An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Nov 2023 (V1) Cambridge International A Level Geography (0460) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.
Paper 1 - Geographical Themes
Answer three questions in total, one from each section (Theme 1: Population and settlement, Theme 2: The natural environment, Theme 3: Economic development).
18 Question · 66 marks
Question 1 · short-response
3 marks
Explain three push factors that lead to high rates of rural-to-urban migration in Less Economically Developed Countries (LEDCs).
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Worked solution
Rural areas in LEDCs often experience rapid population growth and environmental challenges, which put pressure on resources. This results in key push factors: agricultural mechanisation or land fragmentation reducing employment options; frequent natural disasters or soil degradation causing crop failure; and underinvestment in essential services like clinics, schools, and clean water supplies.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each valid, distinct push factor explained (up to 3 marks): - Lack of job opportunities / low wages / agricultural mechanisation (1 mark) - Extreme weather / drought / crop failure / famine (1 mark) - Poor access to healthcare / education / clean water / electricity (1 mark) - Rural poverty / lack of investment (1 mark) Note: Do not credit pull factors (e.g., 'better jobs in the city') unless they are framed as a lack of that feature in the rural area (e.g., 'no jobs in rural areas').
Question 2 · short-response
3 marks
Explain three reasons why birth rates remain high in many Less Economically Developed Countries (LEDCs).
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Worked solution
Birth rates in LEDCs remain high due to a combination of economic, social, and cultural factors. Economically, families rely on children for agricultural labour and elder care. Socially, high rates of infant mortality lead to a compensatory high birth rate, while cultural traditions and religious beliefs may discourage the use of contraception or encourage large family sizes.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each valid reason explained (up to 3 marks): - High infant mortality rates / replacement of deceased children (1 mark) - Children needed as labor on farms / to generate family income (1 mark) - Lack of pensions / children needed to care for parents in old age (1 mark) - Lack of family planning / limited availability or high cost of contraception (1 mark) - Traditional/religious views opposing birth control / cultural prestige of large families (1 mark) - Early marriage / young maternal age (1 mark)
Question 3 · short-response
3 marks
Describe three characteristic features of the Zone of Transition (inner city) in a traditional MEDC city.
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Worked solution
The Zone of Transition is located just outside the Central Business District (CBD). Historically, it housed factory workers near their workplaces. Today, it is characterized by physical decay (run-down buildings and brownfield sites), high-density terraced or tenement housing, and cheaper rents which often attract student, low-income, and immigrant populations. Increasingly, some parts are undergoing redevelopment or gentrification.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each distinct feature described (up to 3 marks): - Terraced housing / high-density grid-iron street patterns / lack of gardens (1 mark) - Industrial buildings mixed with residential areas / old factories (1 mark) - Dereliction / abandoned warehouses / brownfield sites (1 mark) - High proportion of low-income earners / high ethnic minority populations / student areas due to cheap rents (1 mark) - Evidence of urban regeneration / gentrification / conversion of warehouses to apartments (1 mark) Reject: General features of CBD only (e.g., department stores, skyscrapers).
Question 4 · short-response
3 marks
Describe the three processes of river transport: traction, saltation, and suspension.
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Worked solution
A river transports sediment downstream using different processes depending on the particle size and the velocity of the water. Large load items are rolled (traction), medium-sized pebbles bounce along the bottom (saltation), and fine particles are suspended in the current (suspension). Soluble minerals are also transported dissolved in the water (solution), though this is not one of the three specified.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each accurate process description (up to 3 marks): - Traction: Large rocks/boulders rolled/dragged along the river bed/bottom (1 mark) - Saltation: Pebbles/gravel/sand bounced/hopped/leaped along the bed (1 mark) - Suspension: Fine particles/silt/clay suspended/carried in the water/flow (1 mark) Note: No credit for just naming the terms as they are provided in the question. Descriptions must accurately match the scale of sediment size and the physical movement described.
Question 5 · short-response
3 marks
Explain how volcanic eruptions are formed at convergent (destructive) plate boundaries.
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Worked solution
Convergent boundaries involve plates moving towards each other. The oceanic plate subducts because it is denser. It carries water and sediment down with it, lowering the melting point of the surrounding mantle. The plate melts due to friction and high internal temperatures. The resulting magma, being hot and less dense than surrounding rock, rises upward through weaknesses in the continental crust, leading to explosive volcanic eruptions.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each progressive stage in the process explained (up to 3 marks): - Subduction of the denser oceanic plate beneath the continental plate (1 mark) - Melting of the subducting plate due to heat/friction/crustal water release to form magma (1 mark) - Magma rising through cracks/weaknesses/fissures in the crust (1 mark) - Eruption of magma at the surface as lava/volcano (1 mark)
Question 6 · short-response
3 marks
Explain how the process of longshore drift moves sediment along a coastline.
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Worked solution
Longshore drift is the movement of beach material along a coast. The prevailing wind directs the incoming waves (swash) at an oblique angle to the shoreline, carrying sand and pebbles up the beach in that direction. Under the pull of gravity, the returning water (backwash) drags sediment straight down the steepest slope of the beach at a right angle. Repeated over time, this creates a zig-zag movement of material along the coast.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each key component of the process (up to 3 marks): - Swash carrying sediment up the beach at an angle/obliquely (due to prevailing wind) (1 mark) - Backwash carrying sediment straight back down the beach at a right angle/\(90^\circ\) (due to gravity) (1 mark) - Identification of the resulting zig-zag path/movement along the shoreline (1 mark)
Question 7 · short-response
3 marks
Explain three negative environmental impacts that can result from rapid tourism development in coastal areas.
