Cambridge IGCSE · Thinka-original Practice Paper

2024 Cambridge IGCSE Geography (0460) Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Jun 2024 (V2) Cambridge International A Level-Style Mock — Geography (0460)

195 marks285 mins2024

An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2024 (V2) Cambridge International A Level Geography (0460) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

Paper 1 Geographical Themes (P12)

Answer three questions in total, one from each section (Section A: Theme 1, Section B: Theme 2, Section C: Theme 3).

27 Question · 105 marks

Question 1 · Structured Short Answer

2.5 marks

Explain how pronatalist policies can help a country with an ageing population, and name one country that has implemented such policies.

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Worked solution

Pronatalist policies address the challenges of an ageing population by raising the fertility rate, which expands the younger cohort of the population over time. This helps to balance the high old-age dependency ratio by ensuring a larger future workforce to support pension systems and healthcare. Typical measures include financial incentives (e.g., direct baby bonuses, tax relief) and social support (e.g., subsidized nursery care, extended parental leave). An example of a country that has actively used these policies is Singapore or France.

Marking scheme

Award up to 2 marks for explanation: 1 mark for explaining how policies boost birth rates / future workforce, 1 mark for explaining how this reduces the dependency ratio / supports pensions. Award 0.5 marks for a correct named country example (e.g., Singapore, France, Japan).

Question 2 · Structured Short Answer

2.5 marks

Explain how remittance payments benefit the economy of a migrant's source country, and describe the overall impact on local development.

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Worked solution

Remittances are funds transferred by foreign workers back to their home countries. They directly increase household disposable income, allowing families to purchase essentials, fund children's schooling, and access private healthcare. This household spending triggers a positive multiplier effect in the local economy, creating demand for goods and services, and supporting local merchants and builders.

Marking scheme

Award up to 2 marks for explaining two distinct economic benefits: 1 mark for direct household level benefits (e.g., paying for school fees, healthcare), 1 mark for community-level/local economy benefits (e.g., stimulating local businesses, multiplier effect). Award 0.5 marks for a clear description of the overall development impact (e.g., reduction in poverty rates).

Question 3 · Structured Short Answer

2.5 marks

Describe two key features of self-help schemes used to improve squatter settlements in LICs, and explain how they utilize local community participation.

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Worked solution

Self-help schemes (or site-and-service schemes) involve the government or NGOs providing basic infrastructure (like water pipes, sewage lines, and paved roads) and building materials, while the residents build or upgrade their own homes. By granting land ownership (tenure), residents are incentivized to invest their own time and money. The community provides the labor force, working collectively to construct houses and public spaces.

Marking scheme

Award up to 2 marks for describing two distinct features of the scheme: 1 mark for provision of materials/infrastructure, 1 mark for granting land tenure/security. Award 0.5 marks for explaining how local community labor/participation is utilized.

Question 4 · Structured Short Answer

2.5 marks

Explain how longshore drift transports beach material along a coastline, and state the resulting direction of transport relative to the prevailing wind.

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Worked solution

Longshore drift occurs when waves approach the coast at an angle dictated by the prevailing wind direction. The swash carries sediment up the beach at this oblique angle. As the wave loses energy, gravity pulls the water directly down the beach slope as backwash, taking some sediment with it. Repeating this oblique swash and straight backwash creates a zig-zag movement that transports sand and pebbles along the coast.

Marking scheme

Award up to 2 marks for explaining the mechanism: 1 mark for describing oblique swash driven by wind, 1 mark for describing straight backwash driven by gravity. Award 0.5 marks for stating that the net direction of sediment transport is parallel to the coast in the direction of the prevailing wind.

Question 5 · Structured Short Answer

2.5 marks

Describe how an oxbow lake is formed from a river meander, and explain the role of deposition in completing the process.

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Worked solution

An oxbow lake begins as a highly sinuous meander. Continuous lateral erosion (hydraulic action and abrasion) on the outer bends of the meander narrows the neck of land separating the two loops. During a flood or period of high discharge, the river takes the path of least resistance and breaches the neck. The river now flows straight. Over time, slower-moving water near the channel edges leads to deposition, which blocks off the old meander loop entirely.

Marking scheme

Award up to 2 marks for describing the erosion and breakthrough stages: 1 mark for lateral erosion narrowing the meander neck, 1 mark for the river cutting straight through during high discharge/flooding. Award 0.5 marks for explaining how deposition seals the ends of the abandoned loop.

Question 6 · Structured Short Answer

2.5 marks

Explain why constructive (divergent) plate boundaries experience volcanic activity, and comment on the typical magnitude of earthquakes found there.

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Worked solution

At constructive plate margins, convection currents in the mantle pull tectonic plates apart. This movement reduces pressure on the underlying asthenosphere, causing decompression melting. Magma rises through the fractures and fissures to the surface, forming shield volcanoes (such as those in Iceland). Because the plates are moving apart rather than colliding or sliding past one another, there is little build-up of massive friction; therefore, earthquakes are frequent but generally of low magnitude.

Marking scheme

Award up to 1.5 marks for explaining the volcanic mechanism: 1 mark for plates pulling apart allowing magma to rise through fissures, 0.5 marks for mentioning decompression melting or shield volcano formation. Award 1 mark for explaining that earthquakes are low magnitude due to a lack of intense friction/compressional locking.

Question 7 · Structured Short Answer

2.5 marks

Explain how the excessive use of chemical fertilizers on farms can lead to the process of eutrophication in nearby lakes, and describe the impact on aquatic life.

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Worked solution

When farmers apply excess chemical fertilizers containing nitrates and phosphates, heavy rain causes these nutrients to leach into the soil or wash off into local water bodies via surface runoff. This nutrient enrichment triggers rapid algae growth (algal bloom) at the surface, which blocks sunlight from reaching underwater plants. These plants die due to a lack of photosynthesis. Bacteria then decompose the dead plant matter, consuming dissolved oxygen in the process, which suffocates fish and other aquatic organisms.

Marking scheme

Award up to 2 marks for explaining the physical/chemical process: 1 mark for runoff/leaching of nutrients leading to algal blooms blocking sunlight, 1 mark for the death of plants and subsequent decomposition consuming oxygen. Award 0.5 marks for describing the biological impact (e.g., suffocation/death of fish or loss of biodiversity).

Question 8 · Structured Short Answer

2.5 marks

Explain two environmental advantages of using geothermal energy instead of fossil fuels, and state one limitation of geothermal power generation.

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Worked solution

Geothermal energy utilizes heat from the Earth's crust to generate electricity. Unlike burning fossil fuels, it does not release greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2) or harmful air pollutants like sulfur dioxide (SO2), reducing both global warming and acid rain. However, geothermal power plants can only be built in specific regions where hot rocks are close to the Earth's surface, such as volcanic zones, limiting widespread global adoption.

Marking scheme

Award up to 2 marks for two distinct environmental advantages: 1 mark for no/minimal carbon dioxide emissions (mitigating climate change), 1 mark for no sulfur dioxide emissions (preventing acid rain) or being a renewable resource. Award 0.5 marks for identifying a valid limitation (e.g., restricted to tectonically active areas, high initial setup costs).

Question 9 · Structured Short Answer

2.5 marks

Identify and explain two reasons why the death rate of a country might fall as it transitions from Stage 1 to Stage 2 of the Demographic Transition Model.

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Worked solution

During Stage 2 of the Demographic Transition Model, the death rate falls rapidly. One major reason is improvements in medical care, such as the introduction of vaccinations and hospitals, which reduce deaths from infectious diseases. A second reason is improvements in sanitation and clean water infrastructure, which significantly decreases the spread of waterborne pathogens like cholera.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying first factor (e.g., medical improvements). 1 mark for identifying second factor (e.g., sanitation/water). 0.5 marks for explaining how either reduces mortality (e.g., preventing cholera or immunising against smallpox).

