An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2023 Pearson Edexcel A Level Biology A (Salters-Nuffield) (9BN0) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Pearson.
Paper 1: The Natural Environment and Species Survival
Answer all questions. Show all your working out in calculations and include units where appropriate.
32 Question · 97 marks
Question 1 · multiple_choice
1 marks
In the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis, non-cyclic photophosphorylation produces ATP and reduced NADP. Which of the following correctly describes the source of electrons that replace those lost from photosystem II (PSII)?
A.Hydrolysis of ATP
B.Photolysis of water
C.Oxidation of reduced NADP
D.Excitation of photosystem I (PSI)
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Worked solution
Electrons lost from photosystem II (PSII) are replaced by the electrons released during the photolysis of water: \(2H_2O \rightarrow 4H^+ + 4e^- + O_2\).
Marking scheme
1 mark for correct option B. Reject other options.
Question 2 · multiple_choice
1 marks
\(\textit{Mycobacterium tuberculosis}\) is a pathogen that can survive inside host macrophages. Which mechanism enables \(\textit{M. tuberculosis}\) to avoid destruction by macrophages?
A.It produces enzymes that directly neutralize lysosomal enzymes.
B.It prevents the fusion of the phagosome with a lysosome.
C.It rapidly mutates its surface antigens to avoid recognition.
D.It ruptures the macrophage membrane before phagocytosis is complete.
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Worked solution
\(\textit{Mycobacterium tuberculosis}\) produces molecules that block the fusion of the phagosome with lysosomes, preventing digestion by lysosomal hydrolytic enzymes.
Marking scheme
1 mark for correct option B. Reject other options.
Question 3 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Peat bogs provide preserved pollen grains that can be used to study past climates. Which property of peat bogs is most important for preserving pollen and organic material?
A.Highly alkaline conditions that inhibit bacterial enzyme activity.
C.Anaerobic and acidic conditions that slow down decomposition.
D.High temperatures that destroy decomposer organisms.
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Worked solution
The lack of oxygen (anaerobic) and acidic conditions in peat bogs inhibit the growth and metabolic activity of decomposer microorganisms, thus preventing the decomposition of pollen cell walls.
Marking scheme
1 mark for correct option C. Reject other options.
Question 4 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Molecular phylogeny is used to determine evolutionary relationships. Which of the following would provide the strongest evidence that two species share a recent common ancestor?
A.They share very similar anatomical structures adapted for different functions.
B.They occupy the same ecological niche in similar habitats.
C.They have a high percentage of sequence homology in their ribosomal RNA (rRNA).
D.They have identical numbers of chromosomes in their somatic cells.
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Worked solution
A high percentage of sequence homology in conserved nucleic acids like ribosomal RNA (rRNA) provides direct molecular evidence of a close evolutionary relationship and a recent common ancestor.
Marking scheme
1 mark for correct option C. Reject other options.
Question 5 · multiple_choice
1 marks
During early embryonic development, cells transition from totipotent to pluripotent. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes totipotent stem cells from pluripotent stem cells?
A.Totipotent cells can differentiate into any cell type, including extra-embryonic tissues, whereas pluripotent cells can differentiate into any embryonic cell type but not extra-embryonic tissues.
B.Pluripotent cells can differentiate into all cell types including the placenta, whereas totipotent cells can only differentiate into somatic body cells.
C.Totipotent cells are only found in the adult bone marrow, whereas pluripotent cells are only found in the blastocyst.
D.Pluripotent cells have all of their genes permanently switched off, whereas totipotent cells have active transcription of all genes.
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Worked solution
Totipotent stem cells can differentiate into any cell type, including the extra-embryonic tissues (such as the placenta and umbilical cord). Pluripotent stem cells can differentiate into any cell of the embryo itself but cannot form extra-embryonic tissues.
Marking scheme
1 mark for correct option A. Reject other options.
Question 6 · multiple_choice
1 marks
In individuals without cystic fibrosis, the CFTR channel protein allows chloride ions (\(Cl^-\)) to leave epithelial cells down an electrochemical gradient. What type of transport mechanism is utilized by the CFTR protein for this movement?
A.Active transport using ATP
B.Simple diffusion directly through the phospholipid bilayer
C.Facilitated diffusion through a channel protein
D.Endocytosis
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Worked solution
Chloride ions move down their concentration/electrochemical gradient through the CFTR pore-forming protein without the direct expenditure of ATP, which is a process called facilitated diffusion.
Marking scheme
1 mark for correct option C. Reject other options.
Question 7 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Forensic scientists use insect succession to estimate the time of death of a mammal. Which of the following statements correctly describes how succession is used in this context?
A.As decomposition progresses, the chemical composition of the body changes, attracting different species of insects in a predictable sequence.
B.The first insects to arrive are always beetles, followed by blowfly larvae as the body cools.
C.Environmental temperature does not affect the succession rate, making it a highly reliable constant indicator.
D.Succession only occurs on internal organs, requiring internal dissection to determine the insect species present.
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Worked solution
The physical and chemical changes that occur in a carcass during decomposition create shifting niches that attract different colonising insect species in a predictable sequence over time.
Marking scheme
1 mark for correct option A. Reject other options.
Question 8 · multiple_choice
1 marks
An ecosystem has a Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) of \(2.4 \times 10^4 \text{ kJ m}^{-2} \text{ yr}^{-1}\). If the autotrophic respiration (\(R\)) is \(1.5 \times 10^4 \text{ kJ m}^{-2} \text{ yr}^{-1}\), what is the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of this ecosystem?
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Worked solution
Using the formula: \(NPP = GPP - R\), we get \(NPP = 2.4 \times 10^4 - 1.5 \times 10^4 = 0.9 \times 10^4 = 9.0 \times 10^3 \text{ kJ m}^{-2} \text{ yr}^{-1}\).
Marking scheme
1 mark for correct option B. Reject other options.
Question 9 · multiple choice
1 marks
During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, light energy excites electrons within photosystem II (PSII). Which of the following correctly describes the pathway of these excited electrons and how they are replaced in PSII?
A.Passed down an electron transport chain to photosystem I (PSI); replaced by electrons from the photolysis of water.
B.Passed directly to NADP+ to form reduced NADP; replaced by electrons from photosystem I (PSI).
C.Passed down an electron transport chain to photosystem I (PSI); replaced by electrons from the oxidation of reduced NADP.
D.Passed to oxygen to produce water; replaced by electrons from the photolysis of water.
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Worked solution
The correct option is A. In the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, light absorption by PSII excites electrons, causing them to leave the chlorophyll molecule. These electrons are passed along an electron transport chain to PSI, releasing energy used for ATP synthesis. The lost electrons from PSII are replaced by electrons generated from the photolysis of water: \(2H_2O \rightarrow 4H^+ + 4e^- + O_2\).
Marking scheme
1 mark for option A. [1] A is the correct option. B is incorrect because electrons from PSII go to PSI, not directly to NADP+. C is incorrect because reduced NADP is not oxidized to replace PSII electrons; photolysis of water does this. D is incorrect because oxygen is a product of photolysis, not an electron acceptor in this pathway.
Question 10 · multiple choice
1 marks
Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of temperatures and processes in one cycle of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
A.95 °C (primer annealing) \(\rightarrow\) 55 °C (DNA synthesis) \(\rightarrow\) 72 °C (denaturation)
B.95 °C (denaturation) \(\rightarrow\) 55 °C (primer annealing) \(\rightarrow\) 72 °C (DNA synthesis)
C.72 °C (denaturation) \(\rightarrow\) 55 °C (primer annealing) \(\rightarrow\) 95 °C (DNA synthesis)
D.55 °C (primer annealing) \(\rightarrow\) 72 °C (denaturation) \(\rightarrow\) 95 °C (DNA synthesis)
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Worked solution
The correct option is B. A PCR cycle begins with heating the DNA mixture to approximately 95 °C to denature the double-stranded DNA by breaking the hydrogen bonds between complementary bases. The temperature is then decreased to around 55 °C to allow primers to anneal (bind) to their complementary sequences on the single-stranded DNA templates. Finally, the temperature is raised to 72 °C, which is the optimum temperature for Taq polymerase to synthesize the new complementary strands by adding free nucleotides.
Marking scheme
1 mark for option B. [1] B is the correct option. A, C, and D are incorrect as they assign incorrect temperatures to the respective stages of the PCR cycle (denaturation must occur at the highest temperature, followed by cooling for primer annealing, and a moderate increase for Taq polymerase extension).
Question 11 · Calculations & Interpretations
3 marks
A study on a temperate deciduous forest calculated that the gross primary productivity (GPP) of the oak tree canopy is \( 2.44 \times 10^4 \text{ kJ m}^{-2} \text{ yr}^{-1} \). Respiration loss (\( R \)) by the trees is estimated to be \( 65\\% \) of the GPP.
Calculate the net primary productivity (NPP) of this canopy. Express your answer in standard scientific notation to three significant figures, including appropriate units.
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Worked solution
1. Identify the relationship between GPP, NPP, and respiration (\( R \)): \( \text{NPP} = \text{GPP} - R \)
2. Since respiration is \( 65\\% \) of GPP, NPP represents the remaining \( 35\\% \) of GPP: \( \text{NPP} = 0.35 \times \text{GPP} \)
4. Convert the final answer to standard scientific notation to three significant figures: \( 8.54 \times 10^3 \text{ kJ m}^{-2} \text{ yr}^{-1} \)
Marking scheme
1. Recall or use of formula \( \text{NPP} = \text{GPP} - R \) OR finding \( 35\\% \) or \( 65\\% \) of the GPP: \( 2.44 \times 10^4 \times 0.35 \) or \( 24400 \times 0.65 = 15860 \) (1 mark) 2. Correct mathematical calculation to obtain \( 8540 \) (1 mark) 3. Correct final answer expressed in standard scientific notation to 3 significant figures with units: \( 8.54 \times 10^3 \text{ kJ m}^{-2} \text{ yr}^{-1} \) (1 mark)
[Accept: \( 8.54 \times 10^3 \) if working is shown. Reject: incorrect rounding such as \( 8.5 \times 10^3 \)]
Question 12 · Calculations & Interpretations
3 marks
A forensic scientist uses polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to amplify a specific short tandem repeat (STR) locus from a small sample of DNA retrieved from a crime scene. The sample initially contains 45 copies of the target DNA sequence.
Assuming 100% amplification efficiency, calculate the minimum number of complete PCR cycles required for the number of target DNA copies to first exceed 1 million (\( 1.0 \times 10^6 \)).
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Worked solution
1. Understand that PCR amplification is an exponential doubling process described by: \( N_t = N_0 \times 2^n \), where \( N_t \) is the target number of copies, \( N_0 \) is the initial number of copies, and \( n \) is the number of cycles.
2. Set up the inequality to find when the copies exceed 1 million: \( 45 \times 2^n > 1,000,000 \)
4. Calculate the powers of 2 to find the first integer value of \( n \) that satisfies this condition: - At \( n = 14 \): \( 2^{14} = 16384 \), and \( 45 \times 16384 = 737,280 \) copies. - At \( n = 15 \): \( 2^{15} = 32768 \), and \( 45 \times 32768 = 1,474,560 \) copies.
Therefore, the minimum number of complete PCR cycles required is 15.
Marking scheme
1. Correct understanding of the exponential doubling relationship, shown by setting up the equation/inequality: \( 45 \times 2^n > 1,000,000 \) or sequential doubling working (1 mark) 2. Correct calculation of the target multiplier threshold \( \approx 22222 \) or the total DNA copies at cycle 14 (\( 737,280 \)) (1 mark) 3. Correct final answer of 15 (cycles) (1 mark)
Question 13 · Calculations & Interpretations
3 marks
A conservationist investigated the biodiversity of ground beetles in a local nature reserve. In one area, they recorded the following species abundance: - Species X: 24 individuals - Species Y: 12 individuals - Species Z: 4 individuals
The formula for Simpson's Index of Diversity (\( D \)) is: \( D = 1 - \frac{\sum n(n-1)}{N(N-1)} \) where \( n \) is the number of individuals of a particular species and \( N \) is the total number of individuals of all species.
Calculate the Index of Diversity (\( D \)) for this area. Express your answer to two decimal places.
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Worked solution
1. Calculate the total number of individuals (\( N \)): \( N = 24 + 12 + 4 = 40 \)
3. Calculate the numerator terms \( n(n-1) \) for each species: - Species X: \( 24 \times 23 = 552 \) - Species Y: \( 12 \times 11 = 132 \) - Species Z: \( 4 \times 3 = 12 \)
4. Sum these values (\( \sum n(n-1) \)): \( \sum n(n-1) = 552 + 132 + 12 = 696 \)
5. Substitute the values into the Simpson's Index formula: \( D = 1 - \frac{696}{1560} \) \( D = 1 - 0.44615... = 0.5538... \)
6. Round to two decimal places: 0.55.
Marking scheme
1. Correct calculation of \( N(N-1) = 1560 \) (1 mark) 2. Correct calculation of \( \sum n(n-1) = 696 \) (1 mark) 3. Correct final index of diversity of 0.55 (1 mark)
[Accept: 0.55. Reject: 0.45 (which is the index before subtracting from 1) or any other rounding.]
Question 14 · Calculations & Interpretations
3 marks
A student prepared a squash slide of a garlic root tip to study mitosis. They observed a total of 320 cells, of which 264 cells were in interphase and the remainder were in various stages of mitosis.
Calculate the mitotic index of these garlic root tip cells as a percentage. Give your answer to one decimal place.
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Worked solution
1. Determine the number of cells undergoing mitosis: \( \text{Number of cells in mitosis} = \text{Total cells} - \text{Cells in interphase} \) \( \text{Number of cells in mitosis} = 320 - 264 = 56 \text{ cells} \)
2. Use the mitotic index formula to find the percentage: \( \text{Mitotic index (\\%)} = \frac{\text{Number of cells in mitosis}}{\text{Total number of cells}} \times 100 \)
3. Substitute the values and calculate: \( \text{Mitotic index (\\%)} = \frac{56}{320} \times 100 = 17.5\\% \)
Marking scheme
1. Correct calculation of cells in active mitosis: \( 320 - 264 = 56 \) (1 mark) 2. Correct substitution of figures into the division equation: \( \frac{56}{320} \times 100 \) (1 mark) 3. Correct final value of 17.5% (1 mark)
[Accept: 17.5 with or without percentage sign. Reject: 82.5% (percentage of cells in interphase)]
Question 15 · Calculations & Interpretations
3 marks
The rate of photosynthesis in the water plant *Elodea canadensis* was measured by the volume of oxygen gas produced per minute at different temperatures. - At \( 15^\circ\text{C} \), the rate was \( 1.8 \text{ cm}^3 \text{ min}^{-1} \). - At \( 25^\circ\text{C} \), the rate was \( 4.1 \text{ cm}^3 \text{ min}^{-1} \).
