 6.0\text{ hours}\) (or \(2.16 \times 10^4\text{ s}\))

(c)
2A: Any TWO correct contrasting properties (1 mark each): higher penetrating power, lower ionizing power, negatively charged / fast-moving electrons vs helium nuclei, smaller deflection mass/charge in magnetic field.
Question 9 · Short Question
6 marks
A small wooden block of mass \(0.50\text{ kg}\) is projected upwards from the bottom of a rough inclined plane angled at \(30^\circ\) to the horizontal with an initial speed of \(6.0\text{ m s}^{-1}\). The block slides up along the incline and travels a distance of \(2.4\text{ m}\) before coming momentarily to rest.

(a) Calculate the gain in gravitational potential energy of the block when it reaches its highest point. (2 marks)

(b) By considering energy conservation, determine the average frictional force acting on the block as it moves up the incline. (2 marks)

(c) State and explain whether the magnitude of the acceleration of the block when it slides down the incline is greater than, equal to, or less than its acceleration when sliding up. (2 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Vertical height reached by the block:
\[ h = s \sin 30^\circ = 2.4 \times \sin 30^\circ = 1.20\text{ m} \]
Gain in gravitational potential energy:
\[ \Delta E_p = mgh = 0.50 \times 9.81 \times 1.20 = 5.886\text{ J} \approx 5.89\text{ J} \]

(b) Initial kinetic energy of the block:
\[ E_k = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \frac{1}{2} \times 0.50 \times (6.0)^2 = 9.00\text{ J} \]
Work done against friction:
\[ W_f = E_k - \Delta E_p = 9.00 - 5.886 = 3.114\text{ J} \]
Average frictional force \(f\):
\[ f = \frac{W_f}{s} = \frac{3.114}{2.4} = 1.2975\text{ N} \approx 1.30\text{ N} \]

(c) The magnitude of acceleration is less than that when sliding up.
When the block slides up, the component of gravity along the incline and the frictional force act in the same direction (down the plane):
\[ F_{\text{net, up}} = mg\sin\theta + f \implies a_{\text{up}} = g\sin\theta + \frac{f}{m} \]
When the block slides down, the frictional force acts up the plane, opposing gravity:
\[ F_{\text{net, down}} = mg\sin\theta - f \implies a_{\text{down}} = g\sin\theta - \frac{f}{m} \]
Hence, the net downward force and acceleration are smaller when sliding down.

Marking scheme

(a) Height \(h = 2.4\sin 30^\circ = 1.2\text{ m}\) and \(\Delta E_p = mgh = (0.50)(9.81)(1.2)\) [1M]
\(\Delta E_p = 5.89\text{ J}\) (or \(5.886\text{ J}\)) [1A]

(b) \(\frac{1}{2}mv^2 - \Delta E_p = f \cdot s\) or \(9.00 - 5.886 = f(2.4)\) [1M]
\(f = 1.30\text{ N}\) (accept \(1.29\text{ N}\) to \(1.30\text{ N}\)) [1A]

(c) State that acceleration is less than when sliding up [1A]
Explain that the friction opposes the motion in both cases, so the net force along the plane is \(mg\sin\theta - f\) down the incline, which is smaller than \(mg\sin\theta + f\) up the incline [1A]
Question 10 · Long Question
11 marks
A smooth pair of parallel metal rails separated by a distance \(L = 0.25\text{ m}\) is inclined at an angle of \(\theta = 30^\circ\) to the horizontal. A uniform magnetic field \(B = 0.60\text{ T}\) acts vertically upwards throughout the region. A straight metal rod of mass \(m = 0.04\text{ kg}\) is placed horizontally across the rails. A resistor of resistance \(R = 1.5\ \Omega\) is connected across the top ends of the rails. The electrical resistance of the rod and rails is negligible. The rod is released from rest and slides down the rails without losing electrical contact. (Take \(g = 9.81\text{ m s}^{-2}\))

(a) Show that when the rod moves down the incline with a speed \(v\), the induced electromotive force (e.m.f.) \(\mathcal{E}\) in the rod is given by \(\mathcal{E} = B L v \cos\theta\). (2 marks)

(b) By applying Lenz's law, state and explain the direction of the magnetic force acting on the rod. (2 marks)

(c) (i) Express the component of the magnetic force opposing the motion along the inclined plane in terms of \(B\), \(L\), \(R\), \(v\), and \(\theta\). (2 marks)
(ii) Hence, calculate the terminal speed \(v_t\) reached by the rod. (3 marks)

(d) When the rod is travelling at its terminal speed, show by calculation whether the rate of loss of gravitational potential energy equals the electrical power dissipated in resistor \(R\). (2 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Area swept by the rod per unit time projected onto the horizontal plane is \(\frac{\Delta A_h}{\Delta t} = L \cdot (v \Delta t \cos\theta) / \Delta t = L v \cos\theta\).
By Faraday's law, \(\mathcal{E} = \frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t} = B \frac{\Delta A_h}{\Delta t} = B L v \cos\theta\).

(b) As the rod slides down, the upward magnetic flux linked with the circuit increases.
According to Lenz's law, the induced current produces an opposing effect, resulting in a horizontal magnetic force directed towards the left (opposing the horizontal component of the motion).

(c) (i) Induced current \(I = \frac{\mathcal{E}}{R} = \frac{B L v \cos\theta}{R}\).
The total horizontal magnetic force is \(F_B = B I L = \frac{B^2 L^2 v \cos\theta}{R}\).
The component along the inclined plane opposing downward motion is:
\(F_\text{incline} = F_B \cos\theta = \frac{B^2 L^2 v \cos^2\theta}{R}\).

(ii) At terminal speed \(v_t\), the net force along the plane is zero:
\(m g \sin\theta = \frac{B^2 L^2 v_t \cos^2\theta}{R}\)
\(v_t = \frac{m g R \sin\theta}{B^2 L^2 \cos^2\theta}\)
\(v_t = \frac{(0.04)(9.81)(1.5) \sin 30^\circ}{(0.60)^2 (0.25)^2 (\cos 30^\circ)^2} = \frac{0.2943}{0.36 \times 0.0625 \times 0.75} = \frac{0.2943}{0.016875} \approx 17.44\text{ m s}^{-1} \approx 17.4\text{ m s}^{-1}\).

