An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2026 (V3) Cambridge International AS Level Biology (9700) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.
Paper 1 (Multiple Choice)
Answer all forty questions on the multiple choice answer sheet. Each question has four options A, B, C and D.
40 Question · 40 marks
Question 1 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A student calibrates a light microscope using a stage micrometer scale. The stage micrometer scale has divisions spaced at intervals of \(0.01\text{ mm}\).
At \(\times 400\) magnification, \(40\) small divisions on the eyepiece graticule coincide precisely with \(12\) divisions on the stage micrometer.
The student then removes the stage micrometer, views a slide of a plant leaf cross-section at the same magnification, and measures the length of a stomatal guard cell as \(18\) eyepiece graticule divisions.
What is the actual length of the stomatal guard cell?
A.\(5.4\ \mu\text{m}\)
B.\(27\ \mu\text{m}\)
C.\(54\ \mu\text{m}\)
D.\(60\ \mu\text{m}\)
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Worked solution
1. Determine the actual distance represented by the stage micrometer divisions: \(12\text{ stage divisions} = 12 \times 0.01\text{ mm} = 0.12\text{ mm} = 120\ \mu\text{m}\).
2. Calculate the value of one eyepiece graticule unit (epu): \(40\text{ epu} = 120\ \mu\text{m} \implies 1\text{ epu} = \frac{120\ \mu\text{m}}{40} = 3.0\ \mu\text{m}\).
3. Calculate the actual length of the guard cell: \(\text{Actual length} = 18\text{ epu} \times 3.0\ \mu\text{m} = 54\ \mu\text{m}\).
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Marking scheme
[1] C — \(54\ \mu\text{m}\)
Question 2 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which row correctly identifies the monomer, types of glycosidic bonds present, and overall molecular shape for amylose, amylopectin, and cellulose?
D.Amylose: \(\alpha\)-glucose, 1,4-only, straight chain; Amylopectin: \(\alpha\)-glucose, 1,4 and 1,6, branched; Cellulose: \(\beta\)-glucose, 1,4 and 1,6, unbranched helical
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Worked solution
- Amylose: Polymer of \(\alpha\)-glucose containing only \(\alpha\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds, which coil into an unbranched helical structure. - Amylopectin: Polymer of \(\alpha\)-glucose containing \(\alpha\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds and \(\alpha\)-1,6-glycosidic bonds at branch points, forming a branched chain. - Cellulose: Polymer of \(\beta\)-glucose containing only \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds (with alternating inverted glucose residues), forming unbranched, straight chains bonded together into microfibrils by hydrogen bonds.
Option A correctly lists all features.
Marking scheme
[1] A — Amylose: \(\alpha\)-glucose, 1,4-only, unbranched helical; Amylopectin: \(\alpha\)-glucose, 1,4 and 1,6, branched; Cellulose: \(\beta\)-glucose, 1,4-only, straight chain
Question 3 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
An investigation was carried out into the effects of two different enzyme inhibitors, X and Y, on an enzyme-catalysed reaction.
The findings were: - In the presence of inhibitor X, the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\text{max}}\)) remains unchanged, but the Michaelis–Menten constant (\(K_{\text{m}}\)) increases. - In the presence of inhibitor Y, \(V_{\text{max}}\) decreases, but \(K_{\text{m}}\) remains unchanged.
Which statement correctly explains these results?
A.Inhibitor X binds reversibly to an allosteric site, decreasing enzyme affinity for the substrate; inhibitor Y binds to the active site.
B.Inhibitor X competes with the substrate for the active site; inhibitor Y binds to an allosteric site and reduces the number of functional active sites.
C.Inhibitor X permanently denatures the enzyme; inhibitor Y acts as a reversible competitive inhibitor.
D.Inhibitor X is a non-competitive inhibitor; inhibitor Y is a competitive inhibitor.
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Worked solution
- Inhibitor X increases \(K_{\text{m}}\) without changing \(V_{\text{max}}\), which is characteristic of a competitive inhibitor. Competitive inhibitors have a shape complementary to the active site, competing with the substrate for binding. High substrate concentrations overcome the inhibition, so \(V_{\text{max}}\) is reached, but higher substrate concentration is required to reach \(\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{max}}\), raising \(K_{\text{m}}\). - Inhibitor Y decreases \(V_{\text{max}}\) without altering \(K_{\text{m}}\), which is characteristic of a non-competitive inhibitor. Non-competitive inhibitors bind to an allosteric site, altering the enzyme conformation and reducing the number of functional active sites, thus decreasing \(V_{\text{max}}\).
Therefore, B is correct.
Marking scheme
[1] B — Inhibitor X competes with substrate for the active site; inhibitor Y binds to an allosteric site and reduces the number of functional active sites.
Question 4 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Four cubes of agar containing sodium hydroxide and phenolphthalein indicator (pink) of side lengths \(10\text{ mm}\), \(20\text{ mm}\), \(30\text{ mm}\), and \(40\text{ mm}\) were placed into beakers of dilute hydrochloric acid.
After 5 minutes, the depth of acid penetration was found to be \(1.5\text{ mm}\) from all surfaces in every cube, turning the penetrated region colourless.
Which agar cube has the greatest percentage of its total volume remaining pink?
A.\(10\text{ mm}\) cube
B.\(20\text{ mm}\) cube
C.\(30\text{ mm}\) cube
D.\(40\text{ mm}\) cube
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Worked solution
Let \(s\) be the side length of a cube in mm. The total volume of the cube is \(V_{\text{total}} = s^3\). Acid penetrates \(1.5\text{ mm}\) from each surface, leaving an inner unpenetrated cube of side length \(s - 2(1.5) = s - 3\text{ mm}\). The volume remaining pink is \(V_{\text{pink}} = (s - 3)^3\).
The percentage of volume remaining pink is: \[\text{Percentage pink} = \left(\frac{s - 3}{s}\right)^3 \times 100\% = \left(1 - \frac{3}{s}\right)^3 \times 100\%\]
As the size of the cube increases, the surface area to volume ratio decreases, meaning a smaller fraction of the total volume is penetrated by diffusion within a fixed time. Thus, the \(40\text{ mm}\) cube has the greatest percentage of volume remaining pink.
Marking scheme
[1] D — \(40\text{ mm}\) cube
Question 5 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A diploid animal cell contains \(24\) chromosomes and has a mass of \(6.8\text{ pg}\) of nuclear DNA during the \(\text{G}_1\) phase of interphase.
What are the total number of chromatids and the total mass of nuclear DNA present in this cell during metaphase of mitosis?
A.24 chromatids and \(6.8\text{ pg}\) of DNA
B.24 chromatids and \(13.6\text{ pg}\) of DNA
C.48 chromatids and \(6.8\text{ pg}\) of DNA
D.48 chromatids and \(13.6\text{ pg}\) of DNA
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Worked solution
1. In \(\text{G}_1\) phase, the cell contains \(24\) unreplicated chromosomes, containing \(6.8\text{ pg}\) of DNA. 2. During the S phase of interphase, semi-conservative DNA replication occurs, doubling the DNA content from \(6.8\text{ pg}\) to \(13.6\text{ pg}\). 3. By metaphase of mitosis, each of the \(24\) chromosomes consists of two sister chromatids joined at the centromere. Thus, there are \(24 \times 2 = 48\) chromatids.
Therefore, at metaphase, there are 48 chromatids and \(13.6\text{ pg}\) of DNA (Option D).
Marking scheme
[1] D — 48 chromatids and \(13.6\text{ pg}\) of DNA
Question 6 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A mature eukaryotic mRNA molecule contains a coding region that begins with a start codon and ends with a stop codon, directing the synthesis of a polypeptide containing 240 amino acids.
What is the minimum number of tRNA molecules needed to translate this polypeptide and what is the minimum number of nucleotides in this mRNA coding region (from start codon to stop codon, inclusive)?
A.240 tRNA molecules and 720 nucleotides
B.240 tRNA molecules and 723 nucleotides
C.241 tRNA molecules and 723 nucleotides
D.241 tRNA molecules and 726 nucleotides
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Worked solution
1. Number of tRNA molecules: Each of the 240 amino acids in the polypeptide is delivered to the ribosome by a tRNA molecule. The stop codon does not code for an amino acid and does not bind a tRNA molecule (it binds release factors). Thus, a minimum of 240 tRNA molecules is required. 2. Number of nucleotides in coding region: The coding region consists of 240 sense codons (including the start codon coding for methionine) plus 1 stop codon = 241 codons in total. Since each codon consists of 3 nucleotides: \(241 \times 3 = 723\text{ nucleotides}\).
Therefore, the correct row is B.
Marking scheme
[1] B — 240 tRNA molecules and 723 nucleotides
Question 7 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which sequence correctly describes the mechanism of phloem loading and the mass flow of assimilates in herbaceous dicotyledonous plants?
A.\(\text{H}^+\) ions pumped out of companion cells by active transport \(\rightarrow\) \(\text{H}^+\) and sucrose cotransported into companion cells \(\rightarrow\) sucrose diffuses via plasmodesmata into sieve tubes \(\rightarrow\) water enters sieve tubes by osmosis
B.Sucrose actively pumped into companion cell walls \(\rightarrow\) \(\text{H}^+\) ions diffuse into sieve tube elements \(\rightarrow\) water leaves sieve tubes by osmosis \(\rightarrow\) hydrostatic pressure increases
C.\(\text{H}^+\) ions diffuse out of companion cells down a concentration gradient \(\rightarrow\) sucrose is actively pumped through channel proteins \(\rightarrow\) water potential inside sieve tubes increases
D.Sucrose enters companion cells by simple diffusion \(\rightarrow\) \(\text{H}^+\) ions are actively pumped into sieve tube elements \(\rightarrow\) water enters by active transport down a pressure gradient
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Worked solution
The correct sequence for phloem loading and mass flow: 1. Proton pumps actively transport \(\text{H}^+\) ions out of companion cells into the cell wall (apoplast), creating an electrochemical/concentration gradient. 2. \(\text{H}^+\) ions diffuse back into the companion cells through cotransporter proteins, bringing sucrose molecules with them against the sucrose concentration gradient. 3. Sucrose diffuses down its concentration gradient from companion cells into sieve tube elements via plasmodesmata (symplast pathway). 4. High concentration of sucrose lowers the water potential in sieve tube elements, causing water to enter from adjacent xylem vessels by osmosis, generating high hydrostatic pressure that drives mass flow to sinks.
Option A correctly summarises this mechanism.
Marking scheme
[1] A — \(\text{H}^+\) ions pumped out of companion cells \(\rightarrow\) \(\text{H}^+\) and sucrose cotransported into companion cells \(\rightarrow\) sucrose diffuses via plasmodesmata into sieve tubes \(\rightarrow\) water enters sieve tubes by osmosis
Question 8 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
During ventricular systole of the mammalian cardiac cycle, which changes in pressure cause the atrioventricular (bicuspid/tricuspid) valves to close and the semilunar (aortic/pulmonary) valves to open?
A.AV valves close when ventricular pressure drops below atrial pressure; Semilunar valves open when ventricular pressure drops below arterial pressure.
B.AV valves close when ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure; Semilunar valves open when ventricular pressure exceeds arterial pressure.
C.AV valves close when atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure; Semilunar valves open when arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure.
D.AV valves close when arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure; Semilunar valves open when atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure.
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Worked solution
During ventricular systole: - As the ventricles contract, intraventricular pressure rises rapidly. When ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure, the atrioventricular (AV) valves are pushed shut, preventing backflow of blood into the atria. - As ventricular contraction continues, ventricular pressure rises further until it exceeds the pressure in the aorta/pulmonary artery. This pressure difference forces the semilunar valves open, allowing blood to be ejected into the arteries.
