Cambridge IGCSE · Thinka-original Practice Paper

2024 Cambridge IGCSE Sciences - Co-ordinated (Double) (0654) Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Nov 2024 (V1) Cambridge International A Level-Style Mock — Sciences - Co-ordinated (Double) (0654)

220 marks255 mins2024
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Nov 2024 (V1) Cambridge International A Level Sciences - Co-ordinated (Double) (0654) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

Paper 21 (Extended MCQ)

Answer all forty multiple choice questions. Choose the single best option for each item.
40 Question · 40 marks
Question 1 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A model car of mass \(3.0\text{ kg}\) is traveling at a constant speed of \(4.0\text{ m/s}\). A constant braking force of \(8.0\text{ N}\) is applied to stop the car. What is the distance traveled by the car while it is braking?
  1. A.\(1.5\text{ m}\)
  2. B.\(3.0\text{ m}\)
  3. C.\(6.0\text{ m}\)
  4. D.\(12.0\text{ m}\)
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Worked solution

The initial kinetic energy of the car is: \(E_k = \frac{1}{2} m v^2 = \frac{1}{2} \times 3.0 \times 4.0^2 = 24\text{ J}\). The work done by the braking force to stop the car must equal this kinetic energy: \(W = F \times d = 24\text{ J}\). Since the force \(F = 8.0\text{ N}\), we can solve for distance \(d\): \(d = \frac{24}{8.0} = 3.0\text{ m}\). Alternatively, using equations of motion, the acceleration is: \(a = -\frac{F}{m} = -\frac{8.0}{3.0}\text{ m/s}^2\). Using \(v^2 = u^2 + 2as\), we get: \(0 = 4.0^2 + 2 \times \left(-\frac{8.0}{3.0}\right) \times s\), which simplifies to \(16 = \frac{16}{3} s\), giving \(s = 3.0\text{ m}\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer B. Correct calculation of initial kinetic energy and equating it to work done (or using Newton's second law and equations of motion) to obtain the braking distance.
Question 2 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
An amylase-controlled reaction is investigated at different temperatures. A student measures the time taken for starch to be completely broken down. At \(30^\circ\text{C}\), it takes \(120\text{ seconds}\). At \(40^\circ\text{C}\), it takes \(40\text{ seconds}\). At \(60^\circ\text{C}\), no starch breakdown occurs even after \(30\text{ minutes}\). Which statement explains these observations?
  1. A.At \(30^\circ\text{C}\), kinetic energy is lower, so successful collisions are more frequent.
  2. B.At \(40^\circ\text{C}\), the rate of reaction is slower because more enzyme-substrate complexes are formed.
  3. C.At \(60^\circ\text{C}\), the high temperature has denatured the enzyme by altering the shape of its active site.
  4. D.At \(60^\circ\text{C}\), the substrate molecules have too much kinetic energy to bind to the active site.
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Worked solution

At \(30^\circ\text{C}\), the kinetic energy is lower, meaning fewer successful collisions occur, so it takes longer (\(120\text{ s}\)) compared to \(40^\circ\text{C}\) (\(40\text{ s}\)). At \(60^\circ\text{C}\), the high temperature causes the enzyme to denature. This permanent change in the shape of the active site means the starch (substrate) can no longer fit, preventing any breakdown from taking place.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer C. Identifies that high temperatures denature enzymes by altering the shape of their active sites, preventing substrate binding.
Question 3 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A cylindrical metal wire of length \(l\) and cross-sectional area \(A\) (with radius \(r\)) has a resistance \(R\). A second wire made of the same metal has a length of \(3l\) and a radius of \(2r\). What is the resistance of the second wire in terms of \(R\)?
  1. A.\(0.375 R\)
  2. B.\(0.75 R\)
  3. C.\(1.5 R\)
  4. D.\(3.0 R\)
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Worked solution

The resistance of a wire is given by \(R = \rho \frac{l}{A}\), where \(A = \pi r^2\). For the second wire, the length is \(3l\) and the radius is \(2r\), meaning its cross-sectional area is \(A_2 = \pi (2r)^2 = 4 \pi r^2 = 4A\). Therefore, the new resistance is: \(R_2 = \rho \frac{3l}{4A} = \frac{3}{4} \left(\rho \frac{l}{A}\right) = 0.75 R\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer B. Correctly scales length by 3 and area by 4 (since area is proportional to the square of the radius), resulting in a factor of 3/4.
Question 4 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Four gas jars are filled with different gases at the same temperature: carbon dioxide (\(M_r = 44\)), neon (\(M_r = 20\)), nitrogen (\(M_r = 28\)), and sulfur dioxide (\(M_r = 64\)). If a small opening is made in each jar, which gas will escape (diffuse out) most rapidly and why?
  1. A.Carbon dioxide, because its particles are the most dense.
  2. B.Neon, because its particles have the smallest relative mass and therefore diffuse the fastest.
  3. C.Nitrogen, because its particles have the highest average speed due to having a medium mass.
  4. D.Sulfur dioxide, because its particles have the highest average kinetic energy.
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Worked solution

According to the kinetic theory, the rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its relative molecular mass. Since neon has the smallest relative mass (\(M_r = 20\)), its particles have the highest average speed at this temperature and will diffuse out most rapidly. All gases at the same temperature have the same average kinetic energy, so D is incorrect.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer B. Understands that lower relative molecular/atomic mass results in a faster rate of diffusion at a given temperature.
Question 5 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Three solid substances, X, Y, and Z, have the following properties: X has a high melting point and does not conduct electricity as a solid or when molten; Y has a high melting point and conducts electricity when molten but not as a solid; Z has a low melting point and does not conduct electricity as a solid or a liquid. Which types of structures are represented by X, Y, and Z?
  1. A.X is giant covalent, Y is giant ionic, Z is simple covalent
  2. B.X is giant ionic, Y is giant covalent, Z is simple covalent
  3. C.X is simple covalent, Y is giant ionic, Z is giant covalent
  4. D.X is giant covalent, Y is metallic, Z is simple covalent
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Worked solution

Substance X has a high melting point and does not conduct in either state, which is characteristic of a giant covalent structure (e.g., silicon(IV) oxide). Substance Y has a high melting point and conducts electricity only when molten (due to mobile ions), which is typical of a giant ionic structure. Substance Z has a low melting point and does not conduct, typical of a simple covalent substance.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer A. Correctly links physical properties (melting point, electrical conductivity in solid/liquid states) to the appropriate type of structure (giant covalent, giant ionic, simple covalent).
Question 6 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which row in the table correctly identifies where the digestion of protein begins in the human alimentary canal, the specific enzyme involved at that starting point, and the final products of protein digestion absorbed into the blood?
  1. A.Begins in: Stomach | Enzyme: Pepsin | Final products absorbed: Amino acids
  2. B.Begins in: Mouth | Enzyme: Amylase | Final products absorbed: Glucose
  3. C.Begins in: Small intestine | Enzyme: Trypsin | Final products absorbed: Amino acids
  4. D.Begins in: Stomach | Enzyme: Lipase | Final products absorbed: Fatty acids and glycerol
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Worked solution

Protein digestion begins in the stomach, where the acidic environment is optimal for pepsin, a protease enzyme. The chemical digestion of proteins is completed in the small intestine, and the final products absorbed into the blood are amino acids.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer A. Accurately identifies the stomach as the start of protein digestion, pepsin as the starting enzyme, and amino acids as the final absorbed products.
Question 7 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A ray of light passes from air into a glass block. The angle of incidence in air is \(45^\circ\) and the refractive index of the glass is \(1.5\). What is the angle of refraction in the glass?
  1. A.\(28^\circ\)
  2. B.\(30^\circ\)
  3. C.\(42^\circ\)
  4. D.\(45^\circ\)
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Worked solution

The refractive index \(n\) is related to the angle of incidence \(i\) and angle of refraction \(r\) by Snell's law: \(n = \frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\). Rearranging to find \(r\): \(r = \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{\sin i}{n}\right) = \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{\sin 45^\circ}{1.5}\right) \approx \sin^{-1}(0.4714) \approx 28^\circ\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer A. Correctly uses Snell's law equation and trigonometric functions to calculate the angle of refraction.
Question 8 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A student measures the activity of a radioactive sample in a laboratory where the background radiation count rate is constant at \(24\text{ counts/minute}\). At the start of the experiment, the total measured count rate is \(408\text{ counts/minute}\). After \(3.0\text{ hours}\), the total measured count rate is \(72\text{ counts/minute}\). What is the half-life of the radioactive isotope?
  1. A.\(0.6\text{ hours}\)
  2. B.\(1.0\text{ hour}\)
  3. C.\(1.5\text{ hours}\)
  4. D.\(2.0\text{ hours}\)
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Worked solution

First, subtract the background count rate to find the activity due to the sample alone. Initial sample count rate = \(408 - 24 = 384\text{ counts/minute}\). Final sample count rate = \(72 - 24 = 48\text{ counts/minute}\). Determine how many half-lives have passed: \(384 \rightarrow 192 \rightarrow 96 \rightarrow 48\), which is exactly \(3\) half-lives. Since \(3\) half-lives elapsed over \(3.0\text{ hours}\), one half-life is equal to \(\frac{3.0\text{ hours}}{3} = 1.0\text{ hour}\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer B. Correctly accounts for background radiation by subtraction and determines the number of half-lives elapsed to find the half-life.
Question 9 · multiple_choice
1 marks
An investigation was carried out on the effect of pH on the rate of reaction of an enzyme. The rate of reaction was measured at different pH values while maintaining a constant temperature of 37 °C. At pH 8.0, the enzyme activity was at its maximum. At pH 3.0, the reaction ceased completely. Which statement best explains why the reaction ceased at pH 3.0?
  1. A.The activation energy of the reaction was increased by the acidic environment, making the substrate stable.
  2. B.The enzyme molecules gained kinetic energy and moved too fast to bind with the substrate.
  3. C.The shape of the active site changed permanently, so the substrate could no longer fit.
  4. D.The substrate molecules were denatured and could no longer bind to the enzyme's active site.
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Worked solution

At extreme pH values away from the optimum (pH 8.0), enzymes undergo denaturation. At pH 3.0, the hydrogen bonds and other bonds maintaining the three-dimensional structure of the enzyme are disrupted. This permanently alters the shape of the active site, meaning the substrate can no longer fit, and the reaction ceases. Substrates are not denatured, and kinetic energy changes are related to temperature, not pH.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying that the active site shape is permanently altered due to denaturation, preventing the substrate from fitting.
Question 10 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A student sets up an experiment to demonstrate the diffusion of two gases, ammonia (NH3, Mr = 17) and hydrogen chloride (HCl, Mr = 36.5), from opposite ends of a long glass tube. A white ring of ammonium chloride is formed where the two gases meet. Which statement is correct?
  1. A.The white ring forms closer to the ammonia end because ammonia molecules are lighter and move slower.
  2. B.The white ring forms closer to the hydrogen chloride end because hydrogen chloride molecules are heavier and move slower.
  3. C.The white ring forms exactly in the middle of the tube because both gases diffuse at the same rate.
  4. D.The white ring forms closer to the hydrogen chloride end because hydrogen chloride molecules are lighter and move faster.
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Worked solution

According to the principles of gas diffusion, lighter molecules (lower relative molecular mass, Mr) diffuse faster than heavier molecules at the same temperature. Ammonia (Mr = 17) has a lower relative molecular mass than hydrogen chloride (Mr = 36.5), so ammonia molecules diffuse faster and travel a greater distance. Hydrogen chloride molecules are heavier and diffuse slower, travelling a shorter distance. Therefore, the white ring forms closer to the hydrogen chloride end of the tube.