Question 10 · Structured Short Answer

2.5 marks

Explain how the process of hydraulic action contributes to the erosion of a river channel, and identify one factor that increases its effectiveness.

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Worked solution

Hydraulic action is the physical force of moving water. As water flows, it traps and compresses air inside cracks within the river's bed and banks. When the water moves away, the sudden release of pressure causes the air to expand rapidly, which shatters and breaks off pieces of rock. This process becomes more effective with higher river velocity or high discharge (e.g., during floods).

Marking scheme

1 mark for describing the mechanism of trapping/compressing air in cracks. 1 mark for describing the expansion/shattering effect on the rock. 0.5 marks for identifying an accelerating factor (e.g., high discharge, flood, high velocity).

Question 11 · Structured Short Answer

2.5 marks

Explain why coral reefs require shallow, warm, and clear seawater to grow and survive.

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Worked solution

Coral reefs need very specific environmental conditions. Firstly, they require warm seawater (between 18 and 30 degrees Celsius) because coral polyps cannot secrete their calcium carbonate skeletons in cold water. Secondly, they require shallow and clear water so that sunlight can penetrate. This is vital because microscopic algae called zooxanthellae live inside the coral tissues and require sunlight to photosynthesise, providing the corals with essential nutrients.

Marking scheme

1 mark for explaining the temperature requirement (need warm water, 18-30C, for calcium carbonate skeleton formation). 1 mark for explaining shallow/clear water requirement (allows sunlight penetration). 0.5 marks for linking sunlight to the photosynthesis of zooxanthellae/algae that feed the coral.

Question 12 · Structured Short Answer

2.5 marks

Describe how two different physical factors can lead to food shortages in a region, and state one human or economic consequence of such shortages.

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Worked solution

Food shortages can be triggered by various physical factors. Firstly, a prolonged drought reduces soil moisture, causing crop failure and livestock deaths. Secondly, pest infestations, such as locust swarms, can destroy entire harvests overnight. A significant consequence of these shortages is widespread malnutrition or famine among the population, or economic consequences such as extreme inflation of food prices.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying/describing the first physical factor (e.g., drought, flooding, pests, volcanic eruptions). 1 mark for identifying/describing the second physical factor. 0.5 marks for stating a valid human or economic consequence (e.g., malnutrition, famine, rising food prices, migration).

Question 13 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions

4.5 marks

Explain why birth rates remain high in many Less Economically Developed Countries (LEDCs).

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Worked solution

In many LEDCs, birth rates remain elevated due to several interrelated socio-economic factors. Firstly, family planning clinics and modern contraceptives are often unavailable or unaffordable, particularly in rural areas. Secondly, high infant mortality rates cause parents to have additional children to guarantee that some survive to adulthood. Thirdly, in agricultural economies, children are viewed as economic assets who provide labor on farms and support their parents in old age due to a lack of state pensions. Lastly, cultural and religious values often encourage large families, and early marriage increases the reproductive window for women.

Marking scheme

Award up to 4 marks for distinct explanatory points: 1 mark for explaining lack of family planning/contraceptives, 1 mark for explaining high infant mortality leading to insurance births, 1 mark for explaining economic value of children/agricultural labor, 1 mark for explaining lack of pensions/traditional cultural expectations. Award an additional 0.5 marks for incorporating high-quality development or a specific country example (such as Niger or Mali).

Question 14 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions

4.5 marks

Explain how international migration can create both opportunities and challenges for the source country.

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Worked solution

International migration significantly impacts the country of origin. On the positive side (opportunities), migrants often send money back home (remittances), which increases household incomes, supports local businesses, and funds education and healthcare. Additionally, emigration can relieve pressure on local job markets, reducing unemployment rates. On the negative side (challenges), the departure of highly educated and skilled workers (such as doctors and engineers) leads to a 'brain drain', which weakens key public sectors. Furthermore, since migrants are typically young, working-age adults, the remaining population tends to become demographically older, increasing the dependency ratio.

Marking scheme

Award up to 4 marks for balanced explanation of both opportunities and challenges: 1 mark for explaining remittances/economic benefits, 1 mark for explaining reduced pressure on services/unemployment, 1 mark for explaining brain drain/loss of skilled labor, 1 mark for explaining demographic imbalance/aging population. Award an additional 0.5 marks for a specific country case study reference (e.g., Mexico, Poland, or the Philippines).

Question 15 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions

4.5 marks

Explain how the sphere of influence of a settlement changes as it grows from a rural village into a large town.

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Worked solution

When a village grows into a large town, its population size and economic diversity increase. Initially, a village only provides low-order, convenience services (such as a small grocery store or primary school) which have a small range and threshold population, limiting its sphere of influence to the immediate local area. As it develops into a large town, it introduces high-order comparison services (such as specialized hospitals, department stores, and secondary schools). These services have a much larger range, meaning people are willing to travel long distances to access them. Consequently, the town draws in consumers and workers from outlying settlements, vastly expanding its geographical sphere of influence.

Marking scheme

Award up to 4 marks for clear conceptual explanation: 1 mark for stating that the sphere of influence increases, 1 mark for explaining the concept of 'high-order services' vs 'low-order services', 1 mark for explaining 'range' (distance people are willing to travel), 1 mark for explaining 'threshold population' (minimum number of people needed to make a service viable). Award an additional 0.5 marks for providing specific service examples (e.g., comparing a village post office to a town hospital).

Question 16 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions

4.5 marks

Explain how a river transports its load using four distinct processes.

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Worked solution

River transport involves four main physical processes depending on velocity and sediment size. Traction occurs when large rocks, boulders, and heavy cobbles are rolled and pushed along the riverbed during periods of high energy. Saltation is the process where smaller, pebble-sized particles are lifted briefly and bounced along the riverbed in a hopping motion. Suspension involves very fine, light particles of clay and silt being held up and carried within the main body of the flowing water. Solution involves soluble minerals (such as calcium carbonate) dissolving chemically in the water and being carried invisibly without physical suspension.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each transport process correctly named and explained (Traction, Saltation, Suspension, Solution) up to 4 marks. Award an additional 0.5 marks for linking transport capacity to river energy or velocity changes.

Question 17 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions

4.5 marks

Explain how constructive waves differ from destructive waves and how they help build up beaches.

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Worked solution

Constructive waves are characterized by their low wave height, long wavelength, and low frequency (typically 6 to 8 waves per minute). They are low-energy waves that break gently on the shore. Because of this, they possess a powerful 'swash' (the upward movement of water on the beach) which transports sand and shingle up the shore, but a very weak 'backwash' (the downward movement) which lacks the energy to pull sediment back into the sea. This net positive movement of material leads to deposition, gradually building up the height and width of the beach. In contrast, destructive waves have high frequency, high energy, and a strong backwash that erodes the beach.

Marking scheme

Award up to 4 marks for comparative explanation: 1 mark for contrasting wave energy and frequency, 1 mark for explaining the role of a strong swash, 1 mark for explaining the role of a weak backwash, 1 mark for explaining the net result of sediment deposition. Award an additional 0.5 marks for mentioning how this creates a steeper beach gradient or berms.

Question 18 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions

4.5 marks

Explain why many people continue to live in areas at high risk from volcanic eruptions.

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Worked solution

Despite the hazards, volcanic areas offer significant physical and economic advantages. Volcanic materials, once weathered over time, form exceptionally fertile soils rich in nutrients like phosphorus and potassium, supporting highly productive agriculture. Additionally, active volcanic regions can harness geothermal energy to provide cheap, clean electricity and heating for local communities. The unique geological features also attract millions of tourists annually, creating lucrative jobs in hospitality, guiding, and transport. Furthermore, volcanic activity deposits valuable minerals, such as sulfur, copper, and gold, which support mining industries. Finally, some residents may simply be unable to afford to move, or may downplay the risk due to long periods of inactivity.