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Worked solution
Rapid coastal tourism development places massive pressure on local ecosystems. Hotel construction directly destroys stabilizing habitats like coastal dunes and mangroves. Increased human presence leads to higher levels of wastewater and solid waste, which often pollutes the sea and causes eutrophication or coral bleaching. Noise and light pollution disrupt critical wildlife behaviors, such as turtle nesting or seabird roosting.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each distinct, explained environmental impact (up to 3 marks): - Destruction of ecosystems/habitats (e.g., clearance of mangroves/dunes for hotels) (1 mark) - Water pollution from sewage discharge / tourist littering affecting marine life (1 mark) - Light/noise pollution disrupting wildlife (e.g., nesting turtles, shorebirds) (1 mark) - Depletion of local water resources/aquifers to supply tourist resorts (1 mark) - Anchors/recreational activities (e.g., diving, boating) physically damaging coral reefs (1 mark) Reject: Economic impacts (e.g., loss of jobs) or social impacts (e.g., overcrowding) unless tied directly to an environmental consequence.
Question 8 · short-response
3 marks
Explain three advantages of using wind power as a source of energy.
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Worked solution
Wind power is an increasingly popular clean energy resource. Its key benefits include its infinite renewability (unlike finite fossil fuels), its lack of operational greenhouse gas emissions (which helps reduce the carbon footprint), and the low ongoing maintenance costs. Additionally, the land surrounding onshore wind turbines can still be utilized for agriculture or grazing.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each valid advantage explained (up to 3 marks): - Renewable / infinite resource / will not run out (1 mark) - Zero greenhouse gas emissions / does not release carbon dioxide / reduces global warming (1 mark) - No air/water pollution produced during operation (1 mark) - Low running/operational/maintenance costs once built (1 mark) - Dual land use is possible (e.g., farming or livestock grazing around turbines) (1 mark) Reject: 'It is cheap' without qualifying that it is cheap to run/maintain after initial construction.
Question 9 · structured
3 marks
Explain three pull factors that attract international migrants to high-income countries (HICs).
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Worked solution
Pull factors are positive conditions that attract people to a new destination. In high-income countries (HICs), these typically include economic benefits like higher wages and more employment choices, alongside social advantages such as access to high-quality healthcare systems and superior educational institutions.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each valid pull factor explained up to a maximum of 3 marks: * Higher wages / better-paid jobs (1 mark) * Better healthcare systems / modern hospitals (1 mark) * Better educational opportunities / reputable schools and universities (1 mark) * Safer living conditions / lower crime rates (1 mark) * Political stability / freedom (1 mark) Note: Do not accept 'better life' or 'jobs' without qualification (e.g., 'more jobs' or 'better-paid jobs').
Question 10 · structured
3 marks
State three characteristics of a dispersed settlement pattern.
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Worked solution
A dispersed settlement pattern is characterized by dwellings that are isolated or scattered across a wide geographical area. This is common in rural agricultural areas where large farms (e.g., ranches) require extensive land, and in rugged terrains where flat, buildable land is scarce.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each valid characteristic identified, up to a maximum of 3 marks: * Buildings are scattered / isolated / spread far apart (1 mark) * Low building / population density (1 mark) * Surrounded by large fields / farmland / open countryside (1 mark) * Typical of upland / rugged terrain or agricultural areas (1 mark) * Lack of a clear focal point or nucleus (1 mark)
Question 11 · structured
3 marks
Explain how hydraulic action and attrition contribute to the erosion of a river channel.
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Worked solution
Erosion in a river channel involves several physical processes. Hydraulic action is the physical force of the flowing water, which forces air into cracks along the river bed and banks. This air is compressed, expanding the cracks and causing fragments to break off. Attrition does not erode the channel bed directly, but rather the load itself; as rocks collide with each other during transport, they wear each other down into smaller, smoother, and rounder stones.
Marking scheme
Award up to 3 marks. Max 2 marks for hydraulic action: * Water is forced into cracks in the banks/bed (1 mark) * Air becomes trapped and compressed inside the cracks (1 mark) * Compression and release of pressure breaks the rock apart over time (1 mark)
Max 2 marks for attrition: * Rocks and stones carried by the river collide with one another (1 mark) * Rocks break up into smaller pieces / become rounder and smoother (1 mark)
Note: Combined maximum of 3 marks total.
Question 12 · structured
3 marks
Explain why volcanic eruptions can present significant hazards to human populations living near them, referring to three distinct hazards.
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Worked solution
Volcanic eruptions pose multiple hazards to local populations. Pyroclastic flows are superheated currents of gas and ash that travel down the slopes rapidly, destroying infrastructure and causing immediate fatalities. Lahars (volcanic mudflows) occur when ash mixes with water (such as melted snow or heavy rain), inundating valleys and burying settlements. Ash falls can cause wide-scale disruption, reducing visibility, collapsing roofs under its weight, and causing severe respiratory issues for humans.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each distinct hazard described up to a maximum of 3 marks: * Pyroclastic flows: superheated gas and ash moving rapidly down slopes, causing destruction and death (1 mark) * Lahars: fast-moving mudflows of volcanic ash and water that bury settlements/valleys (1 mark) * Ash fall: blocks sunlight, collapses roofs, disrupts air travel, and causes respiratory issues (1 mark) * Lava flows: slow-moving streams of molten rock that destroy farmland, infrastructure, and property (1 mark) * Toxic gases: emissions of sulfur dioxide/carbon dioxide that can cause suffocation/acid rain (1 mark)
Question 13 · structured
3 marks
Describe three steps required to measure the daily precipitation using a standard rain gauge.