Therefore, Option B is correct.
Marking scheme
[1] B — AV valves close when ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure; Semilunar valves open when ventricular pressure exceeds arterial pressure.
Question 9 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A student calibrated an eyepiece graticule using a stage micrometer scale.
Under a ×40 objective lens, 40 small divisions on the eyepiece graticule matched 10 divisions on the stage micrometer. Each division on the stage micrometer is \(10\text{ μm}\).
The student then viewed a plant cell using the same objective lens and measured its length as 18 eyepiece graticule divisions.
What is the actual length of the plant cell?
A.\(4.5\text{ μm}\)
B.\(45\text{ μm}\)
C.\(72\text{ μm}\)
D.\(450\text{ μm}\)
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B is correct [1 mark]. A represents incorrect division (4.5 μm). C is an incorrect graticule value (72 μm). D is a factor-of-10 error (450 μm).
Question 10 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which statements comparing cellulose and amylopectin are correct?
1 Both are polymers consisting of hexose monosaccharide subunits. 2 Cellulose molecules contain \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds, whereas amylopectin contains \(\alpha\)-1,4- and \(\alpha\)-1,6-glycosidic bonds. 3 Hydrogen bonds form between adjacent unbranched cellulose chains to produce microfibrils, whereas amylopectin chains are branched and do not form cross-linked microfibrils.
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
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Worked solution
Statement 1 is correct: both cellulose (made of \(\beta\)-glucose) and amylopectin (made of \(\alpha\)-glucose) are polymers composed of hexose monomers. Statement 2 is correct: cellulose has \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds requiring alternate glucose molecules to be rotated 180°, whereas amylopectin has \(\alpha\)-1,4-bonds along chains and \(\alpha\)-1,6-bonds at branch points. Statement 3 is correct: straight unbranched cellulose chains form extensive intermolecular hydrogen bonds yielding microfibrils with high tensile strength, whereas amylopectin is branched and compact, serving as an energy storage molecule without forming microfibrils.
Marking scheme
A is correct [1 mark] - all 3 statements are biologically accurate. B, C, D omit at least one correct statement.
Question 11 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
An enzyme-catalysed reaction was studied in the presence and in the absence of a substance, X.
The results demonstrated that in the presence of substance X, the maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\max}\)) remained unchanged, but the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_m\)) increased.
Which statement correctly explains the action of substance X?
A.Substance X is a non-competitive inhibitor that binds to an allosteric site and decreases enzyme affinity.
B.Substance X is a competitive inhibitor that binds to the active site, decreasing the apparent affinity of the enzyme for its substrate.
C.Substance X is a non-competitive inhibitor that prevents the enzyme from achieving its normal catalytic turnover.
D.Substance X is a competitive inhibitor that increases the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate.
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Worked solution
A competitive inhibitor binds reversibly to the active site of the enzyme, competing directly with the substrate. This increases the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_m\)), reflecting a lower apparent affinity of the enzyme for its substrate. However, at sufficiently high substrate concentrations, substrate outcompetes the inhibitor, allowing the reaction to reach the original \(V_{\max}\).
Marking scheme
B is correct [1 mark]. A describes non-competitive inhibition which decreases Vmax. C refers to non-competitive inhibition altering turnover number. D incorrectly states that affinity increases.
Question 12 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Strips of plant storage tissue with an initial water potential of \(-450\text{ kPa}\) were immersed in a sucrose solution with a water potential of \(-750\text{ kPa}\).
Which row correctly describes the direction of net water movement and the expected state of the plant cells after equilibrium is reached?
A.Net movement of water: into the cells; Final state of cells: turgid
B.Net movement of water: out of the cells; Final state of cells: plasmolysed
C.Net movement of water: out of the cells; Final state of cells: turgid
D.Net movement of water: into the cells; Final state of cells: plasmolysed
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Worked solution
Water moves by osmosis down a water potential gradient from a region of higher water potential (less negative: \(-450\text{ kPa}\)) to a region of lower water potential (more negative: \(-750\text{ kPa}\)). Therefore, net movement of water is out of the cells into the sucrose solution. Loss of water from plant cells causes the protoplast to shrink away from the cell wall, resulting in plasmolysis.
Marking scheme
B is correct [1 mark]. A and D have incorrect direction of net water movement. C predicts turgid cells despite water loss.
Question 13 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
What is the essential function of telomeres during repeated cycles of mitotic cell division?
A.To provide attachment points for spindle microtubules during metaphase
B.To synthesise ribosomal RNA needed to reform the nucleolus during telophase
C.To prevent the loss of vital coding genes near the ends of chromosomes during replication
D.To join sister chromatids together along their length until the onset of anaphase
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Worked solution
Telomeres are non-coding repetitive DNA sequences capping the ends of eukaryotic linear chromosomes. During DNA replication, DNA polymerase cannot fully replicate the 3’ terminal end of lagging strands. Telomeres prevent the loss of essential vital coding sequences (genes) during successive cycles of replication.
Marking scheme
C is correct [1 mark]. A is the role of centromeres. B is the role of the nucleolus. D is the role of cohesin/centromere.
Question 14 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A double-stranded linear DNA molecule contains 1200 base pairs. Chemical analysis demonstrates that 22% of the total nitrogenous bases are adenine.
How many cytosine bases and how many phosphodiester bonds are present in this DNA molecule?
A.Number of cytosine bases: 336; Number of phosphodiester bonds: 2398
B.Number of cytosine bases: 672; Number of phosphodiester bonds: 2398
C.Number of cytosine bases: 672; Number of phosphodiester bonds: 2400
D.Number of cytosine bases: 336; Number of phosphodiester bonds: 1199
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Worked solution
1. Total number of nucleotides/bases = \(1200 \times 2 = 2400\). 2. Adenine = 22%, so Thymine = 22%. Total A + T = 44%. 3. Guanine + Cytosine = \(100\% - 44\% = 56\%\). Therefore, Cytosine = \(28\%\). 4. Number of Cytosine bases = \(0.28 \times 2400 = 672\). 5. Each strand contains 1200 nucleotides. A single linear strand of \(n\) nucleotides has \(n - 1\) phosphodiester bonds = \(1200 - 1 = 1199\) bonds. 6. For two linear strands, total phosphodiester bonds = \(2 \times 1199 = 2398\).
Marking scheme
B is correct [1 mark]. A calculates base percentage incorrectly based on single-strand count. C fails to subtract the ends of linear polynucleotide chains (gives 2400 bonds). D gives values for only one strand.
Question 15 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which row correctly describes the pathways of water transport across the root cortex and through the endodermis into the stele?
A.Cortex pathway: apoplast and symplast; Pathway across endodermis: symplast only; Explanation: suberin in the Casparian strip is impermeable to water
B.Cortex pathway: symplast only; Pathway across endodermis: apoplast only; Explanation: lignin in radial walls blocks symplastic flow
C.Cortex pathway: apoplast only; Pathway across endodermis: symplast only; Explanation: suberin actively transports mineral ions and water
D.Cortex pathway: symplast and apoplast; Pathway across endodermis: apoplast only; Explanation: cellulose fibres create permeable channels in the endodermis
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Worked solution
In the root cortex, water travels via both the apoplast pathway (through cell walls and intercellular spaces) and symplast pathway (through cytoplasm via plasmodesmata). At the endodermis, the Casparian strip contains waterproof suberin in the radial and transverse cell walls, completely blocking the apoplast pathway. Water is therefore forced to cross the plasma membrane into the symplast pathway.
Marking scheme
A is correct [1 mark]. B incorrectly states lignin blocks symplast. C claims suberin actively transports water. D incorrectly claims cellulose allows apoplastic passage through the Casparian strip.
Question 16 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
What causes the oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin to shift to the right during vigorous physical exercise (the Bohr effect)?
A.An increase in blood plasma pH resulting from a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration
B.A decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the capillaries of respiring muscles
C.A higher partial pressure of carbon dioxide causing increased hydrogen ion release and the formation of haemoglobinic acid
D.A decrease in temperature causing a higher affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen molecules
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Worked solution
During exercise, active respiration in muscle tissue releases high concentrations of carbon dioxide (\(\text{CO}_2\)). In red blood cells, carbonic anhydrase catalyses the hydration of \(\text{CO}_2\) to carbonic acid, which dissociates into \(\text{H}^+\) and \(\text{HCO}_3^-\). The higher concentration of \(\text{H}^+\) ions binds to oxyhaemoglobin, forming haemoglobinic acid (\(\text{HHb}\)) and causing haemoglobin to change shape and release oxygen more readily at any given partial pressure of oxygen (a rightward shift).
Marking scheme
C is correct [1 mark]. A would shift the curve to the left (higher pH / lower [H+]). B describes decreased pCO2 which shifts the curve to the left. D describes lower temperature which increases affinity and shifts curve left.
Question 17 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A student uses a light microscope fitted with an eyepiece graticule and a stage micrometer. The stage micrometer scale has divisions spaced at intervals of \( 0.01\text{ mm} \).
Using a \( \times 40 \) objective lens, \( 40 \) small divisions of the eyepiece graticule coincide precisely with \( 16 \) divisions of the stage micrometer.
The student then views a temporary mount of leaf epidermis using the same lens and measures the length of a guard cell as \( 25 \) eyepiece graticule units.
What is the actual length of the guard cell?
A.\( 25\ \mu\text{m} \)
B.\( 64\ \mu\text{m} \)
C.\( 100\ \mu\text{m} \)
D.\( 160\ \mu\text{m} \)
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Worked solution
1. Determine the length of one stage micrometer division: \( 0.01\text{ mm} = 10\ \mu\text{m} \). 2. Find the total distance of 16 stage micrometer divisions: \( 16 \times 10\ \mu\text{m} = 160\ \mu\text{m} \). 3. Calculate the value of 1 eyepiece graticule unit (epu): \( 160\ \mu\text{m} / 40\text{ epu} = 4\ \mu\text{m}\text{ per epu} \). 4. Calculate the actual length of the guard cell: \( 25\text{ epu} \times 4\ \mu\text{m/epu} = 100\ \mu\text{m} \).
Marking scheme
[1 mark] C is correct. (A = incorrect division 25/1; B = miscalculation; D = length of 40 epu).
Question 18 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which row correctly describes the structural features of amylose, amylopectin, and cellulose?
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Worked solution
Amylose is an unbranched polymer of \( \alpha \)-glucose with only \( \alpha \)-1,4-glycosidic bonds. Amylopectin is a branched polymer of \( \alpha \)-glucose containing both \( \alpha \)-1,4- and \( \alpha \)-1,6-glycosidic bonds. Cellulose is an unbranched polymer of \( \beta \)-glucose with \( \beta \)-1,4-glycosidic bonds where adjacent monomers are rotated by \( 180^{\circ} \).
Marking scheme
[1 mark] A is correct.
Question 19 · multiple_choice
1 marks
An investigation was carried out on the effect of a reversible competitive inhibitor on an enzyme-catalysed reaction.
What is the effect of adding a fixed concentration of this inhibitor on the maximum velocity (\( V_{\max} \)) and the Michaelis-Menten constant (\( K_{\text{m}} \)) of the enzyme?
