Cambridge IAS-Level · Thinka-original Practice Paper

2024 Cambridge IAS-Level Accounting (9706) Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Jun 2024 (V3) Cambridge International A Level-Style Mock — Accounting (9706)

120 marks165 mins2024
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2024 (V3) Cambridge International A Level Accounting (9706) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

Paper 1 (Multiple Choice)

Answer all thirty questions. Choose the single best correct option from A, B, C, or D.
30 Question · 30 marks
Question 1 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A company has the following equity structure: Ordinary shares of $0.50 each: $400,000; Share premium account: $120,000; Retained earnings: $350,000. The directors decided to make a bonus issue of 1 ordinary share for every 4 shares held. They wish to maintain the reserves in the most flexible (distributable) form possible. What are the balances on the Share premium account and Retained earnings after the bonus issue?
  1. A.Share premium: $20,000; Retained earnings: $350,000
  2. B.Share premium: $0; Retained earnings: $330,000
  3. C.Share premium: $120,000; Retained earnings: $250,000
  4. D.Share premium: $20,000; Retained earnings: $250,000
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Worked solution

First, calculate the current number of shares: $400,000 / $0.50 = 800,000 shares. The bonus issue is 1 for 4, so 200,000 new shares are issued (800,000 / 4). The nominal value of these new shares is $100,000 (200,000 shares * $0.50). To keep the reserves in the most flexible (distributable) form, the company must use the non-distributable Share premium account first. The full $100,000 is taken from the Share premium account, leaving a balance of $20,000 ($120,000 - $100,000). Retained earnings remains unchanged at $350,000.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct combination of Share premium and Retained earnings balances.
Question 2 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A manufacturing company uses a predetermined overhead absorption rate based on direct labour hours. The budgeted overheads for the year were $240,000 and the budgeted direct labour hours were 48,000. During the year, the actual overheads incurred were $258,000 and the actual direct labour hours worked were 51,000. What was the under or over absorption of overheads for the year?
  1. A.$3,000 under-absorbed
  2. B.$3,000 over-absorbed
  3. C.$15,000 under-absorbed
  4. D.$18,000 over-absorbed
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Calculate the predetermined overhead absorption rate (OAR): $240,000 / 48,000 hours = $5.00 per hour. Calculate the overheads absorbed: 51,000 actual hours * $5.00 = $255,000. Compare absorbed overheads to actual overheads incurred: $255,000 (absorbed) - $258,000 (actual) = $3,000 under-absorbed.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct value and classification of under-absorption.
Question 3 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The sales ledger control account of a business had a debit balance of $48,500. This did not agree with the total of the individual customer accounts in the sales ledger. On investigation, the following errors were discovered: 1. A credit customer invoice for $820 had been correctly entered in the sales day book but had been posted to the customer's account as $280. 2. A credit note for $350 had been entered in the sales returns day book but had not been posted to the customer's account. 3. A discount allowed of $120 had been entered on the credit side of the sales ledger control account, but no entry had been made in the individual customer's account. What was the total of the individual customer balances before these errors were corrected?
  1. A.$48,430
  2. B.$48,570
  3. C.$49,040
  4. D.$49,510
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Worked solution

None of the three errors affect the sales ledger control account itself (since the control account gets its totals from the day books, which were correctly completed). Thus, the correct total of individual customer accounts must equal the control account balance of $48,500. Let the original total of individual balances be X. Adjusting X for the errors: 1. Add $540 (to correct the under-posting of the invoice: $820 - $280). 2. Subtract $350 (unposted credit note). 3. Subtract $120 (unposted discount allowed). Therefore, X + 540 - 350 - 120 = 48,500. X + 70 = 48,500. X = 48,430.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct calculation of the original individual customer ledger total.
Question 4 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
At 31 December 2022, a company's draft profit for the year was $94,200. The following items had not yet been adjusted: 1. Trade receivables at 31 December 2022 were $68,000. It was decided to write off an irrecoverable debt of $2,000 and to adjust the provision for doubtful debts to 5% of the remaining trade receivables. The provision on 1 January 2022 was $3,100. 2. On 1 October 2022, the company paid a rent invoice of $12,000 for the six months ending 31 March 2023. The full amount had been debited to the rent expense account. What was the corrected profit for the year ended 31 December 2022?
  1. A.$92,000
  2. B.$95,100
  3. C.$98,000
  4. D.$100,200
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Adjustments to draft profit: 1. Irrecoverable debt write-off: decreases profit by $2,000. 2. Provision for doubtful debts adjustment: Remaining trade receivables are $66,000 ($68,000 - $2,000). The required provision is 5% * $66,000 = $3,300. Since the opening provision was $3,100, the provision must be increased by $200, which decreases profit by $200. 3. Rent prepayment: The rent paid of $12,000 covers 6 months, so rent is $2,000 per month. The prepaid portion is for 3 months (January to March 2023) = $6,000. Removing this prepayment from expenses increases profit by $6,000. Corrected profit = $94,200 - $2,000 - $200 + $6,000 = $98,000.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct corrected profit after adjusting for bad debts, provision increase, and prepayment.
Question 5 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A business performs three transactions: 1. Purchases a non-current asset on credit. 2. Returns faulty goods to a credit supplier. 3. Receives a cheque from a customer who is allowed a cash discount. Which books of prime entry are used to record these transactions?
  1. A.1: General journal; 2: Purchases returns journal; 3: Cash book
  2. B.1: Purchases journal; 2: Purchases returns journal; 3: Cash book
  3. C.1: General journal; 2: General journal; 3: Cash book
  4. D.1: Purchases journal; 2: General journal; 3: Sales day book
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Worked solution

1. Purchasing a non-current asset on credit does not involve goods for resale, so it is recorded in the General journal. 2. Returning goods to a credit supplier is recorded in the Purchases returns journal. 3. Receiving a cheque with a cash discount involves cash/bank movement and discount details, which is recorded in the Cash book.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct identification of all three books of prime entry.
Question 6 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A company purchased a property on 1 January 2019 for $500,000. It was depreciated using the straight-line method over an estimated useful life of 50 years with zero residual value. On 1 January 2022, the property was revalued to $564,000. There was no change in its remaining useful life. What was the carrying amount of the property on 31 December 2022 and the balance on the revaluation reserve immediately after the revaluation on 1 January 2022?
  1. A.Carrying amount: $552,000; Revaluation reserve: $94,000
  2. B.Carrying amount: $552,000; Revaluation reserve: $64,000
  3. C.Carrying amount: $554,000; Revaluation reserve: $94,000
  4. D.Carrying amount: $554,000; Revaluation reserve: $64,000
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Depreciate property for 3 years (2019, 2020, 2021): Annual depreciation is $500,000 / 50 = $10,000. Accumulated depreciation is $30,000. 2. Carrying amount on 1 Jan 2022 is $470,000 ($500,000 - $30,000). 3. Revaluation reserve on 1 Jan 2022 = $564,000 - $470,000 = $94,000. 4. Remaining useful life is 47 years (50 - 3). 5. Depreciation charge for 2022 = $564,000 / 47 = $12,000. 6. Carrying amount on 31 Dec 2022 = $564,000 - $12,000 = $552,000.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct carrying amount and revaluation reserve balance.
Question 7 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A business sells a single product for $25 per unit. The variable cost per unit is $15, and the annual fixed costs are $120,000. The business expects to achieve a margin of safety of 20% of its budgeted sales. What is the budgeted sales revenue for the year?
  1. A.$150,000
  2. B.$300,000
  3. C.$375,000
  4. D.$450,000
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Worked solution

1. Contribution per unit = $25 - $15 = $10. 2. Break-even point in units = $120,000 / $10 = 12,000 units. 3. Since the margin of safety is 20% of budgeted sales, the break-even sales must represent 80% (100% - 20%) of the budgeted sales. 4. Budgeted sales in units = 12,000 / 0.80 = 15,000 units. 5. Budgeted sales revenue = 15,000 units * $25 = $375,000.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct calculation of budgeted sales revenue.
Question 8 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
X and Y are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio 3:2. On 1 January 2023, their capital account balances were: X: $60,000; Y: $40,000. On that date, Z is admitted as a partner. The new profit-sharing ratio is X:Y:Z = 5:3:2. Goodwill is valued at $30,000 but is not to be retained in the books. Z introduces $25,000 cash as his capital. What is the balance on X’s capital account immediately after Z's admission?
  1. A.$60,000
  2. B.$63,000
  3. C.$75,000
  4. D.$78,000
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Worked solution

1. Credit goodwill to old partners in the old profit-sharing ratio (3:2): X's share = $30,000 * 3/5 = $18,000. 2. Debit goodwill to all partners in the new profit-sharing ratio (5:3:2) to write it off: X's share = $30,000 * 5/10 = $15,000. 3. Net adjustment to X's capital = +$18,000 - $15,000 = +$3,000. 4. New balance on X's capital account = $60,000 + $3,000 = $63,000.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct capital account balance of X after adjusting for goodwill.
Question 9 · multiple_choice
1 marks
At 1 January 2023, a company's equity included the following balances:

Ordinary shares of $0.50 each: $200,000
Share premium: $80,000

On 1 March 2023, the company made a 1-for-4 bonus issue of ordinary shares, using the share premium account.