(d) Rate of loss of GPE \(= m g v_t \sin 30^\circ = (0.04)(9.81)(17.44)(0.50) = 3.422\text{ W} \approx 3.42\text{ W}\).
Electrical power dissipated \(P = \frac{\mathcal{E}^2}{R} = \frac{(B L v_t \cos 30^\circ)^2}{R} = \frac{[(0.60)(0.25)(17.44)(\cos 30^\circ)]^2}{1.5} = \frac{(2.2655)^2}{1.5} = 3.422\text{ W} \approx 3.42\text{ W}\).
Thus, the rate of loss of GPE equals the electrical power dissipated in \(R\).

Marking scheme

(a) Component of velocity perpendicular to B is \(v \cos\theta\) (or magnetic field perpendicular to plane is \(B \cos\theta\)) [1M]
Correct expression \(\mathcal{E} = B L v \cos\theta\) derived clearly [1A]

(b) Magnetic flux increases / induced current creates downward opposing flux [1M]
Magnetic force is horizontal directed to the left (opposing motion) [1A]

(c)(i) State \(I = \frac{B L v \cos\theta}{R}\) and \(F_B = B I L\) [1M]
Correct resolution along incline: \(F_\text{incline} = \frac{B^2 L^2 v \cos^2\theta}{R}\) [1A]

(c)(ii) Equating \(m g \sin\theta = F_\text{incline}\) [1M]
Correct substitution of values [1M]
\(v_t = 17.4\text{ m s}^{-1}\) (accept \(17.4\text{ m s}^{-1}\) to \(17.5\text{ m s}^{-1}\)) [1A]

(d) Calculate rate of GPE loss \(= 3.42\text{ W}\) [1M]
Calculate electrical power \(P = 3.42\text{ W}\) and state they are equal [1A]
Question 11 · Long Question
11 marks
In a Young's double-slit experiment, monochromatic light from a laser of wavelength \(\lambda = 632.8\text{ nm}\) is directed perpendicularly onto two parallel slits separated by a distance \(a = 0.20\text{ mm}\). An interference pattern is observed on a screen placed at a distance \(D = 1.80\text{ m}\) from the slits.

(a) Calculate the fringe separation \(\Delta y\) on the screen. (2 marks)

(b) State and explain how the appearance of the fringes on the screen would change if:
(i) the laser is replaced by a blue laser of wavelength \(450\text{ nm}\); (2 marks)
(ii) one of the two slits is completely covered with an opaque block. (2 marks)

(c) A thin transparent plastic sheet of thickness \(t = 1.20\ \mu\text{m}\) and refractive index \(n = 1.50\) is placed directly in front of one of the slits (using the original laser of \(\lambda = 632.8\text{ nm}\)). Take the refractive index of air as \(1.00\).
(i) Calculate the optical path difference introduced between the two beams due to the sheet. (2 marks)
(ii) Hence, calculate the distance by which the central maximum shifts on the screen. (3 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Fringe separation \(\Delta y = \frac{\lambda D}{a}\)
\(\Delta y = \frac{(632.8 \times 10^{-9})(1.80)}{0.20 \times 10^{-3}} = 5.6952 \times 10^{-3}\text{ m} \approx 5.70\text{ mm}\).

(b) (i) Since \(\Delta y \propto \lambda\) and the wavelength decreases (from \(632.8\text{ nm}\) to \(450\text{ nm}\)), the fringe separation \(\Delta y\) decreases (fringes become narrower / more closely spaced), and the bright fringes appear blue.
(ii) The two-slit interference pattern disappears; instead, a broader single-slit diffraction pattern with a wide central maximum and much dimmer secondary maxima is observed.

(c) (i) The extra optical path length is given by:
\(\Delta L = (n - n_\text{air}) t = (1.50 - 1.00)(1.20 \times 10^{-6}\text{ m}) = 6.00 \times 10^{-7}\text{ m}\).

(ii) The condition for the central maximum (zero net path difference) requires:
\(\frac{a \Delta Y}{D} = \Delta L\)
\(\Delta Y = \frac{\Delta L \cdot D}{a} = \frac{(6.00 \times 10^{-7})(1.80)}{0.20 \times 10^{-3}} = 5.40 \times 10^{-3}\text{ m} = 5.40\text{ mm}\)
(Alternatively: shift in fringe units \(N = \frac{\Delta L}{\lambda} = \frac{6.00 \times 10^{-7}}{6.328 \times 10^{-7}} = 0.9481\); shift \(= N \times \Delta y = 0.9481 \times 5.695\text{ mm} = 5.40\text{ mm}\)).

Marking scheme

(a) Use of \(\Delta y = \frac{\lambda D}{a}\) with proper substitution [1M]
\(\Delta y = 5.70\text{ mm}\) (or \(5.695 \times 10^{-3}\text{ m}\)) [1A]

(b)(i) Fringe separation decreases / fringes become closer [1A]
Fringe colour becomes blue [1A]

(b)(ii) Double-slit interference fringes disappear [1A]
Single-slit diffraction pattern formed [1A]

(c)(i) Use of \(\Delta L = (n - 1)t\) [1M]
\(\Delta L = 6.00 \times 10^{-7}\text{ m}\) [1A]

(c)(ii) State \(\frac{a \Delta Y}{D} = \Delta L\) or \(N = \frac{\Delta L}{\lambda}\) [1M]
Correct substitution [1M]
\(\Delta Y = 5.40\text{ mm}\) (or \(5.40 \times 10^{-3}\text{ m}\)) [1A]
Question 12 · Long Question
11 marks
A block \(A\) of mass \(m_A = 0.60\text{ kg}\) is held against a horizontal elastic spring of force constant \(k = 600\text{ N m}^{-1}\), compressing it by \(x = 0.20\text{ m}\) from its natural length on a smooth horizontal surface. Block \(A\) is released from rest. It leaves the spring at the spring's equilibrium position and travels horizontally to collide with a stationary block \(B\) of mass \(m_B = 1.20\text{ kg}\). (Take \(g = 9.81\text{ m s}^{-2}\))

(a) Find the speed of block \(A\) just before it strikes block \(B\). (2 marks)

(b) The two blocks stick together upon collision.
(i) Determine the common speed of the combined blocks immediately after the collision. (2 marks)
(ii) Calculate the loss in mechanical energy during the collision. (2 marks)

(c) After the collision, the combined blocks slide across a rough horizontal section of length \(s = 0.70\text{ m}\) where the coefficient of kinetic friction between the blocks and the surface is \(\mu = 0.20\). They then move smoothly onto a frictionless circular ramp.
(i) Calculate the speed of the combined blocks as they leave the rough section. (3 marks)
(ii) Determine the maximum vertical height \(h\) reached by the combined blocks on the ramp. (2 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) By conservation of energy for the spring-block system:
\(\frac{1}{2} k x^2 = \frac{1}{2} m_A v_A^2\)
\(\frac{1}{2} (600)(0.20)^2 = \frac{1}{2} (0.60) v_A^2\)
\(12.0 = 0.30 v_A^2 \implies v_A^2 = 40.0 \implies v_A = \sqrt{40} \approx 6.325\text{ m s}^{-1} \approx 6.32\text{ m s}^{-1}\).

