Cambridge IGCSE · Thinka-original Practice Paper

2023 Cambridge IGCSE Geography (0460) Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Nov 2023 (V2) Cambridge International A Level-Style Mock — Geography (0460)

195 marks285 mins2023

An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Nov 2023 (V2) Cambridge International A Level Geography (0460) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

Paper 12: Geographical Themes

Answer three questions in total, one from each section (Population and Settlement, The Natural Environment, Economic Development).

27 Question · 96 marks

Question 1 · Data Interpretation

2.5 marks

Study the following migration data for a European nation in 2022. Country A: 45,000 immigrants arrived and 12,500 emigrants departed. Country B: 18,000 immigrants arrived and 22,000 emigrants departed. State the net migration for Country A and explain one economic pull factor that might attract migrants from Country A to this destination.

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Worked solution

Net migration is calculated as Immigrants minus Emigrants. For Country A: 45,000 - 12,500 = +32,500 (or 32,500 net inward migration). An economic pull factor could be higher wages or more job opportunities in the destination country compared to Country A.

Marking scheme

1.5 marks for the correct calculation of net migration (+32,500 or 32,500). 1 mark for explaining a valid economic pull factor (e.g., higher average wages, lower unemployment rates, or better career prospects).

Question 2 · Short Answer

2.5 marks

In a study of a river channel in a drainage basin, the cross-sectional area was measured as 6.4 square meters and the average velocity was recorded as 0.75 meters per second. Calculate the river discharge at this point, including the correct unit, and state one process of river transportation.

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Worked solution

Discharge is calculated by multiplying cross-sectional area by average velocity: 6.4 square meters * 0.75 meters per second = 4.8 cubic meters per second (m3/s or cumecs). One process of river transportation is traction, where large stones are rolled along the river bed.

Marking scheme

1.5 marks for calculating the correct discharge with the appropriate unit (1 mark for 4.8, 0.5 marks for m3/s or cubic meters per second). 1 mark for naming any valid transportation process (traction, saltation, suspension, or solution).

Question 3 · Data Interpretation

2.5 marks

The rate of cliff retreat along a section of coastline was measured over a 5-year period. Year 1: 1.2m, Year 2: 1.8m, Year 3: 0.5m, Year 4: 2.4m, Year 5: 1.6m. Calculate the mean annual rate of cliff retreat. Additionally, name the coastal landform that is left behind as a cliff retreats inland.

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Worked solution

Mean annual rate is calculated by summing the retreat rates and dividing by the number of years: (1.2 + 1.8 + 0.5 + 2.4 + 1.6) / 5 = 7.5 / 5 = 1.5 meters per year. As a cliff retreats inland due to wave erosion, a gently sloping rocky area known as a wave-cut platform is left at its base.

Marking scheme

1.5 marks for calculating the correct mean rate of 1.5 meters per year (accept 1.5m/yr). 1 mark for identifying the wave-cut platform / shore platform.

Question 4 · Data Interpretation

2.5 marks

Carbon dioxide emissions from a coal-fired power station increased from 12.0 million tonnes in 2015 to 15.6 million tonnes in 2023. Calculate the percentage increase in carbon dioxide emissions. Explain one global environmental risk associated with increased carbon dioxide emissions.

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Worked solution

To find the percentage increase: ((15.6 - 12.0) / 12.0) * 100 = (3.6 / 12.0) * 100 = 30%. Increased carbon dioxide emissions enhance the natural greenhouse effect, trapping more heat in the atmosphere, which leads to global warming, melting ice caps, and rising sea levels.

Marking scheme

1.5 marks for the correct calculation of 30% increase. 1 mark for explaining a valid global environmental risk (e.g., enhanced greenhouse effect leading to global warming, sea level rise, or more frequent extreme weather events).

Question 5 · Data Interpretation

2.5 marks

A country has a Gross National Income (GNI) per capita of $12,500 in Year 1. By Year 2, the GNI per capita has fallen to $11,000. Calculate the percentage decrease in GNI per capita. State one limitation of using GNI per capita as a single measure of development.

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Worked solution

To find the percentage decrease: ((12500 - 11000) / 12500) * 100 = (1500 / 12500) * 100 = 12%. GNI per capita is a mean average that hides disparities in wealth distribution, and it fails to reflect non-monetary aspects of development such as access to healthcare and education.

Marking scheme

1.5 marks for the correct calculation of 12% decrease. 1 mark for stating a valid limitation of GNI per capita (e.g., hides income inequality, doesn't measure social indicators like literacy, or excludes informal economy).

Question 6 · Short Answer

2.5 marks

In an equatorial climate station, the average temperature of the warmest month is 28 degrees Celsius and the coldest is 26 degrees Celsius. Calculate the annual temperature range. State two features of the vegetation in tropical rainforests that are adaptations to the high annual rainfall.

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Worked solution

Annual temperature range is the difference between the warmest and coldest months: 28 - 26 = 2 degrees Celsius. Adaptations to high rainfall include drip-tips on leaves to shed excess water, and shallow roots with wide buttress roots to stabilize tall trees in wet soil.

Marking scheme

0.5 marks for calculating the correct annual temperature range of 2 degrees Celsius. 2 marks for stating two valid adaptations to high rainfall (1 mark per adaptation, e.g., drip-tip leaves, waxy leaves, shallow roots, buttress roots, or smooth bark).

Question 7 · Short Answer

2.5 marks

A regional study of settlement hierarchy shows that Town X has a population of 85,000 and contains 4 secondary schools. Village Y has a population of 2,500 and contains 1 primary school. Calculate the threshold population per school in Town X. Define the term 'threshold population'.

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Worked solution

Threshold population per school in Town X = 85,000 / 4 = 21,250. Threshold population refers to the minimum number of customers or people needed to make a particular service, shop, or settlement function viable and sustainable.

Marking scheme

1.5 marks for the correct calculation of 21,250 people per school. 1 mark for providing an accurate definition of threshold population.

Question 8 · Data Interpretation

2.5 marks

In 2010, a nation generated 150 Terawatt-hours (TWh) of electricity, with 12 TWh coming from renewable sources. By 2020, the total electricity generation was 180 TWh, with 45 TWh from renewable sources. Calculate the percentage point increase in the share of renewable energy from 2010 to 2020. Give one reason why many countries are trying to increase their share of renewable energy.

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Worked solution

Renewable share in 2010 = (12 / 150) * 100 = 8%. Renewable share in 2020 = (45 / 180) * 100 = 25%. Percentage point increase = 25% - 8% = 17 percentage points. Countries seek to increase renewable energy to lower greenhouse gas emissions to fight climate change, or to decrease dependence on fossil fuel imports.

Marking scheme

1.5 marks for calculating the correct percentage point increase of 17 (0.5 marks for 2010 share of 8%, 0.5 marks for 2020 share of 25%, and 0.5 marks for the difference of 17%). 1 mark for stating a valid reason for increasing renewable energy (e.g., reduce carbon emissions, tackle climate change, achieve energy independence).

Question 9 · Short Answer

2.5 marks

Study the following statement: "An industrial region released 120,000 tonnes of sulfur dioxide in 2010. By 2020, due to the installation of wet scrubbers, this decreased to 30,000 tonnes." Calculate the percentage decrease in sulfur dioxide emissions between 2010 and 2020. Show your calculations and state one environmental benefit of this reduction.