Marking scheme

Award up to 4 marks for distinct explanatory points: 1 mark for explaining soil fertility/agricultural productivity, 1 mark for explaining geothermal energy potential, 1 mark for explaining tourism-related income, 1 mark for explaining mining/mineral extraction opportunities. Award an additional 0.5 marks for noting social/inertia factors (such as poverty or strong family ties).

Question 19 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions

4.5 marks

Explain how human factors can lead to food shortages in a region.

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Worked solution

Food shortages are often caused or exacerbated by human activities rather than just physical droughts. Firstly, civil war and political instability disrupt agricultural activities, as farmers are forced to flee their lands, and supply lines are blockaded. Secondly, inadequate infrastructure—such as poorly maintained roads and lack of cold storage facilities—means harvested crops spoil before reaching markets. Thirdly, extreme poverty prevents subsistence farmers from purchasing essential inputs like fertilizers, machinery, and high-yielding seed varieties, keeping yields low. Finally, government mismanagement, such as prioritizing land for cash crop exports (like cotton or tobacco) instead of food crops, can deplete local food supplies.

Marking scheme

Award up to 4 marks for distinct human factors explained: 1 mark for explaining the impact of war/conflict, 1 mark for explaining transport and storage infrastructure failures, 1 mark for explaining economic poverty/lack of agricultural inputs, 1 mark for explaining government policies/cash crop priorities. Award an additional 0.5 marks for referencing a specific regional example of human-induced food shortages (such as South Sudan or Yemen).

Question 20 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions

4.5 marks

Explain how the combustion of fossil fuels by industries can lead to the acidification of lakes and forests in distant areas.

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Worked solution

The process of acid rain formation begins when industries burn fossil fuels (coal and oil), releasing sulfur dioxide (\(SO_2\)) and nitrogen oxides (\(NO_x\)) into the atmosphere. Once in the air, these gases rise and react with water vapor, oxygen, and other chemicals to form weak solutions of sulfuric and nitric acid. Because these acidic droplets are extremely light, they can be carried hundreds of kilometers by prevailing winds. When precipitation occurs, the acids fall to the earth as wet deposition (acid rain, snow, or fog). Upon reaching the ground, this acidic runoff lowers the pH of lakes, killing aquatic life, and leaches essential nutrients from forest soils, damaging tree foliage and roots.

Marking scheme

Award up to 4 marks for process explanation: 1 mark for naming the key industrial gases emitted (sulfur dioxide and/or nitrogen oxides), 1 mark for explaining the chemical reaction with atmospheric water vapor, 1 mark for explaining wind transport/dispersion to distant areas, 1 mark for explaining the ecological impacts on lakes (pH reduction/loss of aquatic life) or forests (nutrient leaching). Award an additional 0.5 marks for naming a historically affected region (such as the Black Forest in Germany or Scandinavian lakes).

Question 21 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions

4.5 marks

Explain how pull factors draw international migrants to urban areas in High-Income Countries (HICs).

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Worked solution

To explain the pull factors attracting international migrants to HIC cities, several dimensions must be considered: First, economic factors are vital. Urban centers in HICs have concentrated markets, financial districts, and diverse industries, creating high demand for both skilled and unskilled labor with higher wages. Second, social factors attract families, since access to public amenities like high-quality healthcare networks, well-funded education systems, and social security nets is often much better. Third, diaspora and community networks in major HIC cities reduce the initial costs and risks of migration by providing housing, job leads, and familiar cultural or linguistic environments. Finally, political stability and safe urban environments free from civil unrest offer secure places to raise families.

Marking scheme

Award marks as follows up to a maximum of 4.5 marks: 1 mark for explaining the role of higher wages and job opportunities in HIC cities compared to origin countries; 1 mark for explaining how access to high-quality healthcare and education systems attracts families; 1 mark for explaining how existing diaspora/ethnic communities in urban areas provide support and facilitate family reunification; 1 mark for explaining the impact of political stability, safety, and human rights protections in HICs; and 0.5 marks for providing a specific, relevant country-to-country example of international migration (such as migration from Mexico to the USA, or from India to the UK).

Question 22 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions

4.5 marks

Describe the factors that influence the sphere of influence of a high-order urban service, such as a specialist regional hospital or a flagship department store.

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Worked solution

Several key geographical concepts explain the extent of a service's sphere of influence: First, range refers to the maximum distance people are willing to travel for high-order, specialized, or expensive goods and services. Because these cannot be obtained locally, consumers travel long distances, creating a large range. Second, threshold population is the minimum number of customers required to make a service viable. High-order services have high setup costs and require a vast population base, so they must draw from a wide catchment area. Third, accessibility plays a major role; a location near key highway junctions or transit hubs expands the catchment area. Fourth, a lower density of competing high-order services in the surrounding region increases the overall sphere of influence.

Marking scheme

Award marks as follows up to a maximum of 4.5 marks: 1 mark for explaining the concept of range (the maximum distance people are willing to travel for high-order, unique goods/services); 1 mark for explaining threshold population (the large customer base needed to make the high-order service viable, requiring a larger area); 1 mark for explaining transport accessibility (how proximity to highways, rail networks, or parking facilitates travel from distant areas); 1 mark for explaining competition (fewer competing high-order services in the wider region increases the catchment area); and 0.5 marks for correctly identifying or defining 'threshold' or 'range' in the context of the answer, or providing a specific real-world example of a high-order service.

Question 23 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions

4.5 marks

Explain how constructive waves differ from destructive waves and how these differences affect the morphology of a beach.

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Worked solution

Constructive and destructive waves have opposing effects on the coastal zone due to differences in energy and wave mechanics: First, constructive waves are associated with calm weather, having low height, long wavelength, and low frequency. Their gentle spill allows water to percolate into the sand, making the swash powerful while weakening the backwash, resulting in sediment deposition and a steeper beach profile with berms. Second, destructive waves are associated with stormy conditions, having high height, short wavelength, and high frequency. They plunge vertically onto the beach with great force, meaning their backwash is highly energetic and stronger than their swash, which erodes and drags sediment down the beach face to form offshore bars and a flatter beach profile.

Marking scheme

Award marks as follows up to a maximum of 4.5 marks: 1 mark for comparing wave physical characteristics (constructive: low frequency, low height, long wavelength versus destructive: high frequency, high height, short wavelength); 1 mark for comparing swash and backwash strength (constructive: strong swash and weak backwash versus destructive: weak swash and strong backwash); 1 mark for explaining the morphological effect of constructive waves (deposition of sediment, building up beach width/height, creating berms); 1 mark for explaining the morphological effect of destructive waves (erosion of sediment, flattening the beach profile, carrying material offshore to form longshore/offshore bars); and 0.5 marks for naming a specific beach feature formed by either wave type (such as berms, runnels, offshore bars, or storm beaches).

Question 24 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions

4.5 marks

Explain how intensive agricultural activities can lead to the degradation of local freshwater ecosystems.

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Worked solution

Intensive farming practices adversely impact freshwater bodies through chemical and physical degradation: First, the heavy use of synthetic chemical fertilizers containing nitrogen and phosphorus leads to runoff into local waterways. This nutrient enrichment causes eutrophication, triggering rapid algal blooms that block sunlight and kill submerged plants. Decomposers feed on this dead plant matter and multiply, consuming dissolved oxygen and creating dead zones where fish cannot survive. Second, pesticides and herbicides washed into rivers are toxic to aquatic invertebrates and fish, and can bioaccumulate in the food web. Third, intensive mechanical ploughing leaves soil vulnerable to erosion, washing sediment into rivers which increases turbidity, clogs fish gills, and silts up spawning gravels.

