An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Nov 2025 (V1) Cambridge International A Level Biology (9700) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.
Paper 11
There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible answers.
40 Question · 40 marks
Question 1 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An experiment was conducted to investigate the effect of two different inhibitors, X and Y, on the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction.
In the presence of inhibitor X, the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\max}\)) could still be achieved by increasing the substrate concentration.
In the presence of inhibitor Y, the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\max}\)) was significantly reduced, regardless of how much substrate was added.
Which statement about these inhibitors is correct?
A.Inhibitor X binds to the active site of the enzyme and its effect can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration.
B.Inhibitor X binds to an allosteric site on the enzyme and its effect can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration.
C.Inhibitor Y binds to the active site of the enzyme and its effect cannot be overcome by increasing substrate concentration.
D.Inhibitor Y binds to an allosteric site on the enzyme and its effect can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration.
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Worked solution
Inhibitor X is a competitive inhibitor because increasing the substrate concentration allows the substrate to outcompete the inhibitor for the active site, meaning the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\max}\)) can still be reached. This means Inhibitor X binds directly to the active site. Inhibitor Y is a non-competitive inhibitor because it reduces the \(V_{\max}\) regardless of substrate concentration. This is because non-competitive inhibitors bind to an allosteric site, altering the shape of the active site so that the substrate can no longer bind or be converted to product.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] - Correctly identifies that Inhibitor X binds to the active site and its effect can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration.
Question 2 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An enzyme is heated from \(30\ ^\circ\text{C}\) to \(70\ ^\circ\text{C}\). This heating results in the denaturation of the enzyme.
Which bonds holding the tertiary structure of the enzyme together are broken during this denaturation process?
A.Hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds are broken, but disulfide bonds remain intact.
B.Hydrogen bonds remain intact, but ionic bonds and disulfide bonds are broken.
C.Disulfide bonds and hydrogen bonds are broken, but ionic bonds remain intact.
D.Hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, and disulfide bonds are all broken.
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Worked solution
Denaturation by heating to \(70\ ^\circ\text{C}\) provides enough kinetic energy to break weak, non-covalent interactions like hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds which maintain the specific tertiary structure of the active site. Disulfide bonds, which are strong covalent bonds, are much more stable and are not broken at this temperature.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] - Identifies that hydrogen and ionic bonds are broken, while disulfide bonds remain intact.
Question 3 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which row correctly identifies the structural characteristics of a mature xylem vessel element and a mature phloem sieve tube element?
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Worked solution
A mature xylem vessel element is a dead cell that lacks cytoplasm, has a lignified cell wall to withstand negative pressure, and is not associated with companion cells. A mature phloem sieve tube element is a living cell that contains peripheral cytoplasm (though it lacks a nucleus and many organelles), does not have lignin in its cell wall, and is closely associated with companion cells via plasmodesmata to maintain its metabolic activities.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] - Correctly identifies cytoplasm, lignin, and companion cell presence/absence for both xylem vessel elements and phloem sieve tube elements.
Question 4 · multiple-choice
1 marks
In a transverse section of a herbaceous dicotyledonous stem and a herbaceous dicotyledonous root, where are the xylem and phloem tissues located relative to each other?
A.Stem: vascular bundles arranged in a ring near the epidermis, with xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside of each bundle; Root: central vascular cylinder, with xylem forming a central star shape and phloem located between the arms.
B.Stem: central vascular cylinder, with xylem forming a central star shape and phloem located between the arms; Root: vascular bundles arranged in a ring near the epidermis, with xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside of each bundle.
C.Stem: vascular bundles arranged in a ring near the epidermis, with phloem on the inside and xylem on the outside of each bundle; Root: central vascular cylinder, with phloem forming a central star shape and xylem located between the arms.
D.Stem: scattered vascular bundles throughout the ground tissue, with xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside; Root: central vascular cylinder, with xylem forming an outer ring surrounding a central core of phloem.
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Worked solution
In a herbaceous dicotyledonous stem, vascular bundles are located in a ring around the periphery, with the xylem tissue on the inner side (towards the pith) and phloem on the outer side (towards the cortex). In a herbaceous dicotyledonous root, there is a central vascular bundle (stele or vascular cylinder) where the xylem forms a central 'X' or star-like shape, and the phloem tissue is clustered in the regions between the arms of this star.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] - Correctly identifies the anatomical distribution of xylem and phloem in both dicotyledonous stems and roots.
Question 5 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which row correctly identifies the pathogen type, method of transmission, and primary site of infection for both malaria and tuberculosis (TB)?
A.Malaria: Protoctist, Female Anopheles mosquito vector, Liver and red blood cells; Tuberculosis: Bacterium, Inhalation of airborne droplets, Lungs
B.Malaria: Bacterium, Female Anopheles mosquito vector, Red blood cells only; Tuberculosis: Virus, Inhalation of airborne droplets, Lungs
D.Malaria: Virus, Male Anopheles mosquito vector, Liver only; Tuberculosis: Protoctist, Inhalation of airborne droplets, Throat
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Worked solution
Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species, which are protoctists. It is transmitted via the vector of a female Anopheles mosquito and infects liver cells and red blood cells. Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis (or Mycobacterium bovis), which is a bacterium. It is transmitted via the inhalation of aerosolized respiratory droplets and primarily infects the lungs.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] - Correctly identifies the pathogen type, transmission method, and primary infection site for both malaria and tuberculosis.
Question 6 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which row correctly describes the roles of cholesterol and glycoproteins in the cell surface membrane?
A.Cholesterol: regulates membrane fluidity and increases mechanical stability; Glycoproteins: act as cell surface receptors for hormones and participate in cell-to-cell recognition.
B.Cholesterol: acts as cell surface receptors for hormones and regulates membrane fluidity; Glycoproteins: maintain mechanical stability of the membrane and act as active transport pumps.
C.Cholesterol: prevents water-soluble molecules from passing through and stabilizes proteins; Glycoproteins: form the hydrophobic core of the bilayer and act as mechanical anchors.
D.Cholesterol: regulates membrane fluidity and acts as cell surface antigens; Glycoproteins: maintain mechanical stability of the membrane and prevent passage of ions.
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Worked solution
Cholesterol sits between the hydrophobic tails of phospholipids, regulating membrane fluidity (preventing the membrane from becoming too fluid at high temperatures or too rigid/frozen at low temperatures) and contributing to mechanical stability. Glycoproteins extend outwards from the membrane surface, where they act as receptors for cell signaling molecules (like hormones) and act as cell surface markers (antigens) for cell-to-cell recognition.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] - Identifies the correct physiological roles of cholesterol and glycoproteins in cell membranes.
Question 7 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Water moves across the root cortex to the xylem via the apoplast and symplast pathways.
Which statement correctly describes these pathways and the role of the Casparian strip?
A.Water in the apoplast pathway moves through the cell walls, but must enter the symplast pathway via the cytoplasm of endodermal cells because the Casparian strip is impermeable to water.
B.Water in the symplast pathway moves through the cell walls, but must enter the apoplast pathway via the plasmodesmata because the Casparian strip is impermeable to water.
C.Water in the apoplast pathway moves through the cytoplasm, but must enter the symplast pathway at the endodermis because the Casparian strip blocks the cell walls.
D.Water in both pathways is blocked by the Casparian strip at the endodermis, forcing water to diffuse out of the root cells back into the soil.
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Worked solution
The apoplast pathway consists of water moving through the cell walls and intercellular spaces. The Casparian strip is a band of suberin (a waterproof substance) located in the cell walls of endodermal cells. This blocks the apoplast pathway, forcing water and dissolved mineral ions to cross the selectively permeable cell surface membrane of endodermal cells to enter their cytoplasm (joining the symplast pathway). This allows the plant to regulate which ions enter the xylem.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] - Correctly describes the apoplast pathway as cell-wall-based, the symplast pathway as cytoplasm-based, and that the Casparian strip forces apoplastic water to enter the symplast pathway at the endodermis.
Question 8 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which row correctly identifies the presence (\(\checkmark\)) or absence (\(\times\)) of cartilage, smooth muscle, and goblet cells in the trachea, bronchioles, and alveoli of the mammalian gas exchange system?
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Worked solution
According to the distribution of tissues in the gas exchange system: - Trachea contains C-shaped rings of cartilage, smooth muscle, and goblet cells within its ciliated epithelium. - Bronchioles do not have cartilage (which is absent to allow flexibility/constriction), but they do have smooth muscle to control airway diameter, and they do not have goblet cells (mucus in narrow bronchioles would block airflow). - Alveoli have none of these; they consist only of a single layer of squamous epithelial cells and elastic fibres to maximize gas exchange efficiency.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] - Correctly identifies the presence and absence of cartilage, smooth muscle, and goblet cells across the trachea, bronchioles, and alveoli.
Question 9 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An enzyme-catalysed reaction is carried out in the presence and absence of an inhibitor. The results show that in the presence of the inhibitor, the \(V_{\max}\) of the reaction is decreased but the \(K_m\) remains unchanged. Which statement about the inhibitor is correct?