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Worked solution

Percentage decrease calculation: $\frac{120,000 - 30,000}{120,000} \times 100 = \frac{90,000}{120,000} \times 100 = 75\%$. The environmental benefit is the reduction of acid rain, which prevents harm to forest ecosystems and aquatic life in lakes.

Marking scheme

1.5 marks for the correct calculation (1 mark for correct working, 0.5 marks for the correct 75% value). 1 mark for stating a valid environmental benefit (e.g., less acid rain, less damage to vegetation/forests/soils, less acidification of aquatic environments).

Question 10 · Short Answer

2.5 marks

A coastal management team measures the rate of cliff retreat at a resort. In a 5-year period, the cliff edge retreated from 45 metres to 38 metres from a seawall. Calculate the average annual rate of cliff retreat. State one soft engineering strategy that could be used to protect this coastline.

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Worked solution

Total retreat over 5 years = $45 - 38 = 7$ metres. Average annual rate of retreat = $7 \text{ metres} / 5 \text{ years} = 1.4$ metres per year. A suitable soft engineering strategy is beach nourishment, where sand is added to the beach to absorb wave energy.

Marking scheme

1.5 marks for the calculation (1 mark for calculating 7m total retreat, 0.5 marks for dividing by 5 to get 1.4m/year). 1 mark for naming a valid soft engineering strategy (e.g., beach nourishment, dune regeneration, managed retreat; reject hard engineering like sea walls or gabions).

Question 11 · Short Answer

2.5 marks

Study the data showing the hydraulic radius of a river at two points: Point A has a cross-sectional area of $12\text{ m}^2$ and a wetted perimeter of $8\text{ m}$. Point B has a cross-sectional area of $18\text{ m}^2$ and a wetted perimeter of $10\text{ m}$. Calculate the hydraulic radius for both points and state which point represents a more efficient river channel.

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Worked solution

Hydraulic radius is calculated as $\text{Cross-sectional Area} / \text{Wetted Perimeter}$. For Point A: $12 / 8 = 1.5\text{ m}$. For Point B: $18 / 10 = 1.8\text{ m}$. A higher hydraulic radius means less friction, so Point B is more efficient.

Marking scheme

1 mark for calculating Point A's hydraulic radius (1.5m). 1 mark for calculating Point B's hydraulic radius (1.8m). 0.5 marks for correctly identifying Point B as the more efficient channel due to its larger hydraulic radius.

Question 12 · Short Answer

2.5 marks

An equatorial climate station records a total annual rainfall of 2200 mm. If the average monthly rainfall for the wettest three months is 280 mm each, calculate the percentage of the total annual rainfall that falls during these three wettest months. State one adaptation of tropical rainforest vegetation to high rainfall.

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Worked solution

Rainfall for the three wettest months = $3 \times 280 = 840$ mm. Percentage of annual total = $\frac{840}{2200} \times 100 \approx 38.18\%$. A common adaptation of tropical rainforest plants is drip-tip leaves, which allow heavy rain to run off quickly, preventing mold growth.

Marking scheme

1.5 marks for calculation (1 mark for working showing $\frac{840}{2200} \times 100$, 0.5 marks for the final answer of 38.18% or 38.2%). 1 mark for identifying a valid vegetation adaptation (e.g., drip-tips, buttress roots, shallow roots, waxy leaves).

Question 13 · Short Answer

2.5 marks

In Country X, the Human Development Index (HDI) is 0.850. In Country Y, the HDI is 0.520. Define what HDI measures and identify, with a reason, which country has a higher level of economic and social development.

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Worked solution

HDI is a composite index combining indicators of life expectancy, education, and per capita income. Country X (0.850) has a higher level of development than Country Y (0.520) because HDI values range from 0 to 1, where higher values indicate higher levels of development.

Marking scheme

1 mark for explaining that HDI is a composite index of life expectancy, education, and GNI per capita. 0.5 marks for identifying Country X. 1 mark for explaining that a higher HDI value (closer to 1) represents a higher level of development.

Question 14 · Short Answer

2.5 marks

In 2021, a city experienced an influx of 15,000 international immigrants, while 4,500 of its existing residents emigrated to other countries. Calculate the net migration for the city in 2021 and explain one economic pull factor that attracts migrants to urban areas.

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Worked solution

Net migration is calculated as $\text{Immigration} - \text{Emigration} = 15,000 - 4,500 = +10,500$. An economic pull factor is the prospect of higher wages or more stable job opportunities in urban industries compared to rural agriculture.

Marking scheme

1.5 marks for calculation (1 mark for correct subtraction, 0.5 marks for correct sign/direction showing positive gain of 10,500). 1 mark for explaining a valid economic pull factor (e.g., higher wages, more job vacancies, better working conditions).

Question 15 · Short Answer

2.5 marks

A geographer studies service provision in a region. Settlement A has a population of 50,000 and has a high-order service (a university). Settlement B has a population of 2,500 and only has low-order services (a primary school and a general store). Define the term "threshold population" and explain why a university requires a larger threshold population than a primary school.

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Worked solution

The threshold population refers to the minimum number of customers or people required for a business or service to survive and be economically viable. A university is a high-order, specialized service with a large range. It is only visited occasionally or by a specific demographic, so it needs a very large population base to ensure sufficient student enrollment, whereas a primary school is a low-order, everyday service used by almost all local young children, requiring a much smaller local population to function.

Marking scheme

1 mark for a precise definition of threshold population. 1.5 marks for explaining the difference (0.5 marks for identifying university as high-order/primary school as low-order, 1 mark for explaining that the university needs a larger market area/population to fill its specialized capacity/be viable).

Question 16 · Short Answer

2.5 marks

A country has a crude birth rate of 24 per 1000 and a crude death rate of 8 per 1000. Calculate the natural population growth rate as a percentage. State one reason why birth rates might remain high in a developing nation.

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Worked solution

Natural increase rate per 1000 = $\text{Birth Rate} - \text{Death Rate} = 24 - 8 = 16\text{ per 1000}$. To convert this to a percentage: $\frac{16}{1000} \times 100 = 1.6\%$. Birth rates remain high in developing nations due to factors such as cultural preferences for large families, lack of widespread contraception, and the economic need for children to work on family farms or support parents in old age.

Marking scheme

1.5 marks for calculation (1 mark for calculating natural increase as 16 per 1000, 0.5 marks for converting to 1.6%). 1 mark for stating a valid reason for high birth rates (e.g., child labor, lack of contraception, religious/cultural tradition, high infant mortality).

Question 17 · Short Answer

2.5 marks

Based on the data below showing development indicators for three countries:
* **Country X**: Life Expectancy: $79.5$ years; GNI per capita (PPP): $\$42,000$; Primary energy consumption per capita: $4,100$ kg oil equivalent
* **Country Y**: Life Expectancy: $63.2$ years; GNI per capita (PPP): $\$3,500$; Primary energy consumption per capita: $600$ kg oil equivalent
* **Country Z**: Life Expectancy: $54.1$ years; GNI per capita (PPP): $\$950$; Primary energy consumption per capita: $150$ kg oil equivalent

(a) Identify which country is most likely to be an LEDC (Low Economically Developed Country) and support your choice with one piece of evidence from the data. (1.5 marks)
(b) Explain why 'Primary energy consumption per capita' is a useful indicator of economic development. (1 mark)

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Worked solution

(a) Country Z is the least developed as indicated by its exceptionally low GNI per capita of $\$950$, low life expectancy of $54.1$ years, and minimal energy footprint of $150$ kg oil equivalent per capita.
(b) As countries develop economically, they transition from manual agriculture to power-dependent industrial and service sectors. Infrastructure and household standards of living also rise, causing an increase in national energy consumption per person.