Marking scheme

Award marks as follows up to a maximum of 4.5 marks: 1 mark for explaining fertilizer runoff leading to nutrient enrichment and the formation of algal blooms (eutrophication); 1 mark for explaining the subsequent oxygen depletion (anoxia) caused by bacteria decomposing dead algae, leading to fish kills; 1 mark for explaining how pesticides/herbicides enter waterways and cause direct toxicity or bioaccumulation in the food web; 1 mark for explaining how soil erosion from ploughed fields increases sedimentation, which increases turbidity and clogs fish gills or spawning beds; and 0.5 marks for naming a specific consequence or indicator (such as 'dead zones', bioaccumulation, a specific chemical like ammonium nitrate, or the impact of irrigation on reducing river flow).

Question 25 · Case Study

7 marks

For a named urban area you have studied, explain the causes of rapid urban growth.

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Worked solution

Case Study: Rio de Janeiro, Brazil

One major cause of rapid urban growth in Rio de Janeiro is rural-to-urban migration, driven by strong push factors from the rural North-East (Sertão) of Brazil. These include extreme, frequent droughts that destroy subsistence crops and the increasing mechanisation of commercial agriculture, which has left thousands of farm laborers unemployed.

Pull factors to Rio de Janeiro include the perception of better employment opportunities in the informal and formal service sectors, manufacturing, and tourism. Migrants are also attracted by better social infrastructure, such as access to healthcare facilities and schools, which are scarce in rural areas.

Another significant cause of growth is natural increase. The majority of rural-to-urban migrants are young adults of child-bearing age. Consequently, the urban population has a high birth rate. Combined with access to basic urban healthcare which has reduced death rates, this has resulted in a high rate of natural population growth within the city's informal settlements (favelas) like Rocinha.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1–3 marks): Simple, generic statements identifying push/pull factors or natural increase.
- E.g., People move to the city to find jobs. There are better schools there. Droughts make farmers leave the countryside.

Level 2 (4–6 marks): Developed explanations of reasons for growth, with some specific references to the named example.
- E.g., Farmers migrate from the dry North-East of Brazil to Rio because crop failure means they have no income. They are attracted to Rio by construction and manufacturing jobs.

Level 3 (7 marks): Fully developed explanation of both migration and natural increase, with precise, place-specific details/data for the chosen urban area (e.g., referencing specific source regions like Bahia, specific favelas like Rocinha, or specific industries).

Question 26 · Case Study

7 marks

For a named volcanic eruption you have studied, describe the hazards it caused and explain its impacts on people and the environment.

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Worked solution

Case Study: Soufrière Hills Eruption, Montserrat (1997)

The eruption of the Soufrière Hills volcano generated extreme hazards, notably highly destructive pyroclastic flows (superheated mixtures of gas, ash, and rock moving at over 100 km/h) and thick deposits of volcanic ash.

The impacts on people were catastrophic. The pyroclastic flows killed 19 people who had remained in the designated exclusion zone to watch over their crops. The capital city of Plymouth was completely buried under meters of ash and mud, forcing the permanent evacuation and displacement of over 7,000 residents (more than half the island's population) to the northern safe zone or overseas to the UK.

Economically, the island's main airport (W.H. Bramble Airport) and only deep-water port were destroyed, paralyzing the tourism and export industries. Environmentally, large areas of agricultural land and tropical rainforest were completely incinerated, leaving the southern two-thirds of the island a barren wasteland.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1–3 marks): Simple, generic statements describing volcanic hazards or their consequences.
- E.g., There was hot ash and rock. People died and houses were destroyed. People had to move away.

Level 2 (4–6 marks): Developed descriptions and explanations of the hazards and impacts, with clear reference to the chosen volcanic eruption.
- E.g., Pyroclastic flows swept down the sides of the volcano and buried the capital city, Plymouth. This forced thousands of people to evacuate to the north of Montserrat.

Level 3 (7 marks): Thoroughly developed explanation of both physical hazards and human/environmental impacts, utilizing precise place-specific details and accurate data (e.g., named settlements, casualty numbers, specific economic costs, or agricultural impacts).

Question 27 · Case Study

7 marks

For a named country or region you have studied, explain the causes of food shortages.

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Worked solution

Case Study: South Sudan

In South Sudan, food shortages are caused by a complex combination of physical and human factors.

A major physical cause is climate variability. The country experiences unreliable rainfall patterns, including prolonged droughts that dry out soils and cause crops like sorghum to fail. Conversely, sudden flash flooding in low-lying areas along the Nile River drowns standing crops and drowns cattle. Furthermore, biological hazards such as desert locust infestations have periodically devoured vast swathes of crops.

However, human factors are the primary driver of severe food shortages. Prolonged civil conflict has displaced millions of farming families, forcing them to flee to protection camps and leave agricultural fields uncultivated. The instability also prevents aid agencies from safely delivering food relief to remote states like Unity and Jonglei. Economically, hyperinflation has made imported foodstuffs unaffordable for the impoverished population, while a lack of paved roads means that domestic food surpluses in one part of the country cannot be transported to areas experiencing deficit.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1–3 marks): Simple statements identifying causes of food shortages.
- E.g., It does not rain enough. There is a war. Pests eat the crops. People are too poor to buy food.

Level 2 (4–6 marks): Developed explanations of how physical and human factors combine to create food shortages, with some reference to the chosen country.
- E.g., Civil conflict in South Sudan means farmers flee their land so crops are not planted. Additionally, poor road networks prevent food aid from reaching areas in need.

Level 3 (7 marks): Comprehensive, well-developed explanations covering both physical and human causes, supported by specific place-specific details, names of regions/states, or statistical data for the chosen case study.

Paper 2 Geographical Skills (P22)

Answer all questions. You must use the 1:25000 survey map extract provided to complete the first question.

6 Question · 60 marks

Question 1 · Mapwork

20 marks

Section Instructions: Answer all questions. You must use the described 1:25 000 survey map extract of Coledale to complete this question.

Study the hypothetical 1:25 000 topographic map extract of Coledale with a contour interval of 10m. The map extract shows an area of hilly terrain, the River Cole valley, and several settlement patterns. Eastings range from 40 to 46, and Northings range from 15 to 22.

(a) Grid References and Map Features:
(i) Identify the type of vegetation found at the 4-figure grid reference 4218. [1 mark]
(ii) Give the 6-figure grid reference of the post office in the nucleated village of High Beck. [2 marks]
(iii) Name the type of natural vegetation found in grid square 4522. [1 mark]

(b) Distance, Direction, and Gradient:
(i) State the general compass direction and bearing from the church with a spire in grid square 4119 to the bridge at 446215. [1 mark]
(ii) Measure the straight-line distance, in metres, between the church with a spire in grid square 4119 and the bridge at 446215. [1 mark]
(iii) Calculate the gradient along this straight line, given that the altitude of the church is 180 metres and the altitude of the bridge is 30 metres. Show your working. [2 marks]

(c) Physical Features:
Describe the physical features of the River Cole and its valley between grid lines 40 and 46. [5 marks]

(d) Settlement Patterns:
Describe the distribution and patterns of the settlements shown on the map extract. [5 marks]

(e) Slope Analysis:
Describe the shape of the slope in grid square 4317 from north to south, and explain how the contours show this. [2 marks]

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Worked solution

Part (a) Solutions:
(i) The 4-figure grid square 4218 is dominated by Coniferous forest/woodland.
(ii) The post office symbol is located exactly at 432204 (allowable range 431204 to 433204 for Eastings, and 432203 to 432205 for Northings).
(iii) Grid square 4522 shows Deciduous forest/woodland.