A.\( V_{\max} \) is decreased and \( K_{\text{m}} \) is unchanged
B.\( V_{\max} \) is unchanged and \( K_{\text{m}} \) is increased
C.\( V_{\max} \) is unchanged and \( K_{\text{m}} \) is decreased
D.\( V_{\max} \) is decreased and \( K_{\text{m}} \) is increased
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Worked solution
A competitive inhibitor binds reversibly to the active site, competing with the substrate. At high substrate concentrations, the substrate outcompetes the inhibitor, so the maximum rate of reaction (\( V_{\max} \)) remains unchanged. However, a higher substrate concentration is required to reach half of \( V_{\max} \), which means the affinity of the enzyme for the substrate decreases and \( K_{\text{m}} \) increases.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] B is correct. (A = non-competitive inhibitor; C = incorrect effect on Km; D = both modified incorrectly).
Question 20 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which alteration to the lipid composition of a mammalian cell surface membrane would increase its fluidity at low temperatures?
A.Increasing the proportion of saturated fatty acids in the phospholipids
B.Decreasing the number of double bonds in the hydrocarbon tails
C.Increasing the length of the fatty acid hydrocarbon chains
D.Increasing the proportion of unsaturated fatty acids with carbon-carbon double bonds
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Worked solution
Membrane fluidity at low temperatures is increased by having a higher proportion of unsaturated fatty acid tails with cis-double bonds. The kinks in unsaturated hydrocarbon chains prevent close packing of phospholipid molecules, maintaining membrane fluidity.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] D is correct. (A = reduces fluidity; B = increases packing; C = longer chains increase hydrophobic interactions and decrease fluidity).
Question 21 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A linear, double-stranded molecule of DNA contains \( 1200 \) base pairs. Chemical analysis shows that \( 22\% \) of the nitrogenous bases are adenine.
How many guanine bases and how many phosphodiester bonds are present in this DNA molecule?
A.Guanine bases: 336; Phosphodiester bonds: 2398
B.Guanine bases: 672; Phosphodiester bonds: 2400
C.Guanine bases: 672; Phosphodiester bonds: 2398
D.Guanine bases: 1344; Phosphodiester bonds: 1199
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Worked solution
1. Total bases = \( 1200 \times 2 = 2400 \). 2. Adenine = \( 22\% \implies \text{Thymine} = 22\% \). Together \( \text{A} + \text{T} = 44\% \). 3. Guanine + Cytosine = \( 100\% - 44\% = 56\% \). 4. Guanine = \( 56\% / 2 = 28\% \). Number of guanine bases = \( 0.28 \times 2400 = 672 \). 5. Each linear single strand of \( 1200 \) nucleotides has \( 1200 - 1 = 1199 \) phosphodiester bonds. 6. Total phosphodiester bonds in both strands = \( 1199 \times 2 = 2398 \).
Marking scheme
[1 mark] C is correct.
Question 22 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which row correctly identifies the transport mechanisms involved in loading sucrose into a companion cell at a source and its subsequent movement into a sieve tube element?
A.Pumping of \( \text{H}^+ \) out of companion cell: Facilitated diffusion; Entry of sucrose into companion cell: Active transport; Entry of sucrose into sieve tube: Active transport
B.Pumping of \( \text{H}^+ \) out of companion cell: Active transport; Entry of sucrose into companion cell: Cotransport; Entry of sucrose into sieve tube: Diffusion via plasmodesmata
C.Pumping of \( \text{H}^+ \) out of companion cell: Active transport; Entry of sucrose into companion cell: Simple diffusion; Entry of sucrose into sieve tube: Mass flow
D.Pumping of \( \text{H}^+ \) out of companion cell: Cotransport; Entry of sucrose into companion cell: Active transport; Entry of sucrose into sieve tube: Diffusion via plasmodesmata
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Worked solution
In phloem loading at a source, ATP is used by proton pumps to actively transport \( \text{H}^+ \) ions out of companion cells into cell walls. \( \text{H}^+ \) ions then diffuse back into companion cells down their concentration gradient through cotransporter carrier proteins, bringing sucrose along against its concentration gradient (cotransport / secondary active transport). Sucrose then diffuses into adjacent sieve tube elements via plasmodesmata (symplast pathway).
Marking scheme
[1 mark] B is correct.
Question 23 · multiple_choice
1 marks
The following statements relate to the transport of carbon dioxide and oxygen in mammalian blood:
1. Carbonic anhydrase in erythrocytes catalyses the formation of carbonic acid from carbon dioxide and water. 2. Carbonic acid dissociates into hydrogen ions and hydrogencarbonate ions. 3. Hydrogen ions combine with haemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid, displacing oxygen. 4. Hydrogencarbonate ions bind directly to the haem groups of haemoglobin.
Which statements correctly explain the Bohr effect?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
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Worked solution
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct mechanisms contributing to the Bohr effect. Carbon dioxide diffuses into red blood cells where carbonic anhydrase catalyses the hydration of \( \text{CO}_2 \) to \( \text{H}_2\text{CO}_3 \), which dissociates into \( \text{H}^+ \) and \( \text{HCO}_3^- \). \( \text{H}^+ \) ions bind to haemoglobin forming haemoglobinic acid (HHb), causing an allosteric change that lowers haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen. Statement 4 is incorrect because hydrogencarbonate ions move out of the red blood cell into plasma (via the chloride shift) rather than binding to haem groups.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] A is correct (1, 2 and 3 only).
Question 24 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which row correctly identifies the two types of cells fused together during the production of monoclonal antibodies and the key characteristic of the resulting hybridoma cell?
A.Cells fused: T-helper cell and Myeloma cell; Property of hybridoma: Produces multiple distinct antibody types
B.Cells fused: Macrophage and Myeloma cell; Property of hybridoma: Carries out phagocytosis indefinitely
C.Cells fused: B-lymphocyte and T-killer cell; Property of hybridoma: Divides indefinitely and lyses infected cells
D.Cells fused: Plasma cell and Myeloma cell; Property of hybridoma: Divides indefinitely and produces a single specific antibody
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Worked solution
Monoclonal antibody production involves fusing antibody-secreting plasma cells (isolated from the spleen of an immunized mammal) with myeloma cells (cancerous plasma cells that can divide indefinitely in culture). The resulting hybridoma cells divide indefinitely by mitosis while secreting a single specific monoclonal antibody.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] D is correct. (A & B = incorrect cell types; C = myeloma cell does not secrete the target antibody).
Question 25 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A student calibrated a light microscope using a stage micrometer and an eyepiece graticule. The stage micrometer scale is divided into units of \(0.01\text{ mm}\).
Using a \(\times 40\) objective lens, 40 small divisions of the eyepiece graticule matched exactly with 16 divisions of the stage micrometer.
A transverse section of a dicotyledonous leaf was viewed using the same \(\times 40\) objective lens. A palisade mesophyll cell was measured to be 25 eyepiece graticule divisions in length.
What is the actual length of the palisade mesophyll cell?
A.\(10\ \mu\text{m}\)
B.\(40\ \mu\text{m}\)
C.\(100\ \mu\text{m}\)
D.\(160\ \mu\text{m}\)
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Worked solution
1. Determine the length of 16 stage micrometer divisions: \(16 \times 0.01\text{ mm} = 0.16\text{ mm} = 160\ \mu\text{m}\).
2. Determine the value of 1 eyepiece graticule division (epu): \(40\text{ epu} = 160\ \mu\text{m}\) \(1\text{ epu} = \frac{160}{40} = 4.0\ \mu\text{m}\).
3. Calculate the actual length of the palisade mesophyll cell: \(\text{Actual length} = 25\text{ epu} \times 4.0\ \mu\text{m} = 100\ \mu\text{m}\).
Marking scheme
C is correct (1 mark). [1 mark for selecting C: \(100\ \mu\text{m}\)] [A, B, and D are incorrect due to miscalculation of graticule division values or failure to convert mm to \(\mu\text{m}\)]
Question 26 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which row correctly describes structural features of amylopectin and cellulose?
A.Amylopectin: \(\beta\)-glucose, \(1,4\) and \(1,6\) glycosidic bonds, every alternate monomer rotated \(180^\circ\); Cellulose: \(\alpha\)-glucose, \(1,4\) glycosidic bonds only, no monomer rotation
B.Amylopectin: \(\alpha\)-glucose, \(1,4\) and \(1,6\) glycosidic bonds, no monomer rotation; Cellulose: \(\beta\)-glucose, \(1,4\) glycosidic bonds only, every alternate monomer rotated \(180^\circ\)
C.Amylopectin: \(\alpha\)-glucose, \(1,4\) glycosidic bonds only, no monomer rotation; Cellulose: \(\beta\)-glucose, \(1,4\) and \(1,6\) glycosidic bonds, every alternate monomer rotated \(180^\circ\)
D.Amylopectin: \(\beta\)-glucose, \(1,4\) glycosidic bonds only, every alternate monomer rotated \(180^\circ\); Cellulose: \(\alpha\)-glucose, \(1,4\) and \(1,6\) glycosidic bonds, no monomer rotation
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Worked solution
Amylopectin is a branched polysaccharide composed of \(\alpha\)-glucose residues linked by \(\alpha\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds along chains and \(\alpha\)-1,6-glycosidic bonds at branch points. Glucose monomers do not alternate in orientation.
Cellulose is an unbranched polymer of \(\beta\)-glucose residues linked by \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds. To form the \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bond, every alternate \(\beta\)-glucose residue is rotated \(180^\circ\) relative to its neighbour.
Marking scheme
B is correct (1 mark). Row B correctly identifies the monomers, glycosidic bond types, and the \(180^\circ\) monomer inversion present only in cellulose.
Question 27 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme-catalysed reaction.
The presence of a constant concentration of the inhibitor decreased the maximum velocity (\(V_{\max}\)) of the reaction, but did not alter the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate.
Which statement correctly identifies the type of inhibitor and the effect on the Michaelis–Menten constant (\(K_m\))?
A.Competitive inhibitor, causing \(K_m\) to increase
B.Competitive inhibitor, with \(K_m\) remaining unchanged
C.Non-competitive inhibitor, causing \(K_m\) to decrease
D.Non-competitive inhibitor, with \(K_m\) remaining unchanged
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Worked solution
A non-competitive inhibitor binds to an allosteric site on the enzyme, altering the tertiary structure of the active site so that catalytic activity decreases, which lowers \(V_{\max}\).
Because the inhibitor does not compete with the substrate for the active site, the affinity of the unaffected active sites for the substrate remains unchanged. Since \(K_m\) is an inverse measure of enzyme affinity for its substrate, \(K_m\) remains unchanged.
Marking scheme
D is correct (1 mark). [1 mark for identifying non-competitive inhibition with \(K_m\) remaining unchanged]
Question 28 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which statement explains why a cell surface membrane with a higher proportion of phospholipids containing unsaturated fatty acid tails remains fluid at lower temperatures?
A.Kinks caused by carbon–carbon double bonds prevent tight packing of the fatty acid tails.
B.Carbon–carbon double bonds increase hydrogen bonding between adjacent phosphate heads.
C.The fatty acid tails are fully saturated with hydrogen atoms, increasing intermolecular spacing.
D.Cholesterol molecules bind more strongly to double bonds, increasing lateral diffusion.
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Worked solution
Unsaturated fatty acid hydrocarbon tails contain carbon–carbon double bonds (\(\text{C}=\text{C}\)), which create kinks in the hydrocarbon chains. These kinks prevent the phospholipid molecules from packing closely together as temperature drops, reducing intermolecular hydrophobic interactions and lowering the temperature at which the membrane solidifies.
Marking scheme
A is correct (1 mark). [1 mark for identifying that kinks created by \(\text{C}=\text{C}\) double bonds prevent close packing of phospholipid tails]
Question 29 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A linear, double-stranded segment of DNA contains \(1200\) base pairs.
Chemical analysis shows that \(28\%\) of the total nitrogenous bases in this DNA segment are cytosine.