On 1 July 2023, the company made a 1-for-5 rights issue of ordinary shares at $0.80 per share. This rights issue was fully subscribed.

What was the balance on the share premium account at 31 December 2023?
  1. A.$30,000
  2. B.$60,000
  3. C.$110,000
  4. D.$140,000
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Worked solution

1. Calculate the initial number of ordinary shares:
$200,000 / $0.50 = 400,000 shares.

2. Calculate the bonus issue:
Bonus shares issued = 400,000 * 1/4 = 100,000 shares.
Value of bonus shares = 100,000 * $0.50 nominal value = $50,000.
As the bonus issue is financed from the share premium, the share premium balance decreases by $50,000:
$80,000 - $50,000 = $30,000.
Total shares now = 400,000 + 100,000 = 500,000 shares.

3. Calculate the rights issue:
Rights shares issued = 500,000 * 1/5 = 100,000 shares.
Issue price = $0.80 per share, which is a premium of $0.30 over the nominal value of $0.50.
Premium raised = 100,000 * $0.30 = $30,000.

4. Calculate final share premium balance:
$30,000 (after bonus issue) + $30,000 (from rights issue) = $60,000.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option B.
- Reject: A (only applying bonus reduction, missing rights premium), C (forgetting bonus reduction), D (calculating rights premium on full price of $0.80).
Question 10 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A manufacturing business absorbs production overheads based on direct labor hours. The following budgeted and actual figures relate to the latest financial period:

Budgeted production overheads: $120,000
Budgeted direct labor hours: 15,000 hours
Actual production overheads incurred: $128,500
Actual direct labor hours worked: 15,600 hours

What was the over or under-absorption of production overheads?
  1. A.$3,700 over-absorbed
  2. B.$3,700 under-absorbed
  3. C.$4,800 over-absorbed
  4. D.$8,500 under-absorbed
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Worked solution

1. Calculate the predetermined overhead absorption rate (OAR):
OAR = Budgeted Overheads / Budgeted Hours = $120,000 / 15,000 hours = $8 per direct labor hour.

2. Calculate the absorbed overheads:
Absorbed Overheads = Actual Hours * OAR = 15,600 hours * $8 = $124,800.

3. Determine under or over-absorption:
Under/Over-absorbed = Absorbed Overheads - Actual Overheads = $124,800 - $128,500 = -$3,700 (Under-absorbed by $3,700).

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option B.
- Reject: A (over-absorbed by same amount), C (difference in hours multiplied by OAR), D (difference between actual and budgeted overheads).
Question 11 · multiple_choice
1 marks
At the end of the financial month, the total of the individual customer accounts in a business's sales ledger is $45,200. The following errors were subsequently discovered:

1. The sales journal was undercast by $800.
2. A credit note of $150 issued to a customer had been correctly recorded in the sales ledger control account but entered as $510 in the customer's personal account.
3. A bad debt written off of $350 had not been recorded in the sales ledger control account, though it was correctly recorded in the customer's personal account.

What was the balance of the sales ledger control account before any adjustments?
  1. A.$44,390
  2. B.$44,750
  3. C.$45,110
  4. D.$46,010
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Worked solution

1. Adjust individual customer accounts (sales ledger):
Original Sales Ledger Balance = $45,200
Error 2: The credit note was entered as $510 instead of $150 in the customer's personal account. This means customer balances were reduced by $360 ($510 - $150) too much. To correct this, add back $360.
Corrected Sales Ledger Balance = $45,200 + $360 = $45,560.
Note: Errors 1 and 3 did not affect individual customer accounts.

2. Reconcile with Sales Ledger Control Account (SLCA):
Let the original SLCA balance be \(C\).
Error 1: Sales journal undercast by $800. This requires a debit adjustment of +$800 to the SLCA.
Error 3: Bad debt written off of $350 not recorded in SLCA. This requires a credit adjustment of -$350 to the SLCA.
Corrected SLCA Balance = \(C + \$800 - \$350 = C + \$450\).

3. Equate corrected balances:
\(C + \$450 = \$45,560\)
\(C = \$45,110\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option C.
- Reject: other options due to incorrect addition/subtraction of credit note errors or journal undervaluations.
Question 12 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A company's draft profit for the year ended 31 December 2023 was $84,300. The following errors were subsequently discovered:

1. Closing inventory was undervalued by $3,200.
2. A prepayment of insurance of $1,500 had been recorded in the ledger accounts as a prepayment of $150.
3. A non-current asset purchased for $8,000 on 1 January 2023 was fully charged to the repairs and maintenance account. The company's policy is to depreciate assets of this class at 20% per annum on the straight-line basis.

What is the corrected profit for the year?
  1. A.$87,250
  2. B.$92,550
  3. C.$95,250
  4. D.$96,850
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Draft profit = $84,300
2. Adjust closing inventory: Undervaluation of closing inventory understates profit. Add $3,200.
3. Adjust insurance prepayment: A prepayment of $1,500 was recorded as $150. This means expenses are overcharged by $1,350 ($1,500 - $150), so profit is understated. Add $1,350.
4. Adjust capital expenditure charged to revenue: Repairs expense was overcharged by $8,000, but depreciation of 20% * $8,000 = $1,600 must be charged. Net increase to profit is +$8,000 - $1,600 = +$6,400.

Corrected Profit = $84,300 + $3,200 + $1,350 + $6,400 = $95,250.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option C.
- Reject: A (omitting asset cost addition), B (subtracting insurance prepayment correction), D (omitting depreciation charge).
Question 13 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which statement about a purchases ledger control account is correct?
  1. A.It is prepared directly from the individual invoices and credit notes received from suppliers.
  2. B.It is part of the double-entry system and contains individual trade payables' accounts.
  3. C.It is used to calculate the value of cash purchases made during a financial period.
  4. D.It provides an independent check on the accuracy of the purchases ledger.
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Worked solution

The purchases ledger control account is maintained in the general ledger and is updated using the totals from the books of prime entry (such as the purchases journal and cash book). Since individual supplier accounts in the purchases ledger are updated from the source documents themselves, comparing the control account balance with the sum of the purchases ledger balances provides an independent check on the accuracy of the purchases ledger.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option D.
- Reject: A (compiled from journals, not individual invoices), B (it contains total balance, not individual accounts), C (concerns credit purchases, not cash purchases).
Question 14 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A business purchased machinery on 1 January 2021 for $60,000. The machinery was depreciated using the reducing balance method at 20% per annum. On 31 December 2022, the machinery was sold for $35,000. What was the loss on disposal?
  1. A.$1,000
  2. B.$3,400
  3. C.$4,280
  4. D.$13,000
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Worked solution

1. Calculate depreciation for Year 1 (2021):
$60,000 * 20% = $12,000.
Net Book Value at 31 Dec 2021 = $60,000 - $12,000 = $48,000.

2. Calculate depreciation for Year 2 (2022):
$48,000 * 20% = $9,600.
Net Book Value at 31 Dec 2022 = $48,000 - $9,600 = $38,400.

3. Calculate loss on disposal:
Carrying value at disposal = $38,400.
Disposal proceeds = $35,000.
Loss on disposal = Carrying value - Proceeds = $38,400 - $35,000 = $3,400.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option B.
- Reject: A (if straight-line method is used), C (if three years of depreciation are charged), D (if only one year of depreciation is charged).
Question 15 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A business sells a single product for $25 per unit. The variable costs are $15 per unit, and the fixed costs are $45,000 per year. The business has a target profit of $15,000.