Marking scheme

1 mark for selecting the correct explanation that HCl is heavier and diffuses slower, resulting in the ring forming closer to the HCl end.
Question 11 · multiple_choice
1 marks
An object of mass 4.0 kg is initially sliding along a frictionless horizontal surface at a constant speed of 5.0 m/s. A constant horizontal force of 12.0 N is applied in the direction of motion for a duration of 3.0 s. What is the final kinetic energy of the object?
  1. A.50 J
  2. B.218 J
  3. C.392 J
  4. D.784 J
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Worked solution

First, calculate the acceleration of the object using Newton's second law: a = F / m = 12.0 N / 4.0 kg = 3.0 m/s^2. Next, find the final velocity after 3.0 s using the equation: v = u + at = 5.0 m/s + (3.0 m/s^2 * 3.0 s) = 14.0 m/s. Finally, calculate the final kinetic energy: Ek = 0.5 * m * v^2 = 0.5 * 4.0 kg * (14.0 m/s)^2 = 2.0 * 196 = 392 J.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct calculation of final velocity (14.0 m/s) and kinetic energy (392 J).
Question 12 · multiple_choice
1 marks
An atom or ion X has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 18 electrons. Which statement about X is correct?
  1. A.X is an isotope of argon.
  2. B.X is a cation of chlorine.
  3. C.X is an anion with a charge of 1-.
  4. D.X has a mass number of 35 and belongs to Group VIII of the Periodic Table.
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Worked solution

The number of protons (17) defines the element as chlorine. Since the number of electrons (18) is one greater than the number of protons (17), the particle has a net charge of 1-, making it an anion. The mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons (17 + 18 = 35), and chlorine is in Group VII, not Group VIII.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying X as a 1- anion of chlorine.
Question 13 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A circuit contains a 12 V d.c. power supply, a 6.0 ohm resistor, and a light-dependent resistor (LDR) connected in series. A voltmeter is connected across the 6.0 ohm resistor. The light intensity falling on the LDR increases. How do the resistance of the LDR and the reading on the voltmeter change?
  1. A.LDR resistance decreases, voltmeter reading decreases.
  2. B.LDR resistance decreases, voltmeter reading increases.
  3. C.LDR resistance increases, voltmeter reading decreases.
  4. D.LDR resistance increases, voltmeter reading increases.
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Worked solution

When light intensity on an LDR increases, its resistance decreases. Since the LDR and the 6.0 ohm resistor are in series, the total resistance of the circuit decreases, which increases the current flowing through the circuit. According to V = IR, an increased current through the fixed 6.0 ohm resistor results in a higher voltage across it, so the voltmeter reading increases.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying that LDR resistance decreases and voltmeter reading increases.
Question 14 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A ray of light travels from a glass block into air. The refractive index of the glass is 1.50. What is the critical angle c for the light at the glass-air boundary?
  1. A.33.7 degrees
  2. B.41.8 degrees
  3. C.48.6 degrees
  4. D.56.3 degrees
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Worked solution

The relationship between refractive index (n) and critical angle (c) is given by sin(c) = 1 / n. Substituting n = 1.50 gives sin(c) = 1 / 1.50 = 0.667. Solving for c, we get c = arcsin(0.667) = 41.8 degrees.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correctly applying the critical angle formula to find 41.8 degrees.
Question 15 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Cylinders of fresh potato of equal mass are placed in four sucrose solutions of different concentrations (0.0 mol/dm^3, 0.2 mol/dm^3, 0.6 mol/dm^3, and 1.0 mol/dm^3) for 2 hours. After 2 hours, the change in mass of each potato cylinder is measured. In which sucrose solution will the potato cylinder show the greatest percentage decrease in mass?
  1. A.0.0 mol/dm^3
  2. B.0.2 mol/dm^3
  3. C.0.6 mol/dm^3
  4. D.1.0 mol/dm^3
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Worked solution

A decrease in mass is caused by water leaving the potato cells via osmosis. Water moves down its potential gradient, from a higher water potential (inside the potato cells) to a lower water potential (outside in the sucrose solution). The 1.0 mol/dm^3 sucrose solution has the lowest water potential, creating the steepest concentration gradient, which results in the greatest net loss of water and the largest percentage decrease in mass.

Marking scheme

1 mark for selecting 1.0 mol/dm^3 as the solution causing the greatest mass loss due to osmosis.
Question 16 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A radioactive nucleus of bismuth-212 (proton number 83, mass number 212) undergoes decay to form a nucleus of polonium-212 (proton number 84, mass number 212). Which type of radiation is emitted during this decay?
  1. A.an alpha particle
  2. B.a beta particle
  3. C.a gamma ray
  4. D.a neutron
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Worked solution

During beta-minus decay, a neutron inside the nucleus decays into a proton and an electron (beta particle). The proton remains in the nucleus, increasing the atomic (proton) number by 1 (from 83 to 84), while the mass number remains unchanged (212). The emitted electron is a beta particle.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correctly identifying that beta emission results in an increase of 1 in the proton number with no change in mass number.
Question 17 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Pepsin is a protease that functions in the human stomach, where conditions are highly acidic. Trypsin is a protease that functions in the small intestine, where conditions are slightly alkaline. Which statement correctly describes the optimum pH of these two enzymes?
  1. A.Pepsin has an optimum pH of about pH 2, while trypsin has an optimum pH of about pH 8.
  2. B.Pepsin has an optimum pH of about pH 8, while trypsin has an optimum pH of about pH 2.
  3. C.Both pepsin and trypsin have an optimum pH of about pH 7.
  4. D.Both pepsin and trypsin function best in alkaline conditions..
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Worked solution

Pepsin is adapted to the highly acidic conditions of the stomach, giving it an optimum pH of around 2. Trypsin works in the slightly alkaline environment of the small intestine, giving it an optimum pH of around 8.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying the correct optimum pH values for both enzymes.
Question 18 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An object of mass \(2.0\text{ kg}\) is dropped from a height of \(15\text{ m}\) above the ground. Neglecting air resistance, what is the kinetic energy of the object when it has fallen to a height of \(5.0\text{ m}\) above the ground? (Use \(g = 10\text{ m/s}^2\))
  1. A.100\text{ J}
  2. B.200\text{ J}
  3. C.300\text{ J}
  4. D.400\text{ J}
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Worked solution

The decrease in gravitational potential energy is equal to the kinetic energy gained. The change in height is \(15\text{ m} - 5.0\text{ m} = 10\text{ m}\). The kinetic energy is calculated as: \(E_k = mg\Delta h = 2.0\text{ kg} \times 10\text{ m/s}^2 \times 10\text{ m} = 200\text{ J}\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct calculation of kinetic energy.
Question 19 · multiple-choice
1 marks
In an experiment, four different gases are allowed to diffuse through a porous membrane under identical temperature and pressure conditions. The gases are carbon dioxide (\(\text{CO}_2\)), methane (\(\text{CH}_4\)), nitrogen (\(\text{N}_2\)), and sulfur dioxide (\(\text{SO}_2\)). Which gas will diffuse the fastest? (Relative atomic masses: \(\text{H} = 1\), \(\text{C} = 12\), \(\text{N} = 14\), \(\text{O} = 16\), \(\text{S} = 32\))
  1. A.Carbon dioxide
  2. B.Methane
  3. C.Nitrogen
  4. D.Sulfur dioxide
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Worked solution

The rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely related to its relative molecular mass (\(M_r\)). Lighter molecules diffuse faster. The molecular masses are: \(\text{CO}_2 = 44\), \(\text{CH}_4 = 16\), \(\text{N}_2 = 28\), and \(\text{SO}_2 = 64\). Methane has the smallest molecular mass and therefore diffuses the fastest.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying methane as the gas with the lowest molecular mass that diffuses fastest.
Question 20 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An ideal step-up transformer has a primary coil with \(150\text{ turns}\) connected to a \(24\text{ V}\) a.c. supply. The secondary coil has \(900\text{ turns}\). If the current in the secondary circuit is \(0.40\text{ A}\), what is the current in the primary circuit?
  1. A.0.067\text{ A}
  2. B.0.40\text{ A}
  3. C.2.4\text{ A}
  4. D.14.4\text{ A}
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Worked solution

For an ideal transformer, the ratio of currents is inversely proportional to the ratio of turns: \(I_p / I_s = N_s / N_p\). Substituting the values: \(I_p / 0.40\text{ A} = 900 / 150 = 6\). Thus, \(I_p = 6 \times 0.40\text{ A} = 2.4\text{ A}\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct calculation of primary current using the transformer power/current relationship.
Question 21 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An atom of an isotope of potassium is represented by \(\text{^{41}_{19}K}\). Which row correctly identifies the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in a neutral atom of this isotope?
  1. A.Protons: 19, Neutrons: 19, Electrons: 22
  2. B.Protons: 19, Neutrons: 22, Electrons: 19
  3. C.Protons: 22, Neutrons: 19, Electrons: 22
  4. D.Protons: 41, Neutrons: 19, Electrons: 19
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Worked solution