How many adenine bases and how many phosphodiester bonds are present in this double-stranded DNA segment?
A.528 adenine bases and 2398 phosphodiester bonds
B.528 adenine bases and 2400 phosphodiester bonds
C.1056 adenine bases and 2398 phosphodiester bonds
D.1056 adenine bases and 2400 phosphodiester bonds
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Worked solution
1. Total number of nucleotides/bases = \(1200 \times 2 = 2400\).
2. Percentage of cytosine (C) = \(28\%\), so number of C bases = \(0.28 \times 2400 = 672\). By complementary base pairing, number of guanine (G) bases = \(672\). Total (C + G) = \(672 + 672 = 1344\).
3. Total (A + T) = \(2400 - 1344 = 1056\). Since A = T, number of adenine (A) bases = \(\frac{1056}{2} = 528\).
4. For a linear double-stranded DNA molecule of \(1200\) base pairs, each of the two strands contains \(1200\) nucleotides. Number of phosphodiester bonds per linear single strand = \(1200 - 1 = 1199\). Total phosphodiester bonds in both strands = \(1199 \times 2 = 2398\).
Marking scheme
A is correct (1 mark). [1 mark for: Adenine = 528 and Phosphodiester bonds = 2398]
Question 30 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The statements describe stages in the loading of sucrose into phloem sieve tube elements at a source:
1. Protons move down their concentration gradient through cotransporter proteins, carrying sucrose into the companion cell. 2. Proton pumps in the companion cell membrane use ATP to pump protons out into the cell wall. 3. Sucrose diffuses through plasmodesmata into the sieve tube element. 4. Water enters the sieve tube element by osmosis, generating high hydrostatic pressure.
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Worked solution
The correct sequence for sucrose loading into the phloem is: 1. Proton pumps actively transport \(\text{H}^+\) ions out of the companion cell cytoplasm into the cell wall using ATP (Stage 2). 2. This sets up a high electrochemical gradient of \(\text{H}^+\) outside the cell. Protons then diffuse back into the companion cell through cotransporter proteins, bringing sucrose with them against its concentration gradient (Stage 1). 3. Sucrose diffuses from the companion cell into the sieve tube element via plasmodesmata (Stage 3). 4. The accumulation of sucrose lowers the water potential inside the sieve tube, drawing in water by osmosis and generating high hydrostatic pressure (Stage 4).
Therefore, the correct sequence is 2 \(\rightarrow\) 1 \(\rightarrow\) 3 \(\rightarrow\) 4.
Marking scheme
B is correct (1 mark). [1 mark for selecting the correct biological sequence: 2 -> 1 -> 3 -> 4]
Question 31 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which row correctly identifies the events taking place in and around a red blood cell passing through actively respiring muscle tissue?
A.Movement of \(\text{HCO}_3^-\): into RBC; Movement of \(\text{Cl}^-\): out of RBC; Affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen: decreases
B.Movement of \(\text{HCO}_3^-\): into RBC; Movement of \(\text{Cl}^-\): into RBC; Affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen: increases
C.Movement of \(\text{HCO}_3^-\): out of RBC; Movement of \(\text{Cl}^-\): into RBC; Affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen: decreases
D.Movement of \(\text{HCO}_3^-\): out of RBC; Movement of \(\text{Cl}^-\): out of RBC; Affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen: increases
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Worked solution
In actively respiring tissue: - Carbon dioxide reacts with water inside the RBC, catalysed by carbonic anhydrase, forming carbonic acid which dissociates into \(\text{H}^+\) and \(\text{HCO}_3^-\). - \(\text{HCO}_3^-\text{ ions}\) diffuse out of the red blood cell into the blood plasma. - Chloride ions (\(\text{Cl}^-\)) move into the red blood cell down the electrochemical gradient to maintain electrical neutrality (the chloride shift). - The \(\text{H}^+\) ions combine with oxyhaemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid (\(\text{HHb}\)), causing haemoglobin to release oxygen (affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen decreases, shifting the dissociation curve to the right / Bohr effect).
Marking scheme
C is correct (1 mark). [1 mark for: Movement of \(\text{HCO}_3^-\): out of RBC; Movement of \(\text{Cl}^-\): into RBC; Affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen: decreases]
Question 32 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes hybridoma cells in the production of monoclonal antibodies?
A.They are formed by fusing antibody-producing plasma cells with myeloma cells, allowing continuous cell division and antibody secretion.
B.They are formed by fusing T-helper cells with myeloma cells to stimulate the secretion of multiple different antibodies.
C.They are formed by fusing macrophages with tumour cells to produce memory cells that destroy pathogens.
D.They are formed by injecting monoclonal antibodies directly into myeloma cells to induce rapid mitosis.
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Worked solution
In the production of monoclonal antibodies, an animal (such as a mouse) is injected with the target antigen. Plasma cells (activated B-lymphocytes) producing the specific antibody are harvested from the spleen and fused with myeloma cells (cancerous/tumour plasma cells). The resulting hybridoma cells combine the ability to produce a specific antibody with the ability to divide indefinitely in cell culture.
Marking scheme
A is correct (1 mark). [1 mark for identifying fusion of plasma cells/B-lymphocytes with myeloma cells allowing continuous division and specific antibody production]
Question 33 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A student measures the diameter of a pollen grain using a light microscope fitted with an eyepiece graticule and a stage micrometer.
The stage micrometer scale is divided into units of \(0.10\text{ mm}\), each subdivided into ten equal small divisions.
At a magnification of \(\times 400\), \(20\) small divisions of the stage micrometer correspond exactly to \(50\) eyepiece graticule units.
The measured diameter of the pollen grain is \(15\) eyepiece graticule units.
What is the actual diameter of the pollen grain?
A.\(6.0\,\mu\text{m}\)
B.\(60\,\mu\text{m}\)
C.\(150\,\mu\text{m}\)
D.\(600\,\mu\text{m}\)
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Worked solution
Step 1: Determine the length of one small division on the stage micrometer: \(0.10\text{ mm} / 10 = 0.010\text{ mm} = 10\,\mu\text{m}\).
Step 2: Calculate the total length corresponding to \(20\) stage micrometer divisions: \(20 \times 10\,\mu\text{m} = 200\,\mu\text{m}\).
Step 3: Calculate the value of \(1\) eyepiece graticule unit (epu): \(200\,\mu\text{m} / 50\text{ epu} = 4.0\,\mu\text{m per epu}\).
Step 4: Calculate the actual diameter of the pollen grain: \(15\text{ epu} \times 4.0\,\mu\text{m} = 60\,\mu\text{m}\).
Marking scheme
B is correct [1 mark]. Calculation: 1 small division of stage micrometer = \(0.01\text{ mm} = 10\,\mu\text{m}\); \(50\text{ epu} = 20 \times 10\,\mu\text{m} = 200\,\mu\text{m}\); \(1\text{ epu} = 4.0\,\mu\text{m}\); Actual diameter = \(15 \times 4.0 = 60\,\mu\text{m}\).
Question 34 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which row correctly describes the structural features of glycogen and cellulose?
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Worked solution
Glycogen is a polymer of \(\alpha\)-glucose linked by \(\alpha\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds with \(\alpha\)-1,6-glycosidic branch points. Cellulose is an unbranched polymer of \(\beta\)-glucose containing only \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds, where alternate glucose residues are rotated through \(180^\circ\).
Marking scheme
C is correct [1 mark]. Glycogen contains \(\alpha\)-glucose with 1,4 and 1,6 links (branched). Cellulose contains \(\beta\)-glucose with 1,4 links only (unbranched straight chains).
Question 35 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
An investigation was carried out to study the effect of a competitive inhibitor on an enzyme-catalysed reaction.
Which statement describes the effect of a competitive inhibitor on the maximum velocity (\(V_{\max}\)) and the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_{\text{m}}\)) of the enzyme?
A.\(V_{\max}\) remains unchanged and \(K_{\text{m}}\) increases
B.\(V_{\max}\) decreases and \(K_{\text{m}}\) remains unchanged
C.\(V_{\max}\) decreases and \(K_{\text{m}}\) increases
D.\(V_{\max}\) remains unchanged and \(K_{\text{m}}\) decreases
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Worked solution
A competitive inhibitor binds reversibly to the active site, competing directly with the substrate. At very high substrate concentrations, the substrate outcompetes the inhibitor, so the maximum velocity (\(V_{\max}\)) remains unchanged. However, a higher substrate concentration is required to achieve half of the maximum velocity (\(0.5\,V_{\max}\)), which means the Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_{\text{m}}\)) increases.
Marking scheme
A is correct [1 mark]. Competitive inhibitor: - \(V_{\max}\) remains unchanged because excess substrate overcomes inhibition. - \(K_{\text{m}}\) increases because apparent affinity for substrate decreases.
Question 36 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes how cholesterol influences the fluid mosaic structure of mammalian cell surface membranes?
A.It forms hydrophilic channels to allow the rapid diffusion of polar molecules.
B.It increases membrane fluidity at high temperatures by increasing the kinetic energy of phospholipids.
C.It binds carbohydrate chains to form glycoproteins involved in cell recognition.
D.It prevents hydrocarbon chains of phospholipids from packing closely together at low temperatures.
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Worked solution
Cholesterol regulates membrane fluidity: at high temperatures, it restricts phospholipid movement, preventing the membrane from becoming too fluid; at low temperatures, it prevents close packing of hydrocarbon fatty acid tails, maintaining membrane fluidity and preventing crystallisation.
Marking scheme
D is correct [1 mark]. At lower temperatures, cholesterol prevents close packing of fatty acid tails, preventing the membrane from becoming too rigid.
Question 37 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The statements refer to events during the mitotic cell cycle of an animal cell.
1. Sister chromatids are pulled apart towards opposite poles by spindle microtubules. 2. Telomeres ensure that the ends of DNA molecules are not degraded during replication. 3. Centrioles replicate and the nuclear envelope breaks down into small vesicles. 4. Individual chromosomes align independently along the equatorial plate.
Which sequence of numbers represents the correct chronological order of these events?
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Worked solution
Event 2 (DNA replication / S phase of interphase) occurs first. Event 3 (prophase) occurs next, during which centrioles move and the nuclear envelope breaks down. Event 4 (metaphase) is when chromosomes align on the equator. Event 1 (anaphase) occurs when sister chromatids separate to opposite poles. The correct chronological sequence is 2 \(\rightarrow\) 3 \(\rightarrow\) 4 \(\rightarrow\) 1.
Marking scheme
B is correct [1 mark]. Order: - 2: Interphase (S phase) - 3: Prophase - 4: Metaphase - 1: Anaphase
Question 38 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A segment of a DNA template strand has the base sequence:
\(3'\text{—TAC\,GCA\,TGG\,ACT—}5'\)
Which anticodon sequences on tRNA molecules will bind successively to the mRNA codons transcribed from this DNA segment during translation?
A.AUG, CGU, ACC, UGA
B.AUG, CGT, ACC, TGA
C.UAC, GCA, UGG, ACU
D.ATG, GCA, TGG, ACT
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Worked solution
DNA template strand: \(3'\text{—TAC\,GCA\,TGG\,ACT—}5'\). mRNA strand transcribed (complementary and antiparallel): \(5'\text{—AUG\,CGU\,ACC\,UGA—}3'\). tRNA anticodons (complementary to mRNA codons): \(3'\text{—UAC—}5'\), \(3'\text{—GCA—}5'\), \(3'\text{—UGG—}5'\), \(3'\text{—ACU—}5'\), which written \(5'\rightarrow 3'\) or simply base-by-base correspond to UAC, GCA, UGG, ACU (identical to the DNA template base sequence with U replacing T).