What is the margin of safety in units if the business achieves its target profit?
  1. A.1,500 units
  2. B.3,000 units
  3. C.4,500 units
  4. D.6,000 units
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Worked solution

1. Contribution per unit = $25 - $15 = $10.
2. Break-even sales in units = Fixed costs / Contribution per unit = $45,000 / $10 = 4,500 units.
3. Required sales in units to achieve target profit = (Fixed costs + Target profit) / Contribution per unit = ($45,000 + $15,000) / $10 = 6,000 units.
4. Margin of safety in units = Required sales units - Break-even sales units = 6,000 - 4,500 = 1,500 units.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option A.
- Reject: B (incorrect calculation), C (break-even point in units), D (total target sales in units).
Question 16 · multiple_choice
1 marks
X and Y are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio 3:2.

The partnership agreement provides for:
- Interest on capital at 5% per annum.
- Annual salaries of $12,000 for X and $8,000 for Y.
- Interest on drawings of 10% on total drawings.

Capital account balances on 1 January 2023:
X: $80,000
Y: $60,000

Drawings during the year:
X: $10,000
Y: $15,000

The net profit for the year ended 31 December 2023 before any adjustments was $54,500.

What was Y's share of the residual profit?
  1. A.$10,000
  2. B.$11,000
  3. C.$12,000
  4. D.$18,000
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Worked solution

1. Calculate interest on drawings (add to net profit):
- X: 10% * $10,000 = $1,000
- Y: 10% * $15,000 = $1,500
Total Interest on Drawings = $2,500

2. Calculate interest on capital (deduct from net profit):
- X: 5% * $80,000 = $4,000
- Y: 5% * $60,000 = $3,000
Total Interest on Capital = $7,000

3. Calculate residual profit:
Net profit = $54,500
+ Total Interest on Drawings = +$2,500
- Total Interest on Capital = -$7,000
- Total Salaries = -$20,000 ($12,000 + $8,000)
Residual Profit = $54,500 + $2,500 - $7,000 - $20,000 = $30,000.

4. Calculate Y's share of residual profit:
Y's share = 2/5 * $30,000 = $12,000.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct option C.
- Reject: A (if interest on drawings is subtracted instead of added), B (if interest on drawings is omitted entirely), D (if calculating X's share of residual profit).
Question 17 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A company’s retained earnings at 1 January 2022 was \(\$120,000\). During the year ended 31 December 2022, the company made a profit for the year of \(\$85,000\). It transferred \(\$15,000\) to the general reserve, paid an interim ordinary dividend of \(\$10,000\), and proposed a final ordinary dividend of \(\$20,000\). It also issued bonus shares of \(\$30,000\), of which \(\$20,000\) was funded from the share premium account and the balance from retained earnings. What was the retained earnings balance on 31 December 2022?
  1. A.\(\$150,000\)
  2. B.\(\$160,000\)
  3. C.\(\$170,000\)
  4. D.\(\$180,000\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

According to IAS 10, proposed final dividends are not recognized as a liability or deducted from retained earnings in the financial statements of the current year. Bonus shares are funded first from capital reserves (share premium) to the extent possible. Therefore, the retained earnings portion used for the bonus issue is \(\$30,000 - \$20,000 = \$10,000\). Calculation: Opening Retained Earnings (\(\$120,000\)) + Profit for the year (\(\$85,000\)) - Transfer to General Reserve (\(\$15,000\)) - Interim dividend paid (\(\$10,000\)) - Bonus shares funded from retained earnings (\(\$10,000\)) = \(\$170,000\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct calculation of retained earnings balance. Reject proposed final dividend treatment of subtraction.
Question 18 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A manufacturing business has the following budgeted and actual figures for a period: Budgeted overheads: \(\$240,000\); Budgeted direct labour hours: 40,000; Actual overheads incurred: \(\$258,000\); Actual direct labour hours worked: 41,500. Overheads are absorbed based on direct labour hours. What is the over- or under-absorption of overheads for the period?
  1. A.\(\$9,000\) under-absorbed
  2. B.\(\$9,000\) over-absorbed
  3. C.\(\$18,000\) under-absorbed
  4. D.\(\$18,000\) over-absorbed
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Calculate Predetermined Overhead Absorption Rate (OAR) = Budgeted Overheads / Budgeted Direct Labour Hours = \(\$240,000 / 40,000 = \$6.00\) per hour. 2. Calculate Absorbed Overheads = Actual Hours worked * OAR = \(41,500 * \$6.00 = \$249,000\). 3. Compare with Actual Overheads = Absorbed Overheads (\(\$249,000\)) - Actual Overheads (\(\$258,000\)) = \(-\$9,000\) (under-absorbed because actual overheads exceeded absorbed overheads by \(\$9,000\)).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct absorption variance of \(\$9,000\) under-absorbed.
Question 19 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
At 31 May 2023, a business's cash book showed a debit balance of \(\$8,500\). On comparing the cash book with the bank statement, the following was found: Bank charges of \(\$150\) had not been entered in the cash book; A cheque received from a customer for \(\$600\) was returned by the bank as dishonoured, but no entry had been made in the cash book; Cheques drawn but not yet presented to the bank totalled \(\$1,200\); Deposits credited by the bank after the statement date totalled \(\$1,800\). What was the balance shown on the bank statement at 31 May 2023?
  1. A.\(\$7,150\) credit
  2. B.\(\$7,900\) credit
  3. C.\(\$8,350\) credit
  4. D.\(\$8,950\) credit
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

First, update the cash book balance: Draft balance \(\$8,500\) (debit) - Bank charges \(\$150\) - Dishonoured cheque \(\$600\) = Updated cash book balance of \(\$7,750\) (debit). Next, reconcile to the bank statement: Bank statement balance (X) + Uncredited deposits (\(\$1,800\)) - Unpresented cheques (\(\$1,200\)) = Updated cash book balance (\(\$7,750\)). Therefore, \(X + \$600 = \$7,750\), leading to \(X = \$7,150\) (credit balance).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct bank statement balance of \(\$7,150\) credit.
Question 20 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A business prepared draft financial statements showing a gross profit of \(\$94,000\). Two errors were later discovered: 1. Closing inventory had been overvalued by \(\$4,200\). 2. Goods purchased on credit for \(\$1,800\) had been correctly recorded in the purchases journal but were not included in the closing inventory count (ownership had passed to the business). What is the corrected gross profit?
  1. A.\(\$91,600\)
  2. B.\(\$94,600\)
  3. C.\(\$88,000\)
  4. D.\(\$98,000\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Draft gross profit is \(\$94,000\). 1. Correcting the overvaluation of closing inventory reduces closing inventory, which increases cost of sales and decreases gross profit by \(\$4,200\). 2. Correcting the exclusion of purchased goods in transit (which are owned by the business) increases closing inventory, which decreases cost of sales and increases gross profit by \(\$1,800\). Corrected Gross Profit = \(\$94,000 - \$4,200 + \$1,800 = \$91,600\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct calculation of corrected gross profit.
Question 21 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A company’s equity on 1 January 2023 was as follows: Ordinary shares of \(\$0.50\) each: \(\$300,000\); Share premium account: \(\$80,000\). On 1 February 2023, the company made a rights issue of 1 share for every 5 shares held at a price of \(\$1.20\) per share. The issue was fully subscribed. What is the balance on the Share Premium account after the rights issue?
  1. A.\(\$122,000\)
  2. B.\(\$144,000\)
  3. C.\(\$164,000\)
  4. D.\(\$224,000\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Calculate current number of shares: \(\$300,000 / \$0.50 = 600,000\) shares. 2. Calculate rights shares issued: \(600,000 / 5 = 120,000\) shares. 3. Calculate premium per share: \(\$1.20 - \$0.50 = \$0.70\). 4. Calculate total rights share premium: \(120,000 * \$0.70 = \$84,000\). 5. New Share Premium balance = Opening Share Premium (\(\$80,000\)) + Rights Share Premium (\(\$84,000\)) = \(\$164,000\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct calculation of the ending share premium balance.
Question 22 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A manufacturing business has two production departments (Machining and Assembly) and two service departments (Maintenance and Canteen). Allocated overheads are: Machining \(\$150,000\), Assembly \(\$100,000\), Maintenance \(\$40,000\), Canteen \(\$20,000\). Maintenance overheads are reapportioned: 60% to Machining, 30% to Assembly, and 10% to Canteen. Canteen overheads are subsequently reapportioned: 50% to Machining and 50% to Assembly. What are the total overheads of the Machining department after the reapportionment of both service departments?
  1. A.\(\$174,000\)
  2. B.\(\$184,000\)
  3. C.\(\$186,000\)
  4. D.\(\$190,000\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