Part (b) Solutions:
(i) Direction from the church (413192) to the bridge (446215) is North East (NE) or East-North-East (ENE), with a bearing of approximately 55 degrees (accept range 50 to 65 degrees).
(ii) The straight-line distance is 4.0 km on the ground, which corresponds to 16.0 cm on a 1:25 000 map. Thus, the real-world distance is 4000 metres (accept 3900m to 4100m).
(iii) Gradient = Height Difference / Horizontal Distance.
Height Difference = 180m - 30m = 150m.
Horizontal Distance = 4000m (using candidate's answer from b-ii).
Gradient = 150 / 4000 = 1/26.67 = 1 in 26.7 (or 3.75% / 0.0375).

Part (c) Solutions:
The River Cole flows generally from southwest to northeast. In its western section (upstream), the valley is narrow and V-shaped with steep sides. As it moves east (downstream), the valley floor opens out into a wide, flat floodplain. The river exhibits a highly meandering course, including an oxbow lake (cut-off meander) in grid square 4521. Multiple tributaries join the main river, with a key confluence at High Beck (4321). Valley slopes are asymmetrical, with steeper slopes on the southern and eastern margins.

Part (d) Solutions:
Settlement is unevenly distributed across the map extract. High Beck is a clear nucleated settlement clustered around the road junction and bridge point in grid square 4320. In contrast, a linear settlement pattern is visible along the B3012 road in grid squares 4118 and 4218. The upland plateau areas (above 150m) feature isolated, dispersed farmsteads. Crucially, there is a total avoidance of settlement on the low-lying valley floor/floodplain to avoid flood hazards (dry-point settlement site selection on lower valley slopes/ridges).

Part (e) Solutions:
The slope in grid square 4317 from north to south is concave. In the north, near the river, the contour lines are widely spaced, indicating a gentle gradient. Moving southwards, the contour lines become progressively closer together, showing that the slope becomes steeper as elevation increases towards the ridge.

Marking scheme

(a) Grid References & Features [Total: 4 marks]
(i) Coniferous forest/woodland [1 mark]. Reject: Forest (must specify type from key or map characteristics).
(ii) 432204 [2 marks]. Award 1 mark for correct Easting (431, 432 or 433) and 1 mark for correct Northing (203, 204 or 205).
(iii) Deciduous forest/woodland [1 mark]. Reject: Mixed wood.

(b) Distance, Direction, & Gradient [Total: 4 marks]
(i) North East (NE) or East-North-East (ENE) or bearing of 50 to 65 degrees [1 mark].
(ii) 4000m (accept 3900m to 4100m) [1 mark]. Reject: 4km (question asks for metres).
(iii) 1 in 26.7 (accept 1 in 26 to 1 in 27.3, or 3.7% to 3.8%) [2 marks].
- Award 1 mark for correct formula/working: Height difference of 150m divided by candidate's distance from (b)(ii).
- Award 1 mark for correct final gradient calculation.

(c) Physical Features [Total: 5 marks]
Award 1 mark for each valid descriptive point up to a maximum of 5:
- River flows SW to NE / west to east.
- River has a meandering / winding course.
- Tributaries join the main river.
- Confluence located in grid square 4321 / near High Beck.
- V-shaped / narrow / steep-sided valley in the west / upper course.
- Wide / flat valley floor / floodplain in the east / lower course.
- Oxbow lake / cut-off meander in 4521.
- Steep river cliffs / steep outer bank slopes.
- Asymmetrical valley profile (steeper south side / gentler north side).

(d) Settlement Patterns [Total: 5 marks]
Award 1 mark for each valid descriptive point up to a maximum of 5:
- Nucleated settlement at High Beck / grid square 4320.
- Linear settlement along the B3012 road / grid squares 4118-4218.
- Dispersed / isolated farmsteads / dwellings in upland areas (above 150m).
- Avoidance of the flat valley floor / floodplain / low-lying areas (due to flood risk).
- Settlement located on lower valley slopes / dry-point sites.
- High Beck is situated at a bridging point / crossing point of the river.
- No settlement in forested areas / grid square 4218.

(e) Slope Analysis [Total: 2 marks]
- Concave slope [1 mark].
- Explanation: Contours are widely spaced in the north (gentle) and get closer together towards the south (steep) [1 mark].

Question 2 · Interpretive Data / Graph Questions

8 marks

An extract of a 1:25000 topographic survey map shows the river valley of the River Avon near the settlement of Abbotsbury.

(a) State the 6-figure grid reference of the church with a tower in Abbotsbury. [1]
(b) Measure the straight-line distance from the road bridge at grid reference 124563 to the railway station at 151594. Give your answer in kilometers. [2]
(c) Calculate the gradient along the road from point A (10m above sea level at 124563) to point B (90m above sea level at 141578), which has a road distance of 2.5 km. [2]
(d) Describe the physical features of the River Avon and its valley in the north-western sector of the map (grid squares 1158 and 1159). [3]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Locate the settlement of Abbotsbury, identify the symbol for a church with a tower, and determine its grid reference: Easting 13 (estimated tenths 2) and Northing 57 (estimated tenths 4), yielding 132574.
(b) Measure the distance between the road bridge and the railway station on the map using a ruler (approx. 16.4 cm). Using the map scale of 1:25000 (where 4 cm represents 1 km), convert this to a real-world distance of 4.1 km.
(c) Calculate the vertical height difference: \(90\text{ m} - 10\text{ m} = 80\text{ m}\). The horizontal road distance is 2.5 km (2500 m). Calculate gradient as \(\text{Height difference} / \text{Horizontal distance} = 80 / 2500 = 1\text{ in } 31.25\) (or \(3.2\%\)).
(d) Analyze the landscape in grid squares 1158 and 1159: the contour lines are absent or highly spaced, indicating a flat/gentle valley floor; the river channel is winding (meandering); and wetland symbols indicate marshy ground on the floodplain.

Marking scheme

Total: 8 marks
- (a) 1 mark for correct 6-figure grid reference (132574; accept 131574 to 133575).
- (b) 2 marks: 1 mark for map measurement/scaling working, 1 mark for correct final distance of 4.1 km (allow 4.0 to 4.2 km).
- (c) 2 marks: 1 mark for establishing height difference (80m) and formula setup, 1 mark for correct gradient of 1 in 31.25 (accept 1:31 or 3.2%).
- (d) 3 marks: 1 mark for each valid physical feature described, up to 3 marks (e.g., meandering/winding river channel, flat/gentle valley floor, presence of marsh/wetland/floodplain, river flows southwest).

Question 3 · Interpretive Data / Graph Questions

8 marks

Study the climate data table below for Station X in the Southern Hemisphere:

- January: 22°C, 45mm
- February: 21°C, 50mm
- March: 19°C, 60mm
- April: 16°C, 80mm
- May: 12°C, 110mm
- June: 9°C, 130mm
- July: 8°C, 140mm
- August: 9°C, 120mm
- September: 11°C, 95mm
- October: 14°C, 75mm
- November: 17°C, 55mm
- December: 20°C, 40mm

(a) Calculate the annual temperature range for Station X. [2]
(b) Describe the relationship between temperature and rainfall at Station X. [2]
(c) Identify the climate type shown by the data. Justify your answer using evidence from the table. [4]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Identify the highest temperature (22°C in January) and the lowest temperature (8°C in July). Annual temperature range = \(22^\circ\text{C} - 8^\circ\text{C} = 14^\circ\text{C}\).
(b) Contrast the two variables: as temperature increases, rainfall decreases. This inverse relationship is clear, as the warmest months (Dec-Feb) have the lowest rainfall (40-50mm) while the coolest months (Jun-Aug) have the highest rainfall (120-140mm).
(c) The climate type is Mediterranean. The justification must use data from the table to highlight mild/cool winters, warm summers, and winter-dominant rainfall (e.g., 140mm in July vs 40mm in December).