Marking scheme
C is correct [1 mark]. DNA template: TAC GCA TGG ACT mRNA codons: AUG CGU ACC UGA tRNA anticodons: UAC GCA UGG ACU
Question 39 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Sucrose is loaded into phloem sieve tube elements at a source via companion cells.
Which events are involved in this loading process?
1. Active pumping of hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) out of companion cells into cell wall spaces. 2. Movement of sucrose into companion cells down its concentration gradient through simple diffusion. 3. Co-transport of sucrose alongside hydrogen ions into companion cells against the sucrose concentration gradient. 4. Diffusion of sucrose from companion cells into sieve tube elements through plasmodesmata.
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.2, 3 and 4 only
C.1 and 4 only
D.1, 3 and 4 only
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Worked solution
Sucrose loading involves: 1. Proton pumps actively transport \(\text{H}^+\) ions out of companion cells into the cell wall (apoplast) using ATP (Statement 1 is true). 2. \(\text{H}^+\) ions diffuse back into the companion cell down their concentration gradient via cotransporter proteins, bringing sucrose with them against its concentration gradient (Statement 3 is true; Statement 2 is false). 3. Sucrose then diffuses into the sieve tube element from the companion cell through connecting plasmodesmata (Statement 4 is true). Therefore, 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
Marking scheme
D is correct [1 mark]. Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct mechanisms in phloem loading. Statement 2 is incorrect because sucrose enters via cotransport, not simple diffusion.
Question 40 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes the Bohr shift and its physiological significance in respiring tissues?
A.A high partial pressure of carbon dioxide shifts the haemoglobin dissociation curve to the right, decreasing haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen and promoting oxygen release.
B.A low partial pressure of carbon dioxide shifts the haemoglobin dissociation curve to the right, increasing haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen and promoting oxygen uptake.
C.A high partial pressure of carbon dioxide shifts the haemoglobin dissociation curve to the left, increasing haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen and promoting oxygen release.
D.A low partial pressure of carbon dioxide shifts the haemoglobin dissociation curve to the left, decreasing haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen and promoting oxygen uptake.
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Worked solution
In actively respiring tissues, carbon dioxide concentration is high. Carbon dioxide reacts with water inside red blood cells to form carbonic acid, catalysed by carbonic anhydrase. The carbonic acid dissociates into \(\text{H}^+\) and \(\text{HCO}_3^-\). \(\text{H}^+\) ions combine with haemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid (HHb), causing haemoglobin to release oxygen more readily. This shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, increasing the unloading of oxygen to respiring tissues.
Marking scheme
A is correct [1 mark]. High \(p\text{CO}_2\) causes a shift to the right, releasing more oxygen at the same \(p\text{O}_2\).
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18 Question · 54 marks
Question 1 · Short Answer & Recall
1.5 marks
Define the term \(K_\text{m}\) (Michaelis-Menten constant) and state what a low \(K_\text{m}\) value indicates about the affinity of an enzyme for its substrate.
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Worked solution
The Michaelis-Menten constant (\(K_\text{m}\)) is defined as the substrate concentration at which the enzyme-catalysed reaction proceeds at half of its maximum rate (\(\frac{1}{2}V_\text{max}\)). The relationship between \(K_\text{m}\) and enzyme affinity is inverse: an enzyme with a low \(K_\text{m}\) requires a lower concentration of substrate to reach half-maximal velocity, demonstrating a high affinity of its active site for the substrate.
Marking scheme
1 mark for: substrate concentration at half \(V_\text{max}\) / \(0.5\,V_\text{max}\) / half maximum velocity; [1] 0.5 mark for: (low \(K_\text{m}\) means) high affinity of enzyme for substrate; [0.5]
Question 2 · Short Answer & Recall
1.5 marks
Explain how proton pumps in the cell surface membrane of companion cells facilitate the loading of sucrose into phloem sieve tube elements.
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Worked solution
Proton pumps in the companion cell membrane use ATP to actively pump \(\text{H}^+\) ions out of the cytoplasm into the cell wall apoplast. This builds up a steep electrochemical and concentration gradient of \(\text{H}^+\) ions. Protons return into the companion cell by facilitated diffusion via cotransporter (symporter) proteins, driving the cotransport of sucrose against its concentration gradient into the companion cell before it diffuses into the sieve tube element via plasmodesmata.
Marking scheme
0.5 mark for: \(\text{H}^+\) / protons actively pumped out of companion cell (into cell wall) using ATP; [0.5] 0.5 mark for: establishes a \(\text{H}^+\) concentration / electrochemical gradient; [0.5] 0.5 mark for: \(\text{H}^+\) diffuse back in through cotransporter protein bringing sucrose (into companion cell) against its concentration gradient; [0.5]
Question 3 · Short Answer & Recall
1.5 marks
State three structural differences between amylose and cellulose.
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Worked solution
Amylose is a plant storage polysaccharide consisting of \(\alpha\)-glucose residues linked by \(\alpha\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds, resulting in a compact helical conformation. Cellulose is a structural polysaccharide consisting of \(\beta\)-glucose monomers linked by \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds, requiring alternate monomers to be rotated by 180° along the chain, resulting in straight, unbranched linear chains that form extensive intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
Marking scheme
0.5 mark each for any three valid differences [max 1.5]: • amylose is composed of \(\alpha\)-glucose whereas cellulose is composed of \(\beta\)-glucose; • amylose has \(\alpha\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds whereas cellulose has \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds / in cellulose alternate glucose units are rotated by 180°; • amylose forms a helical / coiled chain whereas cellulose forms straight / linear / unbranched chains / sheets.
Question 4 · Short Answer & Recall
1.5 marks
State the sedimentation coefficient (size) of ribosomes found in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, and outline two structural differences between eukaryotic nuclear DNA and prokaryotic chromosomal DNA.
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Worked solution
Ribosomes located in the eukaryotic cytoplasm are 80S (composed of 60S and 40S subunits), unlike the 70S ribosomes of prokaryotes and organelles. Eukaryotic nuclear DNA is organised into linear chromosomes associated with basic histone proteins, whereas prokaryotic chromosomal DNA exists as a single, circular, naked (non-histone bound) DNA molecule.
Marking scheme
0.5 mark for: 80S (ribosomes); [0.5] 0.5 mark for: eukaryotic DNA is linear AND prokaryotic DNA is circular; [0.5] 0.5 mark for: eukaryotic DNA is associated with histones / proteins AND prokaryotic DNA is naked / not associated with histones; [0.5] (Accept: eukaryotic DNA has telomeres / prokaryotic DNA lacks telomeres)
Question 5 · Short Answer & Recall
1.5 marks
Outline the functions of DNA polymerase and DNA ligase during semi-conservative replication of DNA.
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Worked solution
During DNA replication, DNA polymerase synthesises new DNA strands in a 5' to 3' direction by catalysing phosphodiester bond formation between adjacent deoxyribonucleotides complementary to the template strand. Because replication on the lagging strand is discontinuous, DNA ligase is required to join adjacent Okazaki fragments by catalysing the formation of phosphodiester bonds in the sugar-phosphate backbone.
Marking scheme
1 mark for DNA polymerase: adds (free/complementary) DNA nucleotides / forms phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides (in 5' to 3' direction / to 3' end); [1] 0.5 mark for DNA ligase: joins / links Okazaki fragments (on the lagging strand) / forms phosphodiester bonds between fragments / seals nicks in sugar-phosphate backbone; [0.5]
Question 6 · Short Answer & Recall
1.5 marks
Contrast active immunity and passive immunity with respect to the source of antibodies and the production of memory cells.
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Worked solution
Active immunity results from an individual's own immune response to an antigen, where B-lymphocytes differentiate into antibody-secreting plasma cells and long-lived memory cells are formed. Passive immunity involves the direct acquisition of pre-formed antibodies from another individual or organism (e.g., across the placenta, via breast milk, or by injection of antitoxins); because host lymphocytes are not stimulated by antigens, no memory cells are produced and immunity is short-lived.
Marking scheme
0.5 mark for: active immunity involves antibodies produced by own body / plasma cells / lymphocytes, whereas passive immunity involves antibodies received from external source / another individual / donor; [0.5] 0.5 mark for: active immunity results in the production of memory cells; [0.5] 0.5 mark for: passive immunity does not produce memory cells / provides temporary / short-term protection only; [0.5]
Question 7 · Structured Description & Explanation
4 marks
Enzymes can be immobilised in calcium alginate beads for use in industrial bioreactors.
(a) Explain why the rate of reaction catalyzed by an immobilised enzyme is often lower at low substrate concentrations compared to the same concentration of free enzyme in solution. (b) Outline two advantages of using immobilised enzymes in continuous commercial processes.
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Worked solution
(a) The alginate gel matrix acts as a physical barrier to diffusion. The substrate molecules must diffuse through the pores of the alginate bead to reach the enzyme's active site, resulting in a lower concentration of substrate immediately surrounding the active sites compared to the bulk solution. This decreases the frequency of successful collisions between substrate and active site.
(b) 1. The enzyme can be easily recovered, separated from the product stream, and reused multiple times, reducing operational costs. 2. The product is not contaminated with the enzyme, eliminating the need for complex downstream purification. 3. The immobilization matrix often stabilizes the tertiary structure of the enzyme, making it more resistant to denaturation by changes in temperature or pH.
Marking scheme
(a) max 2 marks: 1. alginate matrix / gel acts as a barrier to diffusion / slows movement of substrate; 2. substrate concentration at active site is lower than in bulk solution; 3. fewer (effective / successful) collisions / fewer enzyme-substrate complexes (ESCs) formed per unit time;
(b) max 2 marks (any two from): 4. enzyme can be easily recovered / separated / reused; 5. product is not contaminated with enzyme / no downstream separation needed; 6. enzyme has increased thermal / chemical stability / less easily denatured by heat / pH change; 7. allows continuous production process / enzyme withstands higher flow rates;
Question 8 · Structured Description & Explanation
4 marks
Sucrose is loaded into companion cells and sieve tube elements in source tissues of herbaceous dicotyledonous plants.
Explain how sucrose is actively loaded into the phloem from the apoplast pathway.
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Worked solution
1. Proton pumps (\(\text{H}^+\) ATPases) in the companion cell surface membrane actively pump hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) out of the cytoplasm into the cell wall / apoplast, using energy from ATP hydrolysis. 2. This creates an electrochemical / concentration gradient of \(\text{H}^+\) across the cell surface membrane (higher \(\text{H}^+\) concentration in cell wall). 3. Hydrogen ions diffuse back into the companion cell through co-transporter / symporter membrane proteins down their concentration gradient. 4. Sucrose molecules are co-transported simultaneously against their concentration gradient alongside the hydrogen ions. 5. Sucrose then diffuses from the companion cells into the sieve tube elements through plasmodesmata via the symplast pathway.
Marking scheme
max 4 marks: 1. \(\text{H}^+\) / protons pumped out of companion cell (into cell wall / apoplast); 2. using ATP / active transport / against concentration gradient; 3. builds up a high \(\text{H}^+\) concentration / electrochemical gradient in cell wall / apoplast; 4. \(\text{H}^+\) moves back in by facilitated diffusion through a co-transporter (carrier) protein; 5. sucrose is transported (into companion cell) with \(\text{H}^+\) / against its concentration gradient; 6. sucrose diffuses into sieve tube element via plasmodesmata;
Question 9 · Structured Description & Explanation
4 marks
Collagen and haemoglobin are two important proteins found in mammals.