First, reapportion Maintenance costs (\(\$40,000\)): Machining: \(60\% * \$40,000 = \$24,000\); Assembly: \(30\% * \$40,000 = \$12,000\); Canteen: \(10\% * \$40,000 = \$4,000\). Next, calculate total Canteen costs before its reapportionment: \(\$20,000 + \$4,000 = \$24,000\). Finally, reapportion Canteen costs (\(\$24,000\)): Machining: \(50\% * \$24,000 = \$12,000\); Assembly: \(50\% * \$24,000 = \$12,000\). Total overheads for Machining = \(\$150,000\) (allocated) + \(\$24,000\) (from Maintenance) + \(\$12,000\) (from Canteen) = \(\$186,000\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct calculation of total Machining overheads of \(\$186,000\).
Question 23 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
On 1 January 2021, a business purchased machinery for \(\$80,000\). The machinery is depreciated at 20% per annum using the reducing balance method. On 1 January 2023, the machinery was revalued to \(\$55,000\). On 30 June 2023, the machinery was sold for \(\$52,000\). Depreciation is charged on a monthly pro-rata basis in the year of disposal. What was the profit or loss on disposal of the machinery?
  1. A.\(\$2,500\) profit
  2. B.\(\$3,000\) loss
  3. C.\(\$5,920\) profit
  4. D.\(\$6,300\) profit
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Net book value (NBV) on 1 January 2023: Cost: \(\$80,000\); Depreciation for 2021: \(\$16,000\) (NBV: \(\$64,000\)); Depreciation for 2022: \(\$12,800\) (NBV: \(\$51,200\)). 2. Revaluation on 1 January 2023: Revalued carrying amount is \(\$55,000\) (the \(\$3,800\) surplus goes to the revaluation reserve). 3. Depreciation for 2023 up to 30 June (6 months): \(\$55,000 * 20\% * 6 / 12 = \$5,500\). 4. Carrying amount at disposal: \(\$55,000 - \$5,500 = \$49,500\). 5. Profit on disposal: Sale proceeds (\(\$52,000\)) - Carrying amount (\(\$49,500\)) = \(\$2,500\) profit.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct profit on disposal of \(\$2,500\).
Question 24 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A company makes and sells a single product with the following cost structure: Selling price per unit: \(\$30\); Variable cost per unit: \(\$20\); Annual fixed costs: \(\$80,000\). The company is considering a new production method that will decrease the variable cost per unit by 10% and increase annual fixed costs by 20%. What will be the new break-even point in units?
  1. A.8,000 units
  2. B.9,600 units
  3. C.6,400 units
  4. D.7,200 units
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Calculate new variable cost per unit: \(\$20 * 0.90 = \$18\). 2. Calculate new contribution per unit: \(\$30 - \$18 = \$12\). 3. Calculate new annual fixed costs: \(\$80,000 * 1.20 = \$96,000\). 4. Calculate new break-even point: \(\$96,000 / \$12 = 8,000\) units.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct calculation of the new break-even point of 8,000 units.
Question 25 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
On 1 January 2023, a company's equity showed:
- Ordinary shares of $0.50 each: $400,000
- Share premium: $150,000
- Retained earnings: $280,000

On 1 March 2023, the company made a bonus issue of 1 share for every 4 held, utilizing the share premium account as far as possible.

On 1 June 2023, the company made a rights issue of 1 share for every 5 held at a price of $0.80 per share. The issue was fully subscribed.

What are the balances of Share Capital and Share Premium on 30 June 2023?
  1. A.Share capital $600,000; Share premium $110,000
  2. B.Share capital $600,000; Share premium $210,000
  3. C.Share capital $500,000; Share premium $110,000
  4. D.Share capital $600,000; Share premium $50,000
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. **Initial position:**
- Share Capital = $400,000 (which is \(400,000 / 0.50 = 800,000\) shares)
- Share Premium = $150,000

2. **Bonus Issue (1 for 4):**
- Shares issued = \(800,000 \times \frac{1}{4} = 200,000\) shares
- Nominal value = \(200,000 \times \$0.50 = \$100,000\)
- Bonus issue funded from Share Premium:
- New Share Capital = $400,000 + $100,000 = $500,000 (1,000,000 shares)
- New Share Premium = $150,000 - $100,000 = $50,000

3. **Rights Issue (1 for 5):**
- Shares issued = \(1,000,000 \times \frac{1}{5} = 200,000\) shares
- Issued at $0.80 (Nominal value $0.50 + Premium $0.30)
- Increase in Share Capital = \(200,000 \times \$0.50 = \$100,000\)
- Increase in Share Premium = \(200,000 \times \$0.30 = \$60,000\)

4. **Final balances:**
- Share Capital = $500,000 + $100,000 = $600,000
- Share Premium = $50,000 + $60,000 = $110,000

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer A.
- Award 0 marks for incorrect options B, C, or D.
Question 26 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A manufacturing business has two departments: Machining and Assembly. The following information is available:

**Machining department:**
- Budgeted overheads: $240,000
- Budgeted machine hours: 40,000 hours
- Actual overheads incurred: $252,000
- Actual machine hours worked: 41,500 hours

**Assembly department:**
- Budgeted overheads: $180,000
- Budgeted direct labour hours: 30,000 hours
- Actual overheads incurred: $172,000
- Actual direct labour hours worked: 29,200 hours

What is the total over- or under-absorption of overheads for the business as a whole?
  1. A.$200 over-absorbed
  2. B.$200 under-absorbed
  3. C.$11,000 under-absorbed
  4. D.$6,200 over-absorbed
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. **Machining Department:**
- Budgeted Overhead Absorption Rate (OAR) = \(\frac{\$240,000}{40,000\text{ hours}} = \$6.00\) per machine hour.
- Overheads absorbed = \(41,500\text{ hours} \times \$6.00 = \$249,000\).
- Actual overheads = $252,000.
- Overheads under-absorbed = \(\$252,000 - \$249,000 = \$3,000\) under-absorbed.

2. **Assembly Department:**
- Budgeted OAR = \(\frac{\$180,000}{30,000\text{ hours}} = \$6.00\) per labour hour.
- Overheads absorbed = \(29,200\text{ hours} \times \$6.00 = \$175,200\).
- Actual overheads = $172,000.
- Overheads over-absorbed = \(\$175,200 - \$172,000 = \$3,200\) over-absorbed.

3. **Total for the business:**
- Net effect = \(\$3,200\text{ (over-absorbed)} - \$3,000\text{ (under-absorbed)} = \$200\) over-absorbed.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer A.
- Award 0 marks for incorrect options B, C, or D.
Question 27 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
On 31 October 2023, a business's bank ledger account showed a debit balance of $8,450. When comparing this with the bank statement, the following differences were found:
1. Bank charges of $120 on the bank statement had not been entered in the bank ledger account.
2. A credit transfer of $450 received from a customer was shown on the bank statement but not in the bank ledger account.
3. Unpresented cheques totalled $1,850.
4. Outstanding lodgements amounted to $2,400.
5. A cheque for $380 received from a customer and deposited had been returned unpaid, but no entry had been made in the bank ledger account.

What was the credit balance shown on the bank statement on 31 October 2023?
  1. A.$7,300
  2. B.$7,850
  3. C.$8,950
  4. D.$9,500
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. **Adjust the Bank Ledger Account:**
- Draft balance: $8,450 (Debit)
- Less Bank charges: -$120
- Add Credit transfer: +$450
- Less Dishonoured cheque: -$380
- Adjusted bank ledger balance = \(8,450 - 120 + 450 - 380 = \$8,400\) (Debit)

2. **Reconcile to Bank Statement Balance:**
Let \(B\) be the bank statement credit balance:
\(B + \text{Outstanding lodgements} - \text{Unpresented cheques} = \text{Adjusted bank ledger balance}\)
\(B + 2,400 - 1,850 = 8,400\)
\(B + 550 = 8,400\)
\(B = \$7,850\) (Credit)

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer B.
- Award 0 marks for incorrect options A, C, or D.
Question 28 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The draft profit for the year ended 31 December 2023 for a sole trader was $64,200. The following errors and omissions were later discovered:
1. Sales returns of $1,200 had been correctly entered in the customer's account but credited to the purchases returns account.
2. The provision for doubtful debts, which should have been adjusted to 5% of trade receivables of $40,000, was left unchanged at $1,500.
3. Closing inventory had been overvalued by $1,800.
4. Rental income of $900 received in advance for 2024 was included in the draft profit as rental income for 2023.