The proton number (atomic number) is the lower subscript, which is 19. A neutral atom has the same number of electrons as protons, which is 19. The number of neutrons is the mass number minus the proton number: \(41 - 19 = 22\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for correctly identifying the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
Question 22 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A plant cell with a water potential of \(-300\text{ kPa}\) is placed in a concentrated sucrose solution with a water potential of \(-800\text{ kPa}\). Which statement correctly describes the movement of water and the state of the cell after a few hours?
  1. A.Water moves out of the cell, and the cell becomes turgid.
  2. B.Water moves into the cell, and the cell becomes turgid.
  3. C.Water moves out of the cell, and the cell becomes plasmolysed.
  4. D.Water moves into the cell, and the cell becomes plasmolysed.
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Worked solution

Water moves down a water potential gradient from a region of higher water potential (-300 kPa) to a region of lower water potential (-800 kPa). This causes water to leave the cell by osmosis. The loss of water causes the vacuole and cytoplasm to shrink, pulling the cell membrane away from the cell wall, which makes the cell plasmolysed.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying the correct direction of water movement and the resulting state of the plant cell.
Question 23 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A radioactive sample has an initial count rate of \(800\text{ counts per minute}\). After \(24\text{ hours}\), the count rate has fallen to \(50\text{ counts per minute}\). What is the half-life of this radioactive substance?
  1. A.3\text{ hours}
  2. B.6\text{ hours}
  3. C.8\text{ hours}
  4. D.12\text{ hours}
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Worked solution

To decrease from 800 to 50 counts per minute, the sample must halve four times: \(800 \rightarrow 400 \rightarrow 200 \rightarrow 100 \rightarrow 50\). Since four half-lives occur in 24 hours, the half-life is \(24 / 4 = 6\text{ hours}\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for determining the number of half-lives and calculating the duration of one half-life.
Question 24 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Propene (\(\text{C}_3\text{H}_6\)) is an unsaturated hydrocarbon that reacts with bromine water. What is the type of this reaction and the chemical formula of the product formed?
  1. A.Addition reaction, yielding \(\text{C}_3\text{H}_6\text{Br}_2\)
  2. B.Substitution reaction, yielding \(\text{C}_3\text{H}_5\text{Br}\)
  3. C.Addition reaction, yielding \(\text{C}_3\text{H}_5\text{Br}\)
  4. D.Substitution reaction, yielding \(\text{C}_3\text{H}_6\text{Br}_2\)
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Worked solution

Alkenes like propene are unsaturated and undergo addition reactions with halogens. Bromine atoms add across the double bond, breaking it and forming dibromopropane with the formula \(\text{C}_3\text{H}_6\text{Br}_2\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying addition reaction and the correct molecular formula of the product.
Question 25 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An enzyme-catalysed reaction is investigated at different temperatures. Which statement correctly describes the effect of temperature on the collision rate and the denaturation of the enzyme?
  1. A.As temperature increases, the kinetic energy of molecules decreases, reducing the collision rate.
  2. B.At temperatures above the optimum, the active site of the enzyme changes shape permanently, preventing substrate binding.
  3. C.Denaturation is a reversible process where the enzyme temporarily loses its complementary shape.
  4. D.Raising the temperature always increases the rate of reaction regardless of the optimum temperature.
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Worked solution

As temperature increases, the kinetic energy of the molecules increases, which increases the frequency of effective collisions between the enzyme and substrate. However, at temperatures above the optimum, the high thermal energy disrupts the bonds maintaining the three-dimensional structure of the enzyme's active site. This permanent change in shape is called denaturation, preventing the substrate from fitting into the active site. Denaturation is an irreversible process.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying the correct statement regarding denaturation and the permanent shape change of the active site.
Question 26 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Four gas jars containing different gases are inverted over gas jars containing air. Which gas will diffuse into the air at the fastest rate at room temperature and pressure? (Relative atomic masses: H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, S = 32)
  1. A.Carbon dioxide, \(CO_{2}\)
  2. B.Nitrogen monoxide, \(NO\)
  3. C.Sulfur dioxide, \(SO_{2}\)
  4. D.Methane, \(CH_{4}\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The rate of diffusion of a gas depends on its relative molecular mass (Mr). The lower the relative molecular mass, the faster the gas molecules move and diffuse. Let us calculate the Mr values: CO2 = 12 + (2 * 16) = 44; NO = 14 + 16 = 30; SO2 = 32 + (2 * 16) = 64; CH4 = 12 + (4 * 1) = 16. Since CH4 (methane) has the lowest Mr, it diffuses the fastest.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying that the gas with the lowest relative molecular mass diffuses fastest, and correctly identifying methane (CH4).
Question 27 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A crane lifts a load of mass 400 kg vertically upwards through a height of 15 m in a time of 20 s. The gravitational field strength, g, is 10 N/kg. What is the useful average power developed by the crane?
  1. A.300 W
  2. B.3000 W
  3. C.6000 W
  4. D.120000 W
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Worked solution

First, calculate the work done (which is equal to the gain in gravitational potential energy): Work done = weight * height = m * g * h = 400 kg * 10 N/kg * 15 m = 60000 J. Next, calculate the power: Power = Work done / time = 60000 J / 20 s = 3000 W.

Marking scheme

1 mark for using the correct formulas (Work = m * g * h and Power = Work / t) to obtain 3000 W.
Question 28 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An atom of an isotope of element X contains 19 protons, 20 neutrons, and 18 electrons. Which statement about this particle is correct?
  1. A.It is a neutral atom of potassium.
  2. B.It is a positively charged ion of potassium with a 1+ charge.
  3. C.It is a negatively charged ion of chlorine with a 1- charge.
  4. D.It is a positively charged ion of calcium with a 2+ charge.
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Worked solution

The atomic number is determined by the number of protons, which is 19. Looking at the periodic table, element 19 is potassium (K). Since the number of protons (19) is greater than the number of electrons (18) by one, the particle has a net charge of 1+. Therefore, it is a positively charged potassium ion.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correctly determining that 19 protons corresponds to potassium and 18 electrons yields a 1+ charge.
Question 29 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A 6.0 ohm resistor and a 12.0 ohm resistor are connected in parallel. This combination is then connected in series with a 4.0 ohm resistor. What is the total equivalent resistance of this circuit?
  1. A.2.0 ohms
  2. B.8.0 ohms
  3. C.10.0 ohms
  4. D.22.0 ohms
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

First, calculate the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination: 1/R_p = 1/6.0 + 1/12.0 = 2/12.0 + 1/12.0 = 3/12.0. So, R_p = 12.0 / 3 = 4.0 ohms. Next, add the series resistor: R_total = R_p + R_series = 4.0 ohms + 4.0 ohms = 8.0 ohms.

Marking scheme

1 mark for calculating the parallel resistance as 4.0 ohms, and then adding 4.0 ohms to get 8.0 ohms.
Question 30 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which row correctly identifies the characteristics of human male and female gametes?
  1. A.Sperm: limited numbers produced, mobile. Egg: millions produced daily, immobile.
  2. B.Sperm: mobile, contains half the normal number of chromosomes. Egg: immobile, contains the full diploid number of chromosomes.
  3. C.Sperm: small size, high mobility. Egg: large size, immobile.
  4. D.Sperm: diploid, flagellum present. Egg: haploid, jelly coat absent.
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Worked solution

Human sperm (male gametes) are very small in size, highly mobile due to their flagellum, and are produced continuously in millions. Human eggs (female gametes) are much larger because they contain energy stores for the initial stages of development, are immobile, and are released only once a month during ovulation.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correctly identifying the complementary size and mobility traits of human male and female gametes.
Question 31 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which statement about electromagnetic waves is correct?
  1. A.Radio waves have the shortest wavelength and the highest frequency in the spectrum.
  2. B.Infrared radiation is used in satellite television broadcasting because it penetrates the atmosphere easily.
  3. C.All electromagnetic waves travel at the same speed in a vacuum.
  4. D.Sound waves are a type of high-frequency transverse electromagnetic wave.
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Worked solution

All electromagnetic waves travel at the exact same speed in a vacuum (approximately 3 * 10^8 m/s). Radio waves actually have the longest wavelength and lowest frequency. Sound waves are longitudinal mechanical waves, not transverse electromagnetic waves.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying that all electromagnetic waves travel at the same speed in a vacuum.
Question 32 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Metal Z reacts vigorously with cold water. Metal Y does not react with cold water but reacts with steam. Metal X does not react with steam, but its oxide is reduced to the metal by heating with carbon. What is the correct order of reactivity of these metals, from most reactive to least reactive?
  1. A.X -> Y -> Z
  2. B.Y -> Z -> X
  3. C.Z -> X -> Y
  4. D.Z -> Y -> X
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Worked solution

Reacting vigorously with cold water indicates that Metal Z is highly reactive (like sodium or calcium). Reacting with steam but not cold water means Metal Y has medium-high reactivity (like iron or zinc). Being unable to react with steam and having an oxide reduced by carbon indicates Metal X has lower reactivity (like lead or copper). Therefore, the order of decreasing reactivity is Z -> Y -> X.