Contrast the structural features of a collagen molecule with those of a haemoglobin molecule.
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Worked solution
1. Collagen is a fibrous structural protein, whereas haemoglobin is a globular functional / transport protein. 2. Collagen consists of three polypeptide chains wound into a triple helix (tropocollagen), whereas haemoglobin consists of four polypeptide chains (two \(\alpha\)-globin and two \(\beta\)-globin chains) folded into a spherical quaternary conformation. 3. Collagen has a repetitive primary structure where every third amino acid is glycine, whereas haemoglobin has a non-repeating, diverse amino acid sequence. 4. Haemoglobin contains a non-protein prosthetic group (a haem group containing \(\text{Fe}^{2+}\)) in each subunit, whereas collagen does not have a prosthetic group. 5. Collagen is insoluble in water due to exposed hydrophobic R-groups, whereas haemoglobin is soluble in water with hydrophilic R-groups on the exterior.
Marking scheme
max 4 marks (must give paired comparative points for full marks): 1. collagen is fibrous / insoluble whereas haemoglobin is globular / soluble; 2. collagen has 3 polypeptide chains whereas haemoglobin has 4 (chains / 2 \(\alpha\) and 2 \(\beta\)); 3. collagen forms a (tight) triple helix / rope-like structure whereas haemoglobin is folded into a spherical / compact shape; 4. collagen has no prosthetic group whereas haemoglobin contains 4 haem groups / \(\text{Fe}^{2+}\); 5. collagen has a repeating amino acid sequence / glycine at every third position whereas haemoglobin has a variable / non-repeating sequence; 6. collagen has hydrophobic R-groups on exterior whereas haemoglobin has hydrophilic R-groups on exterior;
Describe the roles of the rough endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body, and secretory vesicles in the synthesis and secretion of extracellular glycoproteins in a eukaryotic cell.
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Worked solution
1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER): Ribosomes attached to the cytosolic surface translate mRNA and synthesize the polypeptide chain, which enters the RER lumen/cisternae where it folds into its tertiary structure and undergoes initial processing. 2. Transport vesicles bud off from the RER membrane containing the folded protein and travel to the cis face of the Golgi body. 3. Golgi body (apparatus): Modifies the protein by adding carbohydrate/oligosaccharide chains (glycosylation) to form glycoproteins, and sorts/packages them into secretory vesicles. 4. Secretory vesicles bud off from the trans face of the Golgi body, move along microtubules toward the cell surface membrane, and fuse with it to release the glycoprotein outside the cell via exocytosis.
Marking scheme
max 4 marks: 1. RER: ribosomes translate mRNA / synthesize polypeptide / folds protein (in lumen / cisternae); 2. transport vesicles transport protein from RER to (cis face of) Golgi body; 3. Golgi body: modifies protein by adding carbohydrate / oligosaccharide / glycosylation; 4. Golgi body: packages glycoprotein into secretory vesicles / sorts protein; 5. secretory vesicles fuse with cell surface membrane to release contents by exocytosis (ATP-requiring);
Describe the sequence of events that occurs during the primary immune response following the entry of a non-self antigen, leading to the production of circulating antibodies.
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Worked solution
1. A phagocyte (such as a macrophage) engulfs the pathogen by endocytosis, digests it, and displays the non-self antigen on its cell surface membrane (antigen presentation). 2. A specific T-helper lymphocyte with complementary T-cell receptors binds to the presented antigen. 3. The activated T-helper cell secretes cytokines to stimulate the activation and proliferation of specific B-lymphocytes (clonal selection). 4. Selected B-lymphocytes undergo repeated mitotic divisions (clonal expansion). 5. These B-lymphocytes differentiate into antibody-secreting plasma cells (and memory cells). 6. Plasma cells synthesize and secrete large quantities of specific monoclonal antibodies into the blood and lymph.
Marking scheme
max 4 marks: 1. macrophage / antigen-presenting cell (APC) engulfs pathogen and displays antigen on membrane; 2. T-helper cell with complementary receptor binds to antigen on APC; 3. cytokines released by T-helper cell stimulate specific B-lymphocyte / clonal selection; 4. B-lymphocyte undergoes mitosis / clonal expansion; 5. B-lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells (and memory B cells); 6. plasma cells synthesize and secrete specific antibodies (into blood / lymph);
Explain the role of carbonic anhydrase and the chloride shift in the transport of carbon dioxide by red blood cells in respiring tissues.
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Worked solution
1. Carbon dioxide produced by respiring tissues diffuses into red blood cells down its concentration gradient. 2. Carbonic anhydrase catalyses the reversible reaction between \(\text{CO}_2\) and \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\) to form carbonic acid (\(\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3\)). 3. Carbonic acid dissociates spontaneously into hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) and hydrogencarbonate ions (\(\text{HCO}_3^-\)). 4. Hydrogencarbonate ions diffuse down their concentration gradient out of the red blood cell into the blood plasma. 5. Chloride ions (\(\text{Cl}^-\)) move from the plasma into the red blood cell via an exchange protein to maintain electrochemical neutrality / balance electrical charges; this is known as the chloride shift. 6. The \(\text{H}^+\) ions bind to oxyhaemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid (HHb), releasing oxygen (Bohr effect) and buffering intracellular pH.
Marking scheme
max 4 marks: 1. \(\text{CO}_2\) reacts with \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\) catalysed by carbonic anhydrase to form carbonic acid (\(\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3\)); 2. \(\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3\) dissociates into \(\text{H}^+\) and \(\text{HCO}_3^-\); 3. \(\text{HCO}_3^-\)(hydrogencarbonate) diffuses out of the red blood cell into the plasma; 4. \(\text{Cl}^-\) (chloride ions) diffuse / move into the red blood cell; 5. (chloride shift) maintains electrical neutrality / balances negative charge; 6. \(\text{H}^+\) binds to haemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid / HHb (buffering pH / promoting oxygen release);
During semi-conservative DNA replication, the leading strand is synthesized continuously while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously.
Explain why DNA replication occurs differently on the leading and lagging strands, referring to the roles of DNA polymerase and DNA ligase.
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Worked solution
1. The two parent strands of the DNA double helix are antiparallel (one runs \(5'\) to \(3'\) and the other runs \(3'\) to \(5'\)). 2. DNA polymerase can only add free deoxyribonucleotides to the exposed \(3'\)-hydroxyl (\(-\text{OH}\)) end of an existing strand / elongates only in the \(5'\) to \(3'\) direction. 3. The leading strand is synthesized continuously in the \(5'\) to \(3'\) direction towards the advancing replication fork. 4. The lagging strand is oriented \(5'\) to \(3'\) towards the fork, so DNA polymerase must synthesize it away from the replication fork in short segments known as Okazaki fragments. 5. DNA ligase forms phosphodiester bonds between adjacent Okazaki fragments to create a continuous sugar-phosphate backbone on the lagging strand.
Marking scheme
max 4 marks: 1. DNA strands are antiparallel / run in opposite directions (\(5'\) to \(3'\) and \(3'\) to \(5'\)); 2. DNA polymerase can only synthesize / add nucleotides in the \(5'\) to \(3'\) direction / to the \(3'\) \(-\text{OH}\) end; 3. leading strand is synthesized continuously towards the replication fork / unwinding site; 4. lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously / in fragments / away from replication fork; 5. producing Okazaki fragments; 6. DNA ligase forms phosphodiester bonds / joins Okazaki fragments together (into a continuous strand);
Describe the behaviour of chromosomes during anaphase and telophase of mitosis in animal cells.
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Worked solution
1. Anaphase: - The centromere of each chromosome splits / divides. - Spindle fibres (kinetochore microtubules) shorten / contract. - Sister chromatids are pulled apart and move to opposite poles of the cell, centromere leading, becoming individual daughter chromosomes.
2. Telophase: - The separated sets of chromosomes reach the opposite poles of the cell. - Chromosomes uncoil / decondense / elongate into thin chromatin threads. - A new nuclear envelope reforms around each group of chromosomes from fragments of endomembrane system. - Nucleoli reappear inside each newly formed nucleus and spindle fibres disintegrate.
Telophase (max 2 marks): 4. chromatids / chromosomes reach opposite poles; 5. chromosomes uncoil / decondense / become diffuse / chromatin; 6. nuclear envelopes reform (around each group of chromosomes); 7. nucleoli reappear / spindle breaks down;
Question 15 · structured
4 marks
Sucrose is synthesized in photosynthetic source cells and transported into companion cells before entering phloem sieve tube elements.
(a) Explain how sucrose is moved from the cell wall apoplast into the cytoplasm of a companion cell against its concentration gradient. [2]
(b) Describe how assimilates, such as sucrose, are transported from the source sieve tube element to sink tissues by mass flow. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) Protons (\(\text{H}^+\)) that were actively pumped out of the companion cell move back into the cell down their electrochemical / concentration gradient via facilitated diffusion through a cotransporter (symporter) protein in the cell surface membrane. The movement of protons provides the energy to transport sucrose molecules simultaneously into the companion cell against their concentration gradient.
(b) The loading of sucrose into the sieve tube element at the source lowers the water potential inside the phloem sap. Water enters the sieve tube element from adjacent xylem vessels by osmosis, generating a high hydrostatic pressure. At the sink, sucrose is actively unloaded and utilised or stored, raising the water potential so water exits by osmosis, resulting in a low hydrostatic pressure. Phloem sap moves down this hydrostatic pressure gradient from source to sink by mass flow.
Marking scheme
(a) 1. \(\text{H}^+\) / protons move down their concentration / electrochemical gradient through a cotransporter / symporter (protein) (into the companion cell); [1] 2. sucrose moves (simultaneously) with \(\text{H}^+\) / protons against its concentration gradient (into the companion cell); [1] [Total: 2]
(b) 1. (entry of sucrose) lowers water potential in sieve tube so water enters by osmosis, generating high hydrostatic pressure (at source); [1] 2. (unloading of sucrose at sink) raises water potential so water leaves by osmosis / lowers hydrostatic pressure AND sap moves down hydrostatic pressure gradient (from source to sink); [1] [Total: 2]
Question 16 · structured
4 marks
(a) An enzyme-catalysed reaction was investigated in the presence and in the absence of a fixed concentration of a chemical inhibitor, compound Z. The maximum rate of reaction (\(V_{\max}\)) remained the same in the presence of compound Z, but the Michaelis–Menten constant (\(K_m\)) increased.
(i) State the type of inhibition caused by compound Z. [1]
(ii) Explain why the value of \(K_m\) increases in the presence of compound Z while \(V_{\max}\) remains unchanged. [2]
(b) State what happens to both the \(V_{\max}\) and \(K_m\) values when a non-competitive inhibitor is added to an enzyme-catalysed reaction. [1]
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Worked solution
(a)(i) Compound Z is a competitive inhibitor because \(V_{\max}\) is unchanged while \(K_m\) increases.
(a)(ii) Compound Z has a complementary shape similar to that of the substrate and binds reversibly to the enzyme's active site, competing directly with substrate molecules. Because inhibitor molecules occupy some active sites, a higher substrate concentration is needed to achieve half the maximum velocity (\(\frac{1}{2}V_{\max}\)), which increases the \(K_m\) value. At very high (saturating) substrate concentrations, substrate molecules outcompete the inhibitor, allowing all active sites to be occupied, so the original \(V_{\max}\) can still be reached.
(b) A non-competitive inhibitor binds to an allosteric site, altering the shape of the active site. This decreases the turnover rate of the enzyme, so \(V_{\max}\) decreases, while the affinity of the remaining unaffected active sites for the substrate remains the same, so \(K_m\) remains unchanged.