The temperature coefficient (\( Q_{10} \)) is calculated using the following equation: \( Q_{10} = \frac{R_{T+10}}{R_T} \) where \( R_{T+10} \) is the rate of reaction at temperature \( T + 10^\circ\text{C} \) and \( R_T \) is the rate at temperature \( T \).
Calculate the \( Q_{10} \) value for this reaction between \( 15^\circ\text{C} \) and \( 25^\circ\text{C} \). Express your answer to two significant figures.
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Worked solution
1. Identify the rates at the two temperatures separated by exactly \( 10^\circ\text{C} \): - Rate at \( T = 15^\circ\text{C} \) is \( R_{15} = 1.8 \text{ cm}^3 \text{ min}^{-1} \) - Rate at \( T+10 = 25^\circ\text{C} \) is \( R_{25} = 4.1 \text{ cm}^3 \text{ min}^{-1} \)
2. Substitute the rates into the formula: \( Q_{10} = \frac{4.1}{1.8} \)
3. Calculate the raw value: \( Q_{10} = 2.2777... \)
4. Round to two significant figures: \( Q_{10} = 2.3 \)
Marking scheme
1. Correct substitution of values into the formula: \( \frac{4.1}{1.8} \) (1 mark) 2. Correct raw value calculated as \( 2.28 \) or \( 2.27 \) (1 mark) 3. Correctly rounded final answer to 2 significant figures: 2.3 (1 mark)
[Note: \( Q_{10} \) is a ratio, so there are no units. Reject: 2.3 with units like \( \text{cm}^3 \text{ min}^{-1} \) or any incorrect rounding such as 2.2.]
Question 16 · Short Answer
4 marks
Explain how light energy is converted into chemical energy in the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis.
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Worked solution
Light energy is absorbed by pigments (such as chlorophyll a) in photosystem II, which excites electrons to a higher energy level (photoactivation). These high-energy electrons are released from chlorophyll and pass along an electron transport chain. As they move through the chain, they lose energy, which is used to pump hydrogen ions (protons) across the thylakoid membrane, creating a proton gradient. Protons flow back through ATP synthase (chemiosmosis), which drives the photophosphorylation of ADP to produce ATP. Photolysis of water occurs, splitting water into protons, electrons, and oxygen using light energy, which replaces the lost electrons in photosystem II. Electrons from photosystem I are transferred to NADP along with protons to produce reduced NADP.
Marking scheme
1. Light energy excites electrons in chlorophyll / photosystem II (PSII) [1 mark]; 2. Electrons pass down an electron transport chain (ETC) in a series of redox reactions [1 mark]; 3. Energy lost from electrons is used to synthesize ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate / photophosphorylation [1 mark]; 4. Photolysis of water provides electrons to replace those lost from chlorophyll OR NADP is reduced to reduced NADP using electrons and protons [1 mark]
Question 17 · Short Answer
4 marks
Describe how dendrochronology can be used to provide evidence for climate change over the past 1000 years.
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Worked solution
Dendrochronology is the study of tree growth rings to date events and environmental changes. Each year, a tree grows a new ring of xylem. Wider rings indicate rapid growth during warm, wet seasons, while narrow rings indicate poor growth during cold, dry seasons. Core samples are taken from living trees and historical timber. By finding overlapping ring patterns (cross-dating) among different samples, scientists can construct a continuous master chronology spanning up to 1000 years. The changes in ring widths over time can be used to reconstruct past climate variations and show evidence of long-term climate change.
Marking scheme
1. Trees produce one growth ring per year, and wider rings indicate rapid growth in favorable (warmer/wetter) conditions [1 mark]; 2. Core samples are taken from living trees and older wood or preserved timber [1 mark]; 3. Overlapping patterns of tree rings are matched (cross-dating) to build a continuous timeline back in time [1 mark]; 4. Changes in ring widths over the timeline indicate historical temperature/rainfall trends, providing evidence of past climate change [1 mark]
Question 18 · Short Answer
4 marks
Describe the role of primers and DNA polymerase in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
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Worked solution
In PCR, primers are short, single-stranded sequences of DNA designed to be complementary to the specific sequences at the start and end of the target DNA region. Once the mixture is cooled, primers anneal to the single-stranded template DNA. This provides a double-stranded starting point required by DNA polymerase. DNA polymerase, specifically the thermostable Taq polymerase, then synthesizes the complementary DNA strand by aligning free deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs) to the template and forming phosphodiester bonds between them, moving along the template in the 5' to 3' direction.
Marking scheme
1. Primers are short, single-stranded sequences of DNA that are complementary to specific target DNA sequences [1 mark]; 2. Primers bind / anneal to the template DNA strands to provide a starting point for DNA polymerase [1 mark]; 3. DNA polymerase synthesizes a new complementary strand of DNA by aligning and joining free nucleotides (dNTPs) [1 mark]; 4. Taq polymerase is thermostable so it does not denature at the high temperatures used during the PCR cycle [1 mark]
Question 19 · Short Answer
4 marks
Explain the sequence of events that leads to inflammation at the site of a physical injury.
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Worked solution
When a physical injury occurs, damaged tissue cells and mast cells are stimulated to release cell-signaling chemicals, notably histamine. Histamine acts on local blood vessels, causing arterioles to dilate (vasodilation). This increases local blood flow to the injured area, causing the characteristic redness and heat. Simultaneously, histamine increases the permeability of the local capillaries. This allows plasma fluid, antibodies, and phagocytic white blood cells to squeeze through the capillary walls and accumulate in the interstitial spaces, leading to localized swelling (oedema) and pain due to increased pressure on nerve endings.
Marking scheme
1. Damaged tissues or mast cells release chemical mediators / histamine [1 mark]; 2. Histamine causes vasodilation (of arterioles) leading to increased blood flow (causing redness/heat) [1 mark]; 3. Histamine increases the permeability of capillaries [1 mark]; 4. Plasma fluid / proteins / white blood cells leak into the tissues, causing swelling (oedema) and pain [1 mark]
Question 20 · Short Answer
4 marks
Explain how molecular phylogeny is used to classify organisms and can lead to the identification of new domains.
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Worked solution
Molecular phylogeny involves comparing the molecular structures of organisms, specifically the sequences of bases in DNA or RNA, or the sequence of amino acids in key proteins. The degree of similarity in these sequences reflects evolutionary relationships; organisms with highly similar sequences are closely related and share a recent common ancestor. By analyzing these relationships, scientists construct phylogenetic trees. In the late 20th century, Carl Woese analyzed the ribosomal RNA (rRNA) sequences of prokaryotes and found that archaebacteria had unique genetic characteristics distinct from both other bacteria and eukaryotes, justifying the creation of a new, higher taxonomic group: the three domains (Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukaryota).
Marking scheme
1. Molecular phylogeny compares DNA, RNA, or amino acid sequences between different organisms [1 mark]; 2. Organisms with highly similar sequences are more closely related / share a more recent common ancestor [1 mark]; 3. Evolutionary relationships are used to construct phylogenetic trees to classify organisms [1 mark]; 4. Significant molecular differences (such as in ribosomal RNA) revealed that Archaea were distinct from Bacteria, leading to the creation of the three-domain system [1 mark]
Question 21 · Short Answer
4 marks
Explain how natural selection can lead to the adaptation of a plant species to grow on soils containing toxic heavy metals.
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Worked solution
Within any plant population, there is genetic variation arising from random gene mutations. This variation results in some individual plants possessing alleles that enable them to tolerate toxic concentrations of heavy metals. When these plants grow on soils with high heavy metal levels, a strong selection pressure is exerted. Non-tolerant plants are killed or grow poorly, preventing reproduction. The tolerant plants survive, reproduce, and pass their advantageous tolerance alleles to the next generation. Over time, the frequency of the tolerance allele increases within the population's gene pool, adapting the species to the heavy-metal-rich soil.
Marking scheme
1. Genetic variation exists in the plant population due to random mutation, producing alleles for heavy metal tolerance [1 mark]; 2. Heavy metal contamination acts as a selection pressure [1 mark]; 3. Plants with the tolerance allele survive and reproduce, while those without it die / differential reproductive success [1 mark]; 4. The advantageous tolerance allele is passed on to offspring, increasing its frequency in the gene pool over generations [1 mark]
Question 22 · Short Answer
4 marks
Explain how transcription factors can control the differentiation of stem cells.
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Worked solution
Transcription factors are specialized proteins that bind to specific promoter or enhancer regions of DNA near target genes. They control transcription by either facilitating the binding of RNA polymerase (acting as activators) or blocking its progress (acting as repressors). During stem cell differentiation, specific sets of transcription factors are activated. This results in the selective expression of certain genes, which are transcribed into mRNA and then translated into specific proteins. Other genes are kept switched off. The unique set of proteins produced alters the physical structure, metabolic activities, and functions of the cell, successfully differentiating it into a specialized cell lineage.
Marking scheme
1. Transcription factors are proteins that bind to specific promoter / regulatory regions of DNA [1 mark]; 2. They can activate transcription by helping RNA polymerase bind, or repress transcription by blocking it [1 mark]; 3. This results in selective gene expression / only specific genes are transcribed into mRNA and translated into proteins [1 mark]; 4. The specific proteins synthesized determine the cell's structure and function, resulting in differentiation into a specialized cell [1 mark]
Question 23 · Short Answer
4 marks
Explain how a mutation in the CFTR gene affects the viscosity of mucus in a person with cystic fibrosis.
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Worked solution
A mutation in the CFTR gene causes a change in the primary structure of the CFTR protein, which often leads to misfolding and degradation, or a non-functional chloride channel on the cell surface membrane of epithelial cells. Since chloride channels are non-functional or absent, chloride ions are not actively transported out of epithelial cells into the mucus layer. Furthermore, the regulation of sodium channels is lost, leading to increased active transport of sodium ions into the cells. This creates a high solute concentration inside the cells, preventing water from moving out of the cells into the mucus by osmosis, and instead drawing water out of the mucus. The loss of water causes the mucus layer to become highly dehydrated, thick, and viscous.
Marking scheme
1. Mutation changes the primary structure of CFTR, leading to a non-functional / absent chloride channel [1 mark]; 2. Chloride ions cannot be transported out of the epithelial cells into the mucus [1 mark]; 3. Sodium ions are actively absorbed into the cells, preventing water from moving into the mucus by osmosis / drawing water out of the mucus [1 mark]; 4. The lack of water makes the mucus thick, sticky, and highly viscous [1 mark]
Question 24 · Short Answer
4 marks
Explain the role of light and water in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis.
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Worked solution
Light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll, exciting electrons to a higher energy level, leaving the chlorophyll molecule oxidized. To replace these lost electrons, water undergoes photolysis, where light energy splits water molecules into oxygen gas, protons \(H^+\), and electrons. The electrons are transferred to chlorophyll, the protons contribute to the electrochemical gradient and are used to reduce NADP, and oxygen is released as a waste product.
Marking scheme
1. Light energy excites electrons in chlorophyll / photosystem II (1 mark). 2. Photolysis of water splits water into oxygen, protons, and electrons (1 mark). 3. Electrons from photolysis replace those lost from chlorophyll (1 mark). 4. Protons are used to reduce NADP / create a proton gradient for ATP synthesis (1 mark).
Question 25 · Short Answer
4 marks
Describe the sequence of events that occurs during the inflammatory response following a local physical injury and entry of pathogens.
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Worked solution
Upon tissue damage or pathogen entry, mast cells and damaged cells release histamine. Histamine acts as a chemical signal that causes local arterioles to dilate (vasodilation), increasing blood flow and causing redness and warmth. Histamine also increases the permeability of nearby capillaries, allowing plasma fluid to leak into tissue spaces, which causes swelling (edema). This increased permeability also enables phagocytic white blood cells, such as neutrophils and macrophages, to leave the blood vessels and migrate to the site of infection to destroy the pathogens by phagocytosis.
Marking scheme
1. Mast cells or damaged tissues release histamines (1 mark). 2. Histamines cause vasodilation, increasing blood flow to the site of injury (1 mark). 3. Capillary permeability increases, leading to fluid leakage and localized swelling (edema) (1 mark). 4. Phagocytes (neutrophils/macrophages) leave capillaries and migrate to the area to engulf and destroy pathogens (1 mark).
Question 26 · Short Answer
4 marks
Explain how molecular phylogeny can be used to determine the evolutionary relationships between different plant species.
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Worked solution
Molecular phylogeny involves isolating and sequencing specific biomolecules, such as DNA, ribosomal RNA, or proteins (like cytochrome c) from different plant species. The sequence of nucleotides or amino acids is then aligned and compared. Species that are closely related evolutionarily will share more similar molecular sequences because there has been less evolutionary time for random mutations to accumulate. This sequence data is processed using bioinformatics software to construct a phylogenetic tree that visually represents the evolutionary distances and branching points of common ancestry.
Marking scheme
1. Sequence DNA, ribosomal RNA, or specific proteins from the different plant species (1 mark). 2. Align and compare these sequences to find similarities and differences (1 mark). 3. Fewer differences / greater similarity indicates a more recent common ancestor (1 mark). 4. Use bioinformatics / computational tools to construct a phylogenetic tree representing evolutionary distances (1 mark).
Question 27 · Short Answer
4 marks
Explain how histone modification and DNA methylation regulate gene expression during cell differentiation.