(b) (i) By conservation of linear momentum:
\(m_A v_A = (m_A + m_B) v'\)
\((0.60)(\sqrt{40}) = (0.60 + 1.20) v'\)
\(v' = \frac{0.60 \times 6.3246}{1.80} = \frac{\sqrt{40}}{3} \approx 2.108\text{ m s}^{-1} \approx 2.11\text{ m s}^{-1}\).

(ii) Kinetic energy before collision \(E_{k1} = 12.0\text{ J}\).
Kinetic energy after collision \(E_{k2} = \frac{1}{2} (m_A + m_B) (v')^2 = \frac{1}{2} (1.80) \left(\frac{40}{9}\right) = 4.00\text{ J}\).
Loss in mechanical energy \(= 12.0 - 4.00 = 8.00\text{ J}\).

(c) (i) Frictional force on the combined blocks \(f_k = \mu (m_A + m_B) g = (0.20)(1.80)(9.81) = 3.5316\text{ N}\).
Work done against friction \(W_f = f_k s = (3.5316)(0.70) = 2.4721\text{ J}\).
By work-energy theorem:
\(E_{k3} = E_{k2} - W_f = 4.00 - 2.4721 = 1.5279\text{ J}\).
\(\frac{1}{2} (m_A + m_B) v^2 = 1.5279\)
\(\frac{1}{2} (1.80) v^2 = 1.5279 \implies v = \sqrt{\frac{2 \times 1.5279}{1.80}} = \sqrt{1.6976} \approx 1.303\text{ m s}^{-1} \approx 1.30\text{ m s}^{-1}\).

(ii) By conservation of mechanical energy on the smooth ramp:
\((m_A + m_B) g h = E_{k3}\)
\((1.80)(9.81) h = 1.5279\)
\(h = \frac{1.5279}{17.658} \approx 0.0865\text{ m} = 8.65\text{ cm}\).

Marking scheme

(a) Equating elastic PE to KE: \(\frac{1}{2} k x^2 = \frac{1}{2} m_A v_A^2\) [1M]
\(v_A = 6.32\text{ m s}^{-1}\) (or \(\sqrt{40}\text{ m s}^{-1}\)) [1A]

(b)(i) Conservation of momentum: \(m_A v_A = (m_A + m_B) v'\) [1M]
\(v' = 2.11\text{ m s}^{-1}\) [1A]

(b)(ii) Calculate KE after collision \(= 4.00\text{ J}\) [1M]
Loss \(= 8.00\text{ J}\) [1A]

(c)(i) Calculate work done against friction \(W_f = \mu (m_A+m_B) g s = 2.47\text{ J}\) [1M]
Applying energy principle: \(E_k - W_f = \frac{1}{2} (m_A + m_B) v^2\) [1M]
\(v = 1.30\text{ m s}^{-1}\) [1A]

(c)(ii) Conservation of energy on ramp: \(m g h = \frac{1}{2} m v^2\) [1M]
\(h = 0.0865\text{ m}\) (accept \(8.65\text{ cm}\) to \(8.66\text{ cm}\)) [1A]

Paper 2 Section A

Answer 8 multiple-choice questions and 1 structured question.
9 Question · 18 marks
Question 1 · MCQ
1 marks
Which of the following observations made by Galileo provided direct evidence against Ptolemy's geocentric model by showing that celestial bodies can orbit a centre other than Earth?

(1) The discovery of four moons orbiting Jupiter
(2) The observation of sunspots moving across the Sun's surface
(3) The observation of craters and mountains on the Moon
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(2) only
  3. C.(1) and (2) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Galileo's discovery that moons orbited Jupiter showed clearly that not all celestial objects orbit Earth, directly contradicting the fundamental claim of the Ptolemaic geocentric model.

Observations of sunspots and lunar craters showed that heavenly bodies were imperfect and dynamic, challenging Aristotelian concepts of celestial perfection, but they did not directly demonstrate orbits around non-Earth centres.

Therefore, only (1) is correct.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark)
- Award 1 mark for selecting option A.
- Deduct 0 marks for incorrect options.
Question 2 · MCQ
1 marks
A dwarf planet revolves around the Sun in an elliptical orbit with a semi-major axis of \(4.00\text{ AU}\). Its orbital speed at perihelion is \(1.50\) times its orbital speed at aphelion. What is the distance from the Sun to the dwarf planet at perihelion?
  1. A.\(1.60\text{ AU}\)
  2. B.\(3.20\text{ AU}\)
  3. C.\(4.80\text{ AU}\)
  4. D.\(5.33\text{ AU}\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

By conservation of angular momentum (or Kepler's second law):
\[ r_p v_p = r_a v_a \implies r_a = r_p \left(\frac{v_p}{v_a}\right) = 1.50 r_p \]

For an ellipse with semi-major axis \(a\):
\[ r_p + r_a = 2a \]
\[ r_p + 1.50 r_p = 2(4.00\text{ AU}) \]
\[ 2.50 r_p = 8.00\text{ AU} \implies r_p = \frac{8.00}{2.50} = 3.20\text{ AU} \]

Marking scheme

B (1 mark)
- Award 1 mark for selecting option B.
- Deduct 0 marks for incorrect options.
Question 3 · MCQ
1 marks
A star is observed from Earth to have a stellar parallax of \(0.080''\). Suppose the same star is observed from a spacecraft in orbit around Jupiter, where the orbital radius of Jupiter is \(5.2\text{ AU}\). What is the parallax angle of the star measured from Jupiter?
  1. A.\(0.015''\)
  2. B.\(0.080''\)
  3. C.\(0.42''\)
  4. D.\(2.16''\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Stellar parallax angle \(p\) is directly proportional to the baseline (orbital radius \(r\)):
\[ p = \frac{r}{d} \]

Given \(p_{\text{Earth}} = 0.080''\) with \(r_{\text{Earth}} = 1.0\text{ AU}\):
\[ p_{\text{Jupiter}} = \left(\frac{r_{\text{Jupiter}}}{r_{\text{Earth}}}\right) p_{\text{Earth}} = 5.2 \times 0.080'' = 0.416'' \approx 0.42'' \]