Marking scheme
(a)(i) competitive (inhibition); [1]
(a)(ii) 1. inhibitor / compound Z has a similar shape to substrate / binds to active site / competes with substrate (for active site); [1] 2. higher substrate concentration needed to reach half \(V_{\max}\) / outcompete inhibitor (hence \(K_m\) increases) AND at high / saturating [substrate], substrate outcompetes inhibitor so \(V_{\max}\) is reached; [1] [Total: 2]
(b) \(V_{\max}\) decreases / lowers AND \(K_m\) remains unchanged / stays the same; [1] [Total: 1]
Question 17 · structured
2.5 marks
A student investigated the rate of an enzymatic reaction using free urease and alginate-immobilised urease across different temperatures. The rate of reaction was measured by determining the mass of ammonium ions produced per minute.
Table 1.1 shows the results collected at \(30\text{ }^{\circ}\text{C}\) and \(50\text{ }^{\circ}\text{C}\).
Table 1.1
| Temperature / \(^{\circ}\text{C}\) | Rate of reaction with free urease / \(\mu\text{g min}^{-1}\) | Rate of reaction with immobilised urease / \(\mu\text{g min}^{-1}\) | Ratio of rate of free urease to immobilised urease | | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | | 30 | 18.4 | 12.0 | (ii) [A] | | 50 | 41.4 | 33.6 | (ii) [B] |
(i) Calculate the percentage increase in the rate of ammonium ion production for free urease when the temperature is increased from \(30\text{ }^{\circ}\text{C}\) to \(50\text{ }^{\circ}\text{C}\). Show your working and give your answer to three significant figures.
(ii) Complete Table 1.1 by calculating the values for [A] and [B] (the ratio of the rate of reaction of free urease to immobilised urease at each temperature). Give your answers to two decimal places.
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(ii) Ratio \(= \frac{\text{rate of free urease}}{\text{rate of immobilised urease}}\) For \(30\text{ }^{\circ}\text{C}\) ([A]): \(\frac{18.4}{12.0} = 1.5333... \approx 1.53\) For \(50\text{ }^{\circ}\text{C}\) ([B]): \(\frac{41.4}{33.6} = 1.2321... \approx 1.23\)
Marking scheme
(i) [1.5 marks total] - Correct calculation of change in rate: \(41.4 - 18.4 = 23.0\) [0.5 mark]; - Correct formula application and final answer given as \(125\) or \(125\%\) (must be 3 significant figures) [1 mark]; (Allow full marks if correct answer given with no working shown)
(ii) [1 mark total] - [A] = 1.53 [0.5 mark]; - [B] = 1.23 [0.5 mark]; (Reject if not rounded to 2 decimal places)
Question 18 · structured
2.5 marks
An investigation was conducted to determine the effect of sucrose concentration on the water potential of potato tissue. Cylinders of potato tissue of equal dimensions were weighed and immersed in sucrose solutions of various concentrations for 2 hours.
Table 2.1 shows the initial and final mass of each cylinder and the calculated percentage changes in mass.
Complete Table 2.1 by calculating the missing values for [A], [B], and [C]. Include appropriate signs (+ or -) and give percentage values to one decimal place.
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Worked solution
For [A] (Percentage change at \(0.2\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\)): \(\text{Percentage change} = \frac{\text{Change in mass}}{\text{Initial mass}} \times 100 = \frac{+0.29}{4.15} \times 100 = +6.9879...\% \approx +7.0\%\)
For [B] (Change in mass at \(0.4\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\)): \(\text{Change in mass} = \text{Final mass} - \text{Initial mass} = 4.08 - 4.25 = -0.17\text{ g}\)
For [C] (Percentage change at \(0.6\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\)): \(\text{Percentage change} = \frac{-0.41}{4.10} \times 100 = -10.000...\% \approx -10.0\%\)
Marking scheme
[2.5 marks total] - Value for [A]: \(+7.0\) or \(+6.99\) with positive sign indicated (or clearly implied as a gain) [1 mark]; - Value for [B]: \(-0.17\) with negative sign indicated [0.5 mark]; - Value for [C]: \(-10.0\) with negative sign indicated to 1 decimal place (accept \(-10\)) [1 mark]; (Deduct 0.5 mark overall if signs (+ / -) are completely omitted)
Paper 3 (Advanced Practical Skills)
Answer both questions. Carry out the practical procedures and record all observations, measurements, drawings, and calculations.
10 Question · 36 marks
Question 1 · open
4 marks
You are required to investigate the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of hydrolysis of starch by the enzyme amylase.
You are provided with a \(1.0\%\) starch suspension, an amylase solution, iodine solution, a spotting tile, and distilled water. You will dilute the starch suspension to produce four further concentrations (\(0.8\%\), \(0.6\%\), \(0.4\%\), and \(0.2\%\)), with distilled water (\(0.0\%\)) acting as the control. For each concentration, you will mix \(2\text{ cm}^3\) of the starch suspension with \(1\text{ cm}^3\) of amylase, remove samples every \(10\text{ s}\), and record the time taken in seconds (\(\text{s}\)) for the iodine test to no longer show a blue-black colour (the end-point). You will carry out two trials for each concentration and calculate the mean time taken.
Record your results in an appropriately designed table.
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Worked solution
1. Prepare a fully enclosed, ruled results table. 2. Label the first column with the independent variable: \'concentration of starch / %\'. 3. Label the dependent variable columns: \'time taken to reach end-point / s\' subdivided into \'Trial 1\', \'Trial 2\', and \'Mean\'. 4. List all concentrations in descending or ascending order (1.0, 0.8, 0.6, 0.4, 0.2, and 0.0). 5. Record raw times as whole numbers (or to a consistent degree of precision). 6. Calculate the mean time accurately for each concentration; for 0.0% starch, state \'0\' or \'no reaction / no colour change\'. 7. Ensure no units are written within the body cells of the table.
Marking scheme
[1] Ruled table with clearly drawn borders and all internal cell lines present, with the independent variable in the first column. [1] Correct column headings with units using solidus: \'concentration of starch / %\' AND \'time taken to reach end-point / s\' (or \'time / s\') with sub-headings for trials and mean. [1] All raw timing data recorded to the same degree of precision (whole seconds / no fractions of a second) and no units written inside the body of the table. [1] Correctly calculated mean times corresponding to raw data, showing that time taken increases as starch concentration increases (or time taken decreases if end-point reaction rate is measured appropriately).
Question 2 · open
4 marks
You are required to investigate the effect of sucrose concentration on the water potential of plant tissue using potato cylinders.
You are provided with five concentrations of sucrose solution: \(0.0\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\), \(0.2\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\), \(0.4\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\), \(0.6\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\), and \(0.8\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\). You will cut five potato cylinders of equal length, determine their initial mass in grams (\(\text{g}\)), immerse each cylinder in the corresponding sucrose solution for \(45\text{ minutes}\), and then blot and reweigh them to determine their final mass in grams (\(\text{g}\)).
Prepare a table and record all your raw measurements, the change in mass, and the percentage change in mass.
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Worked solution
1. Draw a ruled table with complete outer borders and grid lines. 2. First column heading: \'concentration of sucrose solution / mol dm^{-3}\'. 3. Subsequent column headings: \'initial mass / g\', \'final mass / g\', \'change in mass / g\', and \'percentage change in mass / %\'. 4. Enter concentrations: 0.0, 0.2, 0.4, 0.6, 0.8. 5. Record all raw masses to a consistent precision matching the balance (e.g., 2 decimal places). 6. Calculate change in mass = final mass - initial mass (with correct + or - signs). 7. Calculate percentage change in mass = \(\frac{\text{change in mass}}{\text{initial mass}} \times 100\) to 1 or 2 decimal places consistently. 8. Ensure no units appear in the data cells.
Marking scheme
[1] Fully ruled table with all cell lines drawn, independent variable in the first column. [1] All column headings correct with units separated by a solidus: \'concentration of sucrose solution / mol dm^{-3}\', \'initial mass / g\', \'final mass / g\', \'change in mass / g\', and \'percentage change in mass / %\'. [1] All raw mass measurements recorded to a consistent degree of precision (e.g., all to 2 decimal places) with no units in individual data cells. [1] Correctly calculated change in mass (with appropriate + or - signs or indication of gain/loss) and percentage change in mass to a consistent number of significant figures / decimal places.
Question 3 · open
4 marks
You are required to perform a semi-quantitative Benedict\'s test to determine the concentration of reducing sugar in an unknown sample, U.
You are provided with a stock \(1.0\%\) glucose solution, distilled water, and Benedict\'s solution. You will prepare a serial dilution to produce concentrations of \(1.0\%\), \(0.5\%\), \(0.25\%\), \(0.125\%\), and \(0.0625\%\) glucose, with distilled water (\(0.0\%\)) as the control. For each concentration and for sample U, you will add an equal volume of Benedict\'s solution, place the test-tubes in a boiling water bath, and record the time taken in seconds (\(\text{s}\)) for the first appearance of a colour change from blue.
Design an appropriate table to record the preparation of the dilution series and the results of your investigation.
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Worked solution
1. Draw a completely bordered, ruled table. 2. Headings for dilution preparation: \'concentration of glucose / %\', \'volume of 1.0% glucose solution / cm^3\', and \'volume of distilled water / cm^3\'. 3. Heading for dependent variable: \'time taken for first colour change / s\'. 4. Include rows for all serial dilution concentrations (1.0, 0.5, 0.25, 0.125, 0.0625), control (0.0), and unknown sample U. 5. Record dilution volumes correctly to make a constant total volume (e.g., 10 cm^3 or 5 cm^3). 6. Record timing data in whole seconds with no units in the body of the table. 7. Results show a clear trend: higher glucose concentrations change colour in a shorter time.
Marking scheme
[1] Completely ruled table with outer border and internal grid lines; independent variable in the first column. [1] All column headings correct with units: \'concentration of glucose / %\', \'volume of (1.0%) glucose (solution) / cm^{3}\', \'volume of (distilled) water / cm^{3}\', and \'time (taken for first colour change) / s\'. [1] Complete row entries showing correct proportional/serial dilution volumes for 5 concentrations, the 0.0% control, and sample U. [1] All raw times recorded to consistent precision (whole seconds) with no units in data cells, showing time decreasing as glucose concentration increases.
Question 4 · Graph Plotting / Bar Chart
4 marks
A student investigated the effect of zinc sulfate concentration (an inhibitor) on the activity of amylase. The time taken for the complete hydrolysis of starch was measured at various concentrations of zinc sulfate.
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Worked solution
To plot the graph correctly according to Cambridge practical examination conventions:
1. Axes and Labels: - Place the independent variable (concentration of zinc sulfate / $\text{mmol dm}^{-3}$) on the horizontal ($x$) axis. - Place the dependent variable (time taken for starch hydrolysis / $\text{s}$) on the vertical ($y$) axis. - Ensure both axis titles include the appropriate solidus and units exactly as given in Table 1.1.
2. Scale: - Choose a sensible linear scale for both axes (e.g., $x$-axis: $0.1\text{ mmol dm}^{-3}$ per $2\text{ cm}$; $y$-axis: $50\text{ s}$ per $2\text{ cm}$). - Ensure that the plotted points occupy more than $50\%$ of the grid in both horizontal and vertical directions. - Avoid awkward scales (such as multiples of $3$ or $7$).
3. Plotting: - Plot all 5 coordinate points accurately within $\pm 0.5\text{ mm}$ (half a small grid square): - $(0.0, 45)$ - $(0.2, 68)$ - $(0.4, 102)$ - $(0.6, 155)$ - $(0.8, 230)$ - Mark each point using a small, neat cross ($\times$) or a small dot enclosed within a circle ($\odot$).