Marking scheme

Part (a) [1.5 marks total]:
- 0.5 marks for correctly identifying Country Z.
- 1 mark for quoting any correct corresponding data point from the table (e.g., GNI of $\$950$, life expectancy of $54.1$ years, or energy consumption of $150$ kg).

Part (b) [1 mark total]:
- 1 mark for explaining the link between energy use and development (e.g., economic growth leads to more factories, transport, domestic appliances, or electricity grid expansion).
- Reject: vague answers such as 'richer countries just use more power' without geographical elaboration.

Question 18 · Short Answer

2.5 marks

A geographical study of deforestation rates between 2010 and 2020 recorded the following annual average forest loss:
* **Region A (Amazon Basin)**: $1.2\%$ per year
* **Region B (Southeast Asia)**: $1.5\%$ per year
* **Region C (Congo Basin)**: $0.8\%$ per year

(a) Identify the region with the highest annual rate of deforestation and state its rate. (1 mark)
(b) Explain how deforestation contributes to the greenhouse effect and global warming. (1.5 marks)

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Worked solution

(a) Comparing the values, Region B (Southeast Asia) has the highest annual deforestation rate of $1.5\%$.
(b) Trees absorb carbon dioxide during photosynthesis, storing it as biomass. Clearing forests means fewer trees to remove carbon dioxide (a key greenhouse gas) from the atmosphere. Furthermore, when trees are cleared via slash-and-burn methods or left to decay, the carbon locked in their biomass is released as carbon dioxide, enhancing the greenhouse effect.

Marking scheme

Part (a) [1 mark total]:
- 0.5 marks for identifying Region B / Southeast Asia.
- 0.5 marks for stating the correct rate of $1.5\%$ per year.

Part (b) [1.5 marks total]:
- 1 mark for explaining the reduction in carbon absorption/photosynthesis (trees act as carbon sinks).
- 0.5 marks for explaining that burning, land clearance activities, or decay releases stored carbon ($CO_2$) back into the atmosphere.

Question 19 · Structured Essay

5 marks

Explain how a large influx of international migrants can create challenges for the destination country.

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Worked solution

An influx of international migrants can lead to several challenges. First, there is pressure on public services, where schools and hospitals can become overcrowded, increasing wait times and class sizes. Second, housing shortages can occur, as increased demand drives up rental prices and property values, making homes unaffordable for lower-income locals. Third, cultural integration issues may arise, where differences in language, religion, or customs can lead to social tensions in communities. Fourth, infrastructure is strained as the growing population puts pressure on transport systems, water supply, and waste management. Finally, job competition may increase for low-skilled employment, which can suppress local wages.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each fully explained challenge up to a maximum of 5 marks. Points include: - Pressure on educational systems / schools (1 mark) - Strain on healthcare systems / longer hospital wait times (1 mark) - Increased demand for housing leading to inflation / shortages (1 mark) - Social or cultural integration issues / community tensions (1 mark) - Increased traffic congestion / strain on public transport (1 mark) - Increased competition for jobs, particularly in low-skilled sectors (1 mark).

Question 20 · Structured Essay

5 marks

Explain how a river transports its load using different processes.

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Worked solution

Rivers transport material downstream using several key processes. First, traction involves heavy, large rocks and boulders being rolled along the river bed by the force of the water. Second, saltation occurs when small pebbles and sand grains are bounced or hopped along the river bed in a leap-frog motion. Third, suspension is when fine sediment, such as silt and clay, is suspended within the main body of the water flow and carried along without touching the bed. Fourth, solution involves soluble minerals, like calcium carbonate, being dissolved in the water and transported chemically in an invisible state. Finally, flotation is when light material, such as twigs and leaves, floats on the surface of the river and is carried downstream.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each named and correctly explained transportation process up to 5 marks. Points include: - Traction: rolling of large or heavy boulders/rocks along the river bed (1 mark) - Saltation: bouncing or hopping of pebbles/sand along the river bed (1 mark) - Suspension: fine or light sediment like silt or clay carried within the water flow (1 mark) - Solution: dissolved minerals or chemicals carried invisibly in the water (1 mark) - Flotation: light materials like wood or leaves carried on the surface of the water (1 mark).

Question 21 · Structured Essay

5 marks

Explain how constructive waves differ from destructive waves in terms of their characteristics and impacts on a beach.

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Worked solution

Constructive and destructive waves differ significantly in several ways. First, constructive waves are low-energy and have low height, while destructive waves are high-energy and have great wave height. Second, constructive waves have a lower frequency, usually 6 to 9 waves per minute, compared to destructive waves which have a high frequency of 11 to 15 waves per minute. Third, constructive waves have a strong swash that pushes material up the beach and a weak backwash, whereas destructive waves have a weak swash and a strong backwash that pulls material down. Finally, constructive waves deposit sediment and build up the beach gradient, while destructive waves erode beach material and flatten the beach profile.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid comparison/difference up to 5 marks. Points include: - Constructive waves have a strong swash and weak backwash, while destructive waves have a weak swash and strong backwash (1 mark) - Constructive waves build up beaches by depositing material, whereas destructive waves erode or remove material (1 mark) - Constructive waves have low wave height, whereas destructive waves have high wave height (1 mark) - Constructive waves have a lower frequency than destructive waves (1 mark) - Constructive waves gently spill forward, whereas destructive waves plunge violently (1 mark) - Constructive waves steepen the beach profile, whereas destructive waves flatten beach profiles (1 mark).

Question 22 · Structured Essay

5 marks

Explain how vegetation in hot deserts adapts to survive the extremely dry climatic conditions.

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Worked solution

Desert plants, also known as xerophytes, have several structural adaptations to survive drought. First, they have thick, waxy cuticles on their leaves and stems to reduce transpiration and conserve water. Second, many plants feature succulence, using fleshy stems or leaves to store large volumes of water during rare rain events. Third, leaves are often reduced to spikes or needles to minimize surface area, which drastically reduces water loss and deters herbivores. Fourth, some plants have extremely long vertical taproots that reach deep water tables far below the surface. Finally, others have wide-spreading shallow root systems just below the surface to rapidly absorb moisture from light rain showers before it evaporates.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each explained adaptation up to a maximum of 5 marks. Do not award marks for simply naming a feature without explaining how it helps survival. Points include: - Thick waxy skin or cuticle to reduce transpiration / water loss (1 mark) - Fleshy/succulent stems or leaves to store water (1 mark) - Spikes or needles instead of leaves to reduce surface area for transpiration / protect from animals (1 mark) - Long taproots to reach deep underground water sources (1 mark) - Wide-spreading shallow root systems to quickly absorb surface rainwater (1 mark) - Seeds remaining dormant for long periods until rain triggers rapid germination (1 mark).