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Worked solution
To measure precipitation accurately, a rain gauge must be placed in an open area so that surrounding objects like trees or buildings do not block rainfall or cause drips. Each day at the same time, the observer pours the collected water from the outer container into a graduated measuring cylinder (if not already inside one). The reading must be taken at eye level from the bottom of the meniscus to ensure accuracy, recorded in millimetres (mm), and then the water is discarded so the gauge is empty for the next 24-hour cycle.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each valid step up to a maximum of 3 marks: * Placement: must be in an open space, away from buildings/trees/obstructions to prevent sheltering or splashing (1 mark) * Reading: Pour water into a graduated measuring cylinder and read at eye level at the bottom of the meniscus (1 mark) * Timing & Recording: Read at the same time every 24 hours / daily, record in millimetres (mm), and empty the cylinder for the next day (1 mark)
Question 14 · structured
3 marks
Explain three negative environmental impacts that can result from rapid and unplanned tourism development in coastal areas.
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Worked solution
Rapid and unplanned coastal tourism development often degrades the local environment. Physical construction of hotels can lead to the clearance of crucial habitats such as mangrove swamps and sand dunes. Increased tourist activity leads to sewage and plastic waste pollution in coastal waters. Leisure activities, such as boating and diving, can physically damage delicate marine ecosystems like coral reefs.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each explained negative environmental impact, up to a maximum of 3 marks: * Habitat destruction: clearing of mangroves/dunes to build hotels/resorts (1 mark) * Marine pollution: dumping of untreated sewage/litter/plastics into coastal waters (1 mark) * Damage to ecosystems: destruction of coral reefs by tourist feet/boat anchors/divers (1 mark) * Water scarcity: depletion of local freshwater aquifers to supply hotels/swimming pools, causing salinisation (1 mark) * Air/noise pollution: from transport (planes/boats/cars) disturbing local wildlife (1 mark)
Question 15 · structured
3 marks
Explain three advantages of using geothermal energy as a source of power.
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Worked solution
Geothermal energy harnesses heat from beneath the Earth's crust. It is a highly advantageous energy source because it is renewable, meaning it won't run out. It produces minimal greenhouse gas emissions, making it an environmentally friendly alternative to fossil fuels. Furthermore, unlike solar or wind energy which are intermittent, geothermal energy is reliable and can operate 24/7, providing a stable baseload of electricity.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each explained advantage, up to a maximum of 3 marks: * Renewable: will not run out/is sustainable (1 mark) * Low greenhouse gas emissions / clean energy source (1 mark) * Reliable/consistent: can generate power 24 hours a day / is not dependent on weather conditions (unlike solar/wind) (1 mark) * Small land footprint: geothermal power plants require relatively small surface areas compared to wind or solar farms (1 mark) * Low operating/maintenance costs once the plant is built (1 mark)
Question 16 · Extended writing (Case study)
7 marks
For a named international migration route you have studied, explain the pull factors that attracted migrants to the destination country.
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Worked solution
Example case study: Migration from Poland to the United Kingdom after the 2004 EU enlargement. Pull factors: 1. Economic opportunities: The UK was one of only three existing EU countries that did not place temporary restrictions on the movement of workers from the new A8 accession countries. This made legal entry and immediate employment simple and appealing. 2. Wage differentials: In 2004, the average wage in the UK was significantly higher than in Poland (often up to four times higher when comparing minimum wages), allowing Polish workers to earn enough to send substantial remittances back to their families. 3. Employment vacancies: The UK was experiencing severe labor shortages in sectors such as agriculture (especially in East Anglia), food processing, construction, and hospitality, which provided abundant, readily accessible jobs for migrants. 4. Language and networks: English is widely taught as a second language in Poland, reducing the language barrier compared to other European destinations. Furthermore, once pioneer migrants established themselves in cities like London and Peterborough, they formed social networks that acted as a pull factor for friends and family by assisting with housing and employment search.
Marking scheme
Level 1 (1-3 marks): Simple statements identifying pull factors without detailed explanation or place-specific details. (e.g., Migrants moved because there were more jobs. The wages were higher. People could speak English there.) Level 2 (4-6 marks): Developed statements explaining the pull factors with links to the chosen migration. (e.g., Polish migrants were pulled to the UK because of massive wage differentials, where they could earn up to four times more than in Poland for the same work. Furthermore, the UK did not impose transitional work restrictions in 2004, unlike Germany, making it easy to find legal employment.) Level 3 (7 marks): Fully developed explanation with precise, place-specific details (e.g., naming specific UK cities like Peterborough or Boston, referencing the 2004 A8 EU accession, or citing specific sectors like agriculture in East Anglia).
Question 17 · Extended writing (Case study)
7 marks
For a named volcanic eruption or earthquake you have studied, explain the causes of the event and its primary impacts on people.
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Worked solution
Example case study: Haiti Earthquake, 2010. Tectonic Causes: The earthquake occurred along a conservative (strike-slip) plate boundary between the Caribbean Plate and the North American Plate. Friction built up along the Enriquillo-Plantain Garden fault system as the plates tried to slide past each other. The sudden release of this built-up energy on January 12, 2010, resulted in a shallow magnitude 7.0 earthquake with an epicenter just 25 km west of the capital city, Port-au-Prince. Primary Impacts on People: 1. Loss of life and injury: Over 230,000 people were killed, and an estimated 300,000 were injured, largely due to collapsing infrastructure. 2. Severe housing destruction: Approximately 250,000 residential buildings collapsed or were severely damaged, leaving more than 1.5 million people instantly homeless. This high level of damage occurred because of weak building regulations and the use of poor-quality concrete. 3. Collapse of vital services: Key government buildings, including the Presidential Palace and the Parliament, collapsed, severely disrupting the local emergency response. Hospitals and medical clinics in Port-au-Prince were also destroyed, leaving injured people without immediate medical care.
Marking scheme
Level 1 (1-3 marks): Simple statements describing causes or impacts. (e.g., The plates moved past each other. Many houses fell down. Lots of people died.) Level 2 (4-6 marks): Developed statements explaining the tectonic mechanism and/or detailed primary impacts. (e.g., The earthquake was caused by pressure releasing along the Enriquillo-Plantain Garden fault boundary. The primary impact was that over 200,000 people died because buildings collapsed due to poor concrete construction.) Level 3 (7 marks): Fully developed explanation of both causes and primary impacts with accurate place-specific facts and statistics (e.g., magnitude 7.0, specific casualty figures, naming Port-au-Prince, and referencing the Caribbean and North American plates).