4. Line: - Join points point-to-point using a sharp pencil and a ruler, or draw a smooth, continuous curve of best fit. - Ensure lines are thin, sharp, and uninterrupted (not feathery). - Do not extrapolate the line beyond $0.0\text{ mmol dm}^{-3}$ or $0.8\text{ mmol dm}^{-3}$.
Marking scheme
1 mark per marking point (max 4 marks):
- A (Axes): Correct labels with units on both axes: horizontal ($x$) axis labelled 'concentration of zinc sulfate / $\text{mmol dm}^{-3}$' AND vertical ($y$) axis labelled 'time taken for starch hydrolysis / $\text{s}$' [1] (A: 'time / s' only if qualified by hydrolysis / starch breakdown; R: missing units or incorrect abbreviations)
- S (Scale): Linear, evenly spaced intervals on both axes such that data covers more than half the grid along both the $x$-axis and $y$-axis [1] (R: awkward scales such as increments of 3, 7, etc.)
- P (Plotting): All 5 points plotted accurately to within $\pm 0.5$ small square using small, neat crosses ($\times$) or encircled dots [1] (R: large blobs / points larger than 1 mm diameter)
- L (Line): Sharp, clear, ruled straight lines connecting adjacent points from point to point (or a smooth curve through all points) with no extrapolation beyond the first ($0.0\text{ mmol dm}^{-3}$) and last ($0.8\text{ mmol dm}^{-3}$) data points [1] (R: thick, sketchy/feathery lines > 0.5 mm width; R: extrapolation to origin if not in data)
Question 5 · free_response
5 marks
You are provided with a prepared microscope slide, M1, which is a transverse section through a herbaceous dicotyledonous stem.
Examine slide M1 using the low-power objective lens of your microscope.
Select a sector of the stem that includes the outer epidermis, the cortex, one complete vascular bundle, and the central pith.
Make a large, labelled plan diagram of this sector to show the distribution of tissues.
Use a sharp pencil for your drawing. Do not draw any individual cells.
Identify and label the xylem on your plan diagram.
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Worked solution
To produce a high-scoring low-power tissue plan diagram: 1. Use of Space and Linework: Use a sharp HB pencil to draw clear, unbroken, single lines. Avoid any sketchy, overlapping, or feathery lines. Do not add any shading or cross-hatching. The diagram should occupy at least 50% of the allotted space. 2. Tissue Layers: Accurately represent all visible tissue boundaries without drawing individual cells. For a dicotyledonous stem sector, include the outer epidermal boundary, cortex, a discrete vascular bundle, and the border to the central pith. 3. Tissue Proportions: Ensure relative layer thicknesses reflect the specimen (e.g., cortex depth relative to the radial length of the vascular bundle and pith). 4. Vascular Bundle Detail: Clearly demarcate the distinct tissue regions within the vascular bundle (sclerenchyma cap / bundle cap, phloem, cambium band, and xylem). 5. Labelling: Draw a straight, ruled label line (without an arrowhead) ending precisely on the xylem tissue, and clearly write the label 'xylem' horizontally.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each of the following points (up to 5 marks total):
1. Drawing Quality: Sharp, clear, continuous single lines without shading or sketching, drawing occupies at least 50% of the provided space. 2. No individual cells: Correct plan diagram convention showing tissue boundaries only, with no individual cells drawn anywhere. 3. Tissue layers present: Sector correctly depicts outer epidermis, cortex layer, at least one complete discrete vascular bundle, and the edge of the pith. 4. Correct proportions: Vascular bundle occupies an appropriate radial proportion of the stem sector (vascular bundle length is at least one-third of the radius from epidermis to pith center). 5. Label: Ruled label line touching the xylem region with the label 'xylem' written unambiguously.
Question 6 · free_response
5 marks
Using slide M1, examine the xylem tissue within a vascular bundle using the high-power objective lens of your microscope.
Select a group of four touching cells from the xylem tissue, comprising two large xylem vessel elements and two adjacent smaller xylem parenchyma cells.
Make a large, labelled drawing of these four touching cells.
Use a sharp pencil for your drawing. Show all cellular detail that is visible, including cell walls.
Identify and label the lumen of one xylem vessel on your drawing.
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Worked solution
To produce an accurate high-power cellular drawing: 1. Cell Count & Quality: Draw exactly four touching cells as specified. All lines must be sharp, smooth, single, and free of shading. The drawing should occupy more than 50% of the space provided. 2. Double Lines for Cell Walls: Plant cell walls must be drawn with double lines to show wall thickness accurately, with clean corners/junctions where cells touch. 3. Differential Wall Thickness: The xylem vessel elements should be drawn with visibly thicker secondary cell walls than the adjacent xylem parenchyma cells. 4. Cell Size and Morphology: The two xylem vessel elements must be drawn significantly larger than the two parenchyma cells, with realistic angular/circular outlines. 5. Labelling: Use a ruler to draw a straight label line ending inside the clear central space (lumen) of one xylem vessel element, labelled 'lumen'.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each of the following points (up to 5 marks total):
1. Drawing Quality & Scale: Clean, sharp, continuous single lines with no shading, overall drawing occupies at least 50% of the available space. 2. Cell Selection: Exactly four touching cells drawn (two larger vessels and two smaller parenchyma cells). 3. Cell Walls: Double lines drawn for all cell walls, showing distinct cell wall thickness (not single lines). 4. Structural Proportion & Detail: Cell walls of xylem vessel elements drawn visibly thicker than those of the adjacent parenchyma cells, with realistic lumen shapes. 5. Label: One ruled, straight label line terminating inside the cavity of a xylem vessel element, correctly labelled 'lumen'.
A student investigated the rate of oxygen production by immobilized catalase beads at different hydrogen peroxide concentrations.
At a concentration of \(1.5\,\%\) hydrogen peroxide, \(2.0\text{ cm}^3\) of oxygen gas was collected in a gas syringe in \(48\text{ s}\).
(i) Calculate the rate of oxygen gas production in \(\text{cm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\). Show your working and give your answer to two significant figures.
(ii) State one source of experimental error when measuring the rate of gas release using immobilized beads and suggest a specific improvement to reduce this error.
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Worked solution
(i) $$\text{Rate} = \frac{\text{Volume of oxygen produced}}{\text{Time taken in minutes}}$$ $$\text{Time in minutes} = \frac{48}{60} = 0.80\text{ min}$$ $$\text{Rate} = \frac{2.0\text{ cm}^3}{0.80\text{ min}} = 2.5\text{ cm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}$$
(ii) Source of error: Alginate beads are made manually and may vary in diameter/surface area or enzyme content. Improvement: Dispense sodium alginate-catalase mixture from a fixed-height micro-pipette or burette to produce uniform bead sizes.
Marking scheme
(i) [1.5 marks] - Correct conversion of seconds to minutes (48 / 60 = 0.80 min) OR working shown as \((2.0 / 48) \times 60\); [0.5] - Final answer given as 2.5 with correct units \(\text{cm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\); [1.0]
(ii) [1.0 mark] - One valid error stated with matching improvement; [1.0] e.g., - Error: bead diameter / volume / mass varies [A surface area variation]; Improvement: use a graduated syringe / fine capillary tube at constant drop height [A weigh beads to select equal mass]; - Error: gas escapes when inserting stopper/bung into boiling tube; Improvement: use a partitioned tube / add substrate via syringe through a self-sealing suba-seal septum.
A student calibrated an eyepiece graticule using a stage micrometer scale.
- The stage micrometer scale is divided into \(0.1\text{ mm}\) large divisions, each subdivided into \(10\) equal small divisions. - \(20\) small divisions of the stage micrometer aligned exactly with \(40\) eyepiece graticule units (epu).
(i) Calculate the actual distance represented by \(1\text{ epu}\) in micrometres (\(\mu\text{m}\)). Show your working.
(ii) The student used this calibrated scale to measure the internal diameter of a xylem vessel element, which spanned \(13.5\text{ epu}\). Calculate the actual internal diameter of the vessel lumen in \(\mu\text{m}\).
(iii) Suggest why measuring the diameter across multiple orientations gives a more reliable mean value for the vessel lumen diameter.
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(ii) $$\text{Actual diameter} = 13.5\text{ epu} \times 5.0\,\mu\text{m/epu} = 67.5\,\mu\text{m}$$
(iii) Xylem vessels are often oval/elliptical or irregular due to lateral compression and secondary thickening, so measuring at several different angles provides an accurate representative mean diameter.
In an experiment investigating water potential, cylinders of potato tissue were immersed in different concentrations of sucrose solution for \(60\text{ minutes}\).
For a potato cylinder placed in \(0.60\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution: - Initial mass \(= 3.20\text{ g}\) - Final mass \(= 2.72\text{ g}\)
(i) Calculate the percentage change in mass of this potato cylinder. Include the appropriate sign (\(+\) or \(-\)) in your answer. Show your working.
(ii) Suggest one uncontrolled variable during the removal and weighing of the potato cylinders that could cause random error in the final mass, and describe how to standardize it.
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(ii) Variable: Excess external solution adhering to the surface of the cylinder adds mass. Standardization: Gently roll the potato cylinder a fixed number of times on a paper towel using identical light pressure before placing on the balance.
Marking scheme
(i) [1.5 marks] - Correct method: \(((2.72 - 3.20) / 3.20) \times 100\); [0.5] - Correct value of \(-15.0\,\%\) or \(-15\,\%\) with negative sign explicitly stated; [1.0] [R if sign missing or incorrect]
(ii) [1.0 mark] - Identification of excess fluid / moisture on surface of cylinders AND standardisation by blotting in a specified, repeatable way (e.g., dab twice on paper towel / roll with constant pressure); [1.0] [A evaporation of water during weighing AND standardisation by weighing in a closed weighing boat / immediately]
A student prepared a standard dilution series of maltose to estimate the concentration of an unknown reducing sugar solution, \(\mathbf{U}\).
(i) The student was provided with a stock solution \(\mathbf{S}\) of \(2.0\text{ g dm}^{-3}\) maltose. State the volumes of stock solution \(\mathbf{S}\) and distilled water required to prepare \(10.0\text{ cm}^3\) of \(0.5\text{ g dm}^{-3}\) maltose solution.
(ii) The student measured the time taken for the first appearance of a green precipitate during the Benedict's test. Explain why determining the first appearance of colour change by eye introduces systematic or random error, and suggest an instrument that would provide a more objective measurement.
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Worked solution
(i) Using \(C_1 V_1 = C_2 V_2\): $$V_1 = \frac{C_2 V_2}{C_1} = \frac{0.5\text{ g dm}^{-3} \times 10.0\text{ cm}^3}{2.0\text{ g dm}^{-3}} = 2.5\text{ cm}^3\text{ of stock }\mathbf{S}$$ $$\text{Volume of distilled water} = 10.0 - 2.5 = 7.5\text{ cm}^3$$
(ii) Explanation: Color change is gradual and perceived differently by different observers or in varying room lighting, making the exact endpoint subjective. Instrument: A colorimeter / light absorbance meter measuring absorbance or transmission at fixed intervals.
Marking scheme
(i) [1.0 mark] - \(2.5\text{ cm}^3\) of stock \(\mathbf{S}\) AND \(7.5\text{ cm}^3\) of distilled water; [1.0]
(ii) [1.5 marks] - Explanation that the colour transition is continuous / judgment of green tint is subjective / depends on ambient lighting / human reaction time; [0.5] - Instrument: colorimeter / spectrophotometer / light sensor; [1.0] [R pH meter / thermometer]
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