Marking scheme

1 mark for analyzing the physical/chemical tests to order the metals correctly from most to least reactive.
Question 33 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A trolley of mass \(2.0\text{ kg}\) moving at a velocity of \(6.0\text{ m/s}\) collides with a stationary trolley of mass \(3.0\text{ kg}\). After the collision, the two trolleys stick together and move with a common velocity. What is the total kinetic energy lost during the collision?
  1. A.\(0\text{ J}\)
  2. B.\(14.4\text{ J}\)
  3. C.\(21.6\text{ J}\)
  4. D.\(36.0\text{ J}\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

First, find the final velocity \(v\) using the conservation of momentum: \(m_1 u_1 + m_2 u_2 = (m_1 + m_2) v\). Substituting the values: \((2.0 \times 6.0) + (3.0 \times 0) = (2.0 + 3.0) v\), which simplifies to \(12 = 5.0 v\), hence \(v = 2.4\text{ m/s}\). Next, calculate the initial kinetic energy: \(E_{k,\text{initial}} = \frac{1}{2} m_1 u_1^2 = \frac{1}{2} \times 2.0 \times 6.0^2 = 36.0\text{ J}\). Now calculate the final kinetic energy: \(E_{k,\text{final}} = \frac{1}{2} (m_1 + m_2) v^2 = \frac{1}{2} \times 5.0 \times 2.4^2 = 14.4\text{ J}\). Finally, calculate the kinetic energy lost: \(\Delta E_k = 36.0 - 14.4 = 21.6\text{ J}\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for calculating the final velocity of \(2.4\text{ m/s}\), finding the difference between initial kinetic energy (\(36.0\text{ J}\)) and final kinetic energy (\(14.4\text{ J}\)), yielding the correct loss of \(21.6\text{ J}\).
Question 34 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Why does the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction decrease rapidly at temperatures above the optimum temperature?
  1. A.The kinetic energy of the substrate molecules decreases, resulting in fewer effective collisions.
  2. B.The enzyme molecules are denatured, changing the shape of the active site so the substrate can no longer fit.
  3. C.The activation energy of the reaction increases, preventing the conversion of substrates into products.
  4. D.The substrate molecules are denatured, preventing them from binding to the unchanged active site.
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Worked solution

At temperatures above the optimum, the excessive thermal energy breaks the weak bonds holding the enzyme's specific three-dimensional structure together. This denatures the enzyme, permanently changing the shape of its active site so that the substrate molecule can no longer fit and bind to form an enzyme-substrate complex.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correctly identifying that high temperatures denature enzyme molecules by permanently altering the shape of their active sites, preventing substrate binding.
Question 35 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride (brine) is electrolysed using inert carbon electrodes. Which row correctly identifies the products formed at each electrode and the change in pH of the remaining electrolyte?
  1. A.Anode product: chlorine gas; Cathode product: hydrogen gas; pH of remaining electrolyte: increases
  2. B.Anode product: oxygen gas; Cathode product: sodium metal; pH of remaining electrolyte: decreases
  3. C.Anode product: chlorine gas; Cathode product: sodium metal; pH of remaining electrolyte: stays the same
  4. D.Anode product: oxygen gas; Cathode product: hydrogen gas; pH of remaining electrolyte: increases
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Worked solution

During the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous \(\text{NaCl}\): At the anode (+), halide chloride ions (\(\text{Cl}^-\)) are discharged in preference to hydroxide ions because they are in high concentration, producing chlorine gas. At the cathode (-), hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) are discharged in preference to sodium ions because hydrogen is less reactive, producing hydrogen gas. As \(\text{H}^+\) and \(\text{Cl}^-\) are removed, \(\text{Na}^+\) and \(\text{OH}^-\) ions remain in the solution, forming sodium hydroxide, which is basic and causes the pH of the remaining electrolyte to increase.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correctly identifying chlorine gas at the anode, hydrogen gas at the cathode, and an increase in the pH of the remaining electrolyte.
Question 36 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Two resistors, \(R_1 = 4.0\ \Omega\) and \(R_2 = 12.0\ \Omega\), are connected in parallel across a \(6.0\text{ V}\) d.c. power supply. What is the total electrical power dissipated in this circuit?
  1. A.\(2.25\text{ W}\)
  2. B.\(9.0\text{ W}\)
  3. C.\(12.0\text{ W}\)
  4. D.\(16.0\text{ W}\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

First, calculate the equivalent parallel resistance \(R_p\) of the circuit: \(1/R_p = 1/R_1 + 1/R_2 = 1/4.0 + 1/12.0 = 3/12.0 + 1/12.0 = 4/12.0\), which gives \(R_p = 3.0\ \Omega\). Next, calculate the total power using \(P = V^2 / R_p\): \(P = 6.0^2 / 3.0 = 36.0 / 3.0 = 12.0\text{ W}\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for calculating the correct total equivalent resistance of \(3.0\ \Omega\) and using the electrical power formula to find \(12.0\text{ W}\).
Question 37 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A man of blood group A and a woman of blood group B have a child together who has blood group O. What is the probability that their next child will also have blood group O?
  1. A.\(0\%\)
  2. B.\(25\%\)
  3. C.\(50\%\)
  4. D.\(75\%\)
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Worked solution

Blood group alleles \(I^A\) and \(I^B\) are codominant, while \(I^O\) is recessive. Since the first child has blood group O (genotype \(I^O I^O\)), both parents must carry one copy of the recessive allele \(I^O\). Thus, the father's genotype is \(I^A I^O\) and the mother's genotype is \(I^B I^O\). A genetic cross (\(I^A I^O \times I^B I^O\)) results in a 1 in 4 chance (\(25\%\)) of an offspring having the genotype \(I^O I^O\) (blood group O).

Marking scheme

1 mark for correctly identifying the heterozygous genotypes of both parents and finding the correct probability of \(25\%\).
Question 38 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Calcium carbonate reacts with excess dilute hydrochloric acid: \(\text{CaCO}_3(\text{s}) + 2\text{HCl}(\text{aq}) \rightarrow \text{CaCl}_2(\text{aq}) + \text{H}_2\text{O}(\text{l}) + \text{CO}_2(\text{g})\). What mass of calcium carbonate is required to produce \(2.4\text{ dm}^3\) of carbon dioxide gas at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.)? [Assume 1 mole of gas occupies \(24\text{ dm}^3\) at r.t.p.; \(M_r \text{ of CaCO}_3 = 100\)]
  1. A.\(1.0\text{ g}\)
  2. B.\(5.0\text{ g}\)
  3. C.\(10.0\text{ g}\)
  4. D.\(100.0\text{ g}\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

First, find the moles of \(\text{CO}_2\) gas produced: \(\text{moles} = 2.4\text{ dm}^3 / 24\text{ dm}^3/\text{mol} = 0.1\text{ mol}\). According to the balanced equation, \(1\text{ mol}\) of \(\text{CaCO}_3\) produces \(1\text{ mol}\) of \(\text{CO}_2\). Therefore, \(0.1\text{ mol}\) of \(\text{CaCO}_3\) is required. Calculate the mass of \(\text{CaCO}_3\): \(\text{mass} = 0.1\text{ mol} \times 100\text{ g/mol} = 10.0\text{ g}\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for calculating the amount of gas (0.1 mol), recognizing the 1:1 mole ratio, and converting this to 10.0 g of calcium carbonate.
Question 39 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A ray of light traveling in air strikes the flat boundary of a glass block at an angle of incidence of \(45^\circ\). The refractive index of the glass is \(1.5\). What is the angle of refraction inside the glass block, rounded to the nearest degree?
  1. A.\(28^\circ\)
  2. B.\(30^\circ\)
  3. C.\(45^\circ\)
  4. D.\(60^\circ\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Use Snell's Law: \(n = \frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\), where \(n = 1.5\) and \(i = 45^\circ\). Rearranging the formula gives \(\sin r = \frac{\sin 45^\circ}{1.5} = \frac{0.7071}{1.5} \approx 0.4714\). Calculating the inverse sine: \(r = \arcsin(0.4714) \approx 28.1^\circ\). Rounded to the nearest degree, the angle of refraction is \(28^\circ\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for correctly applying Snell's Law, solving for the sine of the angle of refraction, and calculating the angle as \(28^\circ\).
Question 40 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A group of healthy plant cells is placed in a highly concentrated sucrose solution which has a much lower water potential than the cell sap. Which row correctly describes the net movement of water and the final state of the cells after 30 minutes?
  1. A.Net movement of water: into the cells; State of the cells: turgid
  2. B.Net movement of water: out of the cells; State of the cells: plasmolysed
  3. C.Net movement of water: out of the cells; State of the cells: turgid
  4. D.Net movement of water: into the cells; State of the cells: plasmolysed
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Worked solution

Water moves by osmosis down a water potential gradient from a region of higher water potential (inside the plant cell sap) to a region of lower water potential (the concentrated external sucrose solution) across a partially permeable membrane. The loss of water causes the vacuole and cytoplasm to shrink, pulling the cell membrane away from the cell wall, leaving the cell in a plasmolysed state.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying that water net movement is out of the cells and that this results in plasmolysed cells.

Paper 41 (Extended Theory)

Answer all twelve structured theory questions in the allocated spaces.
12 Question · 120 marks
Question 1 · Structured Theory
10 marks
An experiment is conducted to investigate the effect of pH on the rate of reaction of amylase.

(a) Describe the mechanism of enzyme action using the lock-and-key model. [3]

(b) Explain why the rate of reaction of amylase is very low at both pH 3 and pH 11. [4]

(c) Predict and explain the effect of decreasing the temperature of this reaction from \(37\text{ }^\circ\text{C}\) to \(15\text{ }^\circ\text{C}\). [3]
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Worked solution

(a) The enzyme has a specifically shaped region called the active site. The substrate has a complementary shape that fits precisely into this active site, much like a key fits into a lock. They bind together to form an enzyme-substrate complex, where the reaction takes place.
(b) Amylase has an optimum pH (typically around neutral pH 7). Extremely low pH (pH 3) or extremely high pH (pH 11) denatures the enzyme. Denaturation permanently alters the shape of the enzyme's active site, meaning the substrate is no longer complementary and cannot bind. Therefore, no enzyme-substrate complexes can form, and the reaction rate falls to near zero.
(c) Decreasing the temperature will decrease the rate of reaction. This is because molecules have less kinetic energy at lower temperatures, meaning they move more slowly. This reduces the frequency of collisions between enzyme and substrate molecules, resulting in fewer successful collisions per unit time.

Marking scheme

(a) 1 mark: Mention of active site.
1 mark: Substrate shape is complementary to active site / fits like lock-and-key.
1 mark: Formation of enzyme-substrate complex.

(b) 1 mark: Extreme pH values cause the enzyme to denature.
1 mark: The shape of the active site is permanently altered.
1 mark: The substrate can no longer fit / bind into the active site.
1 mark: No enzyme-substrate complexes are formed.

(c) 1 mark: Reaction rate decreases.
1 mark: Molecules have less kinetic energy / move slower.
1 mark: Less frequent / fewer collisions per second between enzyme and substrate.
Question 2 · Structured Theory
10 marks
A toy car of mass \(0.5\text{ kg}\) is pushed from rest. It accelerates uniformly along a flat, horizontal track.