A.The inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme and acts as a competitive inhibitor.
B.The inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site and acts as a non-competitive inhibitor.
C.The inhibitor increases the affinity of the enzyme's active site for its substrate.
D.The inhibitory effect can be completely overcome by significantly increasing the substrate concentration.
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Worked solution
Non-competitive inhibitors bind to an allosteric site (a site other than the active site) on the enzyme. This changes the shape of the active site, preventing the catalysis of the reaction even if the substrate binds. Consequently, the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\max}\)) is reduced. Increasing the substrate concentration does not overcome non-competitive inhibition, so the substrate concentration required to reach half of the new \(V_{\max}\) (the \(K_m\)) remains the same. Competitive inhibitors, on the other hand, increase the \(K_m\) but leave \(V_{\max}\) unchanged.
Marking scheme
B is correct. 1 mark for identifying that a decrease in \(V_{\max}\) with an unchanged \(K_m\) is characteristic of a non-competitive inhibitor, which binds to a site other than the active site.
Question 10 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which row correctly describes the features of a mature xylem vessel element and a mature phloem sieve tube element?
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Worked solution
Mature xylem vessel elements are dead cells that lose their living contents, so cytoplasm is absent. Their cell walls are heavily thickened with waterproof lignin, and they do not have sieve plates. Mature phloem sieve tube elements are living cells containing a thin layer of peripheral cytoplasm, but lack a nucleus and most organelles. Their walls are not lignified (composed of cellulose), and they have perforated end walls called sieve plates to allow the transport of organic solutes.
Marking scheme
A is correct. 1 mark for identifying the correct combination of features for both mature xylem vessel elements and mature phloem sieve tube elements.
Question 11 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which row correctly identifies the type of pathogen, the method of transmission, and the primary site of infection for cholera?
A.Pathogen: bacterium; Transmission: water-borne or food-borne; Primary site of infection: small intestine
B.Pathogen: virus; Transmission: water-borne or food-borne; Primary site of infection: large intestine
C.Pathogen: bacterium; Transmission: airborne droplets; Primary site of infection: lungs
D.Pathogen: protoctist; Transmission: insect vector; Primary site of infection: red blood cells
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Worked solution
Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. It is transmitted via the faecal-oral route through contaminated water or food. Once ingested, the bacteria colonise the lining of the small intestine, where they secrete cholera toxin, leading to severe watery diarrhoea.
Marking scheme
A is correct. 1 mark for correctly matching cholera with its bacterial pathogen, transmission via contaminated water or food, and the small intestine as its primary site of action.
Question 12 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The components of a cell surface membrane play different roles in its structure and function. Which component is correctly matched with its function?
A.Cholesterol: acts as a receptor for water-soluble hormones
B.Glycolipid: acts as an antigen for cell-to-cell recognition
C.Glycoprotein: regulates the fluidity of the phospholipid bilayer at low temperatures
D.Phospholipid bilayer: provides a pathway for the free diffusion of polar ions
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Worked solution
Glycolipids project from the outer surface of the cell membrane and act as cell-surface markers or antigens involved in cell-to-cell recognition. Cholesterol regulates membrane fluidity and stability but does not act as a hormone receptor. Glycoproteins (not cholesterol) act as receptors for hormones. The hydrophobic core of the phospholipid bilayer acts as a barrier to polar ions, preventing their free diffusion.
Marking scheme
B is correct. 1 mark for identifying that glycolipids function as antigens for cell-to-cell recognition.
Question 13 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes the movement of water across the root of a plant?
A.Water moves through the apoplast pathway until it reaches the endodermis, where the Casparian strip forces it into the symplast pathway.
B.Water moves through the symplast pathway by passing only through the cellulose cell walls and intercellular spaces.
C.The apoplast pathway involves the movement of water from cell to cell through the cytoplasm connected by plasmodesmata.
D.Active transport of water into the xylem vessel elements decreases the hydrostatic pressure at the base of the root.
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Worked solution
The apoplast pathway is the movement of water through the cell walls and intercellular spaces. At the endodermis, the cell walls contain a band of suberin called the Casparian strip, which is impermeable to water. This blocks the apoplast pathway, forcing water and solutes to cross the cell membrane of the endodermal cells and enter the symplast pathway. The symplast pathway involves water moving through the cytoplasm via plasmodesmata. Water cannot be actively transported; it moves passively down a water potential gradient.
Marking scheme
A is correct. 1 mark for correctly explaining that the Casparian strip blocks the apoplast pathway at the endodermis, redirecting water into the symplast pathway.
Question 14 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which row correctly shows the presence (+) or absence (-) of cartilage, goblet cells, and smooth muscle in the wall of a typical human bronchiole?
A.Cartilage: -; Goblet cells: -; Smooth muscle: +
B.Cartilage: +; Goblet cells: +; Smooth muscle: +
C.Cartilage: -; Goblet cells: +; Smooth muscle: -
D.Cartilage: +; Goblet cells: -; Smooth muscle: -
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Worked solution
Bronchioles lack cartilage and goblet cells to ensure their walls are thin and flexible. However, they contain smooth muscle in their walls, which can contract or relax to adjust the diameter of the airway and regulate airflow to the alveoli.
Marking scheme
A is correct. 1 mark for identifying that bronchioles do not have cartilage or goblet cells, but do possess smooth muscle in their walls.
Question 15 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During respiration, carbon dioxide diffuses from active respiring tissues into red blood cells. Which row correctly describes the next stages in this process within the red blood cell?
A.Enzyme catalyzing carbonic acid formation: carbonic anhydrase; Ion diffusing out of red blood cell: \(\text{HCO}_3^-\); Ion entering red blood cell: \(\text{Cl}^-\)
B.Enzyme catalyzing carbonic acid formation: carbonic anhydrase; Ion diffusing out of red blood cell: \(\text{Cl}^-\); Ion entering red blood cell: \(\text{HCO}_3^-\)
C.Enzyme catalyzing carbonic acid formation: haemoglobinic acid; Ion diffusing out of red blood cell: \(\text{HCO}_3^-\); Ion entering red blood cell: \(\text{H}^+\)
D.Enzyme catalyzing carbonic acid formation: carbonic anhydrase; Ion diffusing out of red blood cell: \(\text{H}^+\); Ion entering red blood cell: \(\text{Cl}^-\)
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Worked solution
Carbon dioxide reacts with water inside the red blood cell to form carbonic acid, a reaction catalyzed by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase. The carbonic acid then dissociates into hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) and hydrogencarbonate ions (\(\text{HCO}_3^-\)). The \(\text{HCO}_3^-\) ions diffuse out of the red blood cell into the plasma. To maintain electrical neutrality, chloride ions (\(\text{Cl}^-\)) diffuse into the red blood cell from the plasma. This is known as the chloride shift.
Marking scheme
A is correct. 1 mark for identifying carbonic anhydrase as the catalyst, hydrogencarbonate leaving the cell, and chloride entering the cell.
Question 16 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An experiment is carried out to investigate the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction at different temperatures. Which statement correctly explains the change in the rate of reaction as the temperature is increased from \(20\ ^\circ\text{C}\) to \(40\ ^\circ\text{C}\)?
A.The kinetic energy of the enzyme and substrate molecules decreases, leading to fewer successful collisions.
B.The kinetic energy of the enzyme and substrate molecules increases, resulting in a higher frequency of successful collisions.
C.Hydrogen bonds holding the tertiary structure of the enzyme break, permanently altering the shape of the active site.
D.The activation energy of the reaction is increased by the absorption of the additional thermal energy.
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Worked solution
Increasing the temperature from \(20\ ^\circ\text{C}\) to \(40\ ^\circ\text{C}\) increases the kinetic energy of both the enzyme and substrate molecules. They move faster, which increases the rate of collisions and the proportion of collisions with energy equal to or greater than the activation energy, leading to a higher frequency of successful collisions. Breaking of hydrogen bonds causing denaturation typically occurs at higher temperatures (above the optimum).
Marking scheme
B is correct. 1 mark for explaining that increasing temperature in this range increases kinetic energy, leading to a higher frequency of successful collisions.
Question 17 · multiple_choice
1 marks
An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of an inhibitor on the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction at different substrate concentrations. The maximum rate of reaction (Vmax) in the presence of the inhibitor was found to be the same as in the absence of the inhibitor, but the substrate concentration required to reach half Vmax (the Michaelis-Menten constant, Km) was higher. Which statement describes the action of this inhibitor?
A.The inhibitor binds reversibly to the enzyme-substrate complex, preventing the product formation.
B.The inhibitor binds irreversibly to the active site, permanently preventing substrate binding.
C.The inhibitor binds reversibly to the active site, and its effect can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration.
D.The inhibitor binds to an allosteric site, altering the shape of the active site so the substrate can no longer bind.
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Worked solution
In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor competes with the substrate for binding at the active site. Because this binding is reversible, increasing the substrate concentration increases the probability of substrate-enzyme collisions, which outcompetes the inhibitor. Consequently, the maximum rate of reaction (Vmax) remains unchanged. However, more substrate is needed to achieve the same rate of reaction, which increases the apparent Michaelis-Menten constant (Km).