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Worked solution
During cell differentiation, specific patterns of gene expression are established. DNA methylation involves the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases in DNA (usually at CpG islands), which blocks the binding of transcription factors and RNA polymerase, thereby silencing the gene. Histone modification works alongside this: adding acetyl groups to histones (acetylation) neutralizes their positive charge, relaxing the chromatin structure (forming euchromatin) so transcription machinery can access the DNA. Conversely, histone deacetylation condenses chromatin (forming heterochromatin), making genes inaccessible and preventing transcription. This selective activation and silencing of genes determines which proteins are produced, defining the cell's specialized structure and function.
Marking scheme
1. DNA methylation silences genes by adding methyl groups to cytosine, blocking transcription factor / RNA polymerase binding (1 mark). 2. Histone acetylation relaxes chromatin structure (forming euchromatin) to allow transcription (1 mark). 3. Histone deacetylation condenses chromatin (forming heterochromatin) to prevent gene access (1 mark). 4. Selective transcription of specific genes leads to the translation of tissue-specific proteins that determine cell structure and function (1 mark).
Question 28 · Short Answer
4 marks
Describe how a mutation in the CFTR gene results in the production of thick, sticky mucus in the lungs of individuals with cystic fibrosis.
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Worked solution
A mutation in the CFTR gene alters the primary structure of the CFTR protein, leading to a misfolded, non-functional, or completely absent channel protein in the apical membrane of epithelial cells. Under normal conditions, CFTR channels pump chloride ions out of the epithelial cells into the mucus. In cystic fibrosis, chloride ions cannot be transported out of the cells. This disrupted electrochemical gradient leads to the hyper-absorption of sodium ions back into the cells. Consequently, water does not move out of the cells into the mucus layer by osmosis due to the lack of an osmotic gradient, resulting in dry, highly viscous, and sticky mucus.
Marking scheme
1. Mutation leads to a non-functional / misfolded / absent CFTR channel protein in the cell membrane (1 mark). 2. Chloride ions \(Cl^-\)\ cannot be actively transported out of epithelial cells into the mucus (1 mark). 3. Sodium ions \(Na^+\)\ are hyper-absorbed back into the cells / do not move into the mucus (1 mark). 4. Water fails to move out of the cells into the mucus by osmosis, leaving the mucus dry and thick (1 mark).
Question 29 · Short Answer
4 marks
Explain how data from peat bogs can be used to provide evidence for climate change over thousands of years.
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Worked solution
Peat bogs provide excellent preservation conditions because they are highly acidic and anaerobic, which inhibits the action of decomposers like bacteria and fungi. Pollen grains have a very tough, decay-resistant outer wall (exine) and possess distinct structures that allow them to be identified to specific plant genera or species. Because peat accumulates slowly in chronological layers, deeper layers represent older time periods. By core-sampling the peat and identifying the abundance of different pollen types at successive depths, scientists can reconstruct the plant communities that lived during different historical periods. Since specific plants have defined temperature and moisture requirements, these changing plant distributions provide a proxy record of past climatic conditions.
Marking scheme
1. Anaerobic and acidic conditions in peat bogs slow down or prevent the decay of organic material such as pollen (1 mark). 2. Pollen grains have a decay-resistant wall and can be identified to determine past plant species (1 mark). 3. Peat accumulates in chronological layers, allowing scientists to correlate sample depth with age (1 mark). 4. Changes in the relative abundance of plant pollen reflect historical changes in local climate (such as temperature or rainfall) over time (1 mark).
Question 30 · Short Answer
4 marks
Explain the sequence of chemical events that leads to the formation of a blood clot following damage to a blood vessel.
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Worked solution
When a blood vessel wall is damaged, platelets adhere to the exposed collagen fibers and become activated. Activated platelets, along with damaged tissue cells, release clotting factors, notably the protein thromboplastin. Thromboplastin acts as an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of the inactive plasma protein prothrombin into the active enzyme thrombin. This step requires the presence of calcium ions \(Ca^{2+}\) and vitamin K in the blood. Once formed, thrombin catalyzes the conversion of the soluble plasma protein fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin fibers. These fibrin fibers polymerize to form a physical mesh network across the wound, trapping red blood cells and platelets to form a stable blood clot.
Marking scheme
1. Damaged tissues and platelets release clotting factors, including the enzyme thromboplastin (1 mark). 2. Thromboplastin catalyzes the conversion of inactive prothrombin to active thrombin (1 mark). 3. This conversion requires calcium ions \(Ca^{2+}\) / vitamin K (1 mark). 4. Thrombin catalyzes the conversion of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin, which forms a mesh trapping blood cells to create the clot (1 mark).
Question 31 · 6-Mark Extended Prose
6 marks
Devise an investigation to determine the relationship between soil moisture content and the distribution of Marram grass (*Ammophila arenaria*) across a sand dune system.
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Worked solution
To investigate the distribution of Marram grass along a sand dune, a systematic sampling approach is required because there is an environmental gradient from the shore inland.
1. **Transect Setup**: Lay a long tape measure (line transect) starting from the foredunes (closest to the sea) extending inland perpendicular to the shoreline. 2. **Sampling Intervals**: Place a quadrat (e.g., \(0.5\text{ m} \times 0.5\text{ m}\)) at regular, systematic intervals along the transect line (for example, every 5 metres). 3. **Measuring Plant Distribution**: For each quadrat, estimate and record the percentage cover of Marram grass (*Ammophila arenaria*). 4. **Measuring Soil Moisture**: At each quadrat location, take a soil sample from a standardized depth (e.g., 10 cm). Determine soil moisture quantitatively by weighing the fresh soil sample, drying it in an oven at 105 °C until a constant mass is reached, and calculating the percentage water loss using the formula: \[\text{Percentage moisture} = \frac{\text{Wet mass} - \text{Dry mass}}{\text{Wet mass}} \times 100\] Alternatively, a calibrated electronic soil moisture probe inserted to the same depth can be used. 5. **Control and Abiotic Factors**: Measure other abiotic variables (such as soil pH using a pH probe, or wind speed using an anemometer) at each point to account for confounding factors. 6. **Statistical Analysis**: Plot a scatter graph of percentage cover of Marram grass against soil moisture content. Perform a Spearman\'s rank correlation coefficient test to determine if there is a statistically significant correlation between soil moisture and the abundance of Marram grass.
Marking scheme
**Marking points (maximum 6 marks):**
* **IP1 (Systematic sampling):** Use of a line or belt transect laid out from the shoreline/foredunes running inland. * **IP2 (Quadrats):** Placement of quadrats at regular/defined intervals (e.g., every 5 m or 10 m) along the transect. * **IP3 (Abundance measurement):** Description of how abundance is measured, such as percentage cover or frequency of Marram grass within each quadrat. * **IP4 (Moisture measurement):** Clear method for measuring soil moisture: taking soil samples from a fixed depth, weighing, drying to constant mass, and calculating percentage loss OR using a calibrated soil moisture probe at a consistent depth. * **IP5 (Control of variables):** Control/measurement of at least one other key abiotic factor at each site (e.g., temperature, pH, wind exposure, light intensity) to ensure validity. * **IP6 (Data analysis):** Use of an appropriate statistical test (e.g., Spearman\'s rank correlation coefficient) to analyze the relationship between soil moisture and Marram grass abundance.
*Accept alternative valid statistical tests like Pearson\'s linear correlation if normal distribution of data is assumed.*
Question 32 · 6-Mark Extended Prose
6 marks
A pharmaceutical company has isolated a novel antimicrobial compound, Compound X, from a soil fungus. Devise a laboratory investigation to determine the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of Compound X required to inhibit the growth of *Staphylococcus aureus*.
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Worked solution
To determine the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of Compound X against *Staphylococcus aureus*, the following procedure should be followed:
1. **Serial Dilution**: Prepare a range of concentrations of Compound X using a doubling serial dilution method. For example, dilute a stock solution using sterile nutrient broth or sterile distilled water to obtain relative concentrations such as \(100\%\), \(50\%\), \(25\%\), \(12.5\%\), \(6.25\%\), and \(3.125\%\). 2. **Aseptic Technique**: Conduct all preparation near a lit Bunsen burner to create an updraft, sterilizing inoculating loops by flaming, and disinfecting work surfaces to prevent contamination. 3. **Inoculation**: Inoculate a sterile nutrient agar plate with a liquid culture of *S. aureus* using a sterile spreader to create a uniform lawn of bacterial growth. (Alternatively, add equal volumes of bacterial culture to tubes containing the serial dilutions of Compound X in broth). 4. **Application of Compound X**: If using agar plates, soak sterile paper discs in each concentration of Compound X and place them onto marked zones of the agar plate. Use sterile water as a negative control disc. 5. **Incubation**: Incubate the agar plates (or liquid culture tubes) inverted at a safe temperature of 25 °C (to avoid incubating at 37 °C which promotes the growth of human pathogens) for 24 to 48 hours. 6. **Measurement and Determination**: Measure the diameter of the zone of inhibition (clear zone) around each disc using a ruler/calipers. The MIC is determined as the lowest concentration of Compound X that still produces a visible zone of inhibition (or, in broth, the lowest concentration that remains completely clear of turbidity).
Marking scheme
**Marking points (maximum 6 marks):**
* **IP1 (Dilution series):** Clear description of preparing a range of concentrations of Compound X using serial dilution (e.g., doubling dilutions) with sterile solvent. * **IP2 (Aseptic technique):** Specific details of aseptic technique used to prevent contamination (e.g., working near a Bunsen flame, flaming loops, sterilizing spreaders/pipettes, autoclaving media). * **IP3 (Bacterial preparation):** Inoculation of agar plates with *Staphylococcus aureus* to produce a uniform lawn (or addition of equal quantities of bacteria to broth tubes). * **IP4 (Application/Controls):** Application of dilutions using soaked sterile paper discs / well diffusion, including a control disc containing only the solvent (water/buffer). * **IP5 (Incubation conditions):** Incubation at a safe temperature below 30 °C (e.g., 25 °C) for 24–48 hours to minimize health risks from human pathogens. * **IP6 (Determination of MIC):** Measurement of zones of inhibition (in mm) and identification of the lowest concentration of Compound X that inhibits visible bacterial growth (or prevents turbidity in broth).
*Reject incubation at 37 °C for school/college-level microbiology safety protocols.*
Paper 2: Energy, Exercise and Coordination
Answer all questions. Show all your working out in calculations and include units where appropriate.
32 Question · 97 marks
Question 1 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following features is characteristic of fast-twitch muscle fibres compared to slow-twitch muscle fibres?
A.High concentration of myoglobin
B.Large number of mitochondria
C.High concentration of glycogen
D.Extensive capillary network digital structure info lacking here for options and standard labels conform to a/b/c/d keys as defined in schema structure but in lowercase as keys and labels within the fields value text if needed but the key maps are lowercase standard fields like 'a', 'b', 'c', 'd'.
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Worked solution
Fast-twitch muscle fibres are adapted for rapid, high-intensity contraction and rely primarily on anaerobic respiration. Consequently, they have a high glycogen content to provide glucose quickly for glycolysis, fewer mitochondria, less myoglobin, and a less extensive capillary network than slow-twitch fibres.
Marking scheme
C is the correct answer [1 mark].
Question 2 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
What happens in a human rod cell when it is kept in darkness?
A.Rhodopsin is bleached into retinal and opsin
B.Sodium ions flow into the outer segment through non-specific cation channels
C.The cell membrane becomes hyperpolarised
D.The release of the neurotransmitter glutamate is inhibited
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Worked solution
In the dark, non-specific cation channels in the outer segment of rod cells are kept open by cyclic GMP (cGMP). Sodium ions continuously flow in (the dark current), causing the cell membrane to remain depolarised. This leads to the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitter glutamate.
Marking scheme
B is the correct answer [1 mark].
Question 3 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following describes the potential effect of histone methylation on gene expression?
A.It always increases transcription by loosening the DNA-histone binding
B.It always decreases transcription by tightening the DNA-histone binding
C.It can either activate or repress transcription depending on which lysine residue is methylated
D.It prevents DNA replication by permanently locking the chromatin in a heterochromatin state
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Worked solution
Histone methylation involves the addition of methyl groups to histone proteins. Unlike DNA methylation, which typically represses transcription, histone methylation can either activate or repress gene transcription depending on the specific amino acid residues that are methylated.
Marking scheme
C is the correct answer [1 mark].
Question 4 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
An athlete has a cardiac output of \(15.0\text{ dm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\) and a heart rate of \(125\text{ beats min}^{-1}\). What is their stroke volume?
A.1.2 \(\text{cm}^3\)
B.12 \(\text{cm}^3\)
C.120 \(\text{cm}^3\)
D.1200 \(\text{cm}^3\)
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Worked solution
Using the formula Cardiac Output = Stroke Volume \(\times\) Heart Rate. Rearranging for Stroke Volume gives Stroke Volume = Cardiac Output / Heart Rate. Thus, Stroke Volume = \(15.0\text{ dm}^3\text{ min}^{-1} / 125\text{ min}^{-1} = 0.12\text{ dm}^3\). Since \(1\text{ dm}^3 = 1000\text{ cm}^3\), \(0.12 \times 1000 = 120\text{ cm}^3\).
Marking scheme
C is the correct answer [1 mark]. Correct calculation of stroke volume in dm3 and converted accurately to cm3.
Question 5 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which part of the human brain is responsible for coordinating motor tasks, such as maintaining balance and posture?
A.Cerebrum
B.Cerebellum
C.Medulla oblongata
D.Hypothalamus
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Worked solution
The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating movement, balance, and posture. The cerebrum is involved in voluntary movement and conscious thought, the medulla oblongata controls autonomic functions like heart rate, and the hypothalamus regulates homeostatic functions.
Marking scheme
B is the correct answer [1 mark].
Question 6 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
In individuals without cystic fibrosis, what is the mechanism by which mucus on the epithelial surface of the airways is kept moist?
A.Active transport of sodium ions out of the epithelial cells into the mucus, followed by water moving by osmosis
B.Active transport of chloride ions out of the epithelial cells into the mucus via CFTR channels, followed by passive movement of sodium ions and water
C.Passive diffusion of chloride ions into the epithelial cells, causing sodium and water to enter the cell
D.Active transport of water directly through CFTR channel proteins into the mucus
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Worked solution
In healthy individuals, chloride ions are actively transported into the epithelial cells and then pass out into the mucus via the open CFTR channels. This build-up of solute concentration in the mucus draws sodium ions and water out of the cells by osmosis, keeping the mucus hydrated.