Question 18 · Extended writing (Case study)
7 marks
For a named area where tourism is important, explain how tourism has caused environmental damage.
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Worked solution
Example case study: Maya Bay on Ko Phi Phi Leh, Thailand. Environmental Damage: 1. Coral reef destruction: Up to 5,000 tourists arrived daily on hundreds of speedboats. The anchors of these boats were dropped directly onto the fragile coral reefs, physically shattering the coral structures. Additionally, the boat engines leaked fuel and oil, poisoning marine life and causing widespread coral bleaching. 2. Water pollution and littering: The massive influx of tourists generated tons of plastic waste and trash, much of which washed into the sea, choking marine animals. Lack of proper sewage infrastructure on tourist boats and nearby facilities led to untreated waste being discharged into the bay, degrading water quality and accelerating algae blooms. 3. Destruction of native coastal vegetation: Beachfront ecosystems were cleared to facilitate tourist pathways and small stalls, which accelerated beach erosion. The constant foot traffic of thousands of tourists on the sand packed it tightly, preventing natural beach vegetation from growing back and disturbing nesting sites for sea turtles.
Marking scheme
Level 1 (1-3 marks): Simple statements identifying damage. (e.g., Tourists drop plastic litter. Boats pollute the water. Corals are broken by visitors.) Level 2 (4-6 marks): Developed statements explaining the processes of environmental damage. (e.g., Speedboats carrying tourists to the bay dropped anchors directly onto the coral reefs, smashing the living coral. Furthermore, the massive volume of plastic bottles left by tourists entered the marine food chain.) Level 3 (7 marks): Fully developed explanation showing clear cause-and-effect with precise place-specific details (e.g., referencing Maya Bay, Ko Phi Phi Leh, mentioning specific impacts like the displacement of blacktip reef sharks, or the 2018 closure by the Thai authorities to allow recovery).
Paper 2 - Geographical Skills
Answer all questions. Must have calculator, ruler, protractor, and 1:25000 topographic map extract.
6 Question · 60 marks
Question 1 · Topographical map analysis
20 marks
Study the Map Extract of Strathglen (Scale 1:25 000, contour interval 10 metres). Use this map extract to answer the following questions: (a) Identify the feature found at 6-figure grid reference 412783. [1 mark] (b) State the 6-figure grid reference for the trig point on Beacon Hill. [2 marks] (c) Measure the straight-line distance, in metres, between the road bridge at 402771 and the post office at 431792. [2 marks] (d) What is the compass direction and grid bearing from the church at 415760 to the school at 435780? [2 marks] (e) Describe the physical features of the River Glen and its valley between grid lines 40 to 45 easting and 76 to 78 northing. [5 marks] (f) Describe the distribution of the forest and woodland shown on the map extract. [4 marks] (g) Suggest reasons for the site and situation of the settlement of Glen Village around grid square 4177. [4 marks]
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Worked solution
(a) At grid reference 412783, the map symbol indicates a church with a spire. (b) Locating the trig point on Beacon Hill gives the easting 428 and northing 796, combining to make the 6-figure grid reference 428796. (c) Measuring the straight line between the bridge and the post office on the map measures 14.0 cm. On a scale of 1:25 000, 1 cm represents 250 metres, which calculates to 3500 metres. (d) Drawing a line from the church to the school, the compass direction points North-East (NE) and the protractor measures a grid bearing of 45 degrees. (e) The River Glen has notable physical characteristics: it winds/meanders across a wide, flat valley floor (floodplain); has a very gentle overall gradient; is flanked by steep valley sides in its western reaches; is joined by several small tributaries; and widens downstream. (f) Woodland distribution shows clear spatial patterns: it is mainly located on steeper slopes and upland areas; forms large blocks in the north-west and south-west; is absent or very sparse on the flat valley floors; and appears as narrow linear strips along some river channels. (g) Glen Village is located here due to favorable site and situation factors: the flat/gently sloping ground makes building easy; it sits at a key bridging point across the River Glen; it is near a fresh water source; it occupies a dry point elevated above the active flood plain; and it is situated at a junction of major roads (nodal point).
Marking scheme
Total Marks: 20. (a) 1 mark for 'Church with spire' or 'Place of worship with spire'. Reject 'Church' alone if the symbol specifies a spire. (b) 2 marks for 428796. Allow tolerance of one digit in the third or sixth figure: 427796 to 429796 or 428795 to 428797. 1 mark if either the easting (428) or northing (796) is completely correct. (c) 2 marks for 3500m. Allow tolerance from 3400m to 3600m. 1 mark if measurement of 13.6 to 14.4 cm is correct but conversion to metres is incorrect. (d) 2 marks: 1 mark for North-East (NE or NNE) and 1 mark for 45 degrees (allow 43 to 47 degrees). (e) Max 5 marks: 1 mark for each valid physical feature described: winding/meandering course; wide valley floor/floodplain; gentle gradient; steep valley sides/slopes; presence of tributaries; widening channel. (f) Max 4 marks: 1 mark for each valid point describing distribution: concentrated on steep slopes/uplands; large blocks in NW/SW; linear strips along river banks; absent or sparse on flat lowlands/valley floors. (g) Max 4 marks: 1 mark for each valid geographic reason: flat land for building; bridging point; proximity to fresh water; dry point/above flood risk; nodal transport location/road junction.
Question 2 · Structured
8 marks
Study the 1:25,000 map extract of Bayview (Figure 1).