Question 23 · Structured Essay

5 marks

Explain how global warming causes both environmental and economic problems for coastal areas.

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Worked solution

Global warming creates a range of threats for coastal regions. Environmental consequences include sea level rise, where melting glaciers and thermal expansion of seawater lead to the submergence of low-lying coastal ecosystems like salt marshes and mangroves. Additionally, rising sea levels and more intense storms accelerate the erosion of cliffs and beaches, destroying habitats, while pushing saltwater into freshwater aquifers. Economic consequences include infrastructure damage, where flooding and erosion damage seaside homes, businesses, and transport links, leading to massive repair costs. Furthermore, eroded beaches and damaged resorts deter tourists, harming local businesses, and governments must spend large sums on hard and soft engineering to protect coastal zones.

Marking scheme

Award up to 5 marks for valid explanations. Candidates must include at least one environmental and one economic problem to achieve maximum marks. Points include: - Sea level rise causing flooding of low-lying coastal areas (Environmental) (1 mark) - Accelerated coastal erosion destroying beaches/cliffs (Environmental) (1 mark) - Saltwater intrusion contaminating freshwater aquifers (Environmental) (1 mark) - Loss of coastal habitats/ecosystems like mangroves (Environmental) (1 mark) - Financial cost of building and maintaining sea walls or defences (Economic) (1 mark) - Damage to coastal properties, hotels, and infrastructure leading to high repair costs (Economic) (1 mark) - Decline in tourism revenue due to beach loss or infrastructure damage (Economic) (1 mark) - Loss of coastal agricultural land due to salinisation (Economic) (1 mark).

Question 24 · Structured Essay

5 marks

Explain why economic indicators, such as Gross National Product (GNP) per capita, may not give an accurate representation of the quality of life in a country.

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Worked solution

Economic indicators like GNP per capita have limitations in measuring quality of life because it is an average figure calculated by dividing total national income by population. A small, wealthy elite can skew this figure upwards, masking widespread poverty and inequality. Second, it does not record informal economic activities, such as subsistence farming, barter, or informal trading, which are vital for survival in many developing countries. Third, it fails to measure essential non-monetary quality of life components such as access to healthcare, literacy rates, human rights, and safety. Fourth, it does not automatically reflect local purchasing power or differences in the cost of living. Finally, an increase in GNP can be accompanied by severe air/water pollution and resource depletion, which actually lowers the quality of life.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each fully explained limitation up to a maximum of 5 marks. Points include: - It is an average and hides wide gaps between rich and poor / unequal wealth distribution (1 mark) - It ignores the informal economy / subsistence activities which support many livelihoods (1 mark) - It does not measure social indicators such as health, life expectancy, or education levels (1 mark) - It fails to reflect non-material aspects of life quality like political freedom, safety, or happiness (1 mark) - It does not take into account differences in local cost of living / purchasing power (unless PPP adjusted) (1 mark) - It ignores environmental damage / pollution which reduces actual well-being (1 mark).

Question 25 · Case Study

7 marks

For a named country you have studied, explain the causes of international migration to or from that country.

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Worked solution

An exemplar case study is migration from Mexico to the USA. Key causes include significant wage differentials, where Mexican workers can earn up to five times more in agriculture or services in states like California. High unemployment rates in rural Mexican states like Michoacan act as a major push factor, while the prospect of sending home remittances pulls migrants. Additionally, high crime and cartel violence in certain Mexican regions create a strong push factor due to safety concerns, contrasting with the relative safety and educational opportunities for children in the USA. Family reunification is also a major pull factor, as many migrants already have established networks of relatives in cities like Los Angeles.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1 to 3 marks): Simple statements showing general reasons for migration. (e.g. People move to get better jobs. There is high crime in Mexico. The USA has better schools.) Level 2 (4 to 6 marks): Developed statements showing how or why these factors cause migration, with some case study detail. (e.g. Migration is caused by low wages in rural Mexico, which pushes people to migrate to the USA where they can earn significantly higher wages in industries like Californian agriculture and send remittances home to support their families. Cartel-related violence in states like Michoacan creates fear, pushing families to seek safety in American cities.) Level 3 (7 marks): Three or more developed statements with specific, accurate case study details (such as names of countries, states, cities, or specific economic data).

Question 26 · Case Study

7 marks

For a named river you have studied, explain the causes of flooding.

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Worked solution

An exemplar case study is the River Ganges and Brahmaputra system in Bangladesh. Heavy monsoon rains during the summer months drop vast amounts of water in a short period, overwhelming the river channel. Additionally, spring meltwater from snow and glaciers in the Himalayas flows into the headwaters, rapidly increasing discharge. Human activity also plays a massive role: widespread deforestation in the mountain slopes of Nepal reduces interception and transpiration, leading to rapid surface runoff. Lastly, the extremely flat, low-lying topography of the delta region in Bangladesh slows river flow, preventing efficient drainage and causing water to spill over the banks.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1 to 3 marks): Simple statements explaining the causes of flooding. (e.g. It rains a lot. There are no trees. The land is very flat.) Level 2 (4 to 6 marks): Developed statements explaining how specific physical or human factors lead to flooding. (e.g. Heavy monsoon rainfall in summer exceeds the capacity of the River Ganges, causing water to overflow onto the surrounding land. Deforestation on the steep slopes of the Himalayas in Nepal means there are fewer trees to intercept rainfall, resulting in faster surface runoff and a rapid increase in river discharge.) Level 3 (7 marks): Three or more developed statements with clear, accurate named case study details (such as the River Ganges or Brahmaputra, Bangladesh, Himalayas, Nepal, monsoon climate).

Question 27 · Case Study

7 marks

For a named area you have studied where tourism is important, explain how tourism has caused environmental problems.

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Worked solution

An exemplar case study is the Maasai Mara National Reserve in Kenya. Massive tourism growth has led to severe soil erosion because safari minibuses frequently drive off designated tracks to get closer to wildlife, which destroys grass cover and leaves soil vulnerable to wind and water erosion. Additionally, the construction of luxury safari lodges along the Mara River has led to untreated sewage and waste being dumped directly into the river, polluting the primary water source for local wildlife. The high demand for water by tourist lodges has also depleted local aquifers, lowering the water table and drying up natural watering holes used by migratory wildebeest and zebras.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1 to 3 marks): Simple statements identifying environmental problems caused by tourism. (e.g. Vehicles damage the soil. Hotels dump dirty water. Water is used up by tourists.) Level 2 (4 to 6 marks): Developed statements explaining how tourism activities lead to specific environmental degradation. (e.g. Safari vehicles in the Maasai Mara drive off-road to give tourists better views of animals, destroying the vegetation and causing severe soil erosion. The high demand for fresh water in tourist lodges leads to the over-extraction of water from local aquifers, which lowers the water table and leaves less water for native wildlife species.) Level 3 (7 marks): Three or more developed statements with specific, accurate case study details (such as names of national parks, rivers, specific animal species, or infrastructure names).

Paper 22: Geographical Skills

Answer all questions. You must use the 1:25000 survey map of Stewarton, Scotland, to answer Question 1.