Marking scheme

C (1 mark)
- Award 1 mark for selecting option C.
- Deduct 0 marks for incorrect options.
Question 4 · MCQ
1 marks
The table below lists the surface temperatures and absolute magnitudes of four stars \(P\), \(Q\), \(R\), and \(S\).

$$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|} \hline \text{Star} & \text{Surface temperature / K} & \text{Absolute magnitude} \\ \hline P & 3200 & +12.0 \\ Q & 3200 & -5.0 \\ R & 9800 & +1.5 \\ S & 22000 & -4.0 \\ \hline \end{array}$$

Which of the following correctly classifies star \(P\) and star \(Q\)?
  1. A.\(P\): Red supergiant, \(Q\): Red dwarf
  2. B.\(P\): Red dwarf, \(Q\): Red supergiant
  3. C.\(P\): White dwarf, \(Q\): Red dwarf
  4. D.\(P\): Red dwarf, \(Q\): White dwarf
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Both star \(P\) and star \(Q\) have a low surface temperature (\(3200\text{ K}\)), meaning they are cool, reddish stars.

- Star \(P\) has a very large positive absolute magnitude (\(+12.0\)), indicating a very low luminosity. Since it is cool and intrinsically faint, its radius is small, so it is a red dwarf (main-sequence star).
- Star \(Q\) has a very negative absolute magnitude (\(-5.0\)), indicating an enormous luminosity. To produce high luminosity at such a low temperature, it must have an extremely large surface area, so it is a red supergiant.

Marking scheme

B (1 mark)
- Award 1 mark for selecting option B.
- Deduct 0 marks for incorrect options.
Question 5 · MCQ
1 marks
Star \(X\) and star \(Y\) have the same apparent brightness when observed from Earth. The surface temperature of star \(X\) is \(2\) times that of star \(Y\), and the radius of star \(X\) is \(3\) times that of star \(Y\). Find the ratio of the distance of star \(X\) to the distance of star \(Y\) from Earth, \(\frac{d_X}{d_Y}\).
  1. A.6
  2. B.12
  3. C.24
  4. D.144
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Luminosity is given by Stefan-Boltzmann law:
\[ L = 4\pi R^2 \sigma T^4 \]
\[ \frac{L_X}{L_Y} = \left(\frac{R_X}{R_Y}\right)^2 \left(\frac{T_X}{T_Y}\right)^4 = 3^2 \times 2^4 = 9 \times 16 = 144 \]

Apparent brightness (intensity) is:
\[ I = \frac{L}{4\pi d^2} \]
Since \(I_X = I_Y\):
\[ \frac{L_X}{4\pi d_X^2} = \frac{L_Y}{4\pi d_Y^2} \implies \left(\frac{d_X}{d_Y}\right)^2 = \frac{L_X}{L_Y} = 144 \implies \frac{d_X}{d_Y} = \sqrt{144} = 12 \]

Marking scheme

B (1 mark)
- Award 1 mark for selecting option B.
- Deduct 0 marks for incorrect options.
Question 6 · MCQ
1 marks
In a Hertzsprung–Russell (H–R) diagram, which of the following statements about main-sequence stars is/are correct?

(1) Stars located towards the upper-left of the main sequence have greater masses than those towards the lower-right.
(2) Stars located towards the upper-left of the main sequence have shorter main-sequence lifetimes than those towards the lower-right.
(3) Stars with the same spectral class have the same luminosity.
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(3) only
  3. C.(1) and (2) only
  4. D.(2) and (3) only
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(1) Correct. Along the main sequence, stars at the upper-left are more massive than stars at the lower-right.
(2) Correct. More massive stars burn their core hydrogen at a vastly higher rate, resulting in significantly shorter main-sequence lifetimes.
(3) Incorrect. Stars of the same spectral class share the same surface temperature, but their luminosity depends on their size (luminosity class), e.g., an M-type red supergiant is far more luminous than an M-type main-sequence red dwarf.

Marking scheme

C (1 mark)
- Award 1 mark for selecting option C.
- Deduct 0 marks for incorrect options.
Question 7 · MCQ
1 marks
A distant galaxy has a spectral absorption line with a rest wavelength of \(\lambda_0 = 486.1\text{ nm}\). The observed wavelength of this line from the galaxy is \(\lambda = 510.4\text{ nm}\). Given Hubble's constant \(H_0 = 70\text{ km s}^{-1}\text{ Mpc}^{-1}\) and the speed of light \(c = 3.00 \times 10^5\text{ km s}^{-1}\), estimate the distance of this galaxy from Earth.
  1. A.\(52\text{ Mpc}\)
  2. B.\(107\text{ Mpc}\)
  3. C.\(214\text{ Mpc}\)
  4. D.\(428\text{ Mpc}\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Calculate the redshift \(z\):
\[ z = \frac{\Delta \lambda}{\lambda_0} = \frac{510.4 - 486.1}{486.1} = \frac{24.3}{486.1} \approx 0.04999 \]

Recession speed \(v\):
\[ v = z c = 0.04999 \times 3.00 \times 10^5\text{ km s}^{-1} \approx 1.500 \times 10^4\text{ km s}^{-1} \]

By Hubble's law \(v = H_0 d\):
\[ d = \frac{v}{H_0} = \frac{1.500 \times 10^4}{70} \approx 214\text{ Mpc} \]

Marking scheme

C (1 mark)
- Award 1 mark for selecting option C.
- Deduct 0 marks for incorrect options.
Question 8 · MCQ
1 marks
Which of the following is/are key observational evidence supporting the Big Bang theory?

(1) The cosmic microwave background radiation (CMBR)
(2) The existence of supermassive black holes at the centres of galaxies
(3) The cosmological redshift of distant galaxies
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(1) Correct: The CMBR is the remnant thermal radiation from the early hot and dense universe, predicted by the Big Bang model.
(2) Incorrect: The presence of black holes is an astrophysical phenomenon related to stellar collapse and galactic evolution, not direct primary evidence for the Big Bang.
(3) Correct: The cosmological redshift shows the universe is expanding uniformly, which is fundamental evidence for an expanding universe originating from a compact initial state.

Marking scheme

B (1 mark)
- Award 1 mark for selecting option B.
- Deduct 0 marks for incorrect options.
Question 9 · Structured Question
10 marks
Given data:
Mass of Mars, \(M_M = 6.42 \times 10^{22}\text{ kg}\)
Radius of Mars, \(R_M = 3.39 \times 10^6\text{ m}\)
Gravitational constant, \(G = 6.67 \times 10^{-11}\text{ N m}^2\text{ kg}^{-2}\)

A robotic exploration probe of mass \(m = 850\text{ kg}\) is placed into a circular parking orbit around Mars at an altitude \(h = 3.00 \times 10^5\text{ m}\) (i.e. \(300\text{ km}\)) above the Martian surface.