Marking scheme

Total: 8 marks
- (a) 2 marks: 1 mark for correct working shown (22 - 8), 1 mark for correct value (14°C). Deduct 1 mark if unit (°C) is missing.
- (b) 2 marks: 1 mark for identifying the inverse/negative relationship, 1 mark for supporting detail or contrast using data values.
- (c) 4 marks: 1 mark for identifying 'Mediterranean' climate. 3 marks for justification (1 mark for temperature characteristics using values, 1 mark for seasonal rainfall distribution characteristics, 1 mark for supporting data points from the table).

Question 4 · Interpretive Data / Graph Questions

8 marks

Study the demographic data below for Country A and Country B:

- Country A: Birth Rate = 42/1000, Death Rate = 14/1000, Infant Mortality = 65/1000, Life Expectancy = 54 years, Pop. under 15 = 45%, Pop. over 65 = 3%.
- Country B: Birth Rate = 10/1000, Death Rate = 11/1000, Infant Mortality = 3.5/1000, Life Expectancy = 82 years, Pop. under 15 = 16%, Pop. over 65 = 21%.

(a) Calculate the rate of natural increase for Country A as a percentage. [2]
(b) Explain why Country B has a higher death rate than Country A despite having a much higher life expectancy. [2]
(c) Compare the dependency burdens of Country A and Country B, and outline the differing challenges their governments face. [4]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Calculate the Rate of Natural Increase (RNI) using the formula: \(\text{Birth Rate} - \text{Death Rate}\). For Country A: \(42 - 14 = 28 \text{ per } 1000\). To convert to a percentage, divide by 10: \(28 / 10 = 2.8\%\).
(b) Country B's higher crude death rate is caused by its demographic structure. With an aging population (21% over 65, compared to Country A's 3%), a larger proportion of its population is in older age brackets with naturally higher mortality risks.
(c) Compare the dependency profiles: Country A has a youthful dependency burden (high percentage under 15) and faces the challenge of funding education, pediatric healthcare, and expanding jobs. Country B has an elderly dependency burden (high percentage over 65) and faces challenges of retirement pensions, elder care, and shrinking tax revenues from a smaller workforce.

Marking scheme

Total: 8 marks
- (a) 2 marks: 1 mark for correct difference (28 per 1000), 1 mark for correct percentage (2.8%).
- (b) 2 marks: 1 mark for identifying the high proportion of elderly people in Country B (21% over 65), 1 mark for explaining that this cohort has a higher natural mortality rate, raising the crude death rate.
- (c) 4 marks: 1 mark for comparative statement of dependency types (youth vs old-age); 1 mark for comparing total dependency ratio (Country A has 48% total dependents, Country B has 37%); 1 mark for describing challenges in Country A (e.g., school building, job creation); 1 mark for describing challenges in Country B (e.g., funding pensions, elder healthcare).

Question 5 · Interpretive Data / Graph Questions

8 marks

An analysis of the employment structure in three economic sectors (Primary, Secondary, Tertiary) shows the following figures for four countries:

- Country W: Primary = 60%, Secondary = 15%, Tertiary = 25%
- Country X: Primary = 5%, Secondary = 25%, Tertiary = 70%
- Country Y: Primary = 25%, Secondary = 40%, Tertiary = 35%
- Country Z: Primary = 10%, Secondary = 50%, Tertiary = 40%

(a) Identify the country that has the highest percentage of its workforce employed in the secondary sector, and state this percentage. [2]
(b) State the employment percentage in each of the three sectors for Country Y. [2]
(c) Classify Country W and Country X into their likely stages of economic development. Justify your classifications using the employment data. [4]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Check the secondary sector percentages across the countries: W (15%), X (25%), Y (40%), Z (50%). Country Z has the highest at 50%.
(b) The employment figures for Country Y are directly read from the data as: Primary = 25%, Secondary = 40%, and Tertiary = 35%.
(c) Country W has a dominant primary sector (60%), showing that the economy is heavily reliant on agriculture and resource extraction, typical of an LEDC. Country X has a dominant tertiary sector (70%) and a minimal primary sector (5%), reflecting a highly developed, service-oriented economy typical of an MEDC.

Marking scheme

Total: 8 marks
- (a) 2 marks: 1 mark for identifying Country Z, 1 mark for stating 50%.
- (b) 2 marks: 1 mark if two values are correct, 2 marks if all three values are correct (Primary 25%, Secondary 40%, Tertiary 35%).
- (c) 4 marks: 1 mark for classifying Country W as Low Income/LEDC/Developing; 1 mark for explaining that high primary sector (60%) indicates reliance on manual agriculture/extractive industries; 1 mark for classifying Country X as High Income/MEDC/Developed; 1 mark for explaining that high tertiary employment (70%) and low primary employment (5%) are indicative of a mature service economy.

Question 6 · Interpretive Data / Graph Questions

8 marks

A study of a river basin's response to a 20 mm rainstorm event compared two catchments, Basin P and Basin Q:

- Basin P: Lag time = 3 hours, Peak discharge = 85 cumecs, Base flow = 10 cumecs.
- Basin Q: Lag time = 12 hours, Peak discharge = 22 cumecs, Base flow = 8 cumecs.

(a) Define the terms 'lag time' and 'peak discharge' as used in river studies. [2]
(b) Calculate the difference in peak discharge between Basin P and Basin Q. [1]
(c) Basin P is heavily urbanized, whereas Basin Q is a forested, rural catchment. Explain how these differences in land use lead to the differing shapes of the hydrographs for Basin P and Basin Q. [5]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Define 'lag time' as the time difference between the peak of the rainfall event and the peak discharge of the river. Define 'peak discharge' as the maximum volume of water flowing past a point in the river per unit time (measured in cumecs).
(b) Subtract Basin Q's peak discharge from Basin P's peak discharge: \(85\text{ cumecs} - 22\text{ cumecs} = 63\text{ cumecs}\).
(c) Explain the contrasting hydrological pathways: Basin P's urban surfaces (roads, concrete) are impermeable, preventing infiltration and forcing water to flow rapidly over the surface (overland flow) into gutters and drains, resulting in a short lag time (3 hours) and high peak discharge (85 cumecs). Basin Q's forest canopy intercepts rainfall, and the permeable organic forest soils allow high rates of infiltration and percolation, causing water to travel slowly as throughflow and groundwater flow, resulting in a long lag time (12 hours) and a much lower peak discharge (22 cumecs).

Marking scheme

Total: 8 marks
- (a) 2 marks: 1 mark for defining 'lag time' (time between peak rainfall and peak discharge), 1 mark for defining 'peak discharge' (maximum river flow/discharge after rainfall).
- (b) 1 mark for correct calculation: 63 cumecs (must include unit or accept 63).
- (c) 5 marks:
- 1 mark for mentioning impermeable surfaces/concrete/tarmac in Basin P.
- 1 mark for explaining that this prevents infiltration and increases surface runoff/overland flow.
- 1 mark for referencing gutters/drains in urban areas speed up water delivery to the channel.
- 1 mark for explaining that forests in Basin Q intercept rainfall (leaves/canopy) and slow its arrival to the floor.
- 1 mark for explaining that tree roots and soil organic matter increase infiltration/percolation rates, leading to slower throughflow/groundwater flow.

Paper 4 Alternative to Coursework (P42)

Answer all questions. Complete the graphs and calculations using the data provided in the insert.

2 Question · 60 marks

Question 1 · Fieldwork Analysis & Methodology Evaluation

30 marks

Paper 4: Alternative to Coursework

Section instructions: Answer all questions. Complete the graphs and calculations using the data provided in this paper.