6 Question · 60 marks

Question 1 · Map Skills

20 marks

Answer all questions. You must use the 1:25000 survey map of Stewarton, Scotland, to answer Question 1.

(a) Identify the feature found at each of the following grid references:
(i) 414457 [1]
(ii) 436442 [1]
(iii) The class of road at 421453 [1]
(iv) The land use at 395465 [1]

(b) (i) Give the six-figure grid reference of the monument on the hill in the eastern part of the map. [2]
(ii) State the height of the spot height located at 443452. [1]

(c) (i) Measure the straight-line distance, in metres, from the railway station at 418461 to the road bridge over the Annick Water at 427455. [2]
(ii) State the compass direction and the bearing, in degrees, from the railway station to the road bridge. [2]

(d) Describe the physical features of the valley of the Annick Water in the south-western part of the map (from grid square 3943 to 4144). [5]

(e) Describe the distribution of settlement and transport links in the northern area of the map, north of northing 47. [4]

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Worked solution

Step-by-step Map Work Analysis:

(a) Feature Identification:
- (i) At 414457, the map key shows the abbreviation or symbol for a Cemetery.
- (ii) At 436442, the red/pink triangle indicates a Youth Hostel or campsite.
- (iii) At 421453, the orange-colored road is labeled B778, indicating a B-road (Secondary road).
- (iv) At 395465, the green wash with tree symbols denotes deciduous/mixed woodland.

(b) Grid Reference & Height:
- (i) Find the monument in square 4445. It lies 1/10th of the way from easting 44 to 45, and 7/10ths of the way from northing 45 to 46. This gives 441457.
- (ii) The spot height at 443452 is clearly labeled as 143 metres.

(c) Distance and Direction:
- (i) Measuring the distance on the map between the station (418461) and the bridge (427455) gives 4.4 cm. Since the scale is 1:25000 (1 cm = 250 m), the actual distance is $4.4 \times 250 = 1100$ metres. Acceptable range is 1050m to 1150m.
- (ii) From the station to the bridge is in a South-Easterly direction. The bearing clockwise from North is 124 degrees (accept 122 to 126 degrees).

(d) Physical features of Annick Water valley:
- Valley is relatively deep and steep-sided (contours are packed close together on either side of the river).
- The river meanders and loops continuously.
- Densely covered by woodland along the slopes.
- The flow direction is general south-westward.
- There is an absence of a broad flat valley floor (very narrow floodplain).

(e) Distribution and transport north of northing 47:
- Settlement is highly dispersed/sparse, consisting mostly of isolated farms (e.g., High Castleton).
- Strong linear settlement pattern along the main B778 road.
- Transport links are dominated by the east-west B778 road and minor single-track roads linking the farms.
- There are no railways or major dual-carriageway routes.

Marking scheme

(a) Award 1 mark for each correct identification:
- (i) Cemetery [1]
- (ii) Youth hostel / Camping / caravan site [1]
- (iii) B-road / Secondary road / B778 [1]
- (iv) Woodland / Forest / Deciduous wood [1]

(b)
- (i) 441457 (Accept 441456 to 442458) [2] (Award 1 mark if 4-figure grid square 4445 is correct but tenths are inaccurate)
- (ii) 143 (metres) [1]

(c)
- (i) 1100m (Accept 1050m to 1150m) [2] (Award 1 mark for correct map measurement of 4.4cm before scale conversion)
- (ii) Compass direction: South-East (SE) [1]; Bearing: 124 degrees (Accept 122 to 126 degrees) [1]

(d) Award up to 5 marks for physical features (max 1 per point):
- River flows south-west [1]
- Meanders / winding channel [1]
- Steep valley sides / V-shaped [1]
- Woodland/trees on valley slopes [1]
- Narrow valley floor / no wide floodplain [1]
- Small tributaries / streams join the main river [1]

(e) Award up to 4 marks for settlement and transport description (max 1 per point):
- Sparse / dispersed settlement pattern [1]
- Isolated farms / buildings [1]
- Linear settlement along B778 [1]
- No urban centers / towns [1]
- B778 / B-road runs east-west [1]
- Minor roads / single-track roads connect farms [1]
- Absence of railway lines [1]

Question 2 · Structured Skills Questions

8 marks

You must use the 1:25000 survey map of Stewarton, Scotland, to answer this question.

(a) Identify the map feature located at the 6-figure grid reference 412458. [1]

(b) State the general direction of flow of the Annick Water river as it passes through the main settlement of Stewarton. [1]

(c) Calculate the straight-line distance in kilometres between the railway station at 418452 and the road junction at Lainshaw House (409443). Show your working. [2]

(d) Describe the main human/built features of the settlement of Stewarton shown on the map (e.g., transportation, services, and land-use patterns). [4]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) At 412458, the A735 road crosses the Annick Water, identifying a bridge or river crossing.
(b) Tracing the flow of the Annick Water from the north-east to the south-west of the map extract shows a south-westerly flow direction.
(c) Measuring the map distance between the two points gives approximately 5.2 cm. On a 1:25000 scale map, 4 cm represents 1 km. Thus, $5.2 \text{ cm} \times 0.25 \text{ km/cm} = 1.3 \text{ km}$ (accepting 1.2 to 1.4 km).
(d) Human features include transportation links (railway line, passenger station, main A and B classification roads), various services (schools, churches, post offices), and housing layouts demonstrating nucleated settlement patterns transitioning into suburban estates.

Marking scheme

(a) 1 mark for correct identification of the bridge / road crossing.
(b) 1 mark for South-west (SW) or westerly direction.
(c) 1 mark for correct measurement/working on scale (e.g. approx 5.0 to 5.6 cm on map); 1 mark for accurate distance in km: 1.3 km (Accept 1.2 km to 1.4 km).
(d) 4 marks total, max 2 marks for transport, max 2 marks for services, max 2 marks for settlement/housing shape. Must use map evidence.

Question 3 · Structured Skills Questions

8 marks

Study the climate data below for two contrasting ecosystems:

- **Station A (Tropical Rainforest)**: Mean annual temperature is $27^\circ\text{C}$; monthly temperature range is $2^\circ\text{C}$; total annual precipitation is $2200\text{ mm}$.
- **Station B (Hot Desert)**: Mean annual temperature is $22^\circ\text{C}$; monthly temperature range is $18^\circ\text{C}$; total annual precipitation is $80\text{ mm}$.

(a) Calculate the difference in annual precipitation between Station A and Station B. [1]

(b) Compare the temperature characteristics of Station A and Station B. [3]

(c) Explain how vegetation adapts to the climatic conditions of Station B (Hot Desert). [4]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Subtract Station B's rainfall from Station A's: $2200\text{ mm} - 80\text{ mm} = 2120\text{ mm}$.
(b) Compare both absolute values (annual means) and annual ranges: Station A is overall hotter annually and shows uniform temperatures year-round, while Station B has seasonal extremes.
(c) Relate structural plant features directly to survival in dry conditions (low precipitation of 80 mm). Mention xerophytic adaptations such as water storage, reducing surface area, and extensive root systems.

Marking scheme

(a) 1 mark for the correct calculation: 2120 mm (must include units).
(b) 3 marks: 1 mark for comparing mean temperatures (A is hotter than B); 1 mark for comparing temperature ranges (B has a much higher range than A); 1 mark for quoting accurate supporting data from the prompt.
(c) 4 marks: 1 mark per valid adaptation linked to climate (e.g., fleshy stems for water storage, long roots to reach deep water table, needles to reduce transpiration, waxy coatings to block evaporation). Max 4.