(a) (i) Show that the orbital speed \(v_0\) of the probe in this parking orbit is approximately \(3.41\text{ km s}^{-1}\). (2 marks)
(ii) Calculate the orbital period \(T\) of the probe in minutes. (2 marks)

(b) In order to return samples to Earth, the probe's thrusters are fired briefly when it is in the parking orbit to increase its speed to \(v_1\) so that it can completely escape the gravitational pull of Mars (reaching infinity with negligible kinetic energy).
(i) By considering energy conservation, determine the minimum escape speed \(v_1\) from the parking orbit. (3 marks)
(ii) Calculate the minimum mechanical work (energy) supplied by the thrusters to achieve this escape. (2 marks)

(c) A student claims that because objects inside the orbiting probe experience apparent weightlessness, the gravitational force acting on the probe in orbit must be zero. Explain briefly whether this claim is correct. (1 mark)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) Orbital radius:
\(r = R_M + h = 3.39 \times 10^6\text{ m} + 3.00 \times 10^5\text{ m} = 3.69 \times 10^6\text{ m}\)

The gravitational force provides the centripetal force:
\(\frac{G M_M m}{r^2} = \frac{m v_0^2}{r}\)
\(v_0 = \sqrt{\frac{G M_M}{r}} = \sqrt{\frac{(6.67 \times 10^{-11})(6.42 \times 10^{23})}{3.69 \times 10^6}} = 3.407 \times 10^3\text{ m s}^{-1} \approx 3.41\text{ km s}^{-1}\)

(ii) Orbital period \(T\):
\(T = \frac{2\pi r}{v_0} = \frac{2\pi (3.69 \times 10^6\text{ m})}{3407\text{ m s}^{-1}} = 6805.8\text{ s} = \frac{6805.8}{60}\text{ min} \approx 113\text{ min}\) (or \(1.89\text{ h}\))

(b) (i) By conservation of mechanical energy for escaping to infinity:
\(E_{\text{total}} = \frac{1}{2} m v_1^2 - \frac{G M_M m}{r} = 0\)
\(v_1 = \sqrt{\frac{2 G M_M}{r}} = \sqrt{2} v_0 = \sqrt{2} \times 3407\text{ m s}^{-1} = 4.818 \times 10^3\text{ m s}^{-1} \approx 4.82\text{ km s}^{-1}\)

(ii) Energy supplied by thrusters:
\(\Delta E = E_k(\text{after}) - E_k(\text{before}) = \frac{1}{2} m (v_1^2 - v_0^2) = \frac{1}{2} m v_0^2\)
\(\Delta E = \frac{1}{2} (850\text{ kg}) (3407\text{ m s}^{-1})^2 = 4.93 \times 10^9\text{ J}\) (or \(4.93\text{ GJ}\))

(c) The claim is incorrect. The gravitational force acting on the probe is non-zero and acts as the necessary centripetal force keeping the probe in circular orbit (both the probe and its contents are in free fall).

Marking scheme

(a) (i)
- \(\frac{G M_M m}{r^2} = \frac{m v_0^2}{r}\) with \(r = 3.69 \times 10^6\text{ m}\) (1M)
- Correct substitution leading to \(v_0 = 3.41\text{ km s}^{-1}\) (or \(3.407 \times 10^3\text{ m s}^{-1}\)) (1A)

(a) (ii)
- \(T = \frac{2\pi r}{v_0}\) (1M)
- \(T = 113\text{ min}\) (or \(6.81 \times 10^3\text{ s}\), accept \(113 \sim 114\text{ min}\)) (1A)

(b) (i)
- Conservation of energy statement: \(\frac{1}{2} m v_1^2 - \frac{G M_M m}{r} = 0\) (1M)
- Correct substitution of values (1M)
- \(v_1 = 4.82\text{ km s}^{-1}\) (accept \(4.81 \sim 4.83\text{ km s}^{-1}\)) (1A)

(b) (ii)
- \(\Delta E = \frac{1}{2} m v_1^2 - \frac{1}{2} m v_0^2\) OR \(\Delta E = \frac{G M_M m}{2r}\) (1M)
- \(\Delta E = 4.93 \times 10^9\text{ J}\) (accept \(4.90 \times 10^9 \sim 4.95 \times 10^9\text{ J}\)) (1A)

(c)
- States incorrect AND explains that gravitational force provides the centripetal force / the spacecraft is in free fall (1A)

Paper 2 Section B

Answer 8 multiple-choice questions and 1 structured question.
10 Question · 28 marks
Question 1 · MCQ
1 marks
In a Rutherford α-particle scattering experiment, a beam of α-particles is directed at a thin gold foil. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The electric repulsive force experienced by an α-particle is greatest at its point of closest approach to a gold nucleus.
(2) For α-particles with the same initial kinetic energy, a smaller impact parameter results in a larger angle of deflection.
(3) Most α-particles are deflected through angles greater than \(90^\circ\).
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Statement (1) is correct: The electrostatic repulsive force between the α-particle and the nucleus is given by Coulomb's law \(F = \frac{1}{4\pi \varepsilon_0} \frac{q_1 q_2}{r^2}\). The force is inversely proportional to the square of the separation \(r\), so it reaches a maximum at the distance of closest approach where \(r\) is minimum.

Statement (2) is correct: The impact parameter is the perpendicular distance between the initial trajectory of the α-particle and the parallel line passing through the centre of the nucleus. A smaller impact parameter brings the α-particle closer to the concentrated positive charge of the nucleus, resulting in a stronger repulsive force and thus a larger scattering angle.

Statement (3) is incorrect: Because the nucleus occupies an extremely small fraction of the atom's total volume, the vast majority of α-particles pass straight through or suffer only very small deflections; only a tiny fraction (about 1 in 8000) are scattered through angles greater than \(90^\circ\).

Hence, only (1) and (2) are correct.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark)
Question 2 · MCQ
1 marks
According to the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the orbital angular momentum of an electron is quantized as \(L = \frac{n h}{2\pi}\), where \(n = 1, 2, 3, \dots\). Which of the following statements about an electron in the \(n = 3\) state is/are correct?