Marking scheme
B is the correct answer [1 mark].
Question 7 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
During the blood clotting cascade, which enzyme directly catalyses the conversion of the soluble plasma protein fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin fibres?
A.Thromboplastin
B.Prothrombin
C.Thrombin
D.Fibrinolysin
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Worked solution
Thrombin is the active enzyme that catalyses the conversion of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin during the blood clotting process. Thromboplastin is involved earlier in triggering the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Marking scheme
C is the correct answer [1 mark].
Question 8 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following correctly describes a structural difference between starch and cellulose?
A.Starch is composed of beta-glucose monomers, whereas cellulose is composed of alpha-glucose monomers
B.Starch contains both 1,4- and 1,6-glycosidic bonds, whereas cellulose contains only 1,4-glycosidic bonds
C.Cellulose molecules are highly branched, whereas starch molecules are completely unbranched
D.Hydrogen bonds form between adjacent starch chains, whereas cellulose chains do not form hydrogen bonds
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Worked solution
Starch (specifically amylopectin) contains both 1,4- and 1,6-glycosidic bonds, whereas cellulose is a straight-chain polymer containing only 1,4-glycosidic bonds between beta-glucose molecules.
Marking scheme
B is the correct answer [1 mark].
Question 9 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During strenuous exercise, skeletal muscle cells respire anaerobically, leading to the accumulation of lactate. Which of the following statements correctly explains why the production of lactate is essential for glycolysis to continue under anaerobic conditions?
A.It directly produces ATP via substrate-level phosphorylation during the conversion of pyruvate to lactate.
B.It regenerates oxidized NAD (NAD+) so that glycolysis can continue to produce a small net yield of ATP.
C.It decreases the pH of the sarcoplasm, which increases the activity of glycolytic enzymes such as phosphofructokinase.
D.It allows lactate to be actively transported into the mitochondria to enter the Krebs cycle directly in the absence of oxygen.
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Worked solution
During anaerobic respiration, the link reaction, Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation cannot occur because oxygen is not available to act as the final electron acceptor. This means that NADH (reduced NAD) cannot be oxidized by the electron transport chain. In order for glycolysis to continue producing a net yield of 2 ATP per glucose molecule, oxidized NAD (NAD+) must be regenerated. The reduction of pyruvate to lactate by lactate dehydrogenase oxidizes NADH back to NAD+, allowing triose phosphate to be oxidized and glycolysis to proceed.
Marking scheme
[1] B is the correct answer because it correctly identifies the regeneration of NAD+ as the critical outcome that allows glycolysis to proceed.
Incorrect options: - A is incorrect because the conversion of pyruvate to lactate does not directly synthesize ATP. - C is incorrect because a decrease in pH actually inhibits key glycolytic enzymes like phosphofructokinase through negative feedback. - D is incorrect because lactate is not transported into mitochondria for direct entry into the Krebs cycle; under anaerobic conditions, the Krebs cycle is inactive.
Question 10 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain. Patients are often treated with L-DOPA rather than dopamine. Which of the following statements correctly explains why L-DOPA is used instead of dopamine?
A.L-DOPA can cross the blood-brain barrier and is subsequently converted into dopamine in the brain.
B.L-DOPA binds directly to postsynaptic dopamine receptors with a much higher affinity than dopamine itself.
C.L-DOPA acts as an inhibitor of monoamine oxidase, preventing the breakdown of endogenous dopamine in the synaptic cleft.
D.L-DOPA blocks dopamine reuptake transporters on the presynaptic membrane, increasing dopamine concentration in the synapse.
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Worked solution
Dopamine is highly polar and cannot pass through the blood-brain barrier to reach the dopaminergic neurons in the brain. L-DOPA, a precursor in the dopamine synthesis pathway, can cross the blood-brain barrier via active transport systems. Once in the brain, it is converted into active dopamine by the enzyme dopa decarboxylase, thereby raising dopamine levels and alleviating motor symptoms.
Marking scheme
[1] A is the correct answer because L-DOPA can cross the blood-brain barrier and is converted to dopamine in the brain.
Incorrect options: - B is incorrect because L-DOPA does not bind directly to dopamine receptors; it must be converted to dopamine first. - C is incorrect because L-DOPA does not inhibit monoamine oxidase (MAO inhibitors are a different class of drugs). - D is incorrect because L-DOPA does not inhibit dopamine reuptake transporters (reuptake inhibitors like cocaine or certain antidepressants do this).
Question 11 · Calculations & Interpretations
3 marks
A runner has a resting heart rate of 62 bpm and a stroke volume of \(75\text{ cm}^3\). During intense exercise, their heart rate increases to 165 bpm and their cardiac output increases to \(24.75\text{ dm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\). Calculate the percentage increase in the runner's stroke volume during this exercise.
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1 mark: Correct conversion of units or calculation of resting cardiac output (e.g., \(4650\text{ cm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\) or \(24.75\text{ dm}^3 = 24750\text{ cm}^3\)). 1 mark: Correct calculation of the exercise stroke volume as \(150\text{ cm}^3\). 1 mark: Correct calculation of the percentage increase as 100% (Accept 100).
Question 12 · Calculations & Interpretations
3 marks
An axon of length \(85\text{ cm}\) conducts an action potential. In a myelinated neurone, the action potential takes \(12.5\text{ ms}\) to travel this distance. In an unmyelinated neurone of the same length, the action potential travels at a constant speed of \(2.0\text{ m s}^{-1}\). Calculate the difference in conduction speed between the two neurones in \(\text{m s}^{-1}\).
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Worked solution
1. Convert myelinated axon distance and time to SI units: \(85\text{ cm} = 0.85\text{ m}\) and \(12.5\text{ ms} = 0.0125\text{ s}\). 2. Calculate myelinated conduction speed: \(0.85 / 0.0125 = 68\text{ m s}^{-1}\). 3. Calculate difference in speed: \(68\text{ m s}^{-1} - 2.0\text{ m s}^{-1} = 66\text{ m s}^{-1}\).
Marking scheme
1 mark: Correct conversion of units (distance to \(0.85\text{ m}\) or time to \(0.0125\text{ s}\)). 1 mark: Correct calculation of myelinated speed as \(68\text{ m s}^{-1}\). 1 mark: Correct subtraction to give speed difference of \(66\text{ m s}^{-1}\) (Accept 66).
Question 13 · Calculations & Interpretations
3 marks
During an investigation, a small mammal absorbed \(48.5\text{ cm}^3\) of oxygen and produced \(33.95\text{ cm}^3\) of carbon dioxide over a 15-minute period. Calculate the Respiratory Quotient (RQ) to 2 decimal places and identify the primary respiratory substrate being used.
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Worked solution
1. Use formula: \(\text{RQ} = \text{volume of CO}_2\text{ produced} / \text{volume of O}_2\text{ consumed}\). 2. Calculate value: \(33.95 / 48.5 = 0.70\). 3. Identify substrate: An RQ of 0.70 is characteristic of lipid (fat) respiration.
Marking scheme
1 mark: Correct substitution into RQ equation (\(33.95 / 48.5\)). 1 mark: Correct calculation of RQ as 0.70 (must be written to two decimal places). 1 mark: Correct identification of primary substrate as lipid / fat (Accept triglyceride).
Question 14 · Calculations & Interpretations
3 marks
A eukaryotic gene of length \(4200\text{ base pairs}\) is transcribed to produce pre-mRNA. Splicing removes three introns of lengths \(320\), \(450\), and \(280\) base pairs to produce mature mRNA. Calculate the time in seconds taken to translate this mature mRNA if each amino acid is coded by 3 nucleotides and translation occurs at a rate of \(15\text{ amino acids per second}\).
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1 mark: Correct calculation of mature mRNA length as \(3150\text{ nucleotides}\). 1 mark: Correct calculation of the number of amino acids as \(1050\). 1 mark: Correct calculation of total time as \(70\text{ seconds}\) (Accept 70).
Question 15 · Calculations & Interpretations
3 marks
A runner with a body mass of \(80\text{ kg}\) consumes an energy gel containing \(150\text{ kcal}\) before running. The energy expenditure of running for this individual is \(0.15\text{ kcal kg}^{-1}\text{ min}^{-1}\). Calculate the duration of the run, in minutes, required to expend exactly twice the energy value of the consumed energy gel.
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Worked solution
1. Calculate target energy expenditure: \(150\text{ kcal} \times 2 = 300\text{ kcal}\). 2. Calculate rate of energy expenditure for an 80 kg runner: \(0.15\text{ kcal kg}^{-1}\text{ min}^{-1} \times 80\text{ kg} = 12\text{ kcal min}^{-1}\). 3. Calculate duration: \(300 / 12 = 25\text{ minutes}\).
Marking scheme
1 mark: Correct calculation of target energy expenditure as \(300\text{ kcal}\). 1 mark: Correct calculation of individual rate of expenditure as \(12\text{ kcal min}^{-1}\). 1 mark: Correct calculation of run duration as \(25\text{ minutes}\) (Accept 25).
Question 16 · Short Answer Explain/Describe
4 marks
Explain how the structure of a mitochondrion is adapted to its function in aerobic respiration.
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Worked solution
The structure of the mitochondrion is highly specialized for aerobic respiration: 1. The inner membrane is folded into cristae, increasing the surface area available for electron transport chain proteins and ATP synthase. 2. The matrix is a fluid-filled space containing specific enzymes (such as decarboxylases and dehydrogenases) and coenzymes (NAD and FAD) required for the Link reaction and the Krebs cycle. 3. The intermembrane space is narrow, allowing protons (\text{H}^+ ions) pumped across the inner membrane to accumulate rapidly, forming a steep electrochemical/proton gradient. 4. The inner membrane is impermeable to protons except through ATP synthase channels, ensuring that proton flow drives the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 4 marks: 1. Cristae/inner membrane folding increases surface area for the electron transport chain / ATP synthase. 2. Matrix contains enzymes (e.g., decarboxylases/dehydrogenases) or coenzymes (NAD/FAD) for the Link reaction or Krebs cycle. 3. Narrow intermembrane space allows rapid build-up of hydrogen ions/protons (gradient). 4. Outer membrane contains transport proteins for the entry of pyruvate/reduced NAD.
Question 17 · Short Answer Explain/Describe
4 marks
Explain the biochemical mechanism of habituation to a repeated, harmless stimulus.
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Worked solution
Habituation occurs through the following pathway: 1. With repeated stimulation, calcium ion channels on the presynaptic membrane become less responsive and do not open as easily. 2. This reduces the influx of calcium ions (\(\text{Ca}^{2+}\)) into the presynaptic neurone. 3. As a result, fewer synaptic vesicles undergo exocytosis to release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. 4. Consequently, fewer neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, reducing depolarization below the threshold required to trigger an action potential.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 4 marks: 1. Calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane become less responsive / do not open. 2. Fewer calcium ions (\(\text{Ca}^{2+}\)) enter the presynaptic neurone. 3. Fewer synaptic vesicles undergo exocytosis / less neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft. 4. Less depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane occurs / threshold is not reached, so fewer action potentials are generated.
Question 18 · Short Answer Explain/Describe
4 marks
Explain how histone modification regulates gene expression.
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Worked solution
Histone modification regulates gene expression by altering chromatin structure: 1. Acetylation of histones adds acetyl groups, which reduces the positive charge on histones. This weakens their attraction to the negatively charged DNA, resulting in a looser chromatin structure (euchromatin) that is accessible to RNA polymerase and transcription factors, thus initiating transcription. 2. Methylation of histones adds methyl groups, which can lead to chromatin condensation (heterochromatin). This tightly packed DNA prevents transcription factors and RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter region, thereby silencing or reducing gene expression.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 4 marks: 1. Acetylation of histones decreases the positive charge on histones / weakens the bond between histones and DNA. 2. This results in chromatin loosening (euchromatin), allowing transcription factors / RNA polymerase to access DNA. 3. Methylation of histones/DNA can lead to chromatin condensation (heterochromatin). 4. This prevents access of transcription machinery, thereby inhibiting/silencing gene expression.
Question 19 · Short Answer Explain/Describe
4 marks
Explain how a mutation in the CFTR gene results in the production of thick, sticky mucus in the respiratory tract.
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Worked solution
1. A mutation in the CFTR gene results in a CFTR channel protein that is misfolded, non-functional, or absent from the apical membrane of epithelial cells. 2. Consequently, chloride ions (\(\text{Cl}^-\)) cannot be actively transported out of the epithelial cells into the mucus. 3. This leads to an increased uptake of sodium ions (\(\text{Na}^+\)) into the cells from the mucus. 4. Because of the high solute concentration inside the cells, water is drawn out of the mucus and into the epithelial cells by osmosis, dehydrating the mucus and making it thick, sticky, and difficult for cilia to clear.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 4 marks: 1. Mutation results in a non-functional or absent CFTR channel protein in the cell membrane. 2. Chloride ions (\(\text{Cl}^-\)) cannot leave the epithelial cells (into the mucus). 3. Sodium ions (\(\text{Na}^+\)) flow into the epithelial cells (from the mucus). 4. Water moves out of the mucus into the cells by osmosis, dehydrating the mucus / making it thick and sticky.
Question 20 · Short Answer Explain/Describe
4 marks
Describe how atherosclerosis develops in an artery and explain how this can lead to a myocardial infarction.
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Worked solution
Atherosclerosis begins with damage to the endothelial lining of an artery, which can be caused by high blood pressure or toxins. This damage triggers an inflammatory response, leading to the accumulation of white blood cells (macrophages) and lipids (cholesterol/LDLs) behind the endothelium, forming an atheroma. Calcium salts and fibrous tissue build up around the atheroma, hardening it into a plaque that narrows the arterial lumen. If the plaque ruptures, it exposes collagen, triggering blood clotting (thrombosis). A blood clot (thrombus) can block a coronary artery, cutting off the oxygen supply to the heart muscle, resulting in ischemic cell death (myocardial infarction).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 4 marks: 1. Damage to the endothelium triggers an inflammatory response / accumulation of white blood cells and lipids (cholesterol) to form an atheroma. 2. Fibrous tissue and calcium salts build up to form a hard plaque, narrowing the lumen. 3. Rupture of the plaque triggers the clotting cascade, forming a thrombus (blood clot). 4. The thrombus blocks coronary arteries, preventing oxygen and glucose delivery to heart muscle cells, causing myocardial infarction.