Question 4 · Structured Skills Questions

8 marks

Figure 1 represents a cross-section of a river channel at a meander bend.

(a) Identify the river features at outer bank A and inner bank B. [2]

(b) Explain why the velocity of river water differs between outer bank A and inner bank B. [2]

(c) Describe the process of lateral erosion and explain how it leads to the migration of a meander over time. [4]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) The outer bank experiences erosion creating a steep river cliff. The inner bank experiences deposition of sand and gravel forming a gently sloping slip-off slope.
(b) Velocity variation is due to the location of the thalweg. Centrifugal forces push high-velocity water to the outside bend. The inner bend has shallow water, leading to high frictional resistance, slowing the flow.
(c) Describe hydraulic action and abrasion on the outer bank. Explain undercutting, bank collapse, and outward movement, coupled with continuous inner-bank deposition, shifting the river bend sideways.

Marking scheme

(a) 2 marks: 1 mark for River cliff / cut bank (A); 1 mark for Slip-off slope / point bar (B).
(b) 2 marks: 1 mark for explaining outer bank high velocity (thalweg / less friction / centrifugal force); 1 mark for explaining inner bank low velocity (shallower water / more friction).
(c) 4 marks: 1 mark for naming an erosional process (abrasion/hydraulic action); 1 mark for explaining bank undercutting and collapse; 1 mark for mentioning inner bank deposition; 1 mark for explaining the resulting outward/sideways movement (migration).

Question 5 · Structured Skills Questions

8 marks

Study the data below showing global carbon dioxide ($\text{CO}_2$) concentrations and average global temperature anomalies (relative to the 1951-1980 baseline):

- **Year 1960**: $\text{CO}_2 = 317 \text{ ppm}$; Temperature Anomaly = $-0.03^\circ\text{C}$
- **Year 1980**: $\text{CO}_2 = 339 \text{ ppm}$; Temperature Anomaly = $+0.27^\circ\text{C}$
- **Year 2000**: $\text{CO}_2 = 369 \text{ ppm}$; Temperature Anomaly = $+0.40^\circ\text{C}$
- **Year 2020**: $\text{CO}_2 = 414 \text{ ppm}$; Temperature Anomaly = $+1.02^\circ\text{C}$

(a) Describe the trend in global carbon dioxide concentrations between 1960 and 2020. [2]

(b) State the relationship between carbon dioxide concentrations and global temperature anomaly shown by the data. [2]

(c) Identify two human activities that contribute to the rise in atmospheric carbon dioxide, and explain how they enhance the greenhouse effect. [4]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) The trend shows a continuous and accelerating rise in atmospheric $\text{CO}_2$ over the 60-year period, going from 317 ppm to 414 ppm.
(b) State the clear direct relationship/correlation and back it up briefly with figures (e.g., at the lowest CO2 level of 317 ppm, the temperature anomaly is lowest at $-0.03^\circ\text{C}$; at 414 ppm, it is highest at $+1.02^\circ\text{C}$).
(c) Describe two distinct human actions (e.g., coal power generation, land clearing). Explain the greenhouse mechanism: shortwave solar radiation enters the atmosphere, but greenhouse gases trap outgoing longwave terrestrial radiation, warming the Earth.

Marking scheme

(a) 2 marks: 1 mark for recognizing the continuous upward trend/increase; 1 mark for identifying the acceleration or citing correct data points (e.g., 317 ppm in 1960 to 414 ppm in 2020).
(b) 2 marks: 1 mark for stating positive correlation / direct relationship; 1 mark for using paired data (CO2 and temperature) to illustrate this relationship.
(c) 4 marks: 1 mark for each of two valid activities (e.g. burning fossil fuels, deforestation) [max 2]; 1 mark for explaining each mechanism (releasing stored carbon/reducing sinks, trapping outgoing longwave heat radiation) [max 2].

Question 6 · Structured Skills Questions

8 marks

Study the Demographic Transition Model (DTM) to answer the following questions:

(a) Identify the stage of the DTM where natural population growth rate is the highest. [1]

(b) Suggest reasons for the rapid decline in death rates in Stage 2 of the DTM. [3]

(c) Explain why birth rates decline during Stage 3 of the Demographic Transition Model. [4]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) In Stage 2, the birth rate remains high while the death rate falls rapidly, creating the widest gap (natural increase) between births and deaths.
(b) The decline in death rate in Stage 2 is driven by basic public health advances: clean drinking water, modern sewage management, immunization against infectious diseases, and better farming technologies stabilizing food yields.
(c) The birth rate declines in Stage 3 due to socio-economic changes. As societies industrialize and urbanize, children become expensive to raise. Female empowerment and education lead to career choices that delay family building, and widespread availability of family planning methods allows family size to be planned.

Marking scheme

(a) 1 mark for Stage 2 (accept early Stage 3).
(b) 3 marks: 1 mark each for three distinct reasons (e.g., medical advances/vaccines, clean water/sanitation, improved food security/distribution).
(c) 4 marks: 1 mark each for up to four distinct points (e.g., cost of raising children in urban areas, access to contraception/family planning, female education/careers, lower infant mortality, changes in social/religious attitudes to large families).

Paper 42: Alternative to Coursework

Answer all questions. The paper tests your knowledge of fieldwork techniques and data analysis.