(1) The circumference of the electron's orbit equals three de Broglie wavelengths of the electron.
(2) A collection of hydrogen atoms excited to the \(n = 3\) level can emit spectral lines of at most 3 different frequencies.
(3) The orbital speed of the electron in the \(n = 3\) orbit is three times that in the \(n = 1\) orbit.
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(2) only
  3. C.(1) and (2) only
  4. D.(1) and (3) only
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Statement (1) is correct: The standing wave condition on the Bohr orbit is \(2\pi r_n = n\lambda\). For \(n = 3\), the circumference \(2\pi r_3 = 3\lambda\).

Statement (2) is correct: The possible downward electron transitions from \(n = 3\) are \(3 \to 2\), \(2 \to 1\), and \(3 \to 1\). Thus, there are at most 3 distinct emission lines.

Statement (3) is incorrect: Since orbital angular momentum is \(m v_n r_n = \frac{n h}{2\pi}\) and the radius scales as \(r_n \propto n^2\), the orbital speed is \(v_n \propto \frac{1}{n}\). Therefore, the speed in \(n = 3\) is \(\frac{1}{3}\) of that in \(n = 1\), not three times.

Hence, only (1) and (2) are correct.

Marking scheme

C (1 mark)
Question 3 · MCQ
1 marks
The energy levels of a singly ionized helium ion (\(\text{He}^+\)) are given by \(E_n = -\frac{54.4}{n^2}\text{ eV}\), where \(n = 1, 2, 3, \dots\). What is the minimum photon energy required to ionize a \(\text{He}^+\) ion from its first excited state?
  1. A.3.4 eV
  2. B.10.2 eV
  3. C.13.6 eV
  4. D.40.8 eV
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The first excited state corresponds to the principal quantum number \(n = 2\).

The energy of the \(n = 2\) state is:
\[E_2 = -\frac{54.4}{2^2} = -\frac{54.4}{4} = -13.6\text{ eV}\]

Ionization corresponds to removing the electron to \(n = \infty\) where \(E_\infty = 0\text{ eV}\).

The minimum energy required is:
\[\Delta E = E_\infty - E_2 = 0 - (-13.6\text{ eV}) = 13.6\text{ eV}\]

Marking scheme

C (1 mark)
Question 4 · MCQ
1 marks
In a photoelectric experiment using a clean metal surface, monochromatic light of frequency \(f\) is incident on the cathode. A graph of the stopping potential \(V_\text{s}\) against the frequency \(f\) is plotted. If the intensity of the incident light is doubled while keeping the metal surface unchanged, what happens to the slope of the graph and the threshold frequency \(f_0\)?
  1. A.The slope remains unchanged, and the threshold frequency remains unchanged.
  2. B.The slope is doubled, and the threshold frequency remains unchanged.
  3. C.The slope remains unchanged, and the threshold frequency is doubled.
  4. D.The slope is doubled, and the threshold frequency is doubled.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

According to Einstein's photoelectric equation:
\[e V_\text{s} = h f - \Phi \implies V_\text{s} = \left(\frac{h}{e}\right) f - \frac{\Phi}{e}\]

The slope of the graph is \(\frac{h}{e}\), which depends only on Planck's constant \(h\) and the elementary charge \(e\), both of which are fundamental physical constants.

The threshold frequency is \(f_0 = \frac{\Phi}{h}\), which depends solely on the work function \(\Phi\) of the metal material.

Changing the intensity of light changes the number of incident photons per second (and hence the saturation photocurrent), but does not alter the energy of individual photons, the slope, or the threshold frequency. Both remain unchanged.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark)
Question 5 · MCQ
1 marks
A proton and an α-particle are accelerated from rest through potential differences \(V_\text{p}\) and \(V_\alpha\) respectively. If both particles have the same de Broglie wavelength, what is the ratio \(V_\text{p} : V_\alpha\)?
(Assume the mass of an α-particle is 4 times that of a proton, and the charge of an α-particle is 2 times that of a proton.)
  1. A.1 : 8
  2. B.1 : 2
  3. C.2 : 1
  4. D.8 : 1
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Worked solution

The kinetic energy gained by a particle of charge \(q\) accelerated through potential difference \(V\) is \(E_\text{k} = qV\).

The momentum is \(p = \sqrt{2m E_\text{k}} = \sqrt{2mqV}\).

The de Broglie wavelength is:
\[\lambda = \frac{h}{p} = \frac{h}{\sqrt{2mqV}}\]

Given \(\lambda_\text{p} = \lambda_\alpha\), we have:
\[2 m_\text{p} q_\text{p} V_\text{p} = 2 m_\alpha q_\alpha V_\alpha\]

Substituting \(m_\alpha = 4m_\text{p}\) and \(q_\alpha = 2q_\text{p}\):
\[m_\text{p} q_\text{p} V_\text{p} = (4m_\text{p})(2q_\text{p}) V_\alpha = 8 m_\text{p} q_\text{p} V_\alpha\]
\[\frac{V_\text{p}}{V_\alpha} = 8 = 8 : 1\]

Marking scheme

D (1 mark)
Question 6 · MCQ
1 marks
A transmission electron microscope (TEM) uses electrons accelerated through an anode potential of \(25\text{ kV}\). Estimate the theoretical resolution limit set by the de Broglie wavelength of these electrons.
(Given: \(m_\text{e} = 9.11 \times 10^{-31}\text{ kg}\), \(e = 1.60 \times 10^{-19}\text{ C}\), \(h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34}\text{ J s}\))
  1. A.\(7.77 \times 10^{-12}\text{ m}\)
  2. B.\(1.55 \times 10^{-11}\text{ m}\)
  3. C.\(3.88 \times 10^{-10}\text{ m}\)
  4. D.\(6.24 \times 10^{-9}\text{ m}\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The kinetic energy of the electrons is:
\[E_\text{k} = eV = (1.60 \times 10^{-19}\text{ C})(25\times 10^3\text{ V}) = 4.00 \times 10^{-15}\text{ J}\]

The momentum of the electron is:
\[p = \sqrt{2m_\text{e} E_\text{k}} = \sqrt{2 \times (9.11 \times 10^{-31}\text{ kg}) \times (4.00 \times 10^{-15}\text{ J})} = 8.537 \times 10^{-23}\text{ kg m s}^{-1}\]

The de Broglie wavelength is:
\[\lambda = \frac{h}{p} = \frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}\text{ J s}}{8.537 \times 10^{-23}\text{ kg m s}^{-1}} \approx 7.77 \times 10^{-12}\text{ m}\]

Marking scheme

A (1 mark)
Question 7 · MCQ
1 marks
Which of the following statements concerning a scanning tunnelling microscope (STM) is/are correct?