Question 21 · Short Answer Explain/Describe
4 marks
Explain the roles of calcium ions and ATP in the contraction of a myofibril.
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Worked solution
During muscle contraction: 1. Calcium ions (\(\text{Ca}^{2+}\)) are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and bind to troponin. 2. This causes a shape change in troponin, pulling tropomyosin away from the myosin-binding sites on the actin filament, allowing cross-bridges to form. 3. ATP binds to the myosin head and is hydrolyzed to ADP and inorganic phosphate, providing the energy required for the myosin head to change angle (power stroke), pulling the actin filament towards the centre of the sarcomere. 4. A new ATP molecule binds to the myosin head, causing it to detach from the actin filament so the cycle can repeat.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 4 marks: 1. Calcium ions bind to troponin, causing a conformational change. 2. This shifts/moves tropomyosin, exposing myosin-binding sites on actin. 3. ATP hydrolysis (to ADP and Pi) provides energy for the power stroke / resetting of the myosin head. 4. Binding of a new ATP molecule is required for the myosin head to detach from the actin filament.
Question 22 · Short Answer Explain/Describe
4 marks
Explain why L-Dopa is used to treat the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, whereas dopamine itself cannot be used.
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Worked solution
Parkinson's disease involves the death of dopamine-secreting neurones in the motor cortex, leading to a shortage of dopamine. Dopamine is a highly polar molecule and is too large/charged to pass through the blood-brain barrier from the bloodstream into the brain. In contrast, L-Dopa (levodopa) is a precursor molecule that can actively cross the blood-brain barrier. Once inside the brain, L-Dopa is converted into dopamine by the enzyme dopa decarboxylase, restoring neurotransmitter levels and reducing symptoms like tremors and stiffness.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 4 marks: 1. Parkinson's disease is characterized by a lack of dopamine / loss of dopamine-producing neurones in the brain. 2. Dopamine cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. 3. L-Dopa is a precursor that is able to cross the blood-brain barrier. 4. Once inside the brain, L-Dopa is converted into dopamine (by enzymes/decarboxylase), raising dopamine levels to ease motor symptoms.
Question 23 · Short Answer Explain/Describe
4 marks
Explain how transcription factors determine the pathway of differentiation in stem cells.
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Worked solution
Transcription factors are proteins that play a vital role in cellular differentiation: 1. They bind to specific promoter or enhancer regions of DNA. 2. They act as activators (which help RNA polymerase bind and initiate transcription) or repressors (which prevent RNA polymerase from binding). 3. This leads to selective gene expression, where only specific genes are transcribed into mRNA and subsequently translated into proteins. 4. The unique set of proteins produced alters the structure, organelles, and biochemical activities of the cell, determining its final differentiated cell type.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 4 marks: 1. Transcription factors bind to specific promoter / regulator regions on DNA. 2. They can activate or repress the transcription of specific target genes (by helping or blocking RNA polymerase). 3. This results in selective gene expression / transcription of specific mRNA. 4. Translation of this mRNA produces specific proteins that determine the cell's structure and function (differentiation).
Question 24 · Short Answer Explain/Describe
4 marks
Explain the roles of the sarcoplasmic reticulum and T-tubules (transverse tubules) in the contraction of a skeletal muscle fibre.
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Worked solution
1. Depolarisation of the sarcolemma spreads down the T-tubules into the muscle fibre. 2. This depolarisation triggers the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium ions (\(\text{Ca}^{2+}\)) from its stores into the sarcoplasm. 3. The released calcium ions bind to troponin molecules on the actin filaments. 4. This causes a conformational change in tropomyosin, moving it away from the myosin-binding sites on the actin, allowing myosin heads to bind and initiate contraction.
Marking scheme
- 1 mark: Depolarisation spreads down the T-tubules into the interior of the muscle fibre. - 1 mark: Depolarisation triggers the release of calcium ions (\(\text{Ca}^{2+}\)) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. - 1 mark: Calcium ions bind to troponin, causing a conformational change in tropomyosin. - 1 mark: Tropomyosin moves to expose the myosin-binding sites on the actin filament, allowing actin-myosin cross-bridge formation.
Question 25 · Short Answer Explain/Describe
4 marks
Explain how an action potential in a presynaptic neurone leads to the depolarisation of the postsynaptic membrane at a cholinergic synapse.
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Worked solution
1. An action potential arriving at the presynaptic knob causes voltage-gated calcium ion channels to open, and calcium ions (\(\text{Ca}^{2+}\)) diffuse in. 2. This influx of calcium ions triggers synaptic vesicles containing acetylcholine (ACh) to move to and fuse with the presynaptic membrane, releasing ACh via exocytosis into the cleft. 3. ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to complementary receptor proteins on the postsynaptic membrane. 4. This binding causes ligand-gated sodium ion (\(\text{Na}^{+}\)) channels to open, allowing sodium ions to diffuse into the postsynaptic neurone, depolarising the membrane.
Marking scheme
- 1 mark: Calcium channels open in the presynaptic membrane, allowing calcium ions to enter. - 1 mark: Synaptic vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane to release acetylcholine (ACh) into the cleft by exocytosis. - 1 mark: ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to specific receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. - 1 mark: Ligand-gated sodium channels open, causing an influx of sodium ions (\(\text{Na}^{+}\)) and depolarisation of the postsynaptic membrane.
Question 26 · Short Answer Explain/Describe
4 marks
Explain how light falling on a rod cell in the mammalian retina leads to the hyperpolarisation of its cell surface membrane.
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Worked solution
1. Rhodopsin in the outer segment of the rod cell absorbs light and breaks down into retinal and opsin (bleaching). 2. Opsin activates a G-protein (transducin), which initiates a chemical cascade that leads to the closure of non-specific cation (sodium) channels in the outer segment. 3. Sodium ions (\(\text{Na}^{+}\)) continue to be actively transported out of the rod cell's inner segment via sodium-potassium pumps. 4. As sodium ions cannot diffuse back in through the closed channels, the concentration of positive ions inside the cell decreases, making the resting potential more negative (hyperpolarisation).
Marking scheme
- 1 mark: Rhodopsin absorbs light and splits into retinal and opsin (photoisomerisation / bleaching). - 1 mark: Opsin triggers a cascade of chemical reactions that causes sodium (\(\text{Na}^{+}\)) channels in the outer segment to close. - 1 mark: Sodium ions continue to be actively pumped out of the inner segment. - 1 mark: This creates a net loss of positive charge inside the rod cell, leading to hyperpolarisation of the membrane.
Question 27 · Short Answer Explain/Describe
4 marks
During exercise, the rate of cellular respiration in muscles increases, altering blood chemistry. Explain how the autonomic nervous system responds to these changes to increase heart rate.
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Worked solution
1. An increase in aerobic respiration during exercise produces more carbon dioxide (\(\text{CO}_2\)), which dissolves in blood plasma to form carbonic acid, lowering blood pH. 2. This decrease in pH is detected by chemoreceptors located in the wall of the carotid arteries and the aorta. 3. Chemoreceptors send nerve impulses (at a higher frequency) to the cardiovascular centre in the medulla oblongata. 4. The medulla oblongata responds by sending more frequent impulses down the sympathetic nerve to the sinoatrial node (SAN), which releases noradrenaline to increase the rate of depolarisation, thereby increasing the heart rate.
Marking scheme
- 1 mark: Increased carbon dioxide levels / decreased blood pH is detected by chemoreceptors in the carotid arteries / aorta. - 1 mark: Chemoreceptors send a higher frequency of nerve impulses to the cardiovascular control centre in the medulla oblongata. - 1 mark: The medulla oblongata increases the frequency of impulses along the sympathetic nervous system / sympathetic nerve. - 1 mark: The sympathetic nerve releases noradrenaline at the sinoatrial node (SAN) to increase the heart rate.
Question 28 · Short Answer Explain/Describe
4 marks
Explain how transcription factors are able to regulate the expression of specific genes during the development of an organism.
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Worked solution
1. Transcription factors are specialized proteins that migrate from the cytoplasm into the nucleus and bind to specific DNA sequences (promoter regions or enhancers) near target genes. 2. Activator transcription factors work by recruiting and helping RNA polymerase bind to the promoter region, allowing transcription (mRNA synthesis) to proceed. 3. Repressor transcription factors bind to the DNA to prevent RNA polymerase from binding or moving along the strand, thereby preventing transcription of the gene. 4. By selectively activating or repressing transcription, these factors determine which proteins are synthesised, which ultimately determines the structural and functional characteristics of the differentiating cell.
Marking scheme
- 1 mark: Transcription factors bind to specific promoter/regulatory regions of DNA. - 1 mark: Activators facilitate / stimulate the binding of RNA polymerase to initiate transcription / mRNA synthesis. - 1 mark: Repressors prevent / block the binding of RNA polymerase to inhibit transcription. - 1 mark: This selective expression of genes controls which proteins are produced, determining cell differentiation.
Question 29 · Short Answer Explain/Describe
4 marks
Explain how high levels of blood cholesterol can lead to the formation of an atheroma and the development of cardiovascular disease.
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Worked solution
1. High concentrations of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) cause cholesterol to accumulate in the bloodstream. 2. If there is damage to the endothelial lining of an artery (e.g., due to high blood pressure), LDL cholesterol penetrates the endothelium and enters the artery wall. 3. The accumulated lipids trigger an inflammatory response, attracting white blood cells (macrophages) which engulf the lipids to become foam cells. 4. These foam cells, along with a build-up of fibrous tissue, collagen, and calcium, form a hardened plaque (atheroma) that bulges into the lumen, narrowing it and reducing blood flow.
Marking scheme
- 1 mark: High LDL cholesterol accumulates in the artery wall, especially if the endothelium is damaged (e.g. by high blood pressure). - 1 mark: This accumulation triggers an inflammatory response, causing macrophages (white blood cells) to migrate to the site. - 1 mark: Macrophages engulf the cholesterol/lipids to become foam cells. - 1 mark: Accumulation of foam cells, calcium, and fibrous tissue forms an atheroma / plaque, which narrows the lumen of the artery.
Question 30 · Short Answer Explain/Describe
4 marks
Explain how the recreational drug MDMA (ecstasy) affects serotonin synapses in the brain to alter mood.
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Worked solution
1. MDMA acts on serotonergic neurones by binding to the serotonin reuptake transporter proteins on the presynaptic membrane. 2. This binding blocks the transporter, preventing the normal reuptake of serotonin from the synaptic cleft back into the presynaptic neurone. 3. Furthermore, MDMA causes these transporter proteins to run in reverse, actively pumping stored serotonin out of the presynaptic neurone and into the synaptic cleft. 4. As a result, there is a very high concentration of serotonin in the synaptic cleft, leading to continuous binding to and stimulation of postsynaptic receptors, which alters mood and produces feelings of euphoria.
Marking scheme
- 1 mark: MDMA binds to and blocks the serotonin reuptake transporter proteins on the presynaptic membrane. - 1 mark: This prevents serotonin from being reabsorbed from the synaptic cleft back into the presynaptic neurone. - 1 mark: MDMA causes the reuptake transporter proteins to run in reverse, releasing serotonin into the cleft. - 1 mark: Serotonin accumulates in high concentrations in the cleft, causing continuous / increased stimulation of postsynaptic receptors.
Question 31 · essay
6 marks
Devise an investigation to compare the effect of two different exercise intensities on the concentration of lactate in the blood of athletes during a training session.
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Worked solution
To compare the effect of two different exercise intensities, the independent variable must be set at two distinct levels, such as running on a treadmill at a low intensity (e.g., 8 km/h or 50% VO2 max) versus a high intensity (e.g., 14 km/h or 85% VO2 max). The dependent variable is blood lactate concentration, measured in mmol/L using a portable lactate analyser. Prior to the test, athletes should complete a PAR-Q questionnaire for safety, perform a standardized warm-up, and rest to establish a baseline blood lactate level via a finger-prick blood sample. Athletes then run at the assigned intensity for a set duration, such as 20 minutes, with blood samples taken at regular 5-minute intervals. Confounding variables must be controlled, including ambient room temperature, hydration levels, and diet (especially carbohydrate intake) prior to testing. To ensure reliability, the test should be repeated using a sample size of at least 10 athletes of similar age and fitness levels, allowing mean values to be calculated. Finally, a Student's t-test can be performed to determine if there is a statistically significant difference in mean blood lactate accumulation between the two intensities.
Marking scheme
Level 1 (1-2 marks): Identifies the independent and dependent variables, but the plan is disorganized or lacks control of key variables. Level 2 (3-4 marks): Devises a method that measures the effect of two distinct, quantified intensities, controls some confounding factors, and takes multiple measurements over time. Level 3 (5-6 marks): A fully developed, workable method that includes replication (using multiple athletes), detailed control of variables, safety/ethical precautions, and an appropriate statistical test to establish significance. Indicative Content: 1. Independent variable: two clearly defined exercise intensities (e.g., specific speeds or % VO2 max). 2. Dependent variable: concentration of blood lactate measured using a blood lactate meter/analyser. 3. Timing: blood samples taken at baseline (rest) and at regular set intervals during/immediately after exercise. 4. Control variables: age/fitness of athletes, pre-test diet, ambient temperature, hydration. 5. Reliability: use a group of at least 10 athletes to calculate a mean and standard deviation. 6. Safety/Ethics: PAR-Q medical screening, warm-up, informed consent. 7. Analysis: Use of Student's t-test to compare the mean lactate concentrations.
Question 32 · essay
6 marks
A student wants to investigate habituation in a pond snail (Lymnaea stagnalis). Devise a laboratory investigation to determine whether habituation of the tentacle-withdrawal reflex is specific to a mechanical stimulus (touch with a cotton bud) or if it generalizes to a different mechanical stimulus (touch with a plastic probe).