2 Question · 60 marks

Question 1 · Fieldwork Analysis

30 marks

Students from a local school investigated coastal processes at Sandy Haven Bay. They investigated two hypotheses. Hypothesis 1: Longshore drift is moving material from west to east along the beach. Hypothesis 2: Pebbles become smaller and more rounded further along the beach in the direction of longshore drift. Answer all parts of the question. (a)(i) Describe a fieldwork method the students could use to measure the direction and rate of longshore drift using a float such as a tennis ball. [4 marks] (a)(ii) State two safety precautions the students should take when working near the sea. [2 marks] (a)(iii) Explain how wind direction influences the angle of wave approach and how this causes longshore drift. [3 marks] (b)(i) To measure the rate of longshore drift, the students recorded the distance a float traveled over a 10-minute period. They repeated this three times. The distances recorded were: Trial 1 = 12m, Trial 2 = 15m, Trial 3 = 11m. Calculate the average speed of longshore drift in meters per minute. Show your working. [3 marks] (b)(ii) Suggest one limitation and one way to improve the reliability of using a floating object to measure longshore drift. [2 marks] (c)(i) Describe how the students would measure the beach profile from the low water mark to the back of the beach using ranging poles, a clinometer, and a tape measure. [5 marks] (c)(ii) Explain why it is important to measure beach profiles at several different locations along the coast. [2 marks] (d)(i) The students sampled 20 pebbles at three sites (Site A: west, Site B: middle, Site C: east). Describe a systematic sampling method they could use to select the pebbles. [3 marks] (d)(ii) The average pebble size (long axis) was: Site A = 8.5 cm, Site B = 5.2 cm, Site C = 2.1 cm. Use these results to evaluate Hypothesis 2 ('Pebbles become smaller and more rounded further along the beach in the direction of longshore drift'). Support your answer with data. [3 marks] (d)(iii) Explain how the processes of attrition and hydraulic action could explain these differences in sediment size along the coast. [3 marks]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Let us break down each part of the fieldwork task to secure maximum marks: (a)(i) 4 marks are available for describing the float method: specifying the equipment (tape measure, float, stopwatch), the recording of start/end positions, a set timeframe, and repeating for reliability. (a)(ii) 2 marks for safety: mention tide times, footwear, or adult supervision. (a)(iii) 3 marks: explain the link between wind direction and wave angle, and the role of swash (oblique) and backwash (perpendicular, gravity) in creating the zig-zag motion. (b)(i) 3 marks: 1 mark for calculating total/average distance $12 + 15 + 11 = 38$, $38/3 = 12.67$ meters; 1 mark for dividing by 10 minutes to get $1.27$ or $1.3$ meters/minute; 1 mark for units. (b)(ii) 2 marks: Identify that wind or waves might push the float onshore, and suggest using a heavier, semi-submerged object like an orange. (c)(i) 5 marks: Step-by-step profile process: transect perpendicular to the sea (1), placing ranging poles at breaks of slope (2), measuring horizontal distance with a tape measure (3), sighting matching heights with a clinometer (4), repeating across all slope segments (5). (c)(ii) 2 marks: Explain that multiple locations prevent anomalies and help compare areas of deposition versus erosion. (d)(i) 3 marks: Specify systematic interval selection (e.g., every 2 meters along a line) and explain how this eliminates subjective user bias. (d)(ii) 3 marks: State whether the hypothesis is supported (it is), provide data comparing Site A (8.5cm), Site B (5.2cm), and Site C (2.1cm) to show the decrease. (d)(iii) 3 marks: Link attrition to collisions during transport reducing pebble size, and explain how wave force (hydraulic action) initiates sediment creation near rocky sources.

Marking scheme

(a)(i) Award up to 4 marks: 1 mark for placing tape measure parallel to the shore. 1 mark for placing a float (e.g., tennis ball/orange) in the water. 1 mark for recording start and end position over a set time period (e.g., 5-10 minutes) using a stopwatch. 1 mark for repeating the experiment to find an average. (a)(ii) Award up to 2 marks (1 mark per precaution): Accept checking tide tables, wearing sturdy/non-slip footwear, working in groups, wearing high-visibility jackets, or avoiding deep water. (a)(iii) Award up to 3 marks: 1 mark for explaining that prevailing wind determines wave approach angle. 1 mark for stating swash moves up the beach at an angle. 1 mark for stating backwash moves straight down the beach at 90 degrees due to gravity. (b)(i) Award up to 3 marks: 1 mark for correct working of average distance: $(12 + 15 + 11) / 3 = 12.67$ meters. 1 mark for dividing by 10 to calculate speed: $12.67 / 10 = 1.27$ (accept 1.3). 1 mark for correct unit expression: meters per minute (m/min). (b)(ii) Award up to 2 marks: 1 mark for identifying a limitation (e.g., wind blows float directly; float gets caught in seaweed). 1 mark for suggesting a valid improvement (e.g., use an orange as it floats mostly submerged; perform more trials). (c)(i) Award up to 5 marks: 1 mark for establishing a transect line perpendicular to the sea. 1 mark for placing ranging poles at breaks of slope / changes in angle. 1 mark for ensuring poles are vertical. 1 mark for measuring distance between poles using a tape measure. 1 mark for using a clinometer to read angle between matching eye-level marks on the poles. (c)(ii) Award up to 2 marks: 1 mark for recognizing variation in beach shape/dynamics along the coast. 1 mark for allowing comparison to identify patterns of erosion vs deposition. (d)(i) Award up to 3 marks: 1 mark for laying a tape measure across the site. 1 mark for picking a pebble at fixed/regular distance intervals (e.g., every 1 or 2 meters). 1 mark for explaining that this avoids bias/subjectivity. (d)(ii) Award up to 3 marks: 1 mark for confirming hypothesis is supported. 2 marks for supporting with contrasting data: Site A is 8.5 cm, Site B is 5.2 cm, Site C is 2.1 cm. (d)(iii) Award up to 3 marks: 1 mark for defining attrition (pebbles knocking together and breaking down). 1 mark for linking attrition to greater transport distance (more distance = more wear). 1 mark for explaining hydraulic action shears rock from source cliffs to provide large starting material.

Question 2 · Fieldwork Analysis

30 marks

Fieldwork Investigation: Environmental and Social Impacts of Limestone Quarrying

Students from a school in northern England conducted fieldwork to investigate the environmental impacts of a local active limestone quarry and the perceptions of nearby residents. They chose three study sites at different distances north of the quarry boundary:

Site A: 100 meters (m) from the boundary
Site B: 500 meters (m) from the boundary
Site C: 1200 meters (m) from the boundary

They investigated the following two hypotheses:

Hypothesis 1: Dust deposition and noise levels decrease as distance from the quarry increases.

Hypothesis 2: Local residents' perceptions of the quarry are more negative the closer they live to it.

Part (a)

(i) Describe a fieldwork method the students could use to measure dust deposition at each of the three sites over a period of one week. [4 marks]

(ii) State two precautions the students should take to ensure safety while conducting fieldwork near an active quarry. [2 marks]

Part (b)

The students measured noise levels using a digital decibel meter. They took three readings at different times of the day (09:00, 13:00, and 17:00) at each of the three sites on a weekday.

(i) Suggest why taking three readings at different times of the day is better than taking a single reading. [2 marks]

(ii) The average noise levels calculated from their measurements were: Site A (100m): 72 dB; Site B (500m): 55 dB; Site C (1200m): 42 dB. Explain how this data supports Hypothesis 1. Use data in your answer. [3 marks]

(iii) Describe how the students would represent this average noise level data on a scatter graph, identifying the variables on each axis and how they would show the relationship. [3 marks]

Part (c)

To investigate Hypothesis 2, the students designed a questionnaire to ask 50 residents at each site about their opinions on the quarry.

(i) Suggest two advantages of using closed questions (e.g., rating scales from -2 to +2) rather than open questions in this questionnaire. [2 marks]

(ii) Name and describe a sampling method the students could use to select residents to interview to avoid bias. [3 marks]

Part (d)

The results of the questionnaire about the overall impact of the quarry (where scores ranged from -2 [very negative] to +2 [very positive]) are shown below: Site A (100m): Average score of -1.4; Site B (500m): Average score of -0.2; Site C (1200m): Average score of +0.8.

(i) To what extent does this data support Hypothesis 2? Refer to the data in your explanation. [4 marks]

(ii) Suggest three positive impacts of the quarry that residents living at Site C (+0.8 score) might value, which could explain their positive average score. [3 marks]

Part (e)

Suggest two ways the quarry management could mitigate (reduce) the negative environmental impacts of dust and noise on the surrounding area. Explain how each method works. [4 marks]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Model Answers

Part (a)
(i) To measure dust deposition: The students can set up a simple dust trap at each site, such as a plastic container or petri dish containing a sticky slide or a fixed volume of distilled water. This container should be placed in an open area at each site, elevated about 1.5 meters off the ground (e.g., on a fence post) to prevent ground splash or interference from vegetation. The traps must be left undisturbed for exactly 7 days to ensure consistency. After one week, the students collect the traps and analyze them. They can measure the percentage of the sticky surface covered by dust using a grid and hand lens, or filter the water, evaporate it, and weigh the remaining dry dust mass on a high-precision scale. Results are then compared across the three sites.
(ii) Two safety precautions:
1. Wear high-visibility vests so they are clearly visible to heavy vehicle drivers.
2. Stay on designated public footpaths and do not cross warning fences or enter the active quarry pit without authorized supervision.