(a) The car reaches a speed of \(4.0\text{ m/s}\) in a time of \(2.5\text{ s}\). Calculate:
(i) the acceleration of the car, [2]
(ii) the kinetic energy of the car at this speed. [2]

(b) A constant frictional force of \(0.3\text{ N}\) acts against the car's motion.
(i) Calculate the resultant force acting on the car during its acceleration. [2]
(ii) Calculate the forward force exerted on the car. [1]

(c) Describe the energy transfer that occurs as the car decelerates to a stop on a rougher section of the track after the pushing force is removed. [3]
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Worked solution

(a)(i) Acceleration is calculated using: \(a = \frac{v - u}{t} = \frac{4.0 - 0}{2.5} = 1.6\text{ m/s}^2\).
(a)(ii) Kinetic energy is: \(E_k = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \frac{1}{2} \times 0.5 \times 4.0^2 = 0.25 \times 16 = 4.0\text{ J}\).
(b)(i) Using Newton's second law: \(F_{\text{resultant}} = m \times a = 0.5 \times 1.6 = 0.8\text{ N}\).
(b)(ii) Since \(F_{\text{resultant}} = F_{\text{forward}} - F_{\text{friction}}\), we have \(0.8 = F_{\text{forward}} - 0.3\). Therefore, \(F_{\text{forward}} = 0.8 + 0.3 = 1.1\text{ N}\).
(c) The kinetic energy of the moving car is transferred into thermal (internal) energy of the wheels, track, and surroundings. This is due to work done by the frictional forces opposing the motion.

Marking scheme

(a)(i) 1 mark: Correct formula or substitution: \(a = \frac{4.0}{2.5}\).
1 mark: \(1.6\text{ m/s}^2\) (must include correct unit).

(a)(ii) 1 mark: Correct formula or substitution: \(E_k = \frac{1}{2} \times 0.5 \times 4.0^2\).
1 mark: \(4.0\text{ J}\) (must include correct unit).

(b)(i) 1 mark: Correct formula or substitution: \(F = 0.5 \times 1.6\).
1 mark: \(0.8\text{ N}\).

(b)(ii) 1 mark: \(1.1\text{ N}\) (accept calculation: \(0.8 + 0.3\)).

(c) 1 mark: Identifies initial energy as kinetic energy of the car.
1 mark: Identifies final energy as thermal/internal energy (of wheels/track/surroundings).
1 mark: Mentions work done against friction as the cause.
Question 3 · Structured Theory
10 marks
The reaction between dilute hydrochloric acid and calcium carbonate chips is studied.

\(\text{CaCO}_3\text{(s)} + 2\text{HCl(aq)} \rightarrow \text{CaCl}_2\text{(aq)} + \text{H}_2\text{O(l)} + \text{CO}_2\text{(g)}\)

(a) Describe how the rate of this reaction can be measured using gas collection apparatus. [3]

(b) Explain, in terms of the collision theory, how the rate of this reaction changes when:
(i) the concentration of hydrochloric acid is increased. [3]
(ii) large marble chips (calcium carbonate) are replaced with the same mass of calcium carbonate powder. [3]

(c) State one other variable, besides concentration and surface area, that can be increased to increase the rate of this reaction. [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) To measure the rate of reaction using gas collection, connect the flask containing the reaction mixture to a gas syringe (or an inverted measuring cylinder filled with water) via a delivery tube. Measure the volume of carbon dioxide gas collected in the syringe at regular time intervals (using a stopwatch). The rate can be expressed as the volume of gas produced per unit time.
(b)(i) Increasing the concentration of hydrochloric acid increases the number of acid particles per unit volume. This makes the particles closer together, which increases the frequency of collisions (number of collisions per unit time) between the acid particles and the calcium carbonate, leading to a higher rate of successful collisions and thus a faster reaction rate.
(b)(ii) Replacing large chips with powder of the same mass greatly increases the surface area of the calcium carbonate. This means more calcium carbonate particles are exposed to the acid on the surface, which increases the frequency of collisions between the reactants per unit time, resulting in an increased reaction rate.
(c) The temperature of the reaction mixture can be increased (or a catalyst could be used) to increase the rate of reaction.

Marking scheme

(a) 1 mark: Use of a gas syringe (or inverted measuring cylinder over water).
1 mark: Measure the volume of carbon dioxide gas produced.
1 mark: Record the measurements at regular time intervals using a timer/stopwatch.

(b)(i) 1 mark: More reactant particles per unit volume.
1 mark: Increased collision frequency (collisions per unit time).
1 mark: Leads to more successful collisions per unit time (increased rate).

(b)(ii) 1 mark: Powder has a larger surface area (to volume ratio).
1 mark: More particles are exposed to the acid.
1 mark: Increased frequency of collisions.

(c) 1 mark: Temperature (accept catalyst).
Question 4 · Structured Theory
10 marks
A circuit is set up with a \(12\text{ V}\) d.c. power supply, an ammeter, and two resistors connected in parallel. Resistor A has a resistance of \(6.0\text{ }\Omega\) and Resistor B has a resistance of \(4.0\text{ }\Omega\).

(a) Calculate the total equivalent resistance of the two resistors connected in parallel. [2]

(b) Determine:
(i) the reading on the ammeter measuring the total current in the circuit, [2]
(ii) the current flowing through Resistor B. [2]

(c) Calculate the electrical energy delivered by the power supply to the circuit in \(5.0\text{ minutes}\). [3]

(d) State how the total current in the circuit would change if another resistor were added in parallel to the circuit. [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) For a parallel circuit, the equivalent resistance \(R_p\) is calculated by:
\(\frac{1}{R_p} = \frac{1}{R_A} + \frac{1}{R_B} = \frac{1}{6.0} + \frac{1}{4.0} = \frac{2}{12} + \frac{3}{12} = \frac{5}{12}\text{ }\Omega^{-1}\).
Therefore, \(R_p = \frac{12}{5} = 2.4\text{ }\Omega\).

(b)(i) The total current in the circuit is:
\(I = \frac{V}{R_p} = \frac{12}{2.4} = 5.0\text{ A}\).

(b)(ii) In a parallel circuit, the potential difference across each branch is equal to the supply voltage. Therefore, the voltage across Resistor B is \(12\text{ V}\):
\(I_B = \frac{V}{R_B} = \frac{12}{4.0} = 3.0\text{ A}\).

(c) First, convert time to seconds: \(t = 5.0 \times 60 = 300\text{ s}\).
Electrical energy is: \(E = V \times I \times t = 12 \times 5.0 \times 300 = 18000\text{ J}\) (or \(18\text{ kJ}\)).

(d) Adding another resistor in parallel decreases the overall equivalent resistance of the circuit. Therefore, the total current drawn from the supply will increase.

Marking scheme

(a) 1 mark: Correct formula or substitution: \(\frac{1}{R_p} = \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{4}\).
1 mark: \(2.4\text{ }\Omega\).

(b)(i) 1 mark: Correct use of Ohm's law: \(I = \frac{12}{\text{their (a)}}\).
1 mark: \(5.0\text{ A}\) (accept correct unit).

(b)(ii) 1 mark: Recognising voltage across B is \(12\text{ V}\) or showing substitution \(\frac{12}{4}\).
1 mark: \(3.0\text{ A}\) (accept correct unit).

(c) 1 mark: Correct unit conversion of time: \(5.0 \times 60 = 300\text{ s}\).
1 mark: Correct formula or substitution: \(E = 12 \times 5.0 \times 300\) (allow ecf from b(i)).
1 mark: \(18000\text{ J}\) or \(18\text{ kJ}\) (must include correct unit).

(d) 1 mark: (Total current) increases.
Question 5 · Structured Theory
10 marks
A balanced diet is essential for maintaining human health.

(a) State the dietary importance of:
(i) Vitamin C, [1]
(ii) Iron, [1]
(iii) Dietary fibre. [1]

(b) Describe the physical digestion of food in the mouth and explain its importance for subsequent chemical digestion. [3]

(c) Describe the roles of the following in the digestion of proteins:
(i) the stomach, [2]
(ii) protease enzymes in the small intestine. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) Vitamin C is needed to maintain healthy skin, blood vessels, and bones, and to prevent scurvy.
(a)(ii) Iron is a crucial component of haemoglobin, which transports oxygen in red blood cells. Deficiency leads to anaemia.
(a)(iii) Dietary fibre adds bulk to the undigested food in the intestines, facilitating peristalsis and preventing constipation.
(b) In the mouth, teeth chew and break food down mechanically (physical digestion) into smaller pieces. This increases the total surface area of the food, making it easier and faster for chemical digestive enzymes (like amylase) to access and chemically break down the food molecules.
(c)(i) The stomach walls secrete gastric juice containing hydrochloric acid and pepsin (a protease). The acid creates a highly acidic environment (around pH 1.5–2.0), which kills pathogens and provides the optimum pH for pepsin to digest proteins into smaller peptides.
(c)(ii) In the small intestine, protease enzymes (such as trypsin) continue the digestion of proteins/peptides. They break down these peptides into simple, soluble amino acids, which are small enough to be absorbed through the intestinal wall into the bloodstream.

Marking scheme

(a)(i) 1 mark: Prevents scurvy / maintains healthy skin, tissues, or gums.
(a)(ii) 1 mark: Component of haemoglobin / prevents anaemia.
(a)(iii) 1 mark: Prevents constipation / aids peristalsis by providing bulk.

(b) 1 mark: Teeth mechanically break down / chew food into smaller pieces.
1 mark: This action increases the surface area of the food.
1 mark: Larger surface area allows chemical enzymes to digest food more rapidly.

(c)(i) 1 mark: Secretes hydrochloric acid, which provides the optimum acidic pH for enzymes.
1 mark: Pepsin (protease) starts breaking down proteins into peptides.

(c)(ii) 1 mark: Proteases (e.g. trypsin) break down peptides into amino acids.
1 mark: These amino acids are small/soluble enough to be absorbed.
Question 6 · Structured Theory
10 marks
Iron is extracted from its ore, hematite, in a blast furnace.

(a) State the chemical name or formula of the iron compound in hematite and the name of two other raw materials added to the top of the blast furnace. [3]

(b) Write balanced chemical equations for:
(i) the formation of carbon monoxide (the reducing agent) in the furnace. [2]

(ii) the reduction of iron(III) oxide by carbon monoxide. [2]

(c) Limestone is added to remove impurities.
(i) Explain how thermal decomposition of limestone produces calcium oxide. [1]

(ii) Describe, with the aid of a balanced equation, how calcium oxide removes silicon dioxide (sand) impurity. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) The iron compound in hematite is iron(III) oxide (\(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\)). The other raw materials added are coke (carbon) and limestone (calcium carbonate).
(b)(i) Coke burns in oxygen to form carbon dioxide, which then reacts with more hot coke to form carbon monoxide: \(\text{C(s)} + \text{CO}_2\text{(g)} \rightarrow 2\text{CO(g)}\).
(b)(ii) Carbon monoxide reduces iron(III) oxide to iron, forming carbon dioxide: \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\text{(s)} + 3\text{CO(g)} \rightarrow 2\text{Fe(l)} + 3\text{CO}_2\text{(g)}\).
(c)(i) Limestone (calcium carbonate, \(\text{CaCO}_3\)) decomposes when heated in the furnace to form calcium oxide (\(\text{CaO}\)) and carbon dioxide (\(\text{CO}_2\)).
(c)(ii) Calcium oxide is a basic oxide, and the sand (silicon dioxide, \(\text{SiO}_2\)) is an acidic impurity. They react together in a neutralization reaction to form molten slag (calcium silicate, \(\text{CaSiO}_3\)): \(\text{CaO(s)} + \text{SiO}_2\text{(s)} \rightarrow \text{CaSiO}_3\text{(l)}\).