(a) Identify the 6-digit grid reference of the tourist information centre at Bayview. [1] (b) State the straight-line distance, in metres, between the campsite at 142381 and the viewpoint at 162394. Show your working. [2] (c) State the compass direction of the viewpoint from the campsite. [1] (d) Identify two physical attractions for tourists shown on the map in grid square 1538. [2] (e) Suggest two physical features of the landscape at 142381 that make it a suitable site for a campsite. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) Locate the blue tourist information symbol 'i' in grid square 1538. Measuring the tenths of the grid square gives an Easting of 152 and a Northing of 384, resulting in 152384. (b) The measured straight-line distance on the map is 9.4 cm. Using the scale 1:25,000 (where 1 cm on the map represents 250 metres on the ground): 9.4 cm * 250 m = 2350 metres. Acceptable measurements are between 9.0 cm and 9.8 cm, giving a range of 2250m to 2450m. (c) Aligning a compass from the campsite (142381) to the viewpoint (162394) shows a diagonal direction towards the upper right, which is North-east. (d) Grid square 1538 shows natural physical features: a sandy beach along the coastline and a deciduous woodland/forest. (Do not accept human-made features like roads or buildings). (e) The widely spaced contour lines at 142381 show that the land is flat or gently sloping, which is ideal for setting up tents. The presence of a blue line indicates a nearby river, which serves as a convenient source of fresh water.
Marking scheme
(a) 1 mark for correct 6-digit grid reference 152384. (Allow Eastings from 151 to 153, and Northings from 383 to 385). (b) 2 marks: - 1 mark for correct method (measuring map distance in cm and multiplying by 250, or showing 9.4 * 250). - 1 mark for correct calculated distance of 2350m (allow range 2250m to 2450m). (c) 1 mark for North-east / NE. (d) 2 marks (1 mark per attraction) for: sandy beach / coast, coniferous/deciduous woodland, river/stream. (e) 2 marks (1 mark per physical feature) for: flat/gentle land (widely spaced contour lines), proximity to fresh water (river), shelter provided by nearby woodland/hills.
Question 3 · Structured
8 marks
Study Figure 2, which shows a storm hydrograph for the River Arrow following a localized rainfall event.
(a) State the peak rainfall amount (in mm) and the hour in which it occurred. [2] (b) State the peak discharge of the river (in cumecs) and the hour in which it occurred. [2] (c) Calculate the lag time of this storm event. Show your working. [2] (d) Suggest two physical reasons why another drainage basin with steeper slopes would have a shorter lag time. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) Locate the bar chart representing rainfall. The tallest bar has a value of 15 mm and is located at Hour 3. (b) Locate the line graph representing river discharge. The peak of the curve reaches 45 cumecs and occurs at Hour 9. (c) Lag time is the time difference between the peak of the rainfall and the peak of the river discharge: Hour 9 - Hour 3 = 6 hours. (d) On steep slopes, gravity accelerates the movement of water over the surface (overland flow), reducing the time available for infiltration. This causes rainwater to arrive at the main river channel much more rapidly, shortening the lag time.
Marking scheme
(a) 2 marks: - 1 mark for correct peak rainfall of 15 mm. - 1 mark for correct hour (Hour 3). (b) 2 marks: - 1 mark for correct peak discharge of 45 cumecs (allow 44 to 46 cumecs). - 1 mark for correct hour (Hour 9). (c) 2 marks: - 1 mark for correct method (subtracting peak rainfall hour from peak discharge hour, i.e., 9 - 3). - 1 mark for correct lag time of 6 hours. (d) 2 marks (1 mark per physical reason explained) for: - Steep slopes increase the speed of surface runoff / overland flow due to gravity. - Steeper gradients reduce infiltration/percolation, leaving more water to run off the surface. - Steeper headwaters channel tributary flows into the main river more rapidly.
Question 4 · Structured
8 marks
Study Figure 3, which shows a volcanic hazard map of Mt. Saint Pierre.
(a) Identify the hazard zone that covers the settlement of Saint-Pierre, located 8 km south of the active crater. [1] (b) The total population of the map area is 12,000. Calculate the percentage of the population living within the High-Risk Lahar Zone, which has a population of 3,600. Show your working. [2] (c) Describe the distribution of the pyroclastic flow hazard zone shown in Figure 3. [2] (d) Explain three ways the local government can reduce the impacts of a future volcanic eruption on the local population. [3]
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Worked solution
(a) By cross-referencing the settlement location of Saint-Pierre with the map key, it clearly falls inside the hatched shading designated as the High-Risk Lahar Zone. (b) To calculate the percentage: (population in zone / total population) * 100 = (3600 / 12000) * 100 = 30%. (c) The pyroclastic flow hazard zone is unevenly distributed. It is concentrated immediately around the active crater and extends further out towards the north and east, following the paths of low-lying river valleys. (d) To protect the population, local authorities can: 1. Install seismometers and tiltmeters to detect rising magma and trigger early warnings. 2. Implement land-use zoning laws to prevent residential development in the highest-risk zones. 3. Establish clear evacuation routes, post warning signs, and run community emergency drills.
Marking scheme
(a) 1 mark for High-Risk Lahar Zone (accept Lahar Zone). (b) 2 marks: - 1 mark for showing correct working: (3600 / 12000) * 100. - 1 mark for correct calculation of 30%. (c) 2 marks: - 1 mark for recognizing concentration near/around the crater. - 1 mark for identifying that it extends further north and east / follows valleys / is linear/uneven. (d) 3 marks (1 mark per valid action explained) for: - Seismic monitoring / gas analysis to provide early warning of an eruption. - Evacuation planning / routes / emergency shelters to move people safely. - Land-use zoning / building bans in hazard zones to prevent high-density settlement. - Public education / disaster preparedness drills. - Concrete diversion barriers to channel lahars away from major towns.
Question 5 · Structured
8 marks
Study Figure 4, which shows the electrical energy generation mix of Country X in 2012 and 2022.