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Worked solution
To investigate the specificity of habituation in Lymnaea stagnalis, first place a snail in a container of pond water and allow it to acclimate. The first mechanical stimulus (touching a tentacle with a wet cotton bud) is applied with a constant, gentle force at regular, timed intervals (such as every 10 seconds). The dependent variable, the duration of tentacle withdrawal (in seconds), is recorded for each touch. This is repeated until the snail is habituated, defined as three consecutive trials with zero withdrawal response. Immediately after habituation is established, apply the second, novel mechanical stimulus (touching the same tentacle with a plastic probe) using the same force. If the tentacle withdraws fully, habituation is stimulus-specific; if there is no withdrawal, the habituation has generalized. Key confounding variables must be controlled, including water temperature, background noise, and light intensity, as these can affect snail activity. The procedure should be repeated with at least 10 individual snails to calculate mean habituation times and assess reliability, while ensuring ethical handling of the animals.
Marking scheme
Level 1 (1-2 marks): Describes a basic method to habituate the snail using one stimulus, but lacks detail on testing specificity or controlling variables. Level 2 (3-4 marks): Devises a method that includes habituating with the first stimulus, testing with the second stimulus immediately after, and attempts to control some environmental variables. Level 3 (5-6 marks): A highly detailed, logically structured investigation including precise timings, measurement of the dependent variable, test of specificity, control of key variables, and replication with multiple animals to ensure reliability. Indicative Content: 1. Method of habituation: touch tentacle with cotton bud at regular, timed intervals (e.g., every 10 seconds). 2. Measurement: record duration of tentacle withdrawal or percentage contraction. 3. Criteria for habituation: repeat until response ceases completely (e.g., three consecutive zero-responses). 4. Test of specificity: immediately apply a novel stimulus (plastic probe) to the same tentacle and record response. 5. Control variables: keep water temperature, light levels, and acclimation period constant. 6. Reliability: use a sample size of at least 10 snails and calculate mean responses. 7. Ethics: minimize stress to snails and return them to their natural environment.
Paper 3: General and Practical Applications in Biology
Answer all questions. Show all your working out in calculations and include units where appropriate.
31 Question · 101 marks
Question 1 · Short Recall & Calculations
2 marks
In a temperate deciduous forest, the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of the oak tree canopy is measured as \( 8400 \text{ kJ m}^{-2} \text{ yr}^{-1} \). The primary consumers (caterpillars) feeding on these leaves ingest \( 1260 \text{ kJ m}^{-2} \text{ yr}^{-1} \). Calculate the percentage of NPP that is transferred to the primary consumers.
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Worked solution
To find the percentage of Net Primary Productivity (NPP) transferred to the primary consumers: \( \text{Percentage transferred} = \left( \frac{\text{Energy ingested by primary consumers}}{\text{NPP}} \right) \times 100 \) \( \text{Percentage transferred} = \left( \frac{1260}{8400} \right) \times 100 = 15\% \)
Marking scheme
- 1 mark for correct working showing: \( \frac{1260}{8400} \) or \( 0.15 \) - 1 mark for correct final answer: \( 15\% \) (unit required)
Question 2 · Short Recall & Calculations
2 marks
During a paper chromatography experiment to separate photosynthetic pigments from a nettle leaf, the solvent front traveled \( 8.2 \text{ cm} \). A yellow-green spot corresponding to chlorophyll b traveled \( 3.6 \text{ cm} \). Calculate the Rf value for chlorophyll b. Give your answer to 2 decimal places.
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Worked solution
The formula for the Rf value is: \( R_f = \frac{\text{Distance traveled by pigment}}{\text{Distance traveled by solvent front}} \) \( R_f = \frac{3.6}{8.2} \approx 0.43902... \) Rounding to 2 decimal places gives \( 0.44 \).
Marking scheme
- 1 mark for correct calculation structure showing: \( \frac{3.6}{8.2} \) - 1 mark for correct final value rounded to 2 decimal places: \( 0.44 \)
Question 3 · Short Recall & Calculations
2 marks
An athlete has a resting cardiac output of \( 5.4 \text{ dm}^3 \text{ min}^{-1} \). If their resting heart rate is \( 60 \text{ beats per minute} \), calculate their stroke volume. State the unit in your final answer.
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- 1 mark for correct calculation of value (either \( 0.09 \) or \( 90 \)) - 1 mark for matching correct unit (either \( 0.09 \text{ dm}^3 \) or \( 90 \text{ cm}^3 \) / \( 90 \text{ ml} \))
Question 4 · Short Recall & Calculations
2 marks
A forensic DNA sample contains exactly 15 molecules of a target DNA sequence. Calculate the total number of copies of this sequence that would be present after 12 complete cycles of the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), assuming 100% amplification efficiency at each cycle.
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Worked solution
Each cycle of PCR doubles the number of target DNA molecules. Formula: \( N = N_0 \times 2^n \) Where \( N_0 = 15 \) and \( n = 12 \). \( N = 15 \times 2^{12} \) \( 2^{12} = 4096 \) \( N = 15 \times 4096 = 61,440 \)
Marking scheme
- 1 mark for showing correct working: \( 15 \times 2^{12} \) or identifying \( 2^{12} = 4096 \) - 1 mark for correct final answer: \( 61,440 \) (accept \( 61440 \) or \( 6.14 \times 10^4 \))
Question 5 · Short Recall & Calculations
2 marks
The chemical equation below shows the aerobic respiration of a triacylglycerol molecule:
Calculate the Respiratory Quotient (RQ) for the respiration of this lipid. Give your answer to 2 decimal places.
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Worked solution
Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is calculated using the formula: \( \text{RQ} = \frac{\text{Volume of } \text{CO}_2 \text{ produced}}{\text{Volume of } \text{O}_2 \text{ consumed}} \) From the equation, 102 molecules of \( \text{CO}_2 \) are produced for every 145 molecules of \( \text{O}_2 \) consumed. \( \text{RQ} = \frac{102}{145} \approx 0.7034 \) Rounded to 2 decimal places, the RQ is \( 0.70 \).
Marking scheme
- 1 mark for correct fraction shown: \( \frac{102}{145} \) or \( 0.703 \) - 1 mark for correct final answer to 2 decimal places: \( 0.70 \)
Question 6 · Short Recall & Calculations
2 marks
An electron micrograph image of a mitochondrion shows its length to be \( 4.5 \text{ cm} \). If the actual physical length of this mitochondrion is \( 1.5 \ \mu\text{m} \text{ (micromitres)} \, \), calculate the magnification of this micrograph image.
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Worked solution
First, convert both values to the same unit (micromitres, \( \mu\text{m} \)): \( 4.5 \text{ cm} = 45 \text{ mm} = 45,000 \ \mu\text{m} \) Use the magnification formula: \( \text{Magnification} = \frac{\text{Image size}}{\text{Actual size}} \) \( \text{Magnification} = \frac{45,000 \ \mu\text{m}}{1.5 \ \mu\text{m}} = 30,000 \) Therefore, the magnification is \( \times 30,000 \).
Marking scheme
- 1 mark for converting image size correctly to micromitres: \( 45,000 \ \mu\text{m} \) (or converting actual size to centimeters: \( 1.5 \times 10^{-4} \text{ cm} \)) - 1 mark for correct final answer: \( 30,000 \) or \( \times 30,000 \) or \( 3 \times 10^4 \)
Question 7 · Short Recall & Calculations
2 marks
The rate of an enzyme-controlled respiratory reaction in a germinating seed is \( 1.2 \text{ mg dm}^{-3} \text{ s}^{-1} \) at \( 15^\circ\text{C} \). At \( 25^\circ\text{C} \), the rate of the reaction increases to \( 2.7 \text{ mg dm}^{-3} \text{ s}^{-1} \). Calculate the temperature coefficient (\( Q_{10} \)) for this reaction.
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Worked solution
The formula for the temperature coefficient is: \( Q_{10} = \frac{\text{Rate of reaction at } (T + 10)^\circ\text{C}}{\text{Rate of reaction at } T^\circ\text{C}} \) Here, \( T = 15^\circ\text{C} \) and \( T + 10 = 25^\circ\text{C} \). \( Q_{10} = \frac{2.7}{1.2} = 2.25 \)
Marking scheme
- 1 mark for correct calculation structure showing: \( \frac{2.7}{1.2} \) - 1 mark for correct final value: \( 2.25 \)
Question 8 · Short Recall & Calculations
2 marks
In a human population, the allele frequency of a recessive disease allele for cystic fibrosis is 0.02. Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, calculate the percentage of the population who are heterozygous carriers of this allele.
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Worked solution
According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle: Let the frequency of the recessive allele \( q = 0.02 \). Therefore, the frequency of the dominant allele \( p = 1 - q = 1 - 0.02 = 0.98 \). The frequency of heterozygous carriers is given by \( 2pq \): \( \text{Frequency} = 2 \times 0.98 \times 0.02 = 0.0392 \) Converting this frequency to a percentage: \( 0.0392 \times 100 = 3.92\% \)
Marking scheme
- 1 mark for calculation of dominant allele frequency \( p = 0.98 \) or correct substitution: \( 2 \times 0.98 \times 0.02 \) - 1 mark for correct final percentage: \( 3.92\% \) (accept \( 3.9\% \))
Question 9 · calculation
2 marks
In a woodland ecosystem, the solar energy falling on the canopy is \( 1.8 \times 10^6 \text{ kJ m}^{-2} \text{ yr}^{-1} \). The Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of the plants is \( 1.2 \times 10^4 \text{ kJ m}^{-2} \text{ yr}^{-1} \), and their respiration (R) is \( 8.0 \times 10^3 \text{ kJ m}^{-2} \text{ yr}^{-1} \). Calculate the percentage of solar energy that is captured as Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) by these plants. Give your answer to two decimal places.
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Worked solution
First, calculate Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) using the formula: \( \text{GPP} = \text{NPP} + \text{R} \). This gives \( \text{GPP} = 12000 + 8000 = 20000 \text{ kJ m}^{-2} \text{ yr}^{-1} \) (or \( 2.0 \times 10^4 \text{ kJ m}^{-2} \text{ yr}^{-1} \)). Next, calculate the percentage of solar energy captured as GPP: \( (20000 / 1800000) \times 100 = 1.111...\% \). Giving the answer to two decimal places yields \( 1.11\% \).
Marking scheme
Mark 1: Correct calculation of GPP as \( 20000 \text{ kJ m}^{-2} \text{ yr}^{-1} \). Mark 2: Correct calculation of percentage of solar energy captured as \( 1.11\% \) (Accept 1.11; allow ECF if correct method is used with an incorrect GPP value).
Question 10 · calculation
2 marks
An athlete has a heart rate of \( 140 \text{ beats min}^{-1} \) during exercise, with a cardiac output of \( 18.2 \text{ dm}^3 \text{ min}^{-1} \). Calculate the stroke volume of this athlete. Give your answer in \( \text{cm}^3 \).
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Worked solution
Use the formula: \( \text{Cardiac Output} = \text{Stroke Volume} \times \text{Heart Rate} \). Rearranging this formula gives: \( \text{Stroke Volume} = \text{Cardiac Output} / \text{Heart Rate} \). First, convert cardiac output from \( \text{dm}^3 \text{ min}^{-1} \) to \( \text{cm}^3 \text{ min}^{-1} \) by multiplying by 1000: \( 18.2 \times 1000 = 18200 \text{ cm}^3 \text{ min}^{-1} \). Finally, divide the cardiac output by the heart rate: \( 18200 / 140 = 130 \text{ cm}^3 \).
Marking scheme
Mark 1: Convert cardiac output to \( 18200 \text{ cm}^3 \text{ min}^{-1} \) OR correctly rearrange the formula to stroke volume = cardiac output / heart rate. Mark 2: Correct stroke volume of 130 (Accept \( 130 \text{ cm}^3 \)).
Question 11 · Structured Synoptic Explainer
4 marks
Explain the biological and physical principles behind using a respirometer to measure the rate of aerobic respiration in germinating seeds, including why soda lime is used and why temperature must be kept constant.
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Worked solution
During aerobic respiration, germinating seeds absorb oxygen and release carbon dioxide in equal volumes if the respiratory quotient is 1.0. To measure oxygen consumption, soda lime is placed in the tube to absorb all carbon dioxide produced. This creates a reduction in gas volume and pressure inside the boiling tube as oxygen is consumed, causing the liquid in the capillary tube to move towards the seeds. Temperature must be controlled because fluctuations alter gas volume and pressure according to gas laws, independent of respiration. Additionally, temperature directly affects the kinetic energy of respiratory enzymes and substrates, which would alter the actual rate of respiration.
Marking scheme
1. Soda lime absorbs carbon dioxide produced by the seeds, ensuring any change in gas volume/pressure is due solely to oxygen uptake (1). 2. Oxygen uptake by the seeds reduces the internal gas volume and pressure, causing the liquid in the capillary tube to move towards the test chamber (1). 3. Temperature must be controlled because gas volume and pressure fluctuate with temperature (Charles's Law), which would introduce errors in the measurement of oxygen uptake (1). 4. Temperature directly affects the kinetic energy of enzymes and substrates involved in respiration, altering the biological rate of the reaction (1).
Question 12 · Structured Synoptic Explainer
4 marks
Statins are commonly prescribed to individuals with high blood cholesterol levels to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. Explain how statins reduce the risk of atherosclerosis and how this relates to the inflammatory nature of cardiovascular disease.
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Worked solution
Statins lower blood LDL cholesterol levels by inhibiting an enzyme in the liver responsible for synthesising cholesterol. With lower levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) circulating in the bloodstream, there is a lower rate of LDL infiltration into the endothelial lining of arteries. This prevents the initial endothelial damage and the subsequent inflammatory response where white blood cells (macrophages) engulf modified LDLs to become foam cells. Consequently, plaque (atheroma) formation is reduced, keeping the arterial lumen wide and maintaining normal blood flow.
Marking scheme
1. Statins inhibit cholesterol synthesis in the liver, which significantly reduces the level of circulating LDL cholesterol in the blood (1). 2. Reduced circulating LDL levels decrease the infiltration of cholesterol/lipoproteins into the artery wall/endothelium (1). 3. This prevents the inflammatory response (recruitment of white blood cells/macrophages) that occurs when the endothelium is damaged by high cholesterol levels (1). 4. Fewer foam cells and less plaque (atheroma) accumulate, reducing the risk of arterial narrowing (atherosclerosis) (1).