Marking scheme

(a) 1 mark: Iron(III) oxide (accept \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\)).
1 mark: Coke (accept carbon).
1 mark: Limestone (accept calcium carbonate).

(b)(i) 2 marks: Correct balanced equation: \(\text{C} + \text{CO}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{CO}\). Give 1 mark if formulas are correct but unbalanced.

(b)(ii) 2 marks: Correct balanced equation: \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + 3\text{CO} \rightarrow 2\text{Fe} + 3\text{CO}_2\). Give 1 mark if formulas are correct but unbalanced.

(c)(i) 1 mark: Explains that high heat in furnace causes calcium carbonate to split into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide (or states \(\text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2\)).

(c)(ii) 1 mark: Explanation that basic calcium oxide reacts with acidic silicon dioxide to form slag (calcium silicate).
1 mark: Balanced equation: \(\text{CaO} + \text{SiO}_2 \rightarrow \text{CaSiO}_3\).
Question 7 · Structured Theory
10 marks
A transverse water wave on the surface of a pond travels past a toy duck.

(a) Define the term wavefront. [1]

(b) Explain the difference between a transverse wave and a longitudinal wave. Include a named example of each type. [4]

(c) The water wave has a wavelength of \(0.12\text{ m}\) and a frequency of \(2.5\text{ Hz}\).
(i) Calculate the speed of the wave. [2]
(ii) Calculate the time taken for one complete wave to pass the toy duck (the period). [2]

(d) State what happens to the wavelength of the water wave as it moves into a shallower region of the pond where its speed decreases, assuming frequency remains constant. [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) A wavefront is a line or surface connecting all adjacent points on a wave that are vibrating in phase (e.g., all peak crests of water waves).
(b) In a transverse wave, the direction of vibration of the particles (or fields) is perpendicular (at right angles) to the direction of energy transfer (propagation of the wave). An example is light waves (or any electromagnetic wave). In a longitudinal wave, the direction of vibration is parallel to the direction of energy transfer. An example is sound waves.
(c)(i) Using the wave equation: \(v = f \lambda = 2.5\text{ Hz} \times 0.12\text{ m} = 0.30\text{ m/s}\).
(c)(ii) The period \(T\) is the inverse of frequency: \(T = \frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{2.5} = 0.40\text{ s}\).
(d) Since \(v = f \lambda\) and \(f\) is constant, if speed \(v\) decreases, then the wavelength \(\lambda\) must also decrease.

Marking scheme

(a) 1 mark: A line joining points of a wave that are in the same phase / crests of waves.

(b) 1 mark: Transverse wave: oscillation/vibration is perpendicular to wave propagation direction.
1 mark: Transverse example: light / electromagnetic wave / water waves.
1 mark: Longitudinal wave: oscillation/vibration is parallel to wave propagation direction.
1 mark: Longitudinal example: sound wave.

(c)(i) 1 mark: Correct substitution: \(v = 2.5 \times 0.12\).
1 mark: \(0.30\text{ m/s}\) (must include unit).

(c)(ii) 1 mark: Correct formula or substitution: \(T = \frac{1}{2.5}\).
1 mark: \(0.40\text{ s}\) (must include unit).

(d) 1 mark: Wavelength decreases.
Question 8 · Structured Theory
10 marks
A sample of a radioactive isotope, Iodine-131 (\(^{131}_{\hphantom{0}53}\text{I}\)), is used in medical treatments.

(a) State the composition of a nucleus of Iodine-131 in terms of protons and neutrons. [2]

(b) Iodine-131 decays by emitting a beta (\(\beta^-\)) particle to form an isotope of Xenon (\(\text{Xe}\)). Write a balanced nuclear equation for this decay. [3]

(c) A fresh sample of Iodine-131 has an initial activity of \(800\text{ Bq}\). The half-life of Iodine-131 is \(8.0\text{ days}\).
(i) Define the term half-life. [1]
(ii) Calculate the activity of this sample after \(24.0\text{ days}\). [2]

(d) State two safety precautions that should be taken when handling radioactive materials in a laboratory. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) The proton number (atomic number) is the lower number, which is 53. The number of neutrons is the nucleon number (mass number) minus the proton number: \(131 - 53 = 78\). So the nucleus has 53 protons and 78 neutrons.
(b) In a beta-minus decay, a neutron in the nucleus turns into a proton, emitting an electron (beta particle). This increases the proton number by 1 (to 54) while the nucleon number remains 131. The equation is:
\(^{131}_{\hphantom{0}53}\text{I} \rightarrow ^{131}_{\hphantom{0}54}\text{Xe} + ^{\hphantom{-}0}_{-1}\beta\) (or \(^{\hphantom{-}0}_{-1}\text{e}\))
Both mass numbers (131 = 131 + 0) and atomic numbers (53 = 54 - 1) balance.
(c)(i) Half-life is the time taken for half the radioactive nuclei in a sample to decay (or the time taken for the activity of a sample to decrease to half its original value).
(c)(ii) The number of half-lives that pass in \(24.0\text{ days}\) is \(\frac{24.0}{8.0} = 3\) half-lives.
After 1 half-life: \(800\text{ Bq} \div 2 = 400\text{ Bq}\)
After 2 half-lives: \(400\text{ Bq} \div 2 = 200\text{ Bq}\)
After 3 half-lives: \(200\text{ Bq} \div 2 = 100\text{ Bq}\).
So, the activity after \(24.0\text{ days}\) is \(100\text{ Bq}\).
(d) Safety precautions include: use long-handled tongs to keep distance from the source; store sources in thick lead-lined containers when not in use; do not point sources towards anyone; wear protective lab clothing / gloves / safety glasses.

Marking scheme

(a) 1 mark: 53 protons.
1 mark: 78 neutrons.

(b) 1 mark: Correct Xenon symbol showing nucleon number 131 and proton number 54 (\(^{131}_{54}\text{Xe}\)).
1 mark: Correct beta particle symbol (\(^{0}_{-1}\beta\) or \(^{0}_{-1}\text{e}\)).
1 mark: Completely balanced equation with reactant on left and products on right.

(c)(i) 1 mark: Time taken for half the nuclei of a sample to decay / time for activity to halve.

(c)(ii) 1 mark: Working showing 3 half-lives (e.g. \(24 \div 8 = 3\) or progressive halving: \(800 \rightarrow 400 \rightarrow 200\)).
1 mark: \(100\text{ Bq}\) (must include unit).

(d) 2 marks: Any two valid precautions (1 mark each), e.g., use long-handled tongs, store in lead-lined containers, wear safety equipment, limit exposure time, keep a safe distance.
Question 9 · Structured Theory
10 marks
An experiment is carried out to investigate the effect of pH on the rate of reaction of pepsin, a protease enzyme found in the human stomach.

(a) (i) Describe the relationship between pH and the rate of reaction for pepsin as the pH increases from 1 to 7. [2]

(ii) Explain the effect of high pH (above pH 5) on the rate of reaction of pepsin, referring to the active site and denaturation. [3]

(b) (i) Name the smaller molecules produced when proteins are digested by proteases. [1]

(ii) State the four chemical elements present in all proteins. [2]

(c) Explain why heating pepsin to 70 °C completely stops its activity, referring to kinetic energy and bonds. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) Pepsin is an acidic protease. As pH increases from 1, the rate of reaction increases to its optimum (around pH 1.5 to 2.0) and then decreases rapidly, reaching zero by pH 7.
(ii) Extreme pH levels alter the ionic charges on the amino acids making up the enzyme. This changes the tertiary structure and deforms the shape of the active site. The substrate can no longer fit into the active site, meaning the enzyme has been denatured.
(b) (i) Proteins are polymers made of amino acids, which are released upon digestion.
(ii) All proteins contain Carbon (C), Hydrogen (H), Oxygen (O), and Nitrogen (N).
(c) Heating to 70 °C increases the kinetic energy of the atoms in the enzyme. The atoms vibrate violently, breaking the weak hydrogen and ionic bonds maintaining the enzyme's specific 3D structure. The active site loses its shape permanently (denaturation), preventing substrate binding.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) Max 2 marks:
- Peak/optimum activity at low pH / pH 1.5 to 2.0 [1]
- Rate decreases as pH increases above the optimum / activity is zero at pH 7 [1]
(ii) Max 3 marks:
- active site changes shape [1]
- substrate is no longer complementary / cannot bind [1]
- enzyme is denatured [1]
(b) (i) Max 1 mark:
- amino acids [1]
(b) (ii) Max 2 marks:
- Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen [2] (allow 1 mark if 2 or 3 are correct)
(c) Max 2 marks:
- atoms/molecules gain kinetic energy and vibrate more [1]
- hydrogen/ionic/chemical bonds are broken, destroying the shape of the active site / denaturing the enzyme [1]
Question 10 · Structured Theory
10 marks
A student constructs a simple transformer using a primary coil with 200 turns and a secondary coil with 50 turns wound on a soft iron core.