Marking scheme
1 mark for selecting option C. This is a recall and application of competitive inhibition kinetics. Correct identification of the unchanged Vmax and increased Km as diagnostic of competitive inhibition.
Question 18 · multiple_choice
1 marks
The rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction was measured at 15 degrees Celsius and was found to be 2.4 mmol per cubic decimeter per second. If the temperature coefficient (Q10) of this reaction is 2.0 between 15 degrees Celsius and 35 degrees Celsius, and the enzyme is not denatured at these temperatures, what would be the predicted rate of reaction at 35 degrees Celsius?
A.4.8 mmol per cubic decimeter per second
B.7.2 mmol per cubic decimeter per second
C.9.6 mmol per cubic decimeter per second
D.19.2 mmol per cubic decimeter per second
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Worked solution
The temperature coefficient (Q10) is the factor by which the rate of reaction increases for every 10 degrees Celsius rise in temperature. The temperature increase from 15 to 35 degrees Celsius is a rise of 20 degrees Celsius, which represents two intervals of 10 degrees Celsius. Therefore, the rate of reaction doubles twice. First interval (15 to 25 degrees Celsius): 2.4 * 2 = 4.8. Second interval (25 to 35 degrees Celsius): 4.8 * 2 = 9.6 mmol per cubic decimeter per second.
Marking scheme
1 mark for option C. Award 1 mark for calculating the two Q10 doubling steps to arrive at 9.6.
Question 19 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A transverse section of a herbaceous dicotyledonous stem is stained with phloroglucinol and hydrochloric acid, which stains lignin red. Which structures will stain red when viewed under a light microscope? 1. Sclerenchyma fibres, 2. Companion cells, 3. Vessel elements, 4. Phloem sieve tube elements.
A.1 and 3 only
B.2 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 3 only
D.1, 3 and 4 only
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Worked solution
Phloroglucinol stains lignin red. In a plant stem, lignin is a major component of the secondary cell walls of support and water-transporting cells. Sclerenchyma fibres (which provide mechanical support) and xylem vessel elements (which transport water under tension) have highly lignified walls and will stain red. Companion cells and phloem sieve tube elements have unlignified cellulose cell walls and will not stain red.
Marking scheme
1 mark for option A. Award for correctly identifying sclerenchyma fibres and vessel elements as containing lignin, and companion cells and sieve tube elements as lacking lignin.
Question 20 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Cell X and Cell Y are adjacent cells in the cortex of a plant root. Cell X has a solute potential of -600 kPa and a pressure potential of 200 kPa. Cell Y has a solute potential of -800 kPa and a pressure potential of 300 kPa. What are the water potentials of cells X and Y, and in which direction will net movement of water occur?
A.Water potential of X = -800 kPa, Water potential of Y = -1100 kPa; net water movement from Y to X
B.Water potential of X = -400 kPa, Water potential of Y = -500 kPa; net water movement from X to Y
C.Water potential of X = -400 kPa, Water potential of Y = -500 kPa; net water movement from Y to X
D.Water potential of X = -800 kPa, Water potential of Y = -500 kPa; net water movement from Y to X
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Worked solution
Water potential (psi) is calculated using the formula: psi = solute potential (psi_s) + pressure potential (psi_p). For Cell X: psi_X = -600 kPa + 200 kPa = -400 kPa. For Cell Y: psi_Y = -800 kPa + 300 kPa = -500 kPa. Water always moves by osmosis from a region of higher water potential (less negative) to a region of lower water potential (more negative). Since -400 kPa is higher than -500 kPa, water will move from Cell X to Cell Y.
Marking scheme
1 mark for option B. Award for correctly calculating both water potentials and applying the principle of water movement from higher to lower water potential.
Question 21 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which row correctly matches the causative pathogen and its principal method of transmission for malaria, cholera, and tuberculosis?
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Worked solution
Malaria is caused by protoctists of the genus Plasmodium and is transmitted by the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito. Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae and is transmitted via the faecal-oral route through contaminated food and water. Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis (or M. bovis) and is transmitted via airborne droplets released during coughing or sneezing.
Marking scheme
1 mark for option A. Award for correctly matching the causative pathogens and transmission routes for all three infectious diseases.
Question 22 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A diagram of a cell membrane contains labeled components: P (glycoprotein), Q (cholesterol), R (channel protein), and S (phospholipid bilayer). Which component is correctly matched with its function?
A.P acts as a receptor for cell signalling molecules or is involved in cell-to-cell recognition.
B.Q maintains stability of the membrane by making it completely impermeable to water.
C.R uses energy from ATP to pump ions against their concentration gradient.
D.S allows lipid-soluble molecules and large, highly charged ions to pass through by simple diffusion.
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Worked solution
Glycoproteins (P) on the outer surface of the cell membrane act as receptor molecules for hormones and neurotransmitters, and serve as antigens in cell-to-cell recognition. Cholesterol (Q) regulates membrane fluidity but does not make it completely impermeable to water. Channel proteins (R) provide hydrophilic paths for facilitated diffusion, which is a passive process and does not use ATP (active transport pumps do). The phospholipid bilayer (S) is a barrier to large or charged ions, preventing their simple diffusion.
Marking scheme
1 mark for option A. Award for correctly identifying the function of glycoproteins and rejecting the incorrect statements about cholesterol, channel proteins, and the phospholipid bilayer.
Question 23 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which row correctly describes the distribution of cartilage, goblet cells, and smooth muscle in the trachea, bronchus, and bronchioles of the human gas exchange system?
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Worked solution
The trachea contains C-shaped cartilage rings, goblet cells in the ciliated epithelium, and smooth muscle. The bronchus contains irregular plates of cartilage, goblet cells, and smooth muscle. Bronchioles lack cartilage entirely and do not contain goblet cells (except in some larger bronchioles, but standard AS syllabus models them as absent/replaced by Clara cells/epithelial cells), but they do have smooth muscle, which allows them to constrict and dilate to regulate airflow.
Marking scheme
1 mark for option A. Award for correctly identifying the distribution of cartilage, goblet cells, and smooth muscle in all three components of the respiratory tract.
Question 24 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which changes in blood pH and carbon dioxide concentration occur in actively respiring tissues, and how do these changes affect the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen?
A.Blood pH decreases; carbon dioxide concentration increases; affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen decreases, shifting the curve to the right.
B.Blood pH increases; carbon dioxide concentration increases; affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen increases, shifting the curve to the left.
C.Blood pH decreases; carbon dioxide concentration decreases; affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen decreases, shifting the curve to the right.
D.Blood pH increases; carbon dioxide concentration decreases; affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen increases, shifting the curve to the left.
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Worked solution
In actively respiring tissues, carbon dioxide is released, increasing its concentration in the blood. Carbon dioxide reacts with water inside red blood cells to form carbonic acid, which dissociates into hydrogen ions and hydrogencarbonate ions, causing blood pH to decrease. The increased concentration of hydrogen ions (lower pH) decreases the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen (the Bohr effect), causing haemoglobin to release oxygen more readily. This shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right.
Marking scheme
1 mark for option A. Award for correctly linking active respiration to high CO2, low pH, decreased oxygen affinity, and a rightward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve.
Question 25 · multiple_choice
1 marks
An experiment is carried out to investigate the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme-catalysed reaction. The rate of reaction is measured at different substrate concentrations in the presence of a fixed concentration of the inhibitor, and also without the inhibitor. The results show that at very high substrate concentrations, the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\max}\)) in the presence of the inhibitor is the same as the maximum rate of reaction without the inhibitor. Which statement is correct?
A.The inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site, reducing the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate.
B.The inhibitor binds reversibly to the active site and can be displaced by high concentrations of substrate.
C.The inhibitor forms strong covalent bonds with the active site, permanently preventing substrate binding.
D.The inhibitor decreases the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_m\)) of the enzyme, increasing its affinity for the substrate.
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Worked solution
The observation that the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\max}\)) is unchanged at high substrate concentrations indicates that the inhibitor is competitive. Competitive inhibitors have a molecular shape similar to the substrate and bind reversibly to the active site of the enzyme. At high substrate concentrations, substrate molecules outcompete the inhibitor molecules for the active sites, so the maximum rate of reaction can still be achieved.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] B is the correct answer. Competitive inhibitors bind reversibly to the active site and their effect is overcome by high substrate concentrations.
Question 26 · multiple_choice
1 marks
An enzyme was immobilized in alginate beads. The activity of the immobilized enzyme was compared to that of the same concentration of free (soluble) enzyme at different pH values. The results showed that the immobilized enzyme remained active over a wider range of pH values and retained more of its activity at extreme pH values than the free enzyme. What is the explanation for this difference?
A.Alginate beads act as cofactors that directly enhance the catalytic activity of the enzyme at extreme pH values.
B.Immobilization restricts conformational changes in the enzyme, stabilizing its tertiary structure and reducing denaturation.
C.The immobilization process increases the kinetic energy of the substrate molecules, allowing faster binding.