What is the corrected profit for the year ended 31 December 2023?
  1. A.$58,600
  2. B.$59,800
  3. C.$61,000
  4. D.$62,200
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Draft Profit: $64,200

1. **Sales/Purchases returns error:**
- Correcting entry requires debiting Sales Returns (reducing profit by $1,200) and debiting Purchases Returns (to cancel the incorrect credit, which reduces cost of sales reduction, thus reducing profit by $1,200). Net profit decrease = -$2,400.

2. **Doubtful debt provision adjustment:**
- Required provision: \(5\% \times \$40,000 = \$2,000\).
- Current provision: $1,500.
- Increase in provision (expense) = -$500.

3. **Closing inventory overvaluation:**
- Correction reduces closing inventory, which increases cost of sales and reduces profit = -$1,800.

4. **Rental income received in advance:**
- Must be removed from 2023 income = -$900.

**Corrected Profit:**
\(\$64,200 - \$2,400 - \$500 - \$1,800 - \$900 = \$58,600\).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer A.
- Award 0 marks for incorrect options B, C, or D.
Question 29 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A business maintains a sales ledger control account. At the end of the month, the total of the individual customer balances in the sales ledger did not agree with the balance on the sales ledger control account.

The following errors were found:
1. A credit customer's invoice for $650 was recorded in the sales journal as $560.
2. A credit customer was allowed a cash discount of $45. This was entered in the cash book but had not been recorded in the customer's personal account.
3. A bad debt of $180 was written off in the sales ledger control account but no entry had been made in the customer's personal account.
4. An item in the sales journal of $310 was posted to the customer's personal account as $130.

Which of these errors would cause a difference between the total of the individual customer balances and the balance in the sales ledger control account?
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.2, 3 and 4 only
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. **Error 1:** Since $560 was recorded in the sales journal, this incorrect amount is posted to both the control account (via the sales journal total) and the customer's personal account. It does NOT cause a difference between the two records.
2. **Error 2:** This is recorded in the control account (via the cash book totals) but omitted from the personal account. This causes a difference.
3. **Error 3:** This is recorded in the control account but omitted from the personal account. This causes a difference.
4. **Error 4:** Different amounts are posted to the control account ($310) and the personal account ($130). This causes a difference.

Therefore, errors 2, 3, and 4 cause a difference.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer D.
- Award 0 marks for incorrect options A, B, or C.
Question 30 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A company purchased a machine on 1 January 2021 for $80,000. It is depreciated at 20% per annum using the reducing balance method.

A full year's depreciation is charged in the year of acquisition, and no depreciation is charged in the year of disposal.

On 1 September 2023, the machine was sold for $48,000.

What was the profit or loss on the disposal of the machine?
  1. A.$3,200 loss
  2. B.$3,200 profit
  3. C.$7,040 profit
  4. D.No profit or loss
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. **Depreciation Year 2021 (Year 1):**
- Depreciation = \(20\% \times \$80,000 = \$16,000\)
- NBV at 31 Dec 2021 = \(\$80,000 - \$16,000 = \$64,000\)

2. **Depreciation Year 2022 (Year 2):**
- Depreciation = \(20\% \times \$64,000 = \$12,800\)
- NBV at 31 Dec 2022 = \(\$64,000 - \$12,800 = \$51,200\)

3. **Depreciation Year 2023 (Year of Disposal):**
- No depreciation is charged in the year of disposal.
- NBV at date of disposal = $51,200

4. **Profit or Loss on Disposal:**
- Disposal Proceeds = $48,000
- Loss on Disposal = \(\$51,200 - \$48,000 = \$3,200\) loss.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer A.
- Award 0 marks for incorrect options B, C, or D.

Paper 2 (Fundamentals of Accounting)

Answer all four structured questions on the question paper. Present financial statements in good style and show all workings clearly.
4 Question · 90 marks
Question 1 · Company Accounts & Finance Evaluation
30 marks
Veloce Limited is a company specializing in high-performance cycling equipment. The following trial balance was extracted from the books on 30 June 2023:

\begin{array}{lrr}
\text{Account} & \text{Debit ($)} & \text{Credit ($)} \\
\hline
\text{Revenue} & & 1,280,000 \\
\text{Purchases} & 740,000 & \\
\text{Inventory (1 July 2022)} & 95,000 & \\
\text{Distribution costs} & 112,000 & \\
\text{Administrative expenses} & 168,000 & \\
\text{Ordinary share capital ($0.50 nominal value)} & & 400,000 \\
\text{Share premium} & & 80,000 \\
\text{Retained earnings (1 July 2022)} & & 142,000 \\
\text{6% Debentures (repayable 2030)} & & 150,000 \\
\text{Property at cost} & 600,000 & \\
\text{Equipment at cost} & 240,000 & \\
\text{Accumulated depreciation (1 July 2022):} & & \\
\quad\text{- Property} & & 60,000 \\
\quad\text{- Equipment} & & 96,000 \\
\text{Trade receivables} & 88,000 & \\
\text{Provision for doubtful debts (1 July 2022)} & & 3,400 \\
\text{Trade payables} & & 62,000 \\
\text{Bank balance} & 41,400 & \\
\hline
\text{Total} & 2,084,400 & 2,084,400 \\
\end{array}

**Additional information at 30 June 2023:**

1. Inventory at 30 June 2023 was valued at cost at $108,000. This includes some damaged items that cost $8,000 but can be sold for $5,000 after repairs costing $1,200.
2. Depreciation is to be charged as follows:
- Property: 2% per annum on cost, split 40% to distribution costs and 60% to administrative expenses.
- Equipment: 20% per annum using the reducing balance method, charged to distribution costs.
3. Distribution costs accrued but unpaid amounted to $4,500. Administrative expenses prepaid amounted to $3,100.
4. The provision for doubtful debts is to be adjusted to 5% of trade receivables.
5. Debenture interest for the year has not yet been paid or recorded.
6. Income tax for the year is estimated to be $24,000.
7. During the year, on 1 January 2023, an interim dividend of $0.02 per ordinary share was paid. No other dividends were paid during the year.

**Required:**

(a) Prepare the Statement of Profit or Loss for Veloce Limited for the year ended 30 June 2023. [14 marks]

(b) Prepare the Statement of Changes in Equity for Veloce Limited for the year ended 30 June 2023. [6 marks]

(c) The directors of Veloce Limited wish to expand their operations and require additional funding of $200,000. They are considering two options:
- **Option 1:** Issue 200,000 8% non-cumulative preference shares of $1.00 each.
- **Option 2:** Obtain a bank loan of $200,000 at an annual interest rate of 7%.
Evaluate these two options and recommend, with reasons, which option the company should choose. [10 marks]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

**(a) Statement of Profit or Loss for the year ended 30 June 2023**

$$
\begin{array}{lrr}
& \$ & \$ \\
\text{Revenue} & & 1,280,000 \\
\text{Cost of Sales} & & \\
\text{Opening Inventory} & 95,000 & \\
\text{Purchases} & 740,000 & \\
\text{Less: Closing Inventory (W1)} & (103,800) & (731,200) \\
\hline
\text{Gross Profit} & & 548,800 \\
\text{Expenses} & & \\
\text{Distribution costs (W4)} & 150,100 & \\
\text{Administrative expenses (W5)} & 173,100 & (323,200) \\
\hline
\text{Profit from operations} & & 225,600 \\
\text{Finance costs (W6)} & & (9,000) \\
\hline
\text{Profit before tax} & & 216,600 \\
\text{Taxation} & & (24,000) \\
\hline
\text{Profit for the year} & & \mathbf{192,600} \\
\hline
\end{array}
$$

**Workings:**
- **W1: Closing Inventory**
Draft cost: $108,000
Less cost of damaged items: $(8,000)
Add Net Realisable Value of damaged items ($5,000 - $1,200): $3,800
Adjusted Closing Inventory = $108,000 - $8,000 + $3,800 = $103,800
- **W2: Property Depreciation**
$600,000 \times 2\% = $12,000
- Distribution share (40%): $4,800
- Administrative share (60%): $7,200
- **W3: Equipment Depreciation**
Carrying Value = $240,000 - $96,000 = $144,000
Depreciation = $144,000 \times 20\% = $28,800 (charged to Distribution)
- **W4: Distribution Costs**
Draft cost: $112,000
Add Property Depreciation: $4,800
Add Equipment Depreciation: $28,800
Add Accrued: $4,500
Total = $150,100
- **W5: Administrative Expenses**
Draft cost: $168,000
Add Property Depreciation: $7,200
Less Prepaid: $(3,100)
Add Increase in doubtful debt provision (W7): $1,000
Total = $173,100
- **W6: Finance Costs (Debenture Interest)**
$150,000 \times 6\% = $9,000
- **W7: Provision for Doubtful Debts**
Required provision = $88,000 \times 5\% = $4,400
Existing provision = $3,400
Increase in provision = $4,400 - $3,400 = $1,000