(a) State the percentage of electricity generated from Coal in 2012. [1] (b) Calculate the increase in the percentage of electricity generated from Wind energy between 2012 (8%) and 2022 (22%). Show your working. [2] (c) Compare the total contribution of fossil fuels (Coal and Gas combined) between 2012 (Coal 50%, Gas 30%) and 2022 (Coal 25%, Gas 20%). [2] (d) State three reasons why Country X might want to decrease its reliance on fossil fuels. [3]
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Worked solution
(a) Looking at the divided bar chart for 2012, the Coal segment spans from 0% to 50%, representing exactly 50%. (b) Wind power generated 8% in 2012 and increased to 22% in 2022. The change is: 22% - 8% = 14% increase. (c) Combined fossil fuels (Coal + Gas) in 2012 was 80% (50% + 30%). In 2022, combined fossil fuels fell to 45% (25% + 20%). This shows a major decline of 35% in total fossil fuel reliance over the decade. (d) Decreasing fossil fuel reliance: 1. Minimizes CO2 emissions, helping combat global warming and climate change. 2. Reduces sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides, improving air quality and reducing acid rain. 3. Decreases the risk of resource depletion since fossil fuels are non-renewable, while increasing domestic energy security.
Marking scheme
(a) 1 mark for 50%. (b) 2 marks: - 1 mark for correct subtraction setup: 22 - 8. - 1 mark for correct answer: 14% (or 14 percentage points). (c) 2 marks: - 1 mark for comparing total combined values (80% in 2012 vs 45% in 2022, or identifying a 35% decrease). - 1 mark for comparing individual fossil fuel decreases (e.g., Coal fell by 25% and Gas fell by 10%). (d) 3 marks (1 mark per valid reason) for: - Mitigation of global warming / reduction of greenhouse gases (carbon dioxide). - Reduction of atmospheric pollution (smog, sulfur dioxide, particulates). - Fossil fuels are finite / non-renewable and will deplete. - Improving energy security / reducing reliance on volatile imported fuel markets.
Question 6 · Structured
8 marks
Study Figure 5, which shows a wet-and-dry bulb thermometer (psychrometer) located inside a Stevenson screen.
(a) Read the temperatures from the thermometers: (i) Dry-bulb temperature, (ii) Wet-bulb temperature. [2] (b) Calculate the depression of the wet bulb. [1] (c) Using the Relative Humidity Table (Figure 5b), determine the relative humidity when the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb depression is 5 degrees C. [1] (d) Explain how the design of the Stevenson screen ensures that the instruments record accurate, standard air temperature measurements. [4]
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(a) Reading the liquid level: (i) The dry-bulb thermometer shows 20 degrees C. (ii) The wet-bulb thermometer shows 15 degrees C. (b) The wet-bulb depression is the difference between the dry and wet bulb temperatures: 20 degrees C - 15 degrees C = 5 degrees C. (c) In the Relative Humidity Table, locate 20 degrees C in the dry-bulb column and move across to the column representing a depression of 5 degrees C. The intersection value is 59%. (d) The Stevenson screen ensures accurate measurements through several design features: 1. Painted white to reflect solar radiation, preventing internal heating. 2. Slatted sides (louvres) allow air to circulate freely so the instruments measure actual ambient air temperature. 3. Elevated 1.21m above the ground to avoid heat radiating from the surface. 4. Double roof provides an air space that insulates the screen from the direct heat of the overhead midday sun.
Marking scheme
(a) 2 marks: - 1 mark for Dry-bulb temperature: 20 degrees C. - 1 mark for Wet-bulb temperature: 15 degrees C. (b) 1 mark for 5 degrees C (or correct subtraction of student's values in part a). (c) 1 mark for 59% (accept consistent value if student had a different depression in part b). (d) 4 marks (1 mark per design feature linked to correct explanation) for: - Painted white: reflects direct sunlight/solar radiation, preventing internal overheating. - Louvred/slatted walls: allows free air flow, representing actual ambient air temperature. - Raised off the ground (1.21m) on legs: avoids conduction/radiation of heat from the ground surface. - Double-layered roof: acts as an insulator from overhead midday solar heat. - Placed on grass/vegetation: avoids the high heat absorption and radiation associated with concrete or asphalt.
Paper 4 - Alternative to Coursework
Answer all questions. Focuses on physical and human geography fieldwork techniques, data presentation, and hypothesis testing.