D.Soluble enzymes are more stable than immobilized enzymes because they have greater freedom of movement.
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Worked solution
Immobilizing an enzyme in alginate beads physically restricts the movement of the enzyme's protein structure. This restriction stabilizes the tertiary structure, making the hydrogen and ionic bonds within the enzyme more resistant to disruption by excess hydrogen (\(\text{H}^+\)) or hydroxide (\(\text{OH}^-\)) ions. Consequently, the enzyme is less susceptible to denaturation at extreme pH values.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] B is the correct answer. Immobilization increases the stability of the tertiary structure against pH-induced denaturation.
Question 27 · multiple_choice
1 marks
The features of three cell types, X, Y and Z, found in the vascular tissue of a herbaceous plant are: Cell X has no cytoplasm, has a heavily lignified cell wall with pits, and companion cells are absent. Cell Y has cytoplasm containing very few organelles, has cellulose walls with sieve plates, and is adjacent to companion cells. Cell Z has cytoplasm containing many mitochondria and ribosomes, has a thin cellulose wall, and is connected to Cell Y by plasmodesmata. Which row correctly identifies cell types X, Y and Z?
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Worked solution
Cell X is dead at maturity and has a heavily lignified cell wall with pits, which is characteristic of a xylem vessel element. Cell Y is living, contains minimal cytoplasm and organelles, and has a cell wall with sieve plates, which describes a phloem sieve tube element. Cell Z has active cytoplasm with numerous organelles (mitochondria, ribosomes) and is connected to other cells by plasmodesmata, which describes a companion cell.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] C is the correct answer. X is a xylem vessel element, Y is a phloem sieve tube element, and Z is a companion cell.
Question 28 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which features of xylem vessel elements adapt them for the transport of water under tension? 1. Lignin in the cell walls prevents the vessels from collapsing inward. 2. The end walls between adjacent vessel elements are completely broken down to form a continuous tube. 3. The cell walls contain pits which allow lateral movement of water. 4. Active transport of ions into the lumen of the vessel lowers the water potential.
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.4 only
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Worked solution
Statement 1 is correct: Lignin provides structural support and high tensile strength, preventing the vessel elements from imploding under the negative pressure (tension) generated by transpiration. Statement 2 is correct: The removal of end walls creates a continuous, low-resistance column for water flow. Statement 3 is correct: Pits allow lateral movement of water to bypass blockages (e.g., air bubbles). Statement 4 is incorrect: Xylem vessel elements are dead cells containing no cytoplasm, so they cannot perform active transport of ions.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] A is the correct answer. Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct adaptations, while statement 4 is incorrect.
Question 29 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Why is it difficult to control and eradicate malaria in tropical regions? 1. The vector, Anopheles mosquitoes, can develop resistance to chemical insecticides. 2. The pathogen, Plasmodium, can develop resistance to antimalarial drugs. 3. The pathogen lives inside host cells during parts of its life cycle, evading the host's humoral immune response. 4. Plasmodium is a bacterium that can form dormant endospores under unfavorable conditions.
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.3 and 4
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Worked solution
Statement 1 is correct: Anopheles mosquitoes can become resistant to insecticides (like DDT), reducing vector control effectiveness. Statement 2 is correct: Plasmodium parasites have developed resistance to common antimalarial drugs (like chloroquine). Statement 3 is correct: Plasmodium replicates inside hepatocytes (liver cells) and erythrocytes (red blood cells), hiding from antibodies in the blood plasma. Statement 4 is incorrect: Plasmodium is a eukaryotic protoctist, not a bacterium, and does not form bacterial endospores.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] A is the correct answer. Statements 1, 2, and 3 are biological reasons for the difficulty of malaria control.
Question 30 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which row correctly matches a cell surface membrane component with its primary role?
A.Component: Cholesterol | Primary Role: Acts as a cell-surface receptor for peptide hormones
B.Component: Glycolipid | Primary Role: Stabilizes membrane fluidity at high temperatures
C.Component: Glycoprotein | Primary Role: Acts as an antigen for cell-to-cell recognition
D.Component: Phospholipid | Primary Role: Actively pumps hydrogen ions across the membrane
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Worked solution
Glycoproteins consist of carbohydrate chains attached to proteins and project from the outer surface of the cell membrane, serving as antigens for cell-to-cell recognition. Option A is incorrect because cholesterol regulates membrane fluidity, not hormone reception. Option B is incorrect because cholesterol, not glycolipids, stabilizes membrane fluidity. Option D is incorrect because phospholipids form a barrier to polar molecules; active transport of ions is carried out by transmembrane protein pumps, not the phospholipid bilayer itself.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] C is the correct answer as glycoproteins serve as cell identity markers/antigens.
Question 31 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes the movement of water along the apoplast pathway in the root of a plant?
A.Water moves through the cytoplasm and vacuoles of cells, passing from cell to cell via plasmodesmata.
B.Water moves through cell walls and intercellular spaces until it reaches the endodermis, where the Casparian strip blocks this pathway.
C.Water is actively pumped across the cell membranes of cortical cells to maintain a hydrostatic pressure gradient.
D.Water moves purely by active transport through specialized aquaporin channel proteins located in the cell walls.
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Worked solution
The apoplast pathway refers to the movement of water and dissolved minerals through the non-living parts of the plant, specifically the cellulose cell walls and intercellular spaces. When water reaches the endodermis, it is blocked by the Casparian strip (composed of water-impermeable suberin), forcing it to cross the cell membrane into the cytoplasm (symplast pathway).
Marking scheme
[1 mark] B is the correct answer. The apoplast pathway involves cell walls and is blocked at the endodermis by the Casparian strip.
Question 32 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which process occurring in red blood cells in actively respiring tissues helps to buffer the cytoplasm and prevent a dangerous decrease in pH?
A.The active transport of hydrogen ions out of the red blood cell into the blood plasma.
B.The binding of hydrogen ions to hemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid.
C.The dissociation of carbonic acid into hydrogencarbonate ions and hydrogen ions.
D.The movement of chloride ions into the red blood cell to neutralize the hydrogen ions.
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Worked solution
In actively respiring tissues, carbon dioxide diffuses into red blood cells and reacts with water to form carbonic acid, which dissociates into hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) and hydrogencarbonate ions (\(\text{HCO}_3^-\)). To prevent the buildup of free \(\text{H}^+\) ions from lowering the cytoplasmic pH, hemoglobin binds to these ions to form haemoglobinic acid (\(\text{HHb}\)), acting as an intracellular buffer.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] B is the correct answer. Hemoglobin acts as a buffer by binding to hydrogen ions to form haemoglobinic acid.
Question 33 · multiple_choice
1 marks
The rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction was plotted against substrate concentration under two conditions: without an inhibitor (Curve X) and with a reversible non-competitive inhibitor (Curve Y). How do the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\max}\)) and the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_m\)) of Curve Y compare to those of Curve X?
A.\(V_{\max}\) is lower and \(K_m\) is higher
B.\(V_{\max}\) is lower and \(K_m\) is unchanged
C.\(V_{\max}\) is unchanged and \(K_m\) is higher
D.\(V_{\max}\) is unchanged and \(K_m\) is unchanged
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Worked solution
A non-competitive inhibitor binds to an allosteric site on the enzyme, changing the shape of the active site so that substrates can no longer bind. This effectively decreases the concentration of active enzymes, which reduces the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\max}\)). Because the inhibitor does not compete with the substrate for the active site, the affinity of the remaining active enzyme molecules for the substrate is unaffected, meaning the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_m\)) remains unchanged.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying that a non-competitive inhibitor decreases \(V_{\max}\) but leaves \(K_m\) unchanged (Option B).
Question 34 · multiple_choice
1 marks
The graph shows the initial rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction as the substrate concentration is increased. Point X is located on the steep, linear part of the curve at low substrate concentration. Point Y is located on the horizontal plateau of the curve at high substrate concentration. What is the main limiting factor at Point X and Point Y?
A.Point X: substrate concentration; Point Y: enzyme concentration
B.Point X: enzyme concentration; Point Y: substrate concentration
C.Point X: temperature; Point Y: pH
D.Point X: substrate concentration; Point Y: temperature
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Worked solution
At low substrate concentrations (Point X), many active sites are free, so increasing the substrate concentration increases the rate of reaction. Therefore, substrate concentration is the limiting factor. At high substrate concentrations (Point Y), all enzyme active sites are fully saturated with substrate. Increasing the substrate concentration further has no effect on the rate of reaction because the rate is limited by how quickly the enzyme can process the substrate, which depends on the enzyme concentration. Therefore, enzyme concentration is the limiting factor at Point Y.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for correctly identifying that substrate concentration is limiting at Point X and enzyme concentration is limiting at Point Y (Option A).
Question 35 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which row correctly describes the features of a mature xylem vessel element and a mature phloem sieve tube element?
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Worked solution
A mature xylem vessel element is a dead cell that completely lacks cytoplasm, has lignified secondary walls to prevent collapse under tension, and is not associated with companion cells. A mature sieve tube element is a living cell that retains a thin layer of peripheral cytoplasm (but no nucleus, ribosomes, or vacuole), has non-lignified walls (cellulose), and is always situated next to one or more companion cells, which carry out metabolic functions for it.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct set of characteristics for both xylem vessel elements and sieve tube elements (Option A).