(1) Electrons can cross the gap between the metallic tip and the sample surface by quantum tunnelling without direct contact.
(2) The tunnelling current decreases exponentially with increasing tip-to-sample separation.
(3) An STM can directly image electrical insulators with atomic resolution in constant-current mode.
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(3) only
  3. C.(1) and (2) only
  4. D.(2) and (3) only
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Statement (1) is correct: In an STM, quantum tunnelling allows electrons to pass across a narrow potential barrier (the vacuum/air gap of sub-nanometre width) between the sharp metallic tip and the conductive specimen.

Statement (2) is correct: The tunnelling current \(I\) has an exponential dependence on the separation distance \(d\), namely \(I \propto e^{-2\kappa d}\), providing extremely high vertical sensitivity.

Statement (3) is incorrect: An STM relies on the flow of a tunnelling electric current; therefore, the sample must be electrically conductive or semiconductive. Insulating materials cannot be imaged using standard STM without conductive coating (an Atomic Force Microscope is used instead for insulators).

Hence, only (1) and (2) are correct.

Marking scheme

C (1 mark)
Question 8 · MCQ
1 marks
Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) have exceptionally high tensile strength along their longitudinal axis. Which of the following is the main reason for this property?
  1. A.Strong in-plane covalent bonds between carbon atoms along the cylindrical walls.
  2. B.Weak van der Waals interactions between adjacent tubular walls.
  3. C.The presence of delocalized electrons providing strong metallic bonding.
  4. D.A high surface-area-to-volume ratio preventing the formation of crystalline defects.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Carbon nanotubes consist of rolled cylindrical sheets of graphene where each carbon atom is bonded to three neighbours via strong in-plane \(sp^2\) covalent bonds. These strong covalent bonds along the wall of the nanotube give it an exceptionally high tensile strength and elastic modulus along its axis.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark)
Question 9 · Structured Question
10 marks
In an experiment demonstrating the wave nature of matter, electrons are accelerated from rest through a potential difference \(V\) in an electron diffraction tube.

(a) (i) Show that the de Broglie wavelength \(\lambda\) of an electron accelerated through a potential difference \(V\) is given by
\[ \lambda = \frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m_e e V}} \]
where \(h\) is the Planck constant, \(m_e\) is the electron mass, and \(e\) is the magnitude of the electronic charge. (2 marks)

(ii) Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of an electron when the accelerating potential difference is \(V = 150\text{ V}\). (2 marks)

(b) The accelerated electron beam passes through a thin polycrystalline graphite target. A set of concentric circular rings is formed on a fluorescent screen placed at a distance behind the target.

(i) Explain why the formation of concentric circular rings on the screen provides evidence that electrons exhibit wave properties. (2 marks)

(ii) State and explain how the diameter of the diffraction rings changes if the accelerating potential difference \(V\) is increased. (2 marks)

(c) In another atomic collision experiment, a beam of free electrons, each with a kinetic energy of \(12.5\text{ eV}\), bombards stationary hydrogen atoms in their ground state.
Given that the energy levels of hydrogen are given by \(E_n = -\frac{13.6}{n^2}\text{ eV}\) (where \(n = 1, 2, 3, \dots\)), determine the possible excited state(s) (in terms of principal quantum number \(n\)) to which the hydrogen atom can be excited by inelastic collision with these electrons. (2 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) The kinetic energy gained by an electron is:
\[ E_k = e V \]
Since kinetic energy is related to momentum \(p\) by \(E_k = \frac{p^2}{2m_e}\), we have:
\[ p = \sqrt{2 m_e e V} \]
Using the de Broglie relation \(\lambda = \frac{h}{p}\):
\[ \lambda = \frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m_e e V}} \]

(ii) Substituting the values:
\[ \lambda = \frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{\sqrt{2 \times (9.11 \times 10^{-31}) \times (1.60 \times 10^{-19}) \times 150}} \]
\[ \lambda = \frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{\sqrt{4.3728 \times 10^{-47}}} = \frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{6.613 \times 10^{-24}} = 1.003 \times 10^{-10}\text{ m} \approx 1.00 \times 10^{-10}\text{ m} \]

(b) (i) Diffraction and interference are characteristic wave behaviors. The electrons are diffracted by the regular atomic lattice planes of the graphite crystals and constructively interfere at specific angles, demonstrating that moving particles exhibit wave properties.

(ii) As \(V\) increases, the kinetic energy and momentum \(p\) of the electrons increase, so the de Broglie wavelength \(\lambda\) decreases (since \(\lambda \propto V^{-1/2}\)). According to the diffraction condition (\(\sin\theta \propto \lambda\)), a shorter wavelength results in a smaller diffraction angle \(\theta\). Therefore, the diameter of the diffraction rings decreases.

(c) The energy levels of hydrogen are:
- Ground state (\(n=1\)): \(E_1 = -13.60\text{ eV}\)
- First excited state (\(n=2\)): \(E_2 = -\frac{13.6}{4} = -3.40\text{ eV}\), excitation energy \(\Delta E_{1 \to 2} = -3.40 - (-13.60) = 10.20\text{ eV}\)
- Second excited state (\(n=3\)): \(E_3 = -\frac{13.6}{9} = -1.51\text{ eV}\), excitation energy \(\Delta E_{1 \to 3} = -1.51 - (-13.60) = 12.09\text{ eV}\)
- Third excited state (\(n=4\)): \(E_4 = -\frac{13.6}{16} = -0.85\text{ eV}\), excitation energy \(\Delta E_{1 \to 4} = -0.85 - (-13.60) = 12.75\text{ eV}\)

Since an colliding electron with kinetic energy \(12.5\text{ eV}\) can transfer part of its kinetic energy to the bound electron via inelastic collision, it can provide \(10.20\text{ eV}\) (retaining \(2.30\text{ eV}\)) or \(12.09\text{ eV}\) (retaining \(0.41\text{ eV}\)). However, \(12.5\text{ eV} < 12.75\text{ eV}\), so excitation to \(n=4\) or higher is impossible.
Thus, the atom can be excited to \(n = 2\) or \(n = 3\).