2 Question · 60 marks
Question 1 · fieldwork
30 marks
Students from a school in northern England conducted a fieldwork investigation on a local river, the River Wharfe. They selected three sites along the river: Site 1 (upper course), Site 2 (middle course), and Site 3 (lower course) to investigate how river characteristics change downstream. They tested the following two hypotheses: Hypothesis 1: River velocity increases downstream. Hypothesis 2: Bedload particles become smaller and more rounded downstream. (a) State two safety precautions the students should take when working near a river. [2] (b) (i) Describe a method the students could use to measure the river's surface velocity using a float. [4] (ii) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage of using a digital flow meter instead of a float to measure river velocity. [2] (iii) At Site 1, the students recorded the following times (in seconds) for a float to travel 10 meters: Trial 1: 25.0s, Trial 2: 24.0s, Trial 3: 15.0s (the float snagged on a rock but was released), Trial 4: 26.0s. Calculate the average time in seconds that the students should use to calculate velocity. Explain your choice. [2] (iv) Calculate the average velocity at Site 1 using the formula: \(\text{Velocity} = \frac{\text{Distance}}{\text{Time}}\). Give your answer to 2 decimal places with units. [2] (c) (i) The students decided to present their velocity data using a bar chart. State two advantages of using a bar chart for this data. [2] (ii) What conclusion can the students draw regarding Hypothesis 1: 'River velocity increases downstream'? Support your answer with data from Sites 1, 2, and 3. [3] (d) To test Hypothesis 2, the students selected 20 pebbles at random from the river bed at each site. (i) Describe a systematic sampling method the students could use to select the 20 pebbles to avoid bias. [3] (ii) Name the equipment used to measure: The length of the longest axis of a pebble, and the roundness of a pebble. [2] (iii) The students' results for pebble size (average length of longest axis) and roundness (using Powers' Scale of Roundness, where 1 = very angular and 6 = well-rounded) are: Site 1: Average length = 14.5 cm, Average roundness score = 1.8; Site 2: Average length = 8.2 cm, Average roundness score = 3.4; Site 3: Average length = 3.1 cm, Average roundness score = 5.1. Explain how these results support Hypothesis 2. [3] (iv) Explain the river processes responsible for the changes in bedload size and shape downstream. [4] (e) Suggest one way the students could improve the reliability of their bedload measurements if they repeated the investigation. [1]
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(a) 1. Wear study footwear with good grip (e.g., wading boots) to prevent slipping on wet rocks. 2. Use a wading pole to test river depth before stepping and never enter fast-flowing or deep water. (b)(i) Measure a 10m distance along the river bank using a tape measure and mark start and end points with ranging poles. One student releases a float (such as an orange) upstream of the start point, while another starts a stopwatch when it passes the start line and stops it when it passes the end line. Repeat several times to get an average. (b)(ii) Advantage: More accurate and records speed at various depths rather than just the surface. Disadvantage: High cost of equipment and potential for battery/mechanical failure in the field. (b)(iii) The average time is 25.0s. The students should exclude Trial 3 (15.0s) because it was an anomaly caused by the float snagging on a rock, skewing the actual water travel time. Calculation: (25.0 + 24.0 + 26.0) / 3 = 25.0s. (b)(iv) Velocity = 10m / 25.0s = 0.40 m/s. (c)(i) 1. Visually easy to read and compare different sites immediately. 2. Suitable for presenting discrete geographic sites side-by-side. (c)(ii) Hypothesis 1 is supported. River velocity increases consistently downstream: from 0.40 m/s at Site 1 (upper course), to 0.58 m/s at Site 2 (middle course), and 0.72 m/s at Site 3 (lower course). (d)(i) Set up a tape measure across the river bed from bank to bank. Select a pebble at regular intervals (e.g., every 50 cm) across the transect. At each point, select the pebble touched by the tip of a ruler to avoid picking only larger or more attractive pebbles. (d)(ii) Longest axis: Vernier calliper (or ruler). Roundness: Powers' Scale of Roundness comparison chart. (d)(iii) The results show that bedload becomes smaller because average length decreases downstream from 14.5 cm (Site 1) to 8.2 cm (Site 2) and to 3.1 cm (Site 3). It also becomes more rounded as roundness scores increase from 1.8 (angular) to 3.4 (sub-rounded) and 5.1 (rounded) downstream. (d)(iv) Attrition occurs when pebbles collide with each other and the river bed during transport, chipping away angular edges. Abrasion occurs when transported sediment rubs against the bed and banks, smoothing the particles. (e) Increase the sample size at each site from 20 to 50 pebbles to ensure a more representative sample.
Marking scheme
Total: 30 Marks. (a) Award up to 2 marks (1 per precaution): wear non-slip boots/wellingtons, check depth with wading pole, check weather forecast, work in groups. (b)(i) Award up to 4 marks: measure set distance with tape (1), mark start/end with poles (1), release float upstream and time with stopwatch (1), repeat and find average (1). (b)(ii) Award 1 mark for advantage (not affected by wind/measures at different depths/more precise) and 1 mark for disadvantage (expensive/needs calibration/battery dependent). (b)(iii) Award 1 mark for correct average of 25.0s and 1 mark for explanation (discard anomalous 15.0s trial due to snagging). (b)(iv) Award 1 mark for working (10/25) and 1 mark for correct answer with units: 0.40 m/s (accept 0.4 m/s). (c)(i) Award up to 2 marks (1 per advantage): visual clarity, easy comparisons, simple to construct. (c)(ii) Award 1 mark for stating the hypothesis is supported, and up to 2 marks for supporting data (0.40 m/s at Site 1, 0.58 m/s at Site 2, 0.72 m/s at Site 3). (d)(i) Award up to 3 marks: lay tape across river channel (1), select pebbles at fixed/systematic intervals (1), select the exact pebble touched by foot of ruler to avoid bias (1). (d)(ii) Award 1 mark for calliper/ruler and 1 mark for Powers' Scale chart. (d)(iii) Award 1 mark for stating both parts of Hypothesis 2 are supported; 1 mark for citing size data decrease (14.5cm to 8.2cm to 3.1cm); 1 mark for citing roundness data increase (1.8 to 3.4 to 5.1). (d)(iv) Award up to 4 marks: Attrition explained (pebbles collide, smoothing/reducing size) [2 marks]; Abrasion explained (scouring of bedload against channel) [1 mark]; Solution explained (minerals dissolving) [1 mark]. (e) Award 1 mark for suggesting larger sample size (e.g., 50 pebbles).