Question 36 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which cells in a mature stem of a herbaceous dicotyledonous plant contain lignin, and which contain callose?
A.Lignin: xylem vessel elements and companion cells; Callose: sieve tube elements
B.Lignin: xylem vessel elements and sclerenchyma fibres; Callose: sieve tube elements
C.Lignin: sieve tube elements and sclerenchyma fibres; Callose: xylem vessel elements
D.Lignin: companion cells and sieve tube elements; Callose: sclerenchyma fibres
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Worked solution
Lignin is a strong, waterproof polymer deposited in the walls of xylem vessel elements (to support the vessel and prevent collapse) and sclerenchyma fibres (for mechanical support of the stem). Callose is a carbohydrate polymer deposited at the sieve plates of phloem sieve tube elements, particularly in response to damage or during dormancy.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying that lignin is found in xylem vessel elements and sclerenchyma fibres, and callose is found in sieve tube elements (Option B).
Question 37 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which measures would be effective in controlling the spread of cholera, but would have NO direct effect on controlling the spread of tuberculosis? 1. Treating drinking water with chlorine. 2. Safe disposal of human faeces through effective sewage systems. 3. Administration of antibiotics to infected individuals. 4. BCG vaccination of young children.
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 4 only
D.3 and 4 only
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Worked solution
Cholera is caused by the bacterium *Vibrio cholerae*, which is transmitted via the faecal-oral route through contaminated food or water. Therefore, treating drinking water with chlorine (1) and proper sewage disposal (2) are highly effective in preventing its transmission. Tuberculosis is caused by *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*, which is transmitted through the air in droplets produced by coughing or sneezing; sewage treatment and water chlorination have no impact on its spread. Antibiotics (3) are used to treat both diseases, and the BCG vaccine (4) is used to protect against tuberculosis, not cholera.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for selecting 1 and 2 only as water sanitation measures that prevent cholera but do not affect airborne tuberculosis transmission (Option A).
Question 38 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which component of the cell surface membrane is correctly paired with its function?
A.Cholesterol — increases membrane fluidity at very high temperatures by preventing close packing of phospholipid tails
B.Glycoproteins — act as cell-signalling receptors and cell-marker antigens for cell recognition
C.Phospholipids — form a barrier to polar molecules because their phosphate heads are hydrophobic
D.Proteins — act as carrier proteins that only allow active transport of non-polar substances
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Worked solution
Glycoproteins on the outer surface of the cell membrane function as receptors for hormones/neurotransmitters (cell-signalling) and as cell-marker antigens (allowing the immune system to recognize the cell as 'self'). Option A is incorrect because cholesterol decreases membrane fluidity at high temperatures. Option C is incorrect because phosphate heads are hydrophilic, while fatty acid tails are hydrophobic. Option D is incorrect because carrier proteins transport polar or charged substances, not non-polar ones.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct pairing of glycoprotein with its function in cell signalling and cell recognition (Option B).
Question 39 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes the movement of water through the apoplast pathway in a plant root?
A.Water moves through the cytoplasm of cells, passing from cell to cell via plasmodesmata.
B.Water moves through the non-living parts of the root, such as the cell walls and intercellular spaces, until it is blocked by the Casparian strip in the endodermis.
C.Water moves through the vacuoles and tonoplast of the cells, driven by a hydrostatic pressure gradient established by active transport of mineral ions.
D.Water moves freely into the xylem vessels because the Casparian strip provides a low-resistance hydrophilic pathway through the endodermis.
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Worked solution
The apoplast pathway involves water moving through the cell walls and intercellular spaces (the non-living parts of the plant). When the water reaches the endodermis, its progress is blocked by the suberin-rich, waterproof Casparian strip. This forces water to cross the cell membrane of the endodermal cells and enter the symplast pathway. Option A describes the symplast pathway, and Option C describes the vacuolar pathway. Option D is incorrect because the Casparian strip blocks water rather than facilitating its free movement.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for correctly identifying that the apoplast pathway goes through cell walls and intercellular spaces and is blocked by the Casparian strip (Option B).
Question 40 · multiple_choice
1 marks
The oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin shifts to the right under certain physiological conditions (the Bohr effect). Which of the following explains the cause and significance of this shift?
A.An increase in the concentration of hydrogencarbonate ions in red blood cells increases pH, reducing the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen to allow easier loading of oxygen at the lungs.
B.A decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in active tissues lowers pH, increasing the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen to prevent its release.
C.An increase in carbon dioxide production by actively respiring tissues increases the concentration of hydrogen ions, reducing the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen to facilitate oxygen unloading where it is needed.
D.A decrease in the concentration of carbonic anhydrase in red blood cells prevents carbon dioxide from changing the pH, thus keeping the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen constant.
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Worked solution
Actively respiring tissues produce carbon dioxide, which diffuses into red blood cells. Carbonic anhydrase catalyses the conversion of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid, which dissociates into hydrogen ions (\(H^+\)) and hydrogencarbonate ions. The binding of \(H^+\) ions to oxyhaemoglobin causes a conformational change that reduces its affinity for oxygen, shifting the oxygen dissociation curve to the right (the Bohr shift). This physiological mechanism ensures that more oxygen is released to tissues with high metabolic activity.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for explaining that high carbon dioxide production increases hydrogen ion concentration, decreasing haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen to enhance unloading (Option C).
Paper 21
Answer all questions. Write your answers in the spaces provided.
6 Question · 60 marks
Question 1 · structured
10 marks
(a) Define the term activation energy and explain how the enzyme lactase lowers this energy. [3] (b) An investigation was carried out to compare the activity of free lactase with lactase immobilized in alginate beads across a range of temperatures from \(20^\circ\text{C}\) to \(70^\circ\text{C}\). The optimum temperature for the free lactase was \(40^\circ\text{C}\), whereas the optimum temperature for the immobilized lactase was \(50^\circ\text{C}\). Explain why immobilizing lactase increases its optimum temperature and makes it more stable at higher temperatures. [4] (c) State three advantages of using immobilized enzymes in industrial biotechnology compared to using free enzymes in a batch process. [3]
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Worked solution
(a) Activation energy is the minimum energy needed for a chemical reaction to occur. An enzyme lowers this threshold by providing an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy. When lactose binds to the complementary active site of lactase, it forms an enzyme-substrate complex. This binding puts structural tension on the glycosidic bond, destabilizing it so that less thermal energy is required to break it. (b) Immobilization of the lactase enzyme physically traps it within an alginate gel lattice. This matrix restricts the thermal movement and vibration of the polypeptide chains at elevated temperatures. Consequently, the weak interactions (hydrogen and ionic bonds) maintaining the specific tertiary conformation of the active site are less easily disrupted, extending the operational stability and optimum temperature of the enzyme. (c) Using immobilized enzymes is highly cost-effective because the enzymes can be recovered from the reaction mixture and reused multiple times. Additionally, because the enzyme remains bound in the matrix, the product does not require expensive downstream purification to remove the enzyme. This setup also allows the reaction to run as a continuous flow process rather than in batches.
Marking scheme
Part (a): [Max 3 marks] 1. Definition of activation energy: the minimum energy required for a chemical reaction to occur / for substrates to react; 2. Lactose binds to the active site to form an enzyme-substrate (ES) complex; 3. This puts physical strain on the glycosidic bond, lowering the energy needed to break it / aligns the substrate in an optimal orientation. Part (b): [Max 4 marks] 1. Alginate matrix restricts the movement / kinetic energy of enzyme molecules; 2. Prevents unfolding / denaturation of the tertiary structure of the enzyme; 3. Protects/stabilizes hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, or hydrophobic interactions; 4. The active site remains complementary in shape to the substrate at higher temperatures. Part (c): [Max 3 marks] 1. Enzyme can be easily recovered/recycled, reducing overall operational costs; 2. Product is not contaminated with the enzyme (no downstream purification needed); 3. Allows the process to be run continuously (continuous flow process); 4. Increases stability over a wider range of pH/temperatures.