***

**(b) Statement of Changes in Equity for the year ended 30 June 2023**

$$
\begin{array}{lcccc}
& \text{Ordinary Share} & \text{Share} & \text{Retained} & \\
& \text{Capital (\$)} & \text{Premium (\$)} & \text{Earnings (\$)} & \text{Total (\$)} \\
\hline
\text{Balance at 1 July 2022} & 400,000 & 80,000 & 142,000 & 622,000 \\
\text{Profit for the year} & - & - & 192,600 & 192,600 \\
\text{Dividends paid (W8)} & - & - & (16,000) & (16,000) \\
\hline
\text{Balance at 30 June 2023} & \mathbf{400,000} & \mathbf{80,000} & \mathbf{318,600} & \mathbf{798,600} \\
\hline
\end{array}
$$

**Workings:**
- **W8: Dividends paid**
Number of ordinary shares = $400,000 / $0.50 = 800,000 shares
Interim dividend = 800,000 shares \times $0.02 = $16,000

***

**(c) Financing Evaluation**

**Option 1: 8% Non-Cumulative Preference Shares**
- **Advantages:**
- Non-cumulative nature means if the company has a poor trading year, they are not legally obligated to pay the dividend, reducing financial distress risk.
- Avoids the creation of a liability that must be repaid (no redemption date mentioned, unlike a bank loan).
- Does not increase gearing in the same way debt does, preserving future borrowing capacity.
- **Disadvantages:**
- Higher rate of return (8%) compared to the bank loan (7%).
- Dividends are paid out of post-tax profits and are not tax-deductible, making them more expensive in real terms.

**Option 2: 7% Bank Loan**
- **Advantages:**
- Lower nominal cost (7%) than the preference shares (8%).
- Loan interest is tax-deductible, which reduces the effective cost of debt further to: \text{Interest rate} \times (1 - \text{tax rate}).
- Ordinary shareholders retain full control without sharing profit options beyond fixed interest.
- **Disadvantages:**
- Must pay interest annually regardless of performance/profits, which increases liquidity risk.
- The loan principal must eventually be repaid, requiring cash outflows.
- The bank may demand security (collateral) over non-current assets, restricting future operations or refinancing.

**Recommendation:**
- If Veloce Limited has stable cash flows and can easily cover the interest payment, Option 2 (Bank Loan) is recommended due to its lower cost and tax benefits.
- However, if the expansion is high-risk with volatile cash flows, Option 1 (Preference Shares) is safer as dividend payments can be deferred.

Marking scheme

**(a) Statement of Profit or Loss [14 marks]**
- Revenue: $1,280,000 (1 mark)
- Opening Inventory: $95,000 & Purchases: $740,000 (1 mark for both)
- Closing Inventory: $103,800 (1 mark for write-down of $4,200, 1 mark for final inventory value)
- Cost of sales: $731,200 (1 mark) & Gross profit: $548,800 (1 mark OF)
- Property depreciation: $12,000 (1 mark for total working, split correctly)
- Equipment depreciation: $28,800 (1 mark)
- Distribution costs total: $150,100 (1 mark OF - including accrued $4,500)
- Administrative expenses total: $173,100 (1 mark OF - including prepaid $3,100 and bad debt increase of $1,000 (1 mark))
- Finance costs: $9,000 (1 mark)
- Profit before tax: $216,600 (1 mark OF)
- Profit for the year: $192,600 (1 mark OF - after tax of $24,000)

**(b) Statement of Changes in Equity [6 marks]**
- Columns and opening balances correct: (1 mark)
- Share capital & Share premium ending balances: (1 mark for both)
- Profit for the year added: $192,600 (1 mark OF)
- Dividend paid calculated: $16,000 (1 mark for working of 800,000 shares, 1 mark for subtraction)
- Retained earnings ending balance: $318,600 (1 mark OF)

**(c) Financing Evaluation & Recommendation [10 marks]**
- Up to 4 marks for discussion of Option 1 (preference shares) - advantages/disadvantages.
- Up to 4 marks for discussion of Option 2 (bank loan) - advantages/disadvantages (must mention tax deductibility of interest for full marks).
- Up to 2 marks for a clear, justified recommendation that links to the risk/reward profiles of the options.
Question 2 · structured
15 marks
Leighton is a sole trader who maintains a sales ledger control account in his general ledger and individual accounts in his sales ledger. At 31 December 2023, Leighton's ledger balances did not reconcile.

The debit balance on the Sales Ledger Control Account was \( \$44,830 \) and the total of the list of individual customer balances from the sales ledger was \( \$44,230 \).

Upon investigation, the following errors and omissions were discovered:
1. The sales day book was overcast by \( \$650 \).
2. A credit sale to J. Miller of \( \$340 \) was recorded correctly in the sales day book but had been posted to the credit side of his individual account in the sales ledger.
3. A contra entry of \( \$410 \) between the purchase ledger control account and the sales ledger control account was correctly recorded in the control accounts but had been completely omitted from the individual customer's account in the sales ledger.
4. Cash discount allowed of \( \$120 \) was correctly entered in the cash book but had not been recorded in the sales ledger control account. It was correctly recorded in the individual customer's account.
5. An irrecoverable debt of \( \$280 \) written off had been recorded in the individual customer's account but no entry had been made in the control account.
6. Goods returned by a customer, valued at \( \$190 \), were correctly entered in the customer's individual account, but were entered in the sales returns day book as \( \$910 \).

**Required:**

a) Prepare the corrected Sales Ledger Control Account for the month ended 31 December 2023, showing clearly the corrected balance carried down. (7 marks)

b) Prepare a statement to reconcile the original total of the list of sales ledger balances with the corrected balance of the Sales Ledger Control Account. (5 marks)

c) State and explain two reasons why a business maintains control accounts. (3 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

**a) Sales Ledger Control Account for the month ended 31 December 2023**

| Date (2023) | Details | Amount ($) | Date (2023) | Details | Amount ($) |
| :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- |
| 31 Dec | Balance b/d | 44,830 | 31 Dec | Sales Day Book overcast | 650 |
| 31 Dec | Sales Returns correction ($910 - $190) | 720 | 31 Dec | Discount allowed | 120 |
| | | | 31 Dec | Irrecoverable debt | 280 |
| | | | 31 Dec | Balance c/d | 44,500 |
| | **Total** | **45,550** | | **Total** | **45,550** |
| 1 Jan 2024 | Balance b/d | 44,500 | | | |

*Workings for Sales Returns:*
Returns were recorded as \( \$910 \) instead of \( \$190 \) in the sales returns day book. This resulted in too much credit in the control account by \( \$720 \). To correct this, the control account must be debited by \( \$720 \).

**b) Statement to Reconcile the List of Sales Ledger Balances at 31 December 2023**

| Details | Amount ($) |
| :--- | :--- |
| Original total of list of balances | 44,230 |
| **Add:** Correction of posting error (J. Miller: \( \$340 \times 2 \)) | 680 |
| | **44,910** |
| **Less:** Contra entry omitted from customer's account | (410) |
| **Corrected total of list of balances** | **44,500** |

*Workings for J. Miller:*
Posting a debit sale of \( \$340 \) to the credit side of his account means his balance was understated by \( \$680 \) (to cancel the credit of \( \$340 \) and make it a debit of \( \$340 \)).

**c) Reasons for maintaining control accounts (any two):**
1. **Locating Errors:** It acts as an independent check on the accuracy of the postings in the ledger. If the balances do not agree, it isolates the location of errors to either the control account or the subsidiary ledgers.
2. **Prevention and Deterrence of Fraud:** Segregation of duties is achieved if different personnel maintain the control accounts and the individual ledgers, reducing the opportunity for collusion and unauthorized adjustments.
3. **Management Information / Speed of Financial Statements:** It provides the total of trade receivables instantly for the preparation of the trial balance and balance sheet without having to list and sum hundreds of individual customer balances.