Question 13 · Structured Synoptic Explainer
4 marks
A population of wild orchids is suspected to be undergoing natural selection for resistance to a fungal pathogen. Explain how scientists can use PCR and gel electrophoresis of specific alleles to determine if natural selection or genetic drift is occurring over several generations.
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Worked solution
To investigate allele frequency changes, DNA is extracted from orchid samples collected over several generations. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is used to amplify the specific gene regions associated with fungal pathogen resistance. Gel electrophoresis is then used to separate these PCR products by size, allowing the identification and quantification of different alleles in the population. If natural selection is occurring, the selection pressure (the fungal pathogen) will cause a consistent, directional increase in the frequency of the resistance allele over time. In contrast, if genetic drift is occurring, the allele frequencies will fluctuate randomly from generation to generation due to chance events, without a sustained directional trend.
Marking scheme
1. PCR is used to amplify the specific DNA fragments/alleles associated with fungal pathogen resistance from samples taken across multiple generations (1). 2. Gel electrophoresis separates these DNA fragments by size/charge, allowing scientists to determine the genotypes and allele frequencies in each generation (1). 3. Natural selection is indicated by a consistent, directional increase in the frequency of the resistance-conferring allele over generations (1). 4. Genetic drift is indicated if allele frequencies fluctuate randomly without a clear, continuous trend of increase or decrease (1).
Question 14 · Structured Synoptic Explainer
4 marks
Explain how the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction initiates skeletal muscle contraction, and explain the physiological consequence of exposing this junction to an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
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Worked solution
When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal, acetylcholine (ACh) is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to ligand-gated sodium channels on the sarcolemma. The resulting influx of sodium ions depolarises the sarcolemma, propagating an action potential down the T-tubules to trigger the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which initiates muscle contraction. Acetylcholinesterase normally hydrolyses ACh in the cleft to allow relaxation. An inhibitor prevents this breakdown, meaning ACh remains bound to receptors, leading to continuous depolarisation, persistent muscle contraction (tetany), and an inability of the muscle to relax.
Marking scheme
1. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the sarcolemma, opening ligand-gated sodium channels, causing depolarisation (1). 2. Depolarisation spreads along T-tubules, triggering calcium ion release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to initiate contraction (1). 3. Acetylcholinesterase normally hydrolyses acetylcholine to stop depolarisation and allow the muscle to relax (1). 4. An inhibitor causes acetylcholine to remain in the cleft and continuously bind, resulting in continuous depolarisation, muscle spasms, or tetany (1).
Question 15 · Structured Synoptic Explainer
4 marks
Global warming has led to an increase in both mean temperatures and atmospheric carbon dioxide levels. Explain how these two environmental factors interact to affect the rate of photosynthesis in C3 plants, and how this may influence the distribution of these plants in a deciduous woodland.
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Worked solution
Carbon dioxide is a key substrate for the enzyme Rubisco in the light-independent stage (Calvin cycle). Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration increases the rate of carbon fixation, which increases the overall rate of photosynthesis. Higher temperatures increase the kinetic energy of both enzymes (such as Rubisco) and substrates, leading to more frequent successful collisions and a higher rate of photosynthesis. However, if temperature exceeds the optimum, Rubisco and other photosynthetic enzymes will denature, and the rate of photorespiration will rise, decreasing photosynthetic efficiency. This will shift the distribution of C3 plants, allowing them to expand in areas where conditions remain within their tolerance limits, but leading to localized extinction or migration away from areas that exceed their thermal optimum.
Marking scheme
1. Increased carbon dioxide concentration acts as a substrate, increasing the rate of carbon fixation by Rubisco in the Calvin cycle (1). 2. Higher temperature increases the kinetic energy of photosynthetic enzymes and substrates, increasing the rate of successful collisions (1). 3. Temperatures exceeding the optimum cause enzymes (e.g., Rubisco) to denature or increase photorespiration, reducing the rate of photosynthesis (1). 4. The distribution of C3 plants will shift as they are outcompeted or fail to survive in regions exceeding their thermal optimum, surviving only where microclimates remain favorable (1).
Question 16 · Structured Synoptic Explainer
4 marks
The Hill reaction can be used to study electron transport in isolated chloroplasts using the indicator dye DCPIP. Explain how a herbicide that specifically blocks electron transport from Photosystem II (PSII) affects both the reduction of DCPIP and the production of ATP during the light-dependent stage.
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Worked solution
In the light-dependent reactions, light excites electrons in Photosystem II, which are passed down an electron transport chain. Normally, the artificial electron acceptor DCPIP intercepts these electrons, becoming reduced and changing color from blue to colorless. If a herbicide blocks electron transport from PSII, electrons cannot reach DCPIP, meaning it remains oxidized and blue. Additionally, the flow of electrons down the chain is required to pump protons from the stroma into the thylakoid space. Without this electron flow, the proton gradient cannot be established, meaning protons cannot flow through ATP synthase to generate ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate.
Marking scheme
1. DCPIP normally acts as an electron acceptor, turning from blue to colorless when reduced by electrons from the electron transport chain (1). 2. The herbicide prevents electron transfer from PSII, so DCPIP cannot be reduced and remains blue (rate of decolourisation decreases) (1). 3. Blocking electron transport prevents the active pumping of protons (\(\text{H}^+\)) into the thylakoid space (1). 4. The lack of a proton gradient prevents the flow of protons through ATP synthase (chemiosmosis), stopping the synthesis of ATP (1).
Question 17 · Structured Synoptic Explainer
4 marks
Explain why using induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) derived from a patient's own somatic cells is biologically advantageous compared to using embryonic stem cells (ESCs) from a donor for treating neurodegenerative diseases, referencing immune mechanisms.
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Worked solution
Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) are created by reprogramming the patient's own somatic cells back into an undifferentiated state. Because these cells are genetically identical to the patient, they express the same major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class proteins and self-antigens on their cell surface. Consequently, when transplanted back into the patient, the patient's immune system (such as T killer cells and antibodies) will recognize them as self-cells and will not mount an immune response. This prevents transplant rejection and avoids the clinical requirement for lifelong immunosuppressant therapy, which carries severe side effects and increases susceptibility to infection. Embryonic stem cells from a donor contain different HLA/MHC alleles and would be recognized as foreign.
Marking scheme
1. iPSCs are genetically identical to the patient as they are derived from their own somatic cells (1). 2. These cells express the same self-antigens / MHC / HLA proteins on their cell membranes (1). 3. The patient's immune system (T lymphocytes) will not recognize the transplanted cells as foreign / non-self, preventing an immune response / rejection (1). 4. This eliminates the need for immunosuppressive drugs, which would otherwise be required for non-self donor embryonic stem cells (1).
Question 18 · Structured Synoptic Explainer
4 marks
Explain how long-term aerobic training leads to physiological adaptations in cardiac structure, and explain how these adaptations maintain oxygen delivery to active skeletal muscles during strenuous exercise.
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Worked solution
Long-term aerobic training causes physical adaptations to the heart, most notably cardiac hypertrophy, which is the thickening and strengthening of the cardiac muscle, particularly the wall of the left ventricle. This increased muscular strength and chamber volume allows the heart to pump out a larger volume of blood per beat (an increased stroke volume). Because cardiac output is calculated as stroke volume multiplied by heart rate (\(\text{CO} = \text{SV} \times \text{HR}\)), an increased stroke volume enables a significantly higher maximum cardiac output during exercise. This allows oxygenated blood to be transported to working skeletal muscles at a faster rate, meeting their elevated oxygen demand and allowing them to sustain aerobic respiration for longer before switching to anaerobic pathways.
Marking scheme
1. Aerobic training leads to cardiac hypertrophy / enlargement of the left ventricle chamber / strengthening of the cardiac muscle wall (1). 2. This structural change results in an increased stroke volume, meaning more blood is ejected per contraction (1). 3. An increased stroke volume raises the maximum cardiac output (\(\text{CO} = \text{SV} \times \text{HR}\)) during heavy exercise (1). 4. A higher cardiac output delivers oxygen (and glucose) to active skeletal muscles at a faster rate, sustaining aerobic respiration and delaying the onset of anaerobic respiration (1).
Question 19 · Structured Synoptic Explainers
4 marks
A student investigated the effect of temperature on the rate of habituation in giant African land snails (\textit{Achatina fulica}). Explain how a temperature increase from \(15^\circ\text{C}\) to \(25^\circ\text{C}\) can cause these snails to habituate more rapidly to a mechanical stimulus.
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Worked solution
At higher temperatures, the kinetic energy of molecules increases, which accelerates physiological processes. In the nervous system, this increases the rate of calcium ion influx into the presynaptic knob upon stimulation, leading to faster exocytosis of neurotransmitter. With repeated stimulation, neurotransmitter vesicles are depleted at a faster rate than they can be recycled or resynthesised. Consequently, the concentration of neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft quickly becomes insufficient to bind to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane and trigger an action potential, resulting in faster habituation of the snail.
Marking scheme
1. Temperature increase raises the kinetic energy of molecules/ions (e.g., calcium ions) or enzymes involved in synaptic transmission (1). 2. This leads to a faster rate of calcium ion influx and exocytosis of neurotransmitter vesicles (1). 3. Repeated stimulation causes a more rapid depletion of neurotransmitter vesicles in the presynaptic neurone (1). 4. Consequently, there is insufficient neurotransmitter to depolarise the postsynaptic membrane / trigger an action potential sooner (1).
Question 20 · Structured Synoptic Explainers
4 marks
The Hill reaction can be used to investigate the effect of different wavelengths of light on the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis using isolated chloroplasts. Explain how the use of a DCPIP indicator can determine whether red light is more effective than green light for the light-dependent stage.
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Worked solution
Chlorophyll and other accessory pigments absorb light in the red region of the spectrum but reflect green light. When light is absorbed, electrons in chlorophyll are excited and pass down an electron transport chain, while water is split (photolysis) to replace these electrons. DCPIP acts as an artificial electron acceptor, intercepting these electrons. When DCPIP accepts electrons, it is reduced and changes from blue to colourless. Because red light is absorbed far more efficiently than green light, the rate of electron transfer and photolysis is higher under red light. This causes DCPIP to be reduced and decolourised more rapidly, which can be quantified using a colorimeter or timing the visual change.
Marking scheme
1. Red light is absorbed efficiently by chlorophyll / photosynthetic pigments, whereas green light is reflected (1). 2. Absorption of red light results in a higher rate of excitation of electrons / higher rate of photolysis of water (1). 3. DCPIP acts as an electron acceptor, which is reduced by these electrons, changing from blue to colourless (1). 4. Therefore, the rate of decolourisation of DCPIP will be faster under red light than under green light (1).
Question 21 · Structured Synoptic Explainers
4 marks
Gel electrophoresis is widely used in genetic screening and forensics. Explain how gel electrophoresis can be used to distinguish between a wild-type allele and a mutant allele of a gene that contains a deletion mutation.
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Worked solution
Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on their size and charge. Since the phosphate backbone of DNA is negatively charged, the fragments move toward the positive electrode (anode) when an electrical current is applied. The agarose gel matrix contains microscopic pores that act as a sieve; smaller DNA molecules can navigate through these pores more easily and thus migrate faster and further than larger molecules. A deletion mutation results in a gene fragment that is physically shorter (contains fewer base pairs) than the wild-type allele. Following PCR amplification of both alleles, running them on a gel will reveal distinct bands: the band representing the mutant allele will have migrated a greater distance from the well than the band representing the wild-type allele.
Marking scheme
1. DNA has a negative charge (due to phosphate groups) and migrates towards the positive electrode / anode (1). 2. The gel acts as a sieve/matrix where smaller DNA fragments migrate faster / further than larger fragments (1). 3. The mutant allele with a deletion contains fewer base pairs / is smaller than the wild-type allele (1). 4. Therefore, the mutant allele produces a band that travels further down the gel, allowing them to be distinguished (1).
Question 22 · Structured Synoptic Explainers
4 marks
Regular aerobic training leads to physiological adaptations in the cardiovascular system. Explain how these adaptations result in an increased stroke volume and how this supports a higher \(\text{VO}_2\) max during strenuous exercise.
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Worked solution
Chronic aerobic training induces structural changes in the heart, specifically physiological cardiac hypertrophy (largely of the left ventricle). This increases the volume of the ventricle chamber (allowing more diastolic filling) and strengthens the myocardium, leading to more powerful contractions. As a result, stroke volume—the volume of blood pumped out of the left ventricle per beat—is significantly increased both at rest and during exercise. Since cardiac output is calculated as \(\text{Cardiac Output} = \text{Stroke Volume} \times \text{Heart Rate}\), an increased stroke volume directly translates to a higher maximum cardiac output during maximal exertion. This elevated cardiac output enables a substantially higher rate of oxygen delivery to active skeletal muscles. This meets the high oxygen demand of aerobic respiration, delaying the onset of anaerobic respiration and lactic acid accumulation, which directly supports a higher \(\text{VO}_2\) max.
Marking scheme
1. Aerobic training causes hypertrophy of the heart muscle / left ventricle or increased strength of ventricular contraction (1). 2. This increases the stroke volume / volume of blood pumped per beat (1). 3. An increased stroke volume increases maximum cardiac output because \(\text{Cardiac Output} = \text{Stroke Volume} \times \text{Heart Rate}\) (1). 4. Increased cardiac output delivers oxygen to respiring muscles more rapidly, sustaining aerobic respiration at higher intensities and thus increasing \(\text{VO}_2\) max (1).
Question 23 · essay
9 marks
Read the following extract adapted from a scientific article on peatland ecosystems.
**Extract:** *Peatlands, dominated by Sphagnum mosses, are critical global carbon sinks, storing approximately 30% of all land-based carbon. Sphagnum has a low rate of decomposition due to the anaerobic, acidic conditions it creates. However, climate models project a temperature increase of up to 3 °C in northern latitudes by 2100. Recent studies indicate that while Sphagnum photosynthesis (Gross Primary Productivity, GPP) increases with temperature up to an optimum of 20 °C, the rate of cellular respiration increases exponentially across the entire range of 5 °C to 30 °C. Additionally, warmer temperatures cause peatland water tables to draw down, increasing oxygen penetration into the upper peat layers.*
Using the information in the extract and your own biological knowledge, analyze the potential effects of a 3 °C temperature rise on the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of *Sphagnum* moss and its consequences for the role of peat bogs as carbon sinks.