Question 2 · structured
10 marks
(a) Compare the effects of competitive and non-competitive inhibitors on the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\max}\)) and the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_{\text{m}}\)) of an enzyme-controlled reaction. [4] (b) Explain how a competitive inhibitor, such as sodium orthovanadate, reduces the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction, and explain how this inhibition can be overcome. [4] (c) State how the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_{\text{m}}\)) can be used to compare the affinity of different enzymes for their substrates. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) Competitive inhibitors compete directly with the substrate for the active site. At infinitely high substrate concentrations, the substrate completely outcompetes the inhibitor, meaning the theoretical maximum rate (\(V_{\max}\)) remains unchanged, but a higher substrate concentration is required to reach half-maximal velocity, raising the \(K_{\text{m}}\) value. Non-competitive inhibitors bind to an allosteric site, altering the shape of the active site so that the enzyme cannot function. This permanently reduces the number of functional enzymes, decreasing the \(V_{\max}\). However, the remaining unaffected enzyme molecules still have normal affinity for the substrate, meaning the \(K_{\text{m}}\) value remains unchanged. (b) Competitive inhibitors like orthovanadate have a molecular shape that mimics the substrate. This allows them to bind to the active site, temporarily preventing substrate molecules from entering and forming enzyme-substrate complexes. By increasing substrate concentration significantly, the ratio of substrate to inhibitor molecules increases, making it much more likely for a substrate molecule to bind to an empty active site than an inhibitor molecule, thus overcoming the inhibition. (c) The \(K_{\text{m}}\) is defined as the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half of \(V_{\max}\). A low \(K_{\text{m}}\) indicates that the enzyme reaches half-maximal speed at a very low substrate concentration, representing high substrate affinity. A high \(K_{\text{m}}\) means high substrate concentrations are needed, representing low affinity.
Marking scheme
Part (a): [Max 4 marks, 1 mark per point] 1. Competitive inhibitor: \(V_{\max}\) remains unchanged / is achieved at high substrate concentrations; 2. Competitive inhibitor: \(K_{\text{m}}\) increases; 3. Non-competitive inhibitor: \(V_{\max}\) decreases; 4. Non-competitive inhibitor: \(K_{\text{m}}\) remains unchanged. Part (b): [Max 4 marks] 1. Inhibitor has a shape complementary to the active site / similar molecular structure to the substrate; 2. Binds temporarily / reversibly to the active site; 3. Blocks the active site, preventing the substrate from entering / forming enzyme-substrate complexes; 4. Can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration; 5. High substrate concentration increases the probability of substrate collision with active sites compared to the inhibitor. Part (c): [Max 2 marks] 1. A low \(K_{\text{m}}\) value indicates high affinity of the enzyme for its substrate; 2. A high \(K_{\text{m}}\) value indicates low affinity of the enzyme for its substrate; 3. Definition: \(K_{\text{m}}\) is the substrate concentration at which the reaction velocity is half of \(V_{\max}\).
Question 3 · structured
10 marks
(a) Contrast the arrangement of xylem and phloem tissues in a transverse section of a dicotyledonous root with their arrangement in a transverse section of a dicotyledonous stem. [3] (b) Explain how the structure of a mature xylem vessel element is adapted to its function of transporting water. [5] (c) State the role of lignin in the cell walls of xylem vessels besides preventing collapse under tension. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) In a transverse section of a dicotyledonous root, the vascular tissue is concentrated in the center, known as the vascular cylinder or stele. Here, xylem forms a star or cross shape, with clusters of phloem located in the spaces between the arms of the star. In contrast, the stem contains discrete vascular bundles arranged in a ring near the cortex. Within each of these stem bundles, xylem is oriented towards the center (inner side) and phloem towards the epidermis (outer side). (b) Mature xylem vessel elements are dead cells that have lost their nuclei, cytoplasm, and all organelles. This creates a clear, unobstructed lumen that minimizes resistance to water flow. The end walls of these cells are completely broken down, forming continuous hollow conduits that facilitate the uninterrupted mass flow of water. The thick secondary walls are reinforced with lignin, which provides high mechanical strength to prevent the vessels from collapsing inward under the high tension (negative pressure) generated by transpiration. Furthermore, unlignified regions called pits are present in the cell walls, allowing lateral movement of water to adjacent cells or vessels. (c) Lignin is a highly hydrophobic polymer. By lining the interior of the cellulose wall, it waterproofs the vessel, ensuring that water does not leak out laterally before reaching the leaves. Secondly, the lignified walls provide structural rigidity to the stem, helping the plant stand upright and support its own weight.
Marking scheme
Part (a): [Max 3 marks] 1. Root vascular tissues are located in the center (vascular cylinder/stele) whereas stem vascular tissues are in discrete bundles; 2. Root xylem forms a star/cross shape in the center with phloem in between the arms; 3. Stem vascular bundles are arranged in a ring; 4. In stem bundles, xylem is on the inside and phloem is on the outside. Part (b): [Max 5 marks] 1. No cytoplasm / no organelles / dead cells, providing an empty lumen that reduces resistance to water flow; 2. End walls are broken down / absent, creating continuous tubes for mass flow; 3. Walls are thickened with lignin to prevent collapse under negative pressure / tension; 4. Pits (unlignified areas) allow lateral movement of water between vessels / to surrounding tissues; 5. Spiral / annular / reticulate patterns of lignin allow stretching and growth of the stem; 6. Cellulose cell wall has hydrophilic properties to promote adhesion of water molecules. Part (c): [Max 2 marks] 1. Waterproofing the cell wall to prevent water loss / keep water inside the vessels; 2. Structural support / mechanical rigidity for the entire stem / plant; 3. Protection against decay / pathogen entry.
Question 4 · structured
10 marks
(a) Describe how the structure of a phloem sieve tube element is adapted to allow the transport of organic solutes (assimilates). [4] (b) Companion cells are closely associated with sieve tube elements. Explain how companion cells are adapted to support the active loading of sucrose into sieve tube elements. [4] (c) Name two substances, other than sucrose, that are transported in the phloem. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) Phloem sieve tube elements are living cells, but they have a highly reduced internal structure. They lack a nucleus, ribosomes, and a large vacuole, and have only a very thin layer of cytoplasm aligned against the cell wall. This configuration dramatically reduces the internal resistance to the movement of phloem sap. At their junction ends, they have specialized sieve plates with large pores, which act as sieves and allow the mass flow of assimilates. They are also linked to companion cells via cytoplasmic channels called plasmodesmata, which facilitate the entry of sucrose. (b) Companion cells carry out the metabolic processes needed to load sucrose into the sieve tube elements. They are packed with mitochondria, which produce ATP via aerobic respiration. This ATP is used to power active proton pumps in the companion cell membrane, which pump hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) out of the cell into the cell wall (apoplastic space), establishing an electrochemical gradient. Sucrose is then loaded into the companion cell against its concentration gradient by co-transporter proteins, which bring sucrose in alongside hydrogen ions as they flow back down their concentration gradient. (c) Besides sucrose, the phloem transports other essential organic and inorganic molecules. These include amino acids (used for protein synthesis throughout the plant), plant hormones (such as auxins, cytokinins, and gibberellins), and various mineral ions like potassium, phosphate, and chloride.
Marking scheme
Part (a): [Max 4 marks] 1. Peripheral cytoplasm / lack of nucleus / ribosomes / vacuole, creating less resistance to flow of sap; 2. Sieve plates have large pores to allow uninterrupted mass flow; 3. Plasmodesmata connect sieve tube elements to companion cells to allow movement of solutes; 4. Thin cell walls to assist rapid diffusion/exchange; 5. Cell membrane contains carrier/transport proteins to maintain solute concentrations. Part (b): [Max 4 marks] 1. Many mitochondria to generate ATP for active transport; 2. Proton pumps (\(\text{H}^+\)-ATPase) in plasma membrane to pump hydrogen ions into the cell wall / apoplast; 3. Co-transporter proteins in membrane to transport sucrose into the cell alongside hydrogen ions; 4. Highly folded cell surface membrane (transfer cell structure) to increase surface area for transport; 5. Abundant ribosomes / rough ER to synthesize transporter proteins. Part (c): [Max 2 marks, 1 mark per correct answer] Accept any two of: 1. Amino acids; 2. Plant growth regulators / hormones (e.g., auxin / gibberellins); 3. Inorganic ions / minerals (e.g., potassium / phosphate); 4. Water; 5. ATP / proteins / RNA.
Question 5 · structured
10 marks
(a) Complete the table to compare the diseases tuberculosis (TB) and cholera. For (i) and (ii) state the causative pathogen (genus and species), and for (iii) and (iv) state the main mode of transmission. Tuberculosis: Pathogen (i), Transmission (iii). Cholera: Pathogen (ii), Transmission (iv). [4] (b) Explain why cholera is more prevalent in areas with high population density and inadequate sanitation, and describe the measures that can be taken to prevent cholera outbreaks in such areas. [4] (c) Discuss why tuberculosis remains a difficult disease to control and eradicate globally, despite the availability of antibiotics. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* (or *Mycobacterium bovis* in cattle and sometimes humans) and is transmitted via droplet infection, where healthy individuals inhale airborne droplets sneezed or coughed by infected individuals. Cholera is caused by the bacterium *Vibrio cholerae* and is primarily waterborne, transmitted when individuals ingest water or food contaminated with human faeces containing the pathogen. (b) In dense populations without safe sanitation, untreated faecal waste from cholera patients can easily enter and contaminate local drinking water and food supplies. Since the pathogen is transmitted via the faecal-oral route, ingestion of this contaminated water spreads the disease rapidly. Prevention requires constructing modern sewage treatment facilities to separate human waste from water sources, purifying public drinking water with chlorine, teaching proper hand hygiene, and implementing oral cholera vaccination campaigns. (c) Tuberculosis is highly challenging to control because the bacteria can survive intracellularly inside macrophages, where they are protected from antibiotics and host immune responses. Furthermore, curing TB requires a multi-drug regimen lasting at least 6 to 9 months. Many patients stop taking their medication once symptoms improve, which leads to treatment failure and has driven the selection of multi-drug resistant (MDR-TB) and extensively drug-resistant (XDR-TB) strains.