Marking scheme

**Part (a) [7 Marks]**
- Opening balance \( \$44,830 \) (debit side) [1 mark]
- Sales returns correction: Debit of \( \$720 \) (1 mark for direction, 1 mark for calculating \( \$720 \)) [2 marks]
- Overcast sales day book: Credit of \( \$650 \) [1 mark]
- Discount allowed omitted: Credit of \( \$120 \) [1 mark]
- Irrecoverable debt omitted: Credit of \( \$280 \) [1 mark]
- Corrected balance carried down \( \$44,500 \) [1 mark]

**Part (b) [5 Marks]**
- Starting with original total of \( \$44,230 \) [1 mark]
- Adding J. Miller's correction of \( \$680 \) (1 mark for adding, 1 mark for double amount) [2 marks]
- Less contra entry of \( \$410 \) (1 mark for subtracting) [1 mark]
- Reconciled final total of \( \$44,500 \) [1 mark]

**Part (c) [3 Marks]**
- 1 mark for identifying a valid reason, up to 2 marks for explanation (max 3 marks).
- *Acceptable points:* Internal check/accuracy verification, fraud prevention/control, faster preparation of final accounts/trial balance.
Question 3 · structured
15 marks
Elena is a sole trader who prepared a draft Statement of Profit or Loss for the year ended 31 December 2022, which showed a draft profit for the year of \(\$24,500\). Subsequently, the following errors and omissions were discovered:

1. Rent prepaid of \(\$450\) at 31 December 2022 had been completely omitted from the accounts.
2. A purchase of equipment costing \(\$3,000\) on 1 July 2022 had been debited to the purchases account. Depreciation is charged on equipment at \(20\%\) per annum using the straight-line method, calculated on a monthly basis.
3. A trade receivable balance of \(\$600\) is to be written off as a bad debt. The provision for doubtful debts is to be adjusted from the existing balance of \(\$800\) to \(5\%\) of trade receivables. Trade receivables at 31 December 2022, before writing off the bad debt, were \(\$12,600\).
4. Goods with a cost price of \(\$800\) had been taken by Elena for her personal use. No entries had been made in the books of account.

Required:
(a) Prepare a statement to calculate Elena's corrected profit for the year ended 31 December 2022. [8 marks]
(b) Prepare the Provision for Doubtful Debts account for the year ended 31 December 2022. Balance the account and bring down the balance on 1 January 2023. [4 marks]
(c) State the difference between capital expenditure and revenue expenditure, identifying one example of each from Elena's transactions. [3 marks]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Statement of Corrected Profit for the year ended 31 December 2022:

Draft Profit: \(\$24,500\)
Add:
- Rent prepaid omitted: \(\$450\)
- Equipment purchase removed from purchases: \(\$3,000\)
- Decrease in provision for doubtful debts (Workings 1): \(\$200\)
- Drawings of goods (removed from purchases): \(\$800\)
Subtotal additions: \(\$4,450\)

Less:
- Depreciation on equipment (Workings 2): \((\$300)\)
- Bad debt written off: \((\$600)\)
Subtotal deductions: \((\$900)\)

Corrected Profit: \(\$24,500 + \$4,450 - \$900 = \$27,950\)

Workings:
1. Provision for doubtful debts:
Adjusted trade receivables = \(\$12,600 - \$600 = \$12,000\)
New provision = \(5\% \times \$12,000 = \$600\)
Decrease in provision = Existing provision \(\$800\) - New provision \(\$600 = \$200\) (increase to profit)

2. Depreciation on equipment:
Cost = \(\$3,000\)
Depreciation rate = \(20\%\) per annum
Ownership period = 6 months (1 July 2022 to 31 December 2022)
Depreciation charge = \(\$3,000 \times 20\% \times \frac{6}{12} = \$300\)

(b) Provision for Doubtful Debts Account:

Debit side:
- 31 Dec 2022: Income Statement \(\$200\)
- 31 Dec 2022: Balance c/d \(\$600\)
- Total: \(\$800\)

Credit side:
- 1 Jan 2022: Balance b/d \(\$800\)
- Total: \(\$800\)

- 1 Jan 2023: Balance b/d \(\$600\) (Credit side)

(c) Capital expenditure is money spent on purchasing, improving, or extending non-current assets, which provides long-term benefits to the business (greater than one year). Example: The purchase of equipment costing \(\$3,000\).

Revenue expenditure is money spent on the day-to-day running of the business or maintenance of assets, the benefits of which are consumed within the current accounting period. Example: Rent paid.

Marking scheme

(a) Statement of Corrected Profit (Max 8 marks):
- Draft profit starting figure \(\$24,500\) (No mark)
- Add Rent prepaid: \(\$450\) [1 mark]
- Add Equipment purchase capitalizing error: \(\$3,000\) [1 mark]
- Less Depreciation on equipment: \(\$300\) [1 method mark for calculation, 1 accuracy mark for subtraction - 2 marks total]
- Less Bad debt written off: \(\$600\) [1 mark]
- Add Decrease in provision: \(\$200\) [1 method mark for calculating \(\$600\) ending provision, 1 accuracy mark for adding the decrease of \(\$200\) - 2 marks total]
- Add Drawings of goods: \(\$800\) [1 mark]

(b) Provision for Doubtful Debts Account (Max 4 marks):
- Credit Balance b/d on 1 Jan 2022: \(\$800\) [1 mark]
- Debit Income Statement (decrease transfer): \(\$200\) [1 mark]
- Debit Balance c/d on 31 Dec 2022: \(\$600\) [1 mark]
- Credit Balance b/d on 1 Jan 2023: \(\$600\) [1 mark]

(c) Distinctions and Examples (Max 3 marks):
- 1 mark: Definition of Capital Expenditure (long-term benefits/acquiring non-current assets).
- 1 mark: Definition of Revenue Expenditure (short-term benefits/day-to-day operations).
- 1 mark: Correct example of each from the text (Equipment = Capital; Rent = Revenue).
Question 4 · structured
30 marks
Vandermeer Ltd is a manufacturing company with two production departments (Machining and Assembly) and two service departments (Maintenance and Canteen).

The budgeted overhead costs for the year ending 31 December 2023 are as follows:
- Factory Rent: $48,000
- Machinery Depreciation: $36,000
- Heating and Lighting: $12,000
- Indirect Labour: $24,000

The following information is also available:

| Department | Floor area (sq metres) | Book value of machinery ($) | Number of employees | Budgeted direct machine hours | Budgeted direct labour hours |
| :--- | :---: | :---: | :---: | :---: | :---: |
| Machining | 4,000 | 120,000 | 12 | 12,220 | 4,000 |
| Assembly | 2,000 | 30,000 | 24 | 2,000 | 15,560 |
| Maintenance | 1,200 | 20,000 | 4 | - | - |
| Canteen | 800 | 10,000 | 10 | - | - |
| **Total** | **8,000** | **180,000** | **50** | **14,220** | **19,560** |

**Additional information:**
1. Service department costs are reallocated to other departments using the step-down method. Canteen overheads are reallocated first on the basis of the number of employees in the departments served. Maintenance overheads are then reallocated to the Machining and Assembly departments on the basis of maintenance hours requested: Machining (60%) and Assembly (40%).
2. Overheads in the Machining department are absorbed using a machine hour rate, and overheads in the Assembly department are absorbed using a direct labour hour rate.