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Worked solution
### Analysis of Net Primary Productivity (NPP) * **Relationship:** Net Primary Productivity is defined by the equation: \( \text{NPP} = \text{GPP} - \text{R} \), where GPP is Gross Primary Productivity and R is respiration. * **Impact on Respiration (R):** A 3 °C temperature rise increases the kinetic energy of respiratory enzymes (e.g., decarboxylases and dehydrogenases in glycolysis, the Link reaction, and the Krebs cycle) and substrates. This leads to more frequent successful collisions and the formation of more enzyme-substrate complexes. Because respiration increases exponentially with temperature, even a minor rise of 3 °C will significantly increase the rate of respiratory carbon loss (R). * **Impact on Gross Primary Productivity (GPP):** While GPP may increase with temperature up to the optimum of 20 °C due to increased activity of Rubisco in the light-independent reaction, temperatures exceeding 20 °C will cause GPP to decrease. This decrease occurs because Rubisco may begin to denature, or its affinity for oxygen increases relative to carbon dioxide (photorespiration). * **Overall NPP Trend:** Since R increases exponentially and GPP peaks and then declines, the gap between GPP and R will narrow. Consequently, NPP will decrease. If R exceeds GPP, NPP will become negative, meaning the moss is consuming more organic matter than it produces.
### Impact on Carbon Sink Status * **Normal Conditions:** Peat bogs act as carbon sinks because waterlogged, anaerobic, and acidic conditions inhibit the enzymes of decomposers (bacteria and fungi), preventing the breakdown of dead organic matter. * **Water Table Drawdown:** The extract states that warmer temperatures will lower the water table, allowing oxygen to penetrate the peat. * **Decomposition Rate:** Oxygen acts as the terminal electron acceptor in aerobic respiration. With oxygen present, aerobic decomposers can colonize the peat and metabolize the stored organic matter much more efficiently than anaerobic decomposers. * **Shift from Sink to Source:** The combination of decreased NPP in living *Sphagnum* and accelerated decomposition of dead peat means more carbon dioxide (\( \text{CO}_2 \)) is released via respiration than is fixed via photosynthesis. Thus, the peat bog transitions from a net carbon sink to a net carbon source, contributing to positive feedback in global warming.
Marking scheme
### Level-Based Marking Descriptors (9 Marks)
* **Level 1 (1–3 Marks):** * Identifies basic points from the extract (e.g., GPP increases up to 20 °C, respiration increases, water table falls). * Demonstrates a basic understanding of photosynthesis, respiration, or decomposition. * Explains that NPP will change but provides limited biological reasoning or connection to the carbon cycle.
* **Level 2 (4–6 Marks):** * Uses the relationship \( \text{NPP} = \text{GPP} - \text{R} \) to explain how changes in temperature affect productivity. * Explains the effect of temperature on enzymes in terms of kinetic energy, collision frequency, and denaturation. * Mentions that lowering the water table increases oxygen, which affects decomposition. * Shows a structured argument but may lack full integration between the physiological impacts on *Sphagnum* and the wider ecosystem carbon dynamics.
* **Level 3 (7–9 Marks):** * Provides a fully detailed and integrated analysis of both the plant physiology (*Sphagnum* NPP) and ecosystem ecology (decomposer activity). * Clearly explains the exponential nature of respiration (R) versus the optimum curve of photosynthesis (GPP), and how this reduces NPP. * Integrates the role of oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor for aerobic decomposers when the water table drops, leading to rapid decay of peat. * Concludes logically that the peat bog shifts from a net carbon sink to a net carbon source, driving a positive climate feedback loop. * Uses precise scientific terminology throughout (e.g., active site, activation energy, Rubisco, terminal electron acceptor, anaerobic vs aerobic respiration).
Question 24 · Scientific Article Technical Probes
3 marks
An article on climate change states: 'Warming in Arctic tundra ecosystems increased Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) from \(350\) to \(595\text{ g m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\), while plant autotrophic respiration (\(R_a\)) increased by \(180\text{ g m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\) from an initial value of \(210\text{ g m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\)'. Calculate the percentage increase in Net Primary Productivity (NPP) resulting from this warming. Give your answer to 3 significant figures. Show your working.
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Worked solution
1. Calculate initial NPP: \(NPP = GPP - R_a = 350 - 210 = 140\text{ g m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\). 2. Calculate final autotrophic respiration: \(210 + 180 = 390\text{ g m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\). 3. Calculate final NPP: \(595 - 390 = 205\text{ g m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\). 4. Calculate the change in NPP: \(205 - 140 = 65\text{ g m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\). 5. Calculate the percentage increase: \(\frac{65}{140} \times 100 = 46.428...\% \approx 46.4\%\).
Marking scheme
Mark 1: Calculate initial NPP of \(140\text{ g m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\) or final NPP of \(205\text{ g m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\) [1]. Mark 2: Correct calculation of the increase in NPP of \(65\text{ g m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\) [1]. Mark 3: Correct percentage increase of \(46.4\%\) (accept 46% or 46.43% if working shown, but deduct 1 mark if not rounded to 3 s.f. when specified) [1].
Question 25 · Scientific Article Technical Probes
3 marks
An article describing the venom of the marine cone snail Conus geographus states that one of its peptide toxins selectively blocks voltage-gated potassium (\(\text{K}^+\)) channels in nociceptive (pain-sensing) neurons. Explain the effect of this toxin on the conduction of action potentials and the transmission of pain signals along these sensory neurones.
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Worked solution
1. Under normal conditions, voltage-gated potassium channels open during the repolarisation phase of an action potential to allow potassium ions to diffuse down their electrochemical gradient out of the axon, restoring the resting membrane potential. 2. When these channels are blocked by the toxin, repolarisation is severely delayed or prevented because the main pathway for potassium exit is shut. 3. Consequently, the axon remains depolarised for an extended period, preventing the restoration of the resting potential. This extends the refractory period, making it impossible to generate or conduct subsequent action potentials, which blocks pain signal transmission to the brain.
Marking scheme
Mark 1: Reference to repolarisation being delayed or prevented because potassium ions (\(\text{K}^+\)) cannot diffuse out of the axon [1]. Mark 2: Reference to the membrane/axon remaining depolarised for longer or the action potential/refractory period being prolonged [1]. Mark 3: Reference to the prevention of subsequent action potential conduction / nerve impulse transmission along the sensory neurone [1].
Question 26 · Scientific Article Technical Probes
3 marks
An article on epigenetic regulation in honey bees states: 'Silencing the Dnmt3 gene, which encodes a DNA methyltransferase enzyme, mimics the effect of feeding larvae royal jelly, causing them to develop into fertile queens rather than sterile workers.' Explain how silencing the Dnmt3 gene leads to the differential expression of genes required for queen development.
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Worked solution
1. The Dnmt3 gene encodes DNA methyltransferase, an enzyme responsible for adding methyl groups to DNA (cytosine bases) to silence genes. 2. Silencing Dnmt3 results in a lack of DNA methyltransferase, leading to hypomethylation (decreased methylation) of DNA, particularly at promoter regions of genes involved in queen development. 3. Unmethylated promoter regions are accessible, allowing transcription factors and RNA polymerase to bind, initiating transcription and translation of these genes, leading to queen development.
Marking scheme
Mark 1: Silencing Dnmt3 reduces DNA methyltransferase levels, leading to decreased DNA methylation / hypomethylation at specific gene promoters [1]. Mark 2: Decreased methylation allows transcription factors and/or RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter regions [1]. Mark 3: This enables the transcription / gene expression of specific genes required for queen development (which are normally silenced in workers) [1].
Question 27 · Scientific Article Technical Probes
3 marks
An article on athletic training states: 'During a high-intensity 400 m sprint, a runner’s blood lactate levels rose from a resting concentration of 1.2 mmol dm-3 to a peak of 14.8 mmol dm-3.' Explain the biochemical pathway that led to this increase in lactate, and describe how this lactate is subsequently cleared from the blood during recovery.
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Worked solution
1. During the high-intensity sprint, oxygen supply to muscles is insufficient for aerobic respiration, so glycolysis occurs anaerobically. 2. Pyruvate is reduced to lactate in the cytoplasm, catalysed by lactate dehydrogenase, which oxidises reduced NAD (NADH) back to NAD to allow glycolysis to continue. 3. During recovery, lactate diffuses into the blood and is transported to the liver, where it is oxidised back to pyruvate (which enters link reaction/Krebs cycle) or converted to glucose/glycogen via gluconeogenesis, requiring oxygen.
Marking scheme
Mark 1: Reference to anaerobic glycolysis where pyruvate is reduced to lactate, using hydrogen from reduced NAD / regenerating NAD [1]. Mark 2: Lactate is transported via the blood to the liver [1]. Mark 3: In the liver, lactate is converted back to pyruvate (which is oxidised) or converted to glucose/glycogen [1].
Question 28 · Scientific Article Technical Probes
3 marks
An article on global health threats reports that a plasmid carrying the blaNDM-1 gene, which encodes the New Delhi metallo-beta-lactamase enzyme, has spread rapidly between different species of Gram-negative bacteria in clinical settings. Explain how horizontal gene transfer and natural selection contribute to the rapid spread of carbapenem resistance in hospitals.
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Worked solution
1. Horizontal gene transfer, specifically conjugation, allows the transfer of plasmids containing the blaNDM-1 gene directly between different bacterial cells, even of different species. 2. The widespread use of carbapenem antibiotics in hospital environments creates a strong selective pressure, destroying sensitive bacteria. 3. Bacteria containing the plasmid survive, reproduce rapidly by binary fission (vertical transmission), and further spread the plasmid, dramatically increasing the frequency of the resistance gene in the hospital population.
Marking scheme
Mark 1: Reference to horizontal gene transfer / conjugation allowing the plasmid containing the blaNDM-1 gene to be transferred between bacterial cells/species [1]. Mark 2: Use of carbapenems in hospitals acts as a selective pressure, killing susceptible bacteria while resistant bacteria survive [1]. Mark 3: Surviving resistant bacteria reproduce / multiply (vertical transmission), passing on the plasmid and increasing the frequency of the resistant phenotype [1].
Question 29 · Scientific Article Technical Probes
3 marks
An article on cardiovascular health states: 'The monoclonal antibody evolocumab reduces low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol by 60% by inhibiting PCSK9, a protein that targets LDL receptors on hepatocytes (liver cells) for degradation.' Explain how inhibiting PCSK9 leads to a reduction in blood LDL-cholesterol levels and reduces the risk of atherosclerosis.
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Worked solution
1. PCSK9 normally binds to LDL receptors on hepatocytes, causing them to be internalised and degraded. Inhibiting PCSK9 prevents this degradation, so more LDL receptors remain on the hepatocyte membranes. 2. This higher concentration of LDL receptors allows more LDL-cholesterol to bind and be cleared from the blood into the liver cells, decreasing blood LDL levels. 3. Lower blood LDL levels mean there is less cholesterol available to penetrate damaged endothelium of arteries, reducing the deposition of cholesterol, the formation of plaques (atheromas), and the development of atherosclerosis.
Marking scheme
Mark 1: Inhibiting PCSK9 prevents the degradation of LDL receptors, increasing the number/density of these receptors on the surface of liver cells (hepatocytes) [1]. Mark 2: This increases the rate of clearance/uptake of LDL-cholesterol from the blood into liver cells, lowering circulating LDL levels [1]. Mark 3: Lower blood LDL reduces the accumulation/deposition of cholesterol under the endothelium of arteries, preventing atheroma/plaque formation [1].
Question 30 · Scientific Article Technical Probes
3 marks
An article detailing conservation efforts at the Millennium Seed Bank notes: 'To maximise the long-term viability of stored seeds, they are carefully dried to a moisture content of approximately 5% and stored at a constant temperature of -20°C.' Explain why these specific conditions (low moisture and low temperature) are crucial for the long-term storage of seeds in a seed bank.
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Worked solution
1. Low moisture levels (around 5%) and freezing temperatures (-20°C) dramatically slow down the rate of metabolic processes, particularly cellular respiration, in the seeds. This prevents them from germinating and conserves their nutrient/food reserves. 2. These dry, cold conditions are highly unfavourable for the growth, reproduction, and activity of decomposing microorganisms such as fungi and bacteria, preventing seed rot and decay. 3. Consequently, the seeds remain viable and alive for decades or centuries, ensuring they can be germinated in the future for conservation purposes.
Marking scheme
Mark 1: Low moisture and low temperature reduce the rate of enzyme activity/metabolism/respiration in the seeds [1]. Mark 2: This prevents germination and prevents the seed from exhausting its stored food/energy reserves [1]. Mark 3: These conditions also inhibit the growth of decay-causing microorganisms / bacteria / fungi, preventing seed damage/decay [1].
Question 31 · Scientific Article Technical Probes
3 marks
An article on cystic fibrosis therapeutics states: 'Ivacaftor acts as a CFTR potentiator, increasing the gating probability of the defective CFTR channel at the cell surface in patients with the G551D mutation.' Explain how increasing the opening of CFTR channels by ivacaftor relieves the symptoms of thick, sticky mucus in the lungs of these patients.
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Worked solution
1. The opening of CFTR channels allows chloride ions (Cl-) to diffuse out of the epithelial cells into the mucus / airway surface liquid down their concentration gradient. 2. The movement of chloride ions (and subsequent sodium ions) increases the solute concentration outside the cells, lowering the water potential of the mucus. 3. Consequently, water moves out of the epithelial cells into the mucus by osmosis, down a water potential gradient. This hydrates the mucus, reducing its viscosity (making it less thick and sticky) so that cilia can easily sweep it away, relieving respiratory symptoms.
Marking scheme
Mark 1: Open CFTR channels allow chloride ions (Cl-) to leave epithelial cells and enter the mucus (by active transport/diffusion) [1]. Mark 2: This lowers the water potential of the mucus on the airway surface [1]. Mark 3: Water moves out of cells and into the mucus by osmosis (down a water potential gradient), making the mucus less viscous / thinner [1].
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