Marking scheme
Part (a): [4 marks, 1 mark per point] (i) *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* / *Mycobacterium bovis* (genus capitalized, species lowercase, must be italicized or underlined); (ii) *Vibrio cholerae* (genus capitalized, species lowercase, must be italicized or underlined); (iii) Airborne droplets / inhalation of aerosol droplets; (iv) Ingestion of contaminated water / food / faecal-oral route. Part (b): [Max 4 marks] 1. Inadequate sanitation allows human faeces / sewage containing the pathogen to contaminate drinking water; 2. High population density increases the speed of transmission and exposure to infected material; 3. Prevention: providing safe, clean, chlorinated drinking water; 4. Prevention: proper sewage disposal / treatment to prevent water contamination; 5. Prevention: public health education on hand washing / food hygiene; 6. Prevention: use of oral cholera vaccine. Part (c): [Max 2 marks] 1. Pathogen lives intracellularly (inside macrophages), evading the immune response and antibiotics; 2. Very long treatment course (6-9 months) leads to poor patient compliance / incomplete courses; 3. Emergence of multi-drug resistant (MDR) and extensively drug-resistant (XDR) bacterial strains; 4. Latent TB infections can remain dormant for years and reactivate later.
Question 6 · structured
10 marks
(a) Explain why the cell surface membrane is described as a 'fluid mosaic'. [3] (b) Describe the role of cholesterol in regulating the fluidity and stability of mammalian cell membranes at different temperatures. [3] (c) Some proteins in the cell surface membrane act as cell signaling receptors. Describe the sequence of events that occurs from the binding of a signaling molecule (ligand) to a cell surface receptor to the final cellular response. [4]
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Worked solution
(a) The cell membrane is called 'fluid' because both phospholipid molecules and many membrane proteins are free to diffuse laterally within their respective monolayers. It is a 'mosaic' because the various protein molecules are embedded and scattered randomly throughout the phospholipid bilayer, resembling individual colored tiles in a mosaic pattern. (b) Cholesterol plays a vital role as a membrane buffer. At high temperatures, the increase in thermal energy makes phospholipids move more dynamically; cholesterol binds to the hydrophobic tails, restricting their lateral movement and preventing the membrane from becoming too fluid or losing structure. At low temperatures, cholesterol prevents the fatty acid tails from packing tightly together and freezing into a rigid, non-functional gel, thereby maintaining membrane fluidity. (c) The signaling pathway begins when a extracellular ligand binds specifically to a complementary receptor on the membrane's outer surface. This binding induces a conformational change in the intracellular domain of the receptor protein. This shape change activates a G-protein or an enzyme on the inner surface of the membrane. The activated G-protein/enzyme triggers the production of small, fast-diffusing second messengers (e.g., cyclic AMP). These second messengers initiate a phosphorylation cascade, activating a series of intracellular enzymes (kinases) which amplify the signal, ultimately leading to a specific cellular response such as gene transcription or a change in metabolism.
Marking scheme
Part (a): [Max 3 marks] 1. Fluid: phospholipids (and proteins) can move laterally / diffuse within their monolayer; 2. Mosaic: protein molecules are scattered / randomly distributed throughout the bilayer; 3. Membrane consists of a bilayer of phospholipids with proteins embedded within it. Part (b): [Max 3 marks] 1. At high temperatures: cholesterol restricts movement of fatty acid tails, reducing membrane fluidity; 2. At low temperatures: cholesterol prevents close packing of fatty acid tails, preventing crystallization / maintaining fluidity; 3. Stability: increases mechanical stability / prevents leakage of polar substances. Part (c): [Max 4 marks] 1. Ligand binds to a specific / complementary cell surface receptor; 2. Causes a conformational change in the receptor protein; 3. Activates a G-protein / enzyme on the cytoplasmic side of the membrane; 4. Stimulates release of second messengers (e.g., cAMP / calcium ions); 5. Triggers a phosphorylation cascade / series of enzyme activations; 6. Leads to a final cellular response (e.g., gene transcription / metabolic changes); 7. Mention of signal amplification at any stage.
Paper 31
Answer all questions. You will need to show all working and use appropriate units for the calculations.
2 Question · 40 marks
Question 1 · practical
22 marks
An investigation was carried out into the effect of enzyme concentration on the rate of starch hydrolysis by amylase.
You are provided with: * **E**, a \(2.0\%\) stock solution of amylase (enzyme) * **S**, a \(1.0\%\) starch solution (substrate) * **I**, iodine in potassium iodide solution * Distilled water
**(a)** (i) Describe how you would prepare a 2-fold (halving) serial dilution of the \(2.0\%\) amylase solution, **E**, to obtain four further concentrations: \(1.0\%\), \(0.5\%\), \(0.25\%\), and \(0.125\%\). Use a total volume of \(10.0\text{ cm}^3\) for each concentration. Complete Table 1.1 to show your preparation method. [3]
(ii) A student carried out this investigation by mixing each concentration of amylase with starch solution, taking samples every \(15\text{ seconds}\), and testing them with iodine solution on a spotting tile. The time taken for starch to be completely hydrolysed (indicated by the iodine remaining yellow-brown) was recorded. The results obtained by the student are shown in Table 1.2.
**Table 1.2** | Concentration of amylase / % | Time taken for starch to be completely hydrolysed / \(\text{s}\) | | :---: | :---: | | \(0.125\) | \(240\) | | \(0.250\) | \(120\) | | \(0.500\) | \(60\) | | \(1.000\) | \(30\) | | \(2.000\) | \(15\) |
The rate of reaction can be estimated as: $$\text{Rate of reaction} = \frac{1000}{\text{time taken / s}}$$
Calculate the rate of reaction for each concentration of amylase. Prepare a single table in the space below to display the amylase concentration, the time taken for complete hydrolysis, and the calculated rate of reaction. [3]
**(b)** (i) Plot a graph of the rate of reaction (y-axis) against the concentration of amylase (x-axis) on a grid. [4]
(ii) Use your graph to determine the rate of reaction at an amylase concentration of \(0.75\%\). Explain how you obtained this value. [2]
**(c)** Explain the relationship between amylase concentration and the rate of starch hydrolysis shown by your graph, using your knowledge of enzyme action. [3]
**(d)** State two sources of error in this investigation that could affect the accuracy of the results, and suggest one improvement to resolve one of these errors. [3]
**(e)** Describe a suitable control experiment for this investigation and explain how it would confirm that the hydrolysis of starch is caused by active amylase. [2]
**(f)** Describe how you would modify this method to investigate the effect of temperature on the rate of starch hydrolysis. [2]
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Worked solution
**(a) (i)** To prepare a 2-fold serial dilution, half of the volume of the preceding concentration is transferred and diluted with an equal volume of distilled water: * **For \(1.0\%\) amylase**: Take \(5.0\text{ cm}^3\) of \(2.0\%\) stock **E**, add \(5.0\text{ cm}^3\) of distilled water. * **For \(0.5\%\) amylase**: Take \(5.0\text{ cm}^3\) of the prepared \(1.0\%\) solution, add \(5.0\text{ cm}^3\) of distilled water. * **For \(0.25\%\) amylase**: Take \(5.0\text{ cm}^3\) of the prepared \(0.5\%\) solution, add \(5.0\text{ cm}^3\) of distilled water. * **For \(0.125\%\) amylase**: Take \(5.0\text{ cm}^3\) of the prepared \(0.25\%\) solution, add \(5.0\text{ cm}^3\) of distilled water.
The table should feature borders, clear column headers (with slashes separating headings and units), and consistent significant figures (e.g., all rates written to 2 decimal places).
**Table of Results** | Concentration of amylase / % | Time taken for complete hydrolysis / s | Rate of reaction / arbitrary units | | :---: | :---: | :---: | | 0.125 | 240 | 4.17 | | 0.250 | 120 | 8.33 | | 0.500 | 60 | 16.67 | | 1.000 | 30 | 33.33 | | 2.000 | 15 | 66.67 |
**(b) (i)** * **Axes**: x-axis "Concentration of amylase / %" (scale 0 to 2.0, with 0.2 per large division); y-axis "Rate of reaction / arbitrary units" (scale 0 to 70, with 10 per large division). * **Points**: Plotted as neat crosses or dots in circles at exactly the calculated coordinates. * **Line**: A straight, clean line of best fit passing directly through the origin (0,0).
**(b) (ii)** At \(0.75\%\) concentration, the line of best fit gives a rate of exactly \(25.0\) arbitrary units. The candidate should draw a dashed vertical line from \(0.75\%\) on the x-axis to the line of best fit, and then a dashed horizontal line across to \(25.0\) on the y-axis.