(a) (i) Describe the function of the soft iron core in this transformer. [2]

(ii) The input voltage applied to the primary coil is 12 V alternating current (a.c.). Calculate the output voltage across the secondary coil. [2]

(iii) State whether this transformer is a step-up or step-down transformer. [1]

(b) Explain, in terms of electromagnetic induction, why a transformer requires alternating current (a.c.) to function rather than direct current (d.c.). [3]

(c) The secondary coil of the transformer is connected to a resistor of resistance \(3.0\ \Omega\). Calculate the current in the secondary coil. State the unit of your answer. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) The soft iron core is easily magnetised and demagnetised. It concentrates the magnetic field lines, ensuring maximum magnetic flux linkage between the primary and secondary coils.
(ii) Using the transformer equation:
\(\frac{V_p}{V_s} = \frac{N_p}{N_s}\)
\(\frac{12}{V_s} = \frac{200}{50}\)
\(V_s = 12 \times \frac{50}{200} = 3.0\text{ V}\)
(iii) It is a step-down transformer because the output voltage is less than the input voltage (or \(N_s < N_p\)).
(b) An alternating current (a.c.) in the primary coil creates a continuously changing magnetic field in the iron core. This changing magnetic field cuts through the secondary coil, inducing an alternating electromotive force (e.m.f.) across it. A direct current (d.c.) would produce a steady, unchanging magnetic field, which does not induce any e.m.f. because there is no relative motion or change in magnetic flux.
(c) Using Ohm's law:
\(I_s = \frac{V_s}{R}\)
\(I_s = \frac{3.0\text{ V}}{3.0\ \Omega} = 1.0\text{ A}\)

Marking scheme

(a) (i) Max 2 marks:
- easily magnetised and demagnetised [1]
- concentrates/links the magnetic field from primary to secondary coil [1]
(a) (ii) Max 2 marks:
- formula or substitution: \(V_s = V_p \times \frac{N_s}{N_p}\) or \(\frac{12}{V_s} = \frac{200}{50}\) [1]
- correct calculation: \(3.0\text{ V}\) [1]
(a) (iii) Max 1 mark:
- step-down [1]
(b) Max 3 marks:
- alternating current creates a changing/varying magnetic field [1]
- this changing magnetic field cuts the secondary coil [1]
- inducing an electromotive force / voltage (due to electromagnetic induction) [1]
- direct current produces a constant magnetic field, so no voltage is induced [1]
(c) Max 2 marks:
- substitution: \(I = \frac{3.0}{3.0}\) [1]
- correct value with unit: \(1.0\text{ A}\) (or \(1.0\text{ amperes}\)) [1] (accept 1 A, reject 1 without unit)
Question 11 · Structured Theory
10 marks
Iron is extracted from its ore, hematite, in a blast furnace.

(a) (i) Name the iron compound present in hematite. [1]

(ii) In the furnace, coke (carbon) reacts with oxygen to form carbon dioxide, which then reacts with more carbon to form carbon monoxide. Write a single balanced chemical equation for the incomplete combustion of carbon to form carbon monoxide. [2]

(iii) Carbon monoxide is the main reducing agent in the blast furnace. Explain how carbon monoxide reduces iron(III) oxide, and write a balanced chemical equation for this reaction. [3]

(b) Limestone (calcium carbonate) is added to the blast furnace to remove impurities such as silicon dioxide.

(i) Explain, using two balanced chemical equations, how limestone reacts to form slag (calcium silicate). [3]

(ii) State one practical use of the slag produced. [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) The main iron compound in hematite is iron(III) oxide (or ferric oxide, \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\)).
(ii) The incomplete combustion of carbon (coke) with oxygen is represented by:
\(2\text{C} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{CO}\)
(iii) Carbon monoxide acts as a reducing agent because it removes oxygen from the iron(III) oxide, reducing the iron ions to metallic iron, while itself being oxidised to carbon dioxide. The chemical equation is:
\(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + 3\text{CO} \rightarrow 2\text{Fe} + 3\text{CO}_2\)
(b) (i) Limestone undergoes thermal decomposition in the hot furnace:
\(\text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2\)
The basic calcium oxide (\(\text{CaO}\)) then reacts with the acidic silicon dioxide (\(\text{SiO}_2\)) impurity in a neutralisation reaction to form calcium silicate (slag):
\(\text{CaO} + \text{SiO}_2 \rightarrow \text{CaSiO}_3\)
(ii) Slag is used as a material for road building or in the manufacture of cement.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) Max 1 mark:
- iron(III) oxide / ferric oxide / \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\) [1]
(a) (ii) Max 2 marks:
- correct reactant and product formulas: \(\text{C} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{CO}\) [1]
- correctly balanced equation: \(2\text{C} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{CO}\) [1]
(a) (iii) Max 3 marks:
- explanation: carbon monoxide removes oxygen from iron(III) oxide (or iron ions gain electrons / carbon oxidation state increases) [1]
- equation formula: \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + \text{CO} \rightarrow \text{Fe} + \text{CO}_2\) [1]
- balanced equation: \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + 3\text{CO} \rightarrow 2\text{Fe} + 3\text{CO}_2\) [1]
(b) (i) Max 3 marks:
- thermal decomposition equation: \(\text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2\) [1]
- neutralisation equation: \(\text{CaO} + \text{SiO}_2 \rightarrow \text{CaSiO}_3\) [1]
- explanation that \(\text{CaO}\) is a basic oxide reacting with acidic \(\text{SiO}_2\) [1]
(b) (ii) Max 1 mark:
- road building / cement manufacture / foundations [1]
Question 12 · Structured Theory
10 marks
A sample of radioactive isotope Radon-220 (\(^{220}_{86}\text{Rn}\)) decays by emitting an alpha particle (\(\alpha\)) to form an isotope of Polonium (Po).

(a) (i) State the composition of an alpha particle in terms of protons and neutrons. [2]

(ii) Complete the nuclear equation for this decay by finding the values of \(A\) and \(Z\):

$$\text{ }^{220}_{86}\text{Rn} \rightarrow \text{ }^{A}_{Z}\text{Po} + \text{ }^{4}_{2}\alpha$$

State the values of \(A\) and \(Z\). [2]

(b) The half-life of Radon-220 is 56 seconds.

(i) Define the term half-life. [2]

(ii) A detector measures an initial corrected count rate of 1600 counts per minute from the Radon-220 sample. Calculate the corrected count rate after 224 seconds. Show your working. [2]

(c) Describe the difference in ionizing ability and penetrating power of alpha radiation compared to beta radiation. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) An alpha particle is a helium nucleus, consisting of 2 protons and 2 neutrons.
(ii) During alpha decay, the nucleon (mass) number decreases by 4 and the proton (atomic) number decreases by 2. Thus:
\(A = 220 - 4 = 216\)
\(Z = 86 - 2 = 84\)
(b) (i) Half-life is defined as the time taken for half the radioactive nuclei in a sample to decay, or the time taken for the activity (count rate) of a source to decrease to half of its initial value.
(ii) Number of half-lives elapsed:
\(n = \frac{224\text{ s}}{56\text{ s}} = 4\)
After 1 half-life: \(1600 / 2 = 800\text{ cpm}\)
After 2 half-lives: \(800 / 2 = 400\text{ cpm}\)
After 3 half-lives: \(400 / 2 = 200\text{ cpm}\)
After 4 half-lives: \(200 / 2 = 100\text{ cpm}\)
(c) Alpha particles have a larger mass and charge (+2) compared to beta particles (charge -1, negligible mass), making them highly ionizing but very easily absorbed. Therefore, alpha radiation has higher ionizing ability but lower penetrating power than beta radiation.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) Max 2 marks:
- 2 protons [1]
- 2 neutrons [1]
(a) (ii) Max 2 marks:
- \(A = 216\) [1]
- \(Z = 84\) [1]
(b) (i) Max 2 marks:
- time taken for half the (unstable) nuclei to decay / time taken for activity/count rate to halve [2]
- (allow 1 mark for incomplete definition, e.g., 'time for radiation to halve')
(b) (ii) Max 2 marks:
- determination of 4 half-lives (e.g., \(224 / 56 = 4\)) [1]
- correct calculation of final count rate: 100 counts per minute / cpm [1]
(c) Max 2 marks:
- alpha is more ionizing than beta [1]
- alpha is less penetrating than beta / stopped by paper, whereas beta passes through paper (but stopped by aluminium) [1]

Paper 61 (Alternative to Practical)

Answer all questions. This section evaluates practical experimental skills, graph techniques, and project design.
7 Question · 59.99 marks
Question 1 · Practical and Experimental Planning
8.57 marks
A student investigates the effect of pH on the activity of amylase. Amylase breaks down starch into maltose.

(a) State the color of iodine solution:
(i) in the presence of starch,
(ii) in the absence of starch.

(b) Design a detailed experiment to investigate the effect of pH on the rate of starch digestion by amylase. In your plan, you should include:
- the apparatus and reagents needed,
- a brief description of the method, including how different pH values are achieved,
- the measurements to be taken and how to determine when the reaction is complete,
- the variables that must be kept constant to ensure a fair test.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Detailed experimental procedure to investigate the effect of pH on amylase activity:
1. Identify the indicators: Iodine turns blue-black with starch and remains yellow-brown when starch is completely digested.
2. Setup buffers of varying pH (e.g., pH 4 to 8) to vary the independent variable.
3. Keep biological/physical parameters constant: temperature (using a thermostatically controlled water-bath or a water-bath kept at a constant temperature, e.g., 35 \(^{\circ}\)C), volumes and concentrations of starch and amylase solutions.
4. Method of sampling: Use a spotting tile with iodine solution. Take samples at fixed intervals (e.g., 30 seconds) until the color change no longer occurs (reaches end-point).
5. Compare the time taken for starch to disappear across the different pH values; the shortest time corresponds to the fastest rate of reaction and hence the optimum pH.

Marking scheme

Maximum 8.57 marks:
- (a)(i) Blue-black / black [1 mark]
- (a)(ii) Brown / orange-brown / yellow-brown [1 mark]
- (b) Method points (up to 4 marks):
- Use of buffer solutions to obtain different pH values [1 mark]
- Mixing starch and amylase, and starting timing immediately [1 mark]
- Sampling mixture at regular time intervals and adding to iodine solution on a spotting tile [1 mark]
- Repeating the procedure for at least 3 different pH values [1 mark]
- (b) Control variables & reliability (up to 2.57 marks):
- Mentioning temperature must be controlled (e.g., using a water bath) [1 mark]
- Mentioning volume or concentration of amylase/starch must be kept constant [1 mark]
- Explaining that the reaction is complete when iodine no longer changes color (remains orange/brown) [0.57 mark]
Question 2 · Practical and Experimental Planning
8.57 marks
A student is provided with a solid mixture containing an unknown copper(II) salt and an ammonium salt.

(a) Describe a test, including the reagents and observations, to confirm the presence of ammonium ions, \(\text{NH}_4^+\), in the mixture.

(b) Describe how the student can confirm the presence of copper(II) ions, \(\text{Cu}^{2+}\), in the mixture using aqueous ammonia. Describe the observation for both the initial addition and when the reagent is added in excess.