Marking scheme

(a) (i)
- Equating kinetic energy \(E_k = eV = \frac{p^2}{2m_e}\) to find \(p = \sqrt{2m_e eV}\): 1M
- Substituting into de Broglie equation \(\lambda = \frac{h}{p}\) to arrive at the expression: 1A

(a) (ii)
- Correct substitution of values into the formula: 1M
- Correct final answer \(\lambda = 1.00 \times 10^{-10}\text{ m}\) (accept \(1.00 \times 10^{-10} \sim 1.01 \times 10^{-10}\text{ m}\) or \(0.100\text{ nm}\)): 1A

(b) (i)
- Stating that diffraction / interference is a wave property: 1A
- Explaining that circular rings result from constructive interference / diffraction of electron waves by crystal lattice planes in random orientations: 1A

(b) (ii)
- Explaining that higher \(V\) implies smaller wavelength \(\lambda\): 1A
- Concluding that smaller \(\lambda\) leads to smaller diffraction angle \(\theta\), so the diameter of rings decreases: 1A

(c)
- Calculating excitation energies for \(n=2\) (\(10.2\text{ eV}\)), \(n=3\) (\(12.1\text{ eV}\)), and \(n=4\) (\(12.8\text{ eV}\)): 1M
- Correctly identifying both possible states \(n = 2\) and \(n = 3\): 1A
Question 10 · Structured Question
10 marks
In an experiment demonstrating the wave nature of matter, electrons are accelerated from rest through a potential difference \(V\) in an electron diffraction tube.

(a) (i) Show that the de Broglie wavelength \(\lambda\) of an electron accelerated through a potential difference \(V\) is given by
\[ \lambda = \frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m_e e V}} \]
where \(h\) is the Planck constant, \(m_e\) is the electron mass, and \(e\) is the magnitude of the electronic charge. (2 marks)

(ii) Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of an electron when the accelerating potential difference is \(V = 150\text{ V}\). (2 marks)

(b) The accelerated electron beam passes through a thin polycrystalline graphite target. A set of concentric circular rings is formed on a fluorescent screen placed at a distance behind the target.

(i) Explain why the formation of concentric circular rings on the screen provides evidence that electrons exhibit wave properties. (2 marks)

(ii) State and explain how the diameter of the diffraction rings changes if the accelerating potential difference \(V\) is increased. (2 marks)

(c) In another atomic collision experiment, a beam of free electrons, each with a kinetic energy of \(12.5\text{ eV}\), bombards stationary hydrogen atoms in their ground state.
Given that the energy levels of hydrogen are given by \(E_n = -\frac{13.6}{n^2}\text{ eV}\) (where \(n = 1, 2, 3, \dots\)), determine the possible excited state(s) (in terms of principal quantum number \(n\)) to which the hydrogen atom can be excited by inelastic collision with these electrons. (2 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) The kinetic energy gained by an electron is:
\[ E_k = e V \]
Since kinetic energy is related to momentum \(p\) by \(E_k = \frac{p^2}{2m_e}\), we have:
\[ p = \sqrt{2 m_e e V} \]
Using the de Broglie relation \(\lambda = \frac{h}{p}\):
\[ \lambda = \frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m_e e V}} \]

(ii) Substituting the values:
\[ \lambda = \frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{\sqrt{2 \times (9.11 \times 10^{-31}) \times (1.60 \times 10^{-19}) \times 150}} \]
\[ \lambda = \frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{\sqrt{4.3728 \times 10^{-47}}} = \frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{6.613 \times 10^{-24}} = 1.003 \times 10^{-10}\text{ m} \approx 1.00 \times 10^{-10}\text{ m} \]

(b) (i) Diffraction and interference are characteristic wave behaviors. The electrons are diffracted by the regular atomic lattice planes of the graphite crystals and constructively interfere at specific angles, demonstrating that moving particles exhibit wave properties.

(ii) As \(V\) increases, the kinetic energy and momentum \(p\) of the electrons increase, so the de Broglie wavelength \(\lambda\) decreases (since \(\lambda \propto V^{-1/2}\)). According to the diffraction condition (\(\sin\theta \propto \lambda\)), a shorter wavelength results in a smaller diffraction angle \(\theta\). Therefore, the diameter of the diffraction rings decreases.

(c) The energy levels of hydrogen are:
- Ground state (\(n=1\)): \(E_1 = -13.60\text{ eV}\)
- First excited state (\(n=2\)): \(E_2 = -\frac{13.6}{4} = -3.40\text{ eV}\), excitation energy \(\Delta E_{1 \to 2} = -3.40 - (-13.60) = 10.20\text{ eV}\)
- Second excited state (\(n=3\)): \(E_3 = -\frac{13.6}{9} = -1.51\text{ eV}\), excitation energy \(\Delta E_{1 \to 3} = -1.51 - (-13.60) = 12.09\text{ eV}\)
- Third excited state (\(n=4\)): \(E_4 = -\frac{13.6}{16} = -0.85\text{ eV}\), excitation energy \(\Delta E_{1 \to 4} = -0.85 - (-13.60) = 12.75\text{ eV}\)

Since an colliding electron with kinetic energy \(12.5\text{ eV}\) can transfer part of its kinetic energy to the bound electron via inelastic collision, it can provide \(10.20\text{ eV}\) (retaining \(2.30\text{ eV}\)) or \(12.09\text{ eV}\) (retaining \(0.41\text{ eV}\)). However, \(12.5\text{ eV} < 12.75\text{ eV}\), so excitation to \(n=4\) or higher is impossible.
Thus, the atom can be excited to \(n = 2\) or \(n = 3\).

Marking scheme

(a) (i)
- Equating kinetic energy \(E_k = eV = \frac{p^2}{2m_e}\) to find \(p = \sqrt{2m_e eV}\): 1M
- Substituting into de Broglie equation \(\lambda = \frac{h}{p}\) to arrive at the expression: 1A

(a) (ii)
- Correct substitution of values into the formula: 1M
- Correct final answer \(\lambda = 1.00 \times 10^{-10}\text{ m}\) (accept \(1.00 \times 10^{-10} \sim 1.01 \times 10^{-10}\text{ m}\) or \(0.100\text{ nm}\)): 1A

(b) (i)
- Stating that diffraction / interference is a wave property: 1A
- Explaining that circular rings result from constructive interference / diffraction of electron waves by crystal lattice planes in random orientations: 1A

(b) (ii)
- Explaining that higher \(V\) implies smaller wavelength \(\lambda\): 1A
- Concluding that smaller \(\lambda\) leads to smaller diffraction angle \(\theta\), so the diameter of rings decreases: 1A

(c)
- Calculating excitation energies for \(n=2\) (\(10.2\text{ eV}\)), \(n=3\) (\(12.1\text{ eV}\)), and \(n=4\) (\(12.8\text{ eV}\)): 1M
- Correctly identifying both possible states \(n = 2\) and \(n = 3\): 1A

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