**(c)** * The rate of starch hydrolysis is directly proportional to the amylase concentration. * At higher amylase concentrations, there are more enzyme molecules and therefore more active sites available. * This increases the frequency of successful collisions between starch molecules and the active sites. * As a result, more enzyme-substrate complexes (ESCs) form per unit time. * Since starch (substrate) is in excess, the rate continues to increase linearly without leveling off.
**(d)** * **Source of error 1**: Subjective nature of identifying the endpoint (determining precisely when the blue-black colour transitions completely to yellow-brown). * **Source of error 2**: Large sampling time intervals (every 15 seconds) mean the actual end-point likely occurred between sampling times (causing an overestimation of time and underestimation of rate). * **Improvement**: Use a colorimeter to measure absorbance of the starch-iodine mixture quantitatively at each interval, OR perform tests at shorter intervals (e.g., every 5 seconds).
**(e)** * **Control**: Set up a reaction tube containing starch solution and boiled, cooled amylase (or replace amylase with distilled water). * **Explanation**: Boiled amylase is denatured and inactive. If the iodine remains blue-black (no hydrolysis), it confirms that the hydrolysis of starch is catalyzed specifically by active amylase, rather than occurring spontaneously.
**(f)** * Set up water baths at at least five different temperatures (e.g., \(20^\circ\text{C}\), \(30^\circ\text{C}\), \(40^\circ\text{C}\), \(50^\circ\text{C}\), \(60^\circ\text{C}\)). * Keep the concentration of amylase (e.g., \(1.0\%\)) and starch (e.g., \(1.0\%\)) constant, and pre-incubate the separate starch and amylase solutions at each target temperature for 5 minutes before mixing.
Marking scheme
**(a)(i) [3 marks]** * Award 1 mark for correct volumes of amylase used (\(5.0\text{ cm}^3\) for all four dilutions). * Award 1 mark for correct source of amylase (the previous dilution tube is used for the next step: \(1.0\%\) derived from \(2.0\%\), \(0.5\%\) from \(1.0\%\), etc.). * Award 1 mark for correct volumes of distilled water (\(5.0\text{ cm}^3\) for all four dilutions to achieve a total volume of \(10.0\text{ cm}^3\)).
**(a)(ii) [3 marks]** * Award 1 mark for constructing a table with clear borders and appropriate headers with units: "Concentration of amylase / %", "Time taken for complete hydrolysis / s" (or "Time / s"), and "Rate of reaction / arbitrary units" (or "\(\text{s}^{-1}\)"). * Award 1 mark for correct calculations of all 5 rates based on the student's raw data. * Award 1 mark for recording all rates to a consistent degree of precision (either all to 1 d.p. or all to 2 d.p.).
**(b)(i) [4 marks]** * **A (Axes)**: Axes correctly labeled with units: x-axis "Concentration of amylase / %", y-axis "Rate of reaction / arbitrary units" [1]. * **S (Scale)**: Scales on both axes must be linear and allow the plotted points to occupy more than half of the grid in both dimensions [1]. * **P (Plotting)**: All five points plotted accurately to within half a small square of the grid [1]. * **L (Line)**: Clean, straight line of best fit drawn with a ruler, starting at the origin \((0,0)\) [1].
**(b)(ii) [2 marks]** * Award 1 mark for reading the correct rate at \(0.75\%\) concentration from their graph (\(25.0 \pm 1.0\) arbitrary units). * Award 1 mark for showing construction lines (vertical and horizontal dashed lines) clearly on the graph.
**(c) [3 marks]** * Award 1 mark for identifying that rate of reaction is directly proportional to amylase concentration. * Award 1 mark for explaining that higher enzyme concentration results in more active sites, leading to a higher frequency of successful collisions between amylase active sites and starch molecules. * Award 1 mark for stating that this leads to more enzyme-substrate complexes (ESCs) forming per unit time.
**(d) [3 marks]** * Award up to 2 marks for stating two distinct sources of error (e.g., subjective endpoint color, large 15 s intervals, lack of temperature control). * Award 1 mark for a matching, valid improvement (e.g., use a colorimeter, use 5 s intervals, use a thermostatically controlled water bath).
**(e) [2 marks]** * Award 1 mark for describing the control (using boiled and cooled amylase OR replacing amylase with the same volume of distilled water). * Award 1 mark for explaining that it shows the hydrolysis of starch is due to active amylase and does not occur spontaneously.
**(f) [2 marks]** * Award 1 mark for stating that at least 5 different temperatures must be tested (using water baths). * Award 1 mark for specifying that the concentration of amylase and starch must remain constant, AND that both solutions must be pre-incubated at the test temperature before mixing.
Question 2 · practical
18 marks
A student investigated the microscopic structure of a xerophytic leaf using a light microscope. (a) (i) The actual thickness of the leaf lamina is 320 micrometres (\(\mu\text{m}\)). In a photomicrograph of this leaf, the thickness of the lamina measures 48 mm. Calculate the magnification of the photomicrograph. Show your working. (ii) At \(\times 400\) magnification, 1 eyepiece graticule unit (epu) is equal to 2.5 \(\mu\text{m}\). The width of a stomatal crypt in the leaf is measured as 18 epu. Calculate the actual width of this stomatal crypt in \(\mu\text{m}\). (b) To estimate the mean stomatal density of the lower epidermis, the student counted the number of stomata in several circular fields of view. The diameter of the field of view at \(\times 400\) magnification is 0.45 mm. (i) Calculate the area of this field of view in \(\text{mm}^2\). (Area of a circle = \(\pi r^2\), where \(\pi = 3.142\)). (ii) The student counted stomata in five different fields of view: 14, 11, 15, 12, and 13. Calculate the mean number of stomata per field of view. (iii) Calculate the mean stomatal density as the number of stomata per \(\text{mm}^2\). Give your answer to the nearest whole number. (c) Describe a method the student could use to prepare and observe the epidermis of a herbaceous leaf to compare its stomatal density with the xerophytic leaf. Explain why a typical xerophytic leaf might have no stomata on its upper epidermis. (d) Explain how stomatal crypts act as an adaptation to reduce water loss by transpiration.
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Worked solution
a(i) To calculate magnification: Convert 48 mm to micrometres: 48 * 1000 = 48,000 \(\mu\text{m}\). Magnification = Image Size / Actual Size = 48,000 / 320 = \(\times 150\). a(ii) Actual width = 18 epu * 2.5 \(\mu\text{m}\)/epu = 45 \(\mu\text{m}\). b(i) Radius (r) = diameter / 2 = 0.45 mm / 2 = 0.225 mm. Area = \(\pi r^2\) = 3.142 * (0.225)^2 = 3.142 * 0.050625 = 0.159 \(\text{mm}^2\) (or 0.16 \(\text{mm}^2\)). b(ii) Mean number of stomata = (14 + 11 + 15 + 12 + 13) / 5 = 65 / 5 = 13. b(iii) Mean stomatal density = Mean count / Area of field of view = 13 / 0.159 = 81.76. To the nearest whole number, this is 82 stomata per \(\text{mm}^2\) (or 81 if using 0.16 \(\text{mm}^2\) as the area). c) Prepare an epidermal peel by using clear nail polish or adhesive tape, or by peeling the epidermis carefully with fine forceps. Mount the peel in water on a slide, place a coverslip on top, and observe under the light microscope. A typical xerophytic leaf has no stomata on the upper epidermis because the upper surface is exposed to direct sunlight and high temperatures, which would lead to excessive water loss by transpiration. d) Stomatal crypts trap moist, humid air next to the stomata, which reduces the water vapour potential gradient between the inside of the leaf and the external environment, thereby reducing the rate of transpiration.
Marking scheme
a(i) [4 marks] 1. Correct conversion of 48 mm to 48,000 \(\mu\text{m}\) or 320 \(\mu\text{m}\) to 0.32 mm. 2. Formula stated: Magnification = Image size / Actual size. 3. Correct substitution: 48,000 / 320. 4. Correct answer: \(\times 150\) (accept 150). a(ii) [2 marks] 1. Correct multiplication: 18 * 2.5. 2. Correct answer with units: 45 \(\mu\text{m}\) (accept micrometres). b(i) [2 marks] 1. Correct calculation of radius: 0.225 mm. 2. Correct area: 0.159 \(\text{mm}^2\) (accept 0.16 \(\text{mm}^2\)). b(ii) [1 mark] 1. Correct mean: 13. b(iii) [3 marks] 1. Correct division of mean count by area: 13 / 0.159 (or 13 / 0.16). 2. Correct calculation: 81.76 (or 81.25). 3. Rounded correctly to the nearest whole number: 82 (or 81) stomata per \(\text{mm}^2\). c) [4 marks] 1. Describe preparation of peel using nail polish/tape or forceps. 2. Describe mounting in water/glycerol under a coverslip. 3. Explain that upper epidermis is exposed to direct sunlight/heat/wind, leading to excessive transpiration if stomata were present. 4. Mention presence of thick cuticle on upper surface to prevent water loss. d) [2 marks] 1. Crypts trap water vapour / humid air, creating a local microenvironment of high humidity. 2. This reduces the water vapour potential gradient, reducing the rate of diffusion/transpiration.
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