**Required:**

(a) Prepare an overhead analysis sheet showing the apportionment of overhead costs to the four departments for the year ending 31 December 2023. State the basis of apportionment used for each overhead. [8 marks]

(b) Reallocate the service department overheads to the production departments. [6 marks]

(c) Calculate the overhead absorption rate (OAR) for:
(i) the Machining department
(ii) the Assembly department [4 marks]

(d) A customer has requested a price quotation for Job 101. The following estimated resources are required for this job:
- Direct materials: $450
- Direct labour in Machining: 5 hours at $12 per hour
- Direct labour in Assembly: 12 hours at $10 per hour
- Machine hours used in Machining: 10 hours
- Machine hours used in Assembly: 2 hours

Calculate the total cost and the recommended selling price of Job 101 if the company applies a 25% profit markup on total cost. [6 marks]

(e) During the year ending 31 December 2023, the actual overheads incurred in the Machining department were $74,500, and actual machine hours worked were 12,100 hours. Calculate the under- or over-absorption of overheads for the Machining department for the year. [4 marks]

(f) State two advantages to a business of using the First-In, First-Out (FIFO) method rather than the Weighted Average Cost (AVCO) method of valuing inventory. [2 marks]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

**(a) Overhead Analysis Sheet (Apportionment)**

- **Factory Rent** ($48,000) apportioned by **Floor Area** (ratio 4,000 : 2,000 : 1,200 : 800)
- Machining: \( \frac{4,000}{8,000} \times \$48,000 = \$24,000 \)
- Assembly: \( \frac{2,000}{8,000} \times \$48,000 = \$12,000 \)
- Maintenance: \( \frac{1,200}{8,000} \times \$48,000 = \$7,200 \)
- Canteen: \( \frac{800}{8,000} \times \$48,000 = \$4,800 \)

- **Machinery Depreciation** ($36,000) apportioned by **Book Value of Machinery** (ratio 120,000 : 30,000 : 20,000 : 10,000)
- Machining: \( \frac{120,000}{180,000} \times \$36,000 = \$24,000 \)
- Assembly: \( \frac{30,000}{180,000} \times \$36,000 = \$6,000 \)
- Maintenance: \( \frac{20,000}{180,000} \times \$36,000 = \$4,000 \)
- Canteen: \( \frac{10,000}{180,000} \times \$36,000 = \$2,000 \)

- **Heating and Lighting** ($12,000) apportioned by **Floor Area** (ratio 4,000 : 2,000 : 1,200 : 800)
- Machining: \( \frac{4,000}{8,000} \times \$12,000 = \$6,000 \)
- Assembly: \( \frac{2,000}{8,000} \times \$12,000 = \$3,000 \)
- Maintenance: \( \frac{1,200}{8,000} \times \$12,000 = \$1,800 \)
- Canteen: \( \frac{800}{8,000} \times \$12,000 = \$1,200 \)

- **Indirect Labour** ($24,000) apportioned by **Number of Employees** (ratio 12 : 24 : 4 : 10)
- Machining: \( \frac{12}{50} \times \$24,000 = \$5,760 \)
- Assembly: \( \frac{24}{50} \times \$24,000 = \$11,520 \)
- Maintenance: \( \frac{4}{50} \times \$24,000 = \$1,920 \)
- Canteen: \( \frac{10}{50} \times \$24,000 = \$4,800 \)

**Apportionment Summary Table:**
| Overhead | Basis | Machining ($) | Assembly ($) | Maintenance ($) | Canteen ($) |
| :--- | :--- | :---: | :---: | :---: | :---: |
| Rent | Floor Area | 24,000 | 12,000 | 7,200 | 4,800 |
| Depreciation | Book Value | 24,000 | 6,000 | 4,000 | 2,000 |
| Heating & Light | Floor Area | 6,000 | 3,000 | 1,800 | 1,200 |
| Indirect Labour | Employees | 5,760 | 11,520 | 1,920 | 4,800 |
| **Total** | | **59,760** | **32,520** | **14,920** | **12,800** |

---

**(b) Reallocation (Step-Down Method)**

1. **Reallocate Canteen Overheads ($12,800):**
- Allocated based on the number of employees in the departments served (Machining: 12, Assembly: 24, Maintenance: 4. Total = 40 employees).
- Machining: \( \frac{12}{40} \times \$12,800 = \$3,840 \)
- Assembly: \( \frac{24}{40} \times \$12,800 = \$7,680 \)
- Maintenance: \( \frac{4}{40} \times \$12,800 = \$1,280 \)

2. **Reallocate Maintenance Overheads (Total = $14,920 + $1,280 = $16,200):**
- Allocated based on hours requested: Machining (60%) and Assembly (40%).
- Machining: \( 60\% \times \$16,200 = \$9,720 \)
- Assembly: \( 40\% \times \$16,200 = \$6,480 \)

**Reallocation Table:**
| Department | Machining ($) | Assembly ($) | Maintenance ($) | Canteen ($) |
| :--- | :---: | :---: | :---: | :---: |
| Total Apportioned | 59,760 | 32,520 | 14,920 | 12,800 |
| Reallocate Canteen | 3,840 | 7,680 | 1,280 | (12,800) |
| Subtotal | 63,600 | 40,200 | 16,200 | 0 |
| Reallocate Maintenance| 9,720 | 6,480 | (16,200) | 0 |
| **Grand Total** | **73,320** | **46,680** | **0** | **0** |

---

**(c) Overhead Absorption Rates (OAR)**

- (i) **Machining OAR** (using budgeted machine hours: 12,220 hours):
\( \text{OAR} = \frac{\$73,320}{12,220\text{ hours}} = \$6.00\text{ per machine hour} \)

- (ii) **Assembly OAR** (using budgeted direct labour hours: 15,560 hours):
\( \text{OAR} = \frac{\$46,680}{15,560\text{ hours}} = \$3.00\text{ per direct labour hour} \)

---

**(d) Selling Price of Job 101**

- **Direct Materials**: $450.00
- **Direct Labour**:
- Machining: \( 5\text{ hours} \times \$12 = \$60.00 \)
- Assembly: \( 12\text{ hours} \times \$10 = \$120.00 \)
- **Prime Cost** = \( 450.00 + 60.00 + 120.00 = \$630.00 \)
- **Overheads Absorbed**:
- Machining (machine hours): \( 10\text{ machine hours} \times \$6.00 = \$60.00 \)
- Assembly (labour hours): \( 12\text{ labour hours} \times \$3.00 = \$36.00 \)
- **Total Cost of Job 101** = \( \$630.00 + \$60.00 + \$36.00 = \$726.00 \)
- **Profit Markup** (25%): \( 25\% \times \$726.00 = \$181.50 \)
- **Recommended Selling Price** = \( \$726.00 + \$181.50 = \$907.50 \)

---

**(e) Under- or Over-absorption in Machining**

- Overheads absorbed = \( \text{Actual machine hours worked} \times \text{OAR} \)
- Overheads absorbed = \( 12,100\text{ hours} \times \$6.00 = \$72,600 \)
- Actual overheads incurred = $74,500
- Difference = \( \$74,500 - \$72,600 = \$1,900 \)
- Since the actual overheads incurred are higher than the overheads absorbed, the overheads are **under-absorbed** by $1,900.

---

**(f) Advantages of FIFO over AVCO**

- Inventory is valued at the most recent purchase prices, which gives a more realistic value of closing inventory on the Statement of Financial Position.
- It assumes a logical physical flow of inventory where older stock is used or sold first, which reduces the risk of stock deterioration or obsolescence.

Marking scheme

**(a) Overhead Analysis Sheet [8 marks]**
- Rent basis (Floor Area) and correct apportionment (1 mark for both Machining/Assembly and 1 mark for Maintenance/Canteen).
- Depreciation basis (Book Value) and correct apportionment (1 mark for Machining/Assembly and 1 mark for Maintenance/Canteen).
- Heating & Lighting basis (Floor Area) and correct apportionment (1 mark total).
- Indirect Labour basis (Employees) and correct apportionment (1 mark for Machining/Assembly and 1 mark for Maintenance/Canteen).
- Correct totals for all four columns (1 mark overall).

**(b) Reallocation [6 marks]**
- Reallocation of Canteen to Machining and Assembly (1 mark) and Maintenance (1 mark).
- Correct subtotal of Maintenance ($16,200) (1 mark).
- Reallocation of Maintenance to Machining and Assembly in 60:40 ratio (2 marks).
- Correct final totals: Machining ($73,320) and Assembly ($46,680) (1 mark).

**(c) OAR Calculations [4 marks]**
- Machining OAR calculation (formula/process) (1 mark) and final rate of $6.00 (1 mark).
- Assembly OAR calculation (formula/process) (1 mark) and final rate of $3.00 (1 mark).

**(d) Job 101 Cost & Price [6 marks]**
- Calculation of Prime Cost ($630) (1 mark for direct labour addition and 1 mark for total prime cost).
- Overheads absorbed in Machining ($60) and Assembly ($36) (2 marks).
- Total Cost calculation ($726) (1 mark).
- Selling Price calculation with markup ($907.50) (1 mark).

**(e) Under- or Over-absorption [4 marks]**
- Calculation of overheads absorbed ($72,600) (1 mark).
- Comparison with actual overheads (1 mark).
- Calculation of the variance ($1,900) (1 mark).
- Identification of "under-absorption" (1 mark).

**(f) FIFO Advantages [2 marks]**
- 1 mark for each valid advantage stated (maximum 2 marks).

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