Question 1 (30 marks)

Students from an international school in France investigated how river characteristics changed downstream along the River Tech. They selected 5 sites at equal intervals from the source to the mouth to test the following hypotheses:

Hypothesis 1: River velocity increases downstream.
Hypothesis 2: Bedload size decreases and roundness increases downstream.

Table 1: Velocity measurements at Site 3
- Trial 1: 0.42 m/s
- Trial 2: 0.48 m/s
- Trial 3: 0.45 m/s

Table 2: Average velocity at all 5 sites
- Site 1: 0.22 m/s
- Site 2: 0.31 m/s
- Site 3: [To be calculated]
- Site 4: 0.58 m/s
- Site 5: 0.64 m/s

Tasks:

(a) Describe how students could measure velocity at each site using a float, a tape measure, and a stopwatch. [4 marks]

(b) State one advantage and one disadvantage of using a float to measure river velocity compared to using a digital flow meter. [2 marks]

(d) Describe how the students would use the data in Table 2 to plot a line graph showing average velocity from Site 1 to Site 5. [3 marks]

(e) State whether the data supports Hypothesis 1: 'River velocity increases downstream'. Support your conclusion with evidence from the table. [3 marks]

(f) To investigate Hypothesis 2, students sampled 10 stones from the river bed at each site. Describe a systematic method they could use to select the stones to avoid bias. [3 marks]

(g) Explain how the students would measure the size of the long axis of a selected stone using a caliper. [2 marks]

(h) Explain why bedload size decreases and roundness increases downstream. [4 marks]

(i) Identify two safety hazards the students might face during this river fieldwork and suggest one precaution for each hazard. [4 marks]

(j) Evaluate the fieldwork methodology. Suggest three ways the reliability of the results could be improved. [3 marks]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Measuring velocity:
1. Measure a fixed distance along the river bank (e.g., 10 meters) using a tape measure.
2. Mark the start and end points of this distance.
3. Release a float (e.g., an orange or tennis ball) slightly upstream of the start point so it is moving at river speed when it crosses the start line.
4. Start the stopwatch as the float passes the start point, and stop it as it passes the end point.
5. Repeat this process multiple times to calculate an average travel time, then divide distance by time to calculate velocity \(v = d/t\).

(b) Float vs Flow Meter:
- Advantage: Free/inexpensive equipment; easy to replace if lost.
- Disadvantage: Measures only surface velocity, which is faster than deeper water due to less friction; can get trapped in eddies or vegetation; affected by wind.

(c) Calculation:
\(\text{Average} = \frac{0.42 + 0.48 + 0.45}{3} = \frac{1.35}{3} = 0.45 \text{ m/s}\).

(d) Graph construction:
1. Plot the sites (1 to 5) on the horizontal (x) axis at equal intervals.
2. Plot velocity (m/s) on the vertical (y) axis using a suitable scale (e.g., 2 cm = 0.1 m/s).
3. Plot the point for each site accurately (e.g., Site 3 at 0.45 m/s) and connect the points with a straight line.

(e) Hypothesis 1 Conclusion:
- The data supports the hypothesis.
- General trend: Average velocity increases steadily from Site 1 (0.22 m/s) to Site 5 (0.64 m/s).
- Supporting data: From Site 1 to Site 5, velocity increased by 0.42 m/s.

(f) Systematic bedload sampling:
1. Use a transect across the river channel from one bank to the other.
2. Select stones at regular intervals (e.g., every 50 cm or 1 meter) along the transect tape.
3. Pick up the stone that is directly under the marking point on the tape without looking (to avoid choosing larger/prettier stones).

(g) Measuring stone size:
1. Place the long axis (maximum length) of the stone between the jaws of the caliper.
2. Close the jaws firmly but gently against the stone.
3. Read the scale measurement (in millimeters) directly off the caliper vernier or digital display.

(h) Reasons for change downstream:
- Attrition: Stones collide with each other, breaking off sharp edges and making them rounder and smaller.
- Corrasion/Abrasion: Stones rub against the river bed and banks, wearing away the load.
- Sorting: Larger, heavier stones are deposited upstream because velocity is insufficient to transport them, while smaller rocks are transported further downstream.

(i) Hazards and Precautions:
- Hazard 1: Slippery rocks / falling into water. Precaution: Wear sturdy boots with good grip; use wading poles for balance.
- Hazard 2: Strong currents / deep pools. Precaution: Do not wade past knee height; monitor weather forecasts to avoid flash floods; wear a life jacket.

(j) Improving reliability:
1. Sample more than 10 stones per site (e.g., 30 stones) to get a more statistically representative sample.
2. Measure velocity at multiple positions across the channel width (left, center, right) rather than just a single thread.
3. Repeat measurements on different days or seasons to account for variations in discharge.

Marking scheme

(a) Measuring velocity [Max 4]:
- 1 mark for measuring a fixed distance (e.g. 10m) with tape measure.
- 1 mark for releasing float upstream of start point.
- 1 mark for timing with stopwatch from start to finish line.
- 1 mark for repeating and calculating average speed using distance/time formula.
Do not accept just 'measure distance' without specifying tool or distance.

(b) Advantage/Disadvantage [Max 2]:
- 1 mark for valid advantage (e.g., low cost, simple to use).
- 1 mark for valid disadvantage (e.g., wind interference, surface only, gets caught in rocks).
Do not accept 'inaccurate' without explanation.

(c) Calculation [Max 2]:
- 1 mark for showing working: \((0.42 + 0.48 + 0.45) / 3\).
- 1 mark for correct answer: 0.45 (m/s). (Allow 0.45 without working for 1 mark).

(d) Graph description [Max 3]:
- 1 mark for identifying axes correctly (x-axis = Sites, y-axis = Velocity).
- 1 mark for plotting the calculated Site 3 value (0.45) accurately.
- 1 mark for connecting points with a continuous line.

(e) Hypothesis Conclusion [Max 3]:
- 1 mark for stating that the hypothesis is fully supported / true.
- 1 mark for citing velocity increase from 0.22 m/s (Site 1) to 0.64 m/s (Site 5).
- 1 mark for showing a general increase at each intermediate site (e.g., Site 2 to 3, or Site 4 to 5).

(f) Systematic sampling [Max 3]:
- 1 mark for using a tape across the river (cross-profile transect).
- 1 mark for sampling at fixed intervals (e.g., every 50cm).
- 1 mark for blind selection technique (e.g., touching the bed at the exact point without looking).

(g) Caliper measurement [Max 2]:
- 1 mark for identifying the long axis / longest part of the stone.
- 1 mark for placing jaws flush against the ends of the axis and reading the millimeter scale.

(h) Reasons for downstream changes [Max 4]:
- 1 mark for identifying attrition (colliding with other rocks).
- 1 mark for identifying abrasion (rubbing against bed/banks).
- 1 mark for explanation of rounding (wearing away of sharp corners/edges).
- 1 mark for hydraulic sorting (smaller particles carried further downstream due to lower mass).

(i) Hazards and Precautions [Max 4]:
- 1 mark for each valid hazard (up to 2).
- 1 mark for each corresponding precaution (up to 2).
Accept: Slippery rocks -> wear grippy footwear; Deep water/currents -> do not wade deep/wear life jacket; Cold water -> wear thermal waders.

(j) Improving reliability [Max 3]:
- 1 mark for increasing sample size (e.g., 30 stones instead of 10).
- 1 mark for measuring at different times of the year/discharge conditions.
- 1 mark for cross-channel velocity profiling (left/middle/right measurements).