Question 2 · fieldwork
30 marks
A group of students investigated the impact of tourism in a popular coastal resort town, Sandyside. They wanted to see how tourism affected the town's services and the local residents' quality of life. They chose two hypotheses to test: Hypothesis 1: The proportion of tourist-related services decreases with distance from the beach. Hypothesis 2: Local residents perceive tourism to have more negative environmental impacts than positive economic benefits. (a) To test Hypothesis 1, the students mapped land use along a transect line extending 1000 meters inland from the beach. (i) Define the term 'transect line'. [1] (ii) Describe how the students would carry out a land use survey along this transect line to identify tourist-related services (e.g., souvenir shops, hotels, cafes) versus resident-related services (e.g., banks, local grocery stores, doctors' surgeries). [4] (iii) State one advantage and one disadvantage of using a transect line for this urban land use survey. [2] (b) The results of the land use survey were grouped into four 250-meter zones from the beach: Zone A (0 to 250 m): 24 tourist services, 4 resident services; Zone B (251 to 500 m): 15 tourist services, 9 resident services; Zone C (501 to 750 m): 6 tourist services, 18 resident services; Zone D (751 to 1000 m): 2 tourist services, 22 resident services. (i) Calculate the percentage of tourist-related services in Zone A and Zone D. Show your working. [3] (ii) Suggest a suitable method of presenting this land use data geographically on a map of Sandyside. [2] (iii) State the conclusion the students should reach regarding Hypothesis 1. Use data to support your answer. [3] (c) To test Hypothesis 2, the students designed a questionnaire to ask 50 residents. (i) The students decided to use a systematic sampling method to select residents to interview. Describe how they could do this. [2] (ii) Suggest two questions that the students could include in their questionnaire to assess residents' perceptions of the environmental impacts of tourism. [2] (iii) Why is it important for the students to ask residents how long they have lived in Sandyside before recording their opinions? [2] (d) The questionnaire results for residents' perceptions of tourism are: 84% agreed that tourism brings vital income to local businesses; 76% agreed that tourism creates jobs for local residents; 68% complained about traffic congestion and parking issues during the peak summer season; 55% complained about increased litter and noise levels. (i) Discuss whether these findings support or reject Hypothesis 2. Refer to the data in your explanation. [4] (ii) Suggest three strategies the local council of Sandyside could implement to manage the negative impacts of tourism identified by the residents. [3] (e) Suggest two limitations of using a questionnaire to collect data for this type of geographical investigation. [2]
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Worked solution
(a)(i) A straight line across an area along which geographical observations, measurements, or surveys are systematically conducted. (a)(ii) Walk along the designated route perpendicular to the seafront. Observe and record the use of every ground-floor building along this path. Categorize each building as tourist-related (e.g., hotels, gift shops) or resident-related (e.g., banks, local grocers) using a pre-determined classification key. Mark these categories on a blank base map of the town. (a)(iii) Advantage: Easy to follow and ensures systematic sampling of land use as distance from the beach increases. Disadvantage: It may miss key services located on parallel or adjacent streets not on the transect line. (b)(i) Zone A: Total services = 24 + 4 = 28. Percentage tourist-related = (24/28) * 100 = 85.71% (accept 85.7% or 86%). Zone D: Total services = 2 + 22 = 24. Percentage tourist-related = (2/24) * 100 = 8.33% (accept 8.3%). (b)(ii) Construct located pie charts at the center of each zone on a base map of the town, where each pie chart shows the proportion of tourist-related vs. resident-related services. (b)(iii) Hypothesis 1 is supported. The percentage of tourist-related services drops steadily with distance: Zone A (85.7%), Zone B (62.5%), Zone C (25.0%), and Zone D (8.3%). (c)(i) Stand at a fixed location along the main street and approach every 5th person passing by, asking if they are a resident, or survey every 10th household on a residential street. (c)(ii) 1. 'How would you rate the level of litter in Sandyside during peak summer season on a scale of 1 to 5?' 2. 'Do you experience increased noise pollution in your residential area during tourist season? (Yes/No)' (c)(iii) Long-term residents have experienced changes in the town over several years and seasons, whereas newer residents might not have a reliable baseline to compare. It also helps filter out tourists who might skew the results. (d)(i) The findings reject Hypothesis 2. Although there are high environmental complaints (68% traffic congestion, 55% litter/noise), the positive economic impacts are valued even more highly, with 84% recognizing vital business income and 76% recognizing job creation. Therefore, positive economic benefits outweigh negative environmental impacts in resident perceptions. (d)(ii) 1. Build park-and-ride facilities on the outskirts of Sandyside during summer. 2. Increase seasonal waste collection and litter bins around the beach and town center. 3. Introduce parking permits for local residents. (e) 1. Respondents may give biased, subjective, or untruthful answers. 2. A sample size of 50 may not represent the entire population's demographic makeup, leading to skewed results.
Marking scheme
Total: 30 Marks. (a)(i) Award 1 mark for defining transect as a straight line across a study area. (a)(ii) Award up to 4 marks: walk along a line perpendicular to beach (1), record ground floor building use (1), classify as tourist/resident using a key (1), record on base map (1). (a)(iii) Award 1 mark for advantage (systematic, clear change over distance) and 1 mark for disadvantage (misses services off-transect, possible street bias). (b)(i) Award 1 mark for Zone A correct (85.7%/86%), 1 mark for Zone D correct (8.3%), and 1 mark for correct working shown. (b)(ii) Award 1 mark for identifying map method (proportional pie chart / choropleth map / located bar chart) and 1 mark for explaining how it displays the proportions. (b)(iii) Award 1 mark for stating the hypothesis is supported. Award up to 2 marks for data support showing the downward trend (Zone A = 85.7%, Zone B = 62.5%, Zone C = 25.0%, Zone D = 8.3%). (c)(i) Award up to 2 marks: pick a regular interval (e.g. every 5th person) (1), avoid bias by not selecting based on appearance (1). (c)(ii) Award 1 mark per valid environmental questionnaire question up to 2. (c)(iii) Award 1 mark for filtering out non-residents, and 1 mark for ensuring long-term experience of local seasonal changes. (d)(i) Award 1 mark for stating the hypothesis is rejected/partially supported. Award up to 3 marks for comparative data analysis: positive economic aspects (84% and 76%) have higher agreement scores than the negative environmental aspects (68% and 55%). (d)(ii) Award up to 3 marks for management strategies: park-and-ride, resident-only parking, increased bins/cleaners, pedestrianization of key streets. (e) Award 1 mark per limitation up to 2: small sample size, subjective/biased answers, refusal to answer/unwillingness.
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