Part (b)
(i) Taking three readings at different times is better because quarry activities (such as blasting, crushing, and truck movements) vary throughout the day, as does ambient background noise (e.g., traffic). A single reading might capture an anomaly (an unusually quiet or loud moment), whereas taking multiple readings and calculating an average increases the reliability of the dataset.
(ii) This data strongly supports Hypothesis 1 because as the distance from the quarry increases, the average noise level systematically decreases. At the closest site, Site A (100m), the noise level is high at 72 dB. This drops by 17 dB to 55 dB at Site B (500m), and drops further by 13 dB to 42 dB at Site C (1200m), which represents a quiet background level. The total decrease over 1100m is 30 dB.
(iii) To plot this data on a scatter graph:
1. Identify the axes: Plot the independent variable, 'Distance from Quarry (m)', on the horizontal x-axis, and the dependent variable, 'Average Noise Level (dB)', on the vertical y-axis.
2. Plot the three points: Mark the coordinates (100, 72), (500, 55), and (1200, 42) accurately on the grid.
3. Show the relationship: Draw a downward-sloping line of best fit to clearly illustrate the negative correlation.

Part (c)
(i) Two advantages of closed questions:
1. They produce quantitative data that can be easily displayed in graphs (like bar charts or pie charts) and analyzed statistically.
2. They are quick and easy for residents to answer, which can lead to a higher response rate.
(ii) Systematic sampling:
The students could select every 5th house along a street leading away from each site. This ensures an even, unbiased distribution of respondents across the survey area and avoids subjective bias where students might only approach people who look friendly or avoid houses that look difficult to access.

Part (d)
(i) The data fully supports Hypothesis 2. Residents living closest to the quarry at Site A (100m) have a very negative perception with an average score of -1.4. At Site B (500m), the perception becomes much less negative, scoring -0.2. At Site C (1200m), which is the furthest away, the perception is positive, scoring +0.8. This shows a direct, positive correlation between distance from the quarry and favorable resident perceptions.
(ii) Three positive impacts:
1. Direct employment opportunities for residents in the quarry or associated transport roles.
2. Economic multiplier effects, such as increased custom for local shops, cafes, and services from quarry workers.
3. Quarry company contributions to local infrastructure, such as road maintenance, community halls, or sponsoring local sports teams.

Part (e)
1. Dust Mitigation: Use water bowsers to spray water onto unpaved quarry roads and stockpiles. This dampens the dust particles, making them heavier so that they cannot be easily picked up and carried by the wind to nearby residential areas.
2. Noise Mitigation: Construct large earth bunds (soil mounds) and plant dense shelterbelts of trees along the quarry boundary. These physical barriers absorb and scatter sound waves, significantly reducing the transmission of noise to the surrounding community.

Marking scheme

Marking Scheme

Part (a) (i) [4 Marks]
- 1 mark for describing the trap/apparatus (e.g., sticky pad, open container of water, petri dish).
- 1 mark for controlled placement (e.g., off the ground to avoid splash, in an open area away from overhanging trees, same height at all sites).
- 1 mark for time control (e.g., leave for 7 days / same duration across all sites).
- 1 mark for analytical method (e.g., weighing dry mass, using a grid to count dust particles, or visual comparison index).
Accept other scientifically sound school-level techniques.

Part (a) (ii) [2 Marks]
- 1 mark per valid precaution (max 2). Examples:
* Wear high-visibility clothing / safety helmets.
* Stay on designated public rights of way / do not trespass inside quarry fences.
* Stay in groups / carry a mobile phone / first-aid kit.
* Do not stand near steep quarry faces/edges.
Reject general, non-fieldwork-specific advice (e.g., 'wear a jacket').

Part (b) (i) [2 Marks]
- 1 mark for recognizing temporal variation (e.g., noise changes during the day due to varying operations, blasting schedules, traffic).
- 1 mark for explaining the statistical benefit (e.g., allows calculation of an average, reduces the influence of anomalous/temporary loud sounds, increases reliability).

Part (b) (ii) [3 Marks]
- 1 mark for stating that the hypothesis is supported / there is a negative correlation.
- 1 mark for quoting noise data with units (dB) for at least two sites (e.g., 72 dB at Site A and 42 dB at Site C).
- 1 mark for linking this data directly to the corresponding distances (e.g., 100m vs 1200m) or calculating the exact difference (30 dB drop over 1100m).

Part (b) (iii) [3 Marks]
- 1 mark for correct axes identification (Distance on x-axis, Average Noise on y-axis).
- 1 mark for describing the plotting of coordinate points (100, 72), (500, 55), (1200, 42).
- 1 mark for drawing/adding a line of best fit showing a negative trend.

Part (c) (i) [2 Marks]
- 1 mark per valid advantage (max 2). Examples:
* Produces quantitative/numerical data that is easy to graph/analyze.
* Quick/easy for respondents to complete, leading to higher response rates.
* Standardizes answers, making comparison between the three sites straightforward.
* Avoids subjective interpretation of long-answer text.

Part (c) (ii) [3 Marks]
- 1 mark for naming a valid sampling method (e.g., Systematic sampling, Random sampling, Stratified sampling). Reject opportunistic/convenience sampling.
- 1 mark for describing the implementation (e.g., ask every 5th house, or use a random number table to pick house numbers).
- 1 mark for explaining how it avoids bias (e.g., ensures equal probability of selection, prevents students choosing only friendly-looking people, ensures spatial coverage of the site).

Part (d) (i) [4 Marks]
- 1 mark for stating that it completely/fully supports the hypothesis.
- 1 mark for quoting Site A data (average score -1.4 at 100m) as very negative.
- 1 mark for quoting Site C data (average score +0.8 at 1200m) as positive.
- 1 mark for identifying the trend (perception shifts from negative to neutral/positive as distance increases, e.g., mentioning Site B at -0.2).

Part (d) (ii) [3 Marks]
- 1 mark per valid positive impact (max 3). Examples:
* Job opportunities / employment for local residents.
* Economic growth / increased business for local shops and services.
* Quarry company funds local community projects / infrastructure improvements (roads, community centers).
* Long-term reclamation of the quarry site (e.g., turned into a nature park or lake after closure).

Part (e) [4 Marks]
- Dust mitigation (max 2 marks): 1 mark for method (e.g., spraying water bowsers, covering trucks), 1 mark for explanation (keeps dust damp/heavy so it cannot become airborne, or physically blocks release).
- Noise mitigation (max 2 marks): 1 mark for method (e.g., constructing earth bunds, planting thick shelterbelts of trees, restricting blasting to specific daytime hours), 1 mark for explanation (absorbs/deflects sound waves, or ensures noise occurs only when residents are active/prepared).

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