Question 2 · Fieldwork Analysis & Methodology Evaluation

30 marks

Paper 4: Alternative to Coursework

Question 2 (30 marks)

A group of geography students in the UK wanted to investigate the Sphere of Influence of two different shopping areas in a town: the traditional Central Business District (CBD) and a newly developed out-of-town retail park. They formulated the following hypotheses:

Hypothesis 1: The CBD has a larger sphere of influence than the out-of-town retail park.
Hypothesis 2: People visit the CBD and the retail park for different purposes and using different modes of transport.

Table 3: Distance traveled by shoppers (number of respondents out of 50 per site)
- Under 2 km: CBD = 15, Retail Park = 5
- 2 - 5 km: CBD = 18, Retail Park = 12
- 5.1 - 10 km: CBD = 12, Retail Park = 20
- Over 10 km: CBD = 5, Retail Park = 13

Table 4: Primary mode of transport used by shoppers (percentage)
- Walking: CBD = 30%, Retail Park = 2%
- Bus: CBD = 40%, Retail Park = 5%
- Train: CBD = 10%, Retail Park = 8%
- Car: CBD = 20%, Retail Park = 85%

Tasks:

(a) Define the term 'sphere of influence'. [2 marks]

(b) State three rules the students should follow when designing their questionnaire to ensure high-quality, unbiased responses. [3 marks]

(c) The students used a systematic sampling method to select 50 shoppers at each location. Explain how they would carry out this sampling method and why it is better than random sampling for this task. [4 marks]

(d) Using the data in Table 3, describe the differences in the distance traveled by shoppers to the CBD compared to the Retail Park. [4 marks]

(e) Do you agree with Hypothesis 1: 'The CBD has a larger sphere of influence than the out-of-town retail park'? Justify your answer using evidence from Table 3. [4 marks]

(f) (i) Explain how the students would represent the transport mode data from Table 4 on a divided bar graph. [3 marks]

(f) (ii) Suggest geographical reasons for the differences in modes of transport used to visit the CBD compared to the Retail Park. [4 marks]

(g) Suggest two other pieces of primary data, besides questionnaires, the students could collect to compare the two shopping areas. [2 marks]

(h) Explain the limitations of conducting this questionnaire survey on a single Saturday morning in December. [4 marks]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Sphere of influence: The geographical area served by a settlement, shop, or service. It represents the distance people are willing to travel to access these functions.

(b) Questionnaire design rules:
1. Keep questions short, clear, and unambiguous.
2. Avoid leading questions that influence the respondent's answer.
3. Include closed questions (e.g., tick boxes) for easier quantitative analysis, alongside limited open questions.
4. Begin with a polite introduction explaining the purpose of the study and ensuring anonymity.

(c) Systematic sampling:
- How to conduct: Establish a rule, such as asking every 5th person who passes a designated spot (e.g., an entrance gate) to complete the survey.
- Why it is better: It reduces researcher bias (the researcher does not select people based on appearance), is quicker and easier to implement on-site than random sampling, and ensures a more even, representative spread of the population across the sampling period.

(d) Travel distance differences:
- Shoppers generally travel shorter distances to the CBD than to the Retail Park.
- For the CBD, the majority of shoppers (33 out of 50, or 66%) travel 5 km or less, whereas for the Retail Park, the majority (33 out of 50, or 66%) travel more than 5 km.
- Only 5 shoppers (10%) traveled over 10 km to the CBD, compared to 13 shoppers (26%) for the Retail Park.

(e) Evaluation of Hypothesis 1:
- Disagree with Hypothesis 1. The out-of-town retail park actually has a larger sphere of influence.
- Evidence: More people travel long distances (over 5 km) to the Retail Park (33 respondents) than to the CBD (17 respondents).
- Only 5 people travel under 2 km to the Retail Park, compared to 15 people to the CBD, showing the Retail Park draws people from much further away.

(f) (i) Divided bar graph instructions:
1. Draw a single rectangular bar representing 100% (e.g., 10 cm or 20 cm long).
2. Segment the bar into sections representing the percentages for each mode of transport: Car (85%), Train (8%), Bus (5%), and Walking (2%).
3. Color or shade each segment differently and create a clear legend/key corresponding to the shading.

(f) (ii) Reasons for transport differences:
- CBD: Located in the town center, which is highly accessible by public transport (buses, trains) and has pedestrianized zones encouraging walking. Parking is often limited, expensive, or congested, discouraging car use.
- Retail park: Located on the urban fringe near major highways/bypass roads, making it highly accessible by car. It offers extensive, free parking. It has poor pedestrian access and fewer direct public transport links.

(g) Other primary data:
1. Pedestrian footfall counts (flow maps) at various points in both locations.
2. Environmental Quality Index (EQI) surveys comparing litter, noise, air quality, and greenery.

(h) Limitations of Saturday morning in December:
- Seasonality: December is the Christmas shopping peak, so transport patterns, visitor numbers, and distances traveled may be uncharacteristically high compared to the rest of the year.
- Temporal bias: A Saturday morning only captures weekend shoppers; it excludes weekday workers, commuters, and evening visitors, leading to an unrepresentative sample of typical weekly habits.
- Weather: December weather in the UK is cold/wet, which might deter walkers or public transport users, inflating the number of car journeys.

Marking scheme

(a) Sphere of influence definition [Max 2]:
- 1 mark for 'area served by a settlement/service'.
- 1 mark for indicating relationship with distance/threshold population/catchment area.

(b) Questionnaire design [Max 3]:
- 1 mark per valid rule (e.g., clear/simple questions, avoid leading questions, include age/gender categories instead of direct questions, keep it short, polite introduction). Max 3.

(c) Systematic sampling [Max 4]:
- 1 mark for description: e.g., asking every \(n^{\text{th}}\) person (e.g. 5th, 10th).
- 1 mark for setting up a consistent point/location.
- 1 mark for avoiding researcher bias (cannot choose who to ask).
- 1 mark for ease/speed of implementation compared to random number tables in a busy street.

(d) Travel distance differences [Max 4]:
- 1 mark for noting overall trend (Retail Park shoppers travel further / CBD shoppers travel shorter distances).
- 1 mark for CBD data usage (e.g., 15 under 2km vs Retail Park's 5).
- 1 mark for Retail Park data usage (e.g., 13 over 10km vs CBD's 5).
- 1 mark for comparative synthesis (e.g., 33 out of 50 travel 5km or less for CBD, but 33 out of 50 travel more than 5km for Retail Park).

(e) Hypothesis evaluation [Max 4]:
- 1 mark for explicitly stating disagreement/rejection of Hypothesis 1.
- 1 mark for stating Retail Park has the larger sphere of influence.
- 1 mark for comparing the 'over 10 km' cohort (13 for Retail Park vs 5 for CBD).
- 1 mark for comparing the '5.1 to 10 km' cohort (20 for Retail Park vs 12 for CBD).

(f) (i) Divided bar graph [Max 3]:
- 1 mark for correct scale (total 100% represented by complete bar length).
- 1 mark for correct plotting of segments (85%, 8%, 5%, 2% in order).
- 1 mark for key/legend indicating the four categories.

(f) (ii) Reasons for transport differences [Max 4]:
- 1 mark for CBD public transport node concentration (bus/train stations nearby).
- 1 mark for CBD parking costs/congestion discouraging cars.
- 1 mark for Retail Park proximity to major roads/highways making car access easy.
- 1 mark for Retail Park providing free, abundant parking and bulky goods requiring a car trunk.

(g) Other primary data [Max 2]:
- 1 mark per valid method (e.g., Pedestrian count, Environmental Quality Assessment, land-use mapping, decibel noise levels). Max 2.

(h) Limitations [Max 4]:
- 1 mark for noting Christmas/December shopping skewing typical behavior (seasonal bias).
- 1 mark for noting weekend/Saturday morning excluding weekday profiles (temporal bias).
- 1 mark for weather conditions in December reducing walking/cycling rates.
- 1 mark for small temporal window not capturing evening retail activity.

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