(c) The mixture also contains either chloride or sulfate anions. Explain how the student can test for these ions to determine which one is present, stating the reagents used and the positive observation for each.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Detailed chemical tests:
1. Ammonium test: Reaction of ammonium salts with warm alkali (NaOH) releases ammonia gas, which is alkaline and turns damp red litmus paper blue.
2. Copper(II) test: Aqueous ammonia reacts with copper(II) ions to initially precipitate copper(II) hydroxide, which is a light blue solid. In excess ammonia, a soluble tetraamine copper complex forms, yielding a deep, dark blue solution.
3. Anion analysis: Acidified silver nitrate is used to precipitate silver chloride (white precipitate). Acidified barium chloride or nitrate is used to precipitate barium sulfate (white precipitate).

Marking scheme

Maximum 8.57 marks:
- (a) Test for ammonium:
- Add sodium hydroxide and heat / warm [1 mark]
- Test gas with damp red litmus paper [1 mark]
- Litmus paper turns blue [1 mark]
- (b) Test for copper(II) with ammonia:
- Add aqueous ammonia dropwise: light blue precipitate [1 mark]
- Add excess ammonia: precipitate dissolves to form a deep blue / dark blue solution [1 mark]
- (c) Anion tests:
- For chloride: Add dilute nitric acid and silver nitrate; positive result is a white precipitate [1.57 marks]
- For sulfate: Add dilute hydrochloric (or nitric) acid and barium chloride (or nitrate); positive result is a white precipitate [2 marks]
Question 3 · Practical and Experimental Planning
8.57 marks
A student investigates Hooke's Law using a steel spring suspended from a clamp stand.

(a) Describe how the student should measure the length of the spring to ensure the reading is as accurate as possible. Explain how they avoid parallax error.

(b) The unstretched length of the spring is \(l_0 = 3.2\text{ cm}\). A load of \(4.5\text{ N}\) is hung on the spring, and the new length becomes \(l_1 = 8.6\text{ cm}\).
(i) Calculate the extension, \(x\), of the spring.
(ii) Calculate the spring constant, \(k\), using the equation:
\(k = \frac{F}{x}\)
State the unit for \(k\).

(c) During the experiment, the student continues adding loads until the spring is permanently stretched and does not return to its original length. State the name of this point and explain how the student would identify it from a graph of load against extension.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Measurement accuracy:
1. Aligning the ruler vertically and ensuring it is close to the spring prevents misalignment errors. Parallax error is minimized by looking perpendicular (90 degrees) to the scale.
Calculations:
2. Extension \(x = l_1 - l_0 = 8.6 - 3.2 = 5.4\text{ cm}\).
3. Spring constant \(k = F/x = 4.5 / 5.4 = 0.83\text{ N/cm}\) (or \(4.5 / 0.054 = 83.3\text{ N/m}\)).
Proportionality limit:
4. Up to the limit of proportionality, the graph is a straight line through the origin (Hooke's Law is obeyed). Beyond this point, the relationship is non-linear, and the line curves.

Marking scheme

Maximum 8.57 marks:
- (a) Measurement techniques:
- Ruler placed parallel and close to the spring [1 mark]
- Use of a set square / horizontal pointer to align ruler and spring [1 mark]
- Eye level level with the pointer/reading to prevent parallax error [1 mark]
- (b)(i) Correct calculation of extension: \(5.4\text{ cm}\) [1 mark]
- (b)(ii) Calculation of spring constant: \(0.83\text{ N/cm}\) or \(83.3\text{ N/m}\) (accept 0.83 to 0.833) [1 mark]
- Correct unit consistent with calculation (\(\text{N/cm}\) or \(\text{N/m}\)) [1 mark]
- (c) Limit of proportionality / elastic limit [1 mark]
- Graph: line is no longer straight / line starts to curve [1.57 marks]
Question 4 · Practical and Experimental Planning
8.57 marks
A student investigates how the resistance of a constantan wire depends on its length.

(a) Draw a circuit diagram showing the apparatus the student must connect together to measure the voltage and current for a test wire of length \(L\). Use standard electrical symbols.

(b) Explain how the student uses the circuit to collect data for wire lengths from \(10\text{ cm}\) to \(90\text{ cm}\).

(c) The temperature of the wire must be kept constant.
(i) Explain why keeping the temperature constant is important.
(ii) Describe how the student can prevent the wire from warming up during the experiment.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Circuit and procedures for resistance-length experiment:
1. Standard circuit symbols: Ammeter must be in series with the test wire; Voltmeter must be in parallel across the length of the test wire.
2. Collecting readings systematically by moving a crocodile clip along the wire. Disconnecting the circuit between readings prevents heat buildup.
3. Keeping temperature constant ensures that any change in resistance is due to the change in length alone, confirming a fair test.

Marking scheme

Maximum 8.57 marks:
- (a) Circuit diagram:
- Correct symbols for cell/battery, ammeter, voltmeter, and wire [1 mark]
- Ammeter in series with test wire [1 mark]
- Voltmeter connected in parallel across the test wire [1 mark]
- (b) Procedure:
- Connect crocodile clip at different lengths along the ruler [1 mark]
- Record current \(I\) and potential difference \(V\) for each length [1 mark]
- (c)(i) Explanation: Temperature change affects the resistance of the wire / temperature is a control variable [1.57 marks]
- (c)(ii) Prevention: Switch off circuit between readings / use low current [2 marks]
Question 5 · Practical and Experimental Planning
8.57 marks
Plan an investigation to determine how the concentration of hydrochloric acid affects the rate of its reaction with calcium carbonate.

In your plan, you should:
- list the apparatus and chemicals required,
- describe the experimental procedure, including how the concentration of the acid is varied,
- specify the measurements to be taken,
- explain how you would use the data collected to compare rates of reaction,
- state the variables that must be controlled to ensure a fair test.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The rate of reaction can be measured by monitoring the volume of carbon dioxide gas evolved over time:
1. Set up a gas syringe connected to a conical flask containing a known mass of marble chips.
2. Add a specific concentration of HCl. Record volume vs. time.
3. Vary the concentration of HCl systematically. To make \(0.5\text{ mol/dm}^3\) from \(1.0\text{ mol/dm}^3\), mix equal volumes of acid and distilled water.
4. Ensure temperature and the surface area of marble chips are constant, as both strongly influence reaction kinetics.

Marking scheme

Maximum 8.57 marks:
- Apparatus: Flask, gas syringe (or inverted cylinder/water trough), stopwatch, balance [1 mark]
- Method (Acid dilution): Describes how to vary concentration by mixing different ratios of acid and water [1 mark]
- Method (Execution): Adds acid to calcium carbonate, seals flask, starts stopwatch [1 mark]
- Measurements: Measures volume of gas at regular time intervals (or measures time to collect a fixed volume) [1.57 marks]
- Repetition: Repeats with at least 3 different concentrations of acid [1 mark]
- Comparison/Analysis: Graph of volume vs. time plotted; gradient compared OR reciprocal of time to reach a fixed volume used [1 mark]
- Control variables (any two): Temperature of reactants, mass of marble chips, surface area of chips, total volume of acid [2 marks]
Question 6 · Practical and Experimental Planning
8.57 marks
A student investigates osmosis in potato tissue.
Potato cylinders of identical initial length are placed in test-tubes containing sucrose solutions of different concentrations: \(0.0\), \(0.2\), \(0.4\), \(0.6\), and \(0.8\text{ mol/dm}^3\). After 2 hours, the cylinders are removed, and their final masses are measured.

(a) Explain why the student must gently dry the potato cylinders with a paper towel before weighing them.

(b) The student calculates the percentage change in mass of each cylinder rather than just the change in mass. Explain why this is necessary.

(c) Describe the features of a graph showing how percentage change in mass (y-axis) varies with sucrose concentration (x-axis). Explain how this graph is used to estimate the concentration of sucrose inside the potato cells.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Osmosis investigation analysis:
1. Surface liquid: Removing excess liquid ensures only the mass of the tissue itself is weighed, avoiding overestimation of final mass.
2. Normalization: Percentage change (\(\frac{\text{final} - \text{initial}}{\text{initial}} \times 100\)) standardizes the data across cylinders of slightly different initial masses.
3. Equilibrium point: At the concentration where the line crosses the x-axis (0% change), the water potential of the solution equals the water potential inside the potato cells, so no net osmosis occurs. This point identifies the isotonic concentration.

Marking scheme

Maximum 8.57 marks:
- (a) To remove surface liquid / water [1 mark]
- ...which would add extra mass / lead to inaccurate final mass readings [1 mark]
- (b) Initial masses of cylinders are not identical [1.57 marks]
- ...allows direct comparison between different samples [1 mark]
- (c) Graph description:
- Curve/line going from positive percentage change down to negative percentage change [1 mark]
- Intersects the x-axis (0% change) [1 mark]
- Explanation: At the x-intercept, there is no net movement of water [1 mark]
- ...meaning the concentration of the sucrose solution is equal to the concentration inside the potato cells [1 mark]
Question 7 · Practical and Experimental Planning
8.57 marks
A student determines the refractive index of a rectangular glass block using optics pins.

(a) Describe how the student uses the pins to track the path of a ray of light entering and emerging from the glass block.

(b) Explain how the student measures the angle of incidence, \(i\), and the angle of refraction, \(r\), from the tracked paths.

(c) State one source of experimental error in this pin method and suggest how the student can minimize its effect on the accuracy of the results.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Refraction through a glass block:
1. Pin alignment method: Looking through the block allows the observer to align the physical pins with the refracted image of the previous pins, defining the entry and exit points.
2. Drawing normal: Both \(i\) and \(r\) are defined with respect to the normal (perpendicular to the glass boundary).
3. Precision: Pin separation is critical. Small errors in alignment translate to large angular errors if pins are close.

Marking scheme

Maximum 8.57 marks:
- (a) Pin method details:
- Draw outline of the glass block [1 mark]
- Place two pins on the entry side to define the incident path [1 mark]
- View from opposite side and place two more pins in line with the images of the first two [1 mark]
- (b) Angles measurement:
- Draw normal line perpendicular to the block's surface at the entry point [1 mark]
- Use a protractor to measure angle of incidence \(i\) between normal and incident ray [1 mark]
- Draw the refracted ray inside the block and measure angle of refraction \(r\) between normal and refracted ray [1.57 marks]
- (c) Error & Improvement:
- Identifies error: thickness of pin lines / pins placed too close [1 mark]
- Suggests improvement: place pins far apart (at least 5 cm) / use thin sharp pencil/pins [1 mark]

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