An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2023 Pearson Edexcel AS Level Biology A (Salters-Nuffield) (8BN0) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Pearson.
Paper 1: Lifestyle, Transport, Genes and Health
Answer all questions. Show all your working out in calculations and include units where appropriate.
33 Question · 80 marks
Question 1 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
During the blood clotting process, which of the following substances initiates the conversion of prothrombin into the active enzyme thrombin?
A.Fibrin, in the presence of vitamin K
B.Thromboplastin, in the presence of calcium ions
C.Fibrinogen, in the presence of platelets
D.Thrombin, in the presence of prothrombin
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Worked solution
When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets and damaged tissue release thromboplastin. In the presence of calcium ions, thromboplastin acts as an enzyme catalyst to convert the inactive plasma protein prothrombin into the active enzyme thrombin.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct option (b). Correct answer explains that thromboplastin catalyses the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin in the presence of calcium ions.
Question 2 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The most common mutation causing cystic fibrosis, \(\Delta\text{F508}\), involves the deletion of three nucleotides in the CFTR gene. What is the direct effect of this mutation on the primary structure of the CFTR protein?
A.A frameshift mutation that alters every amino acid after the deletion point
B.The loss of a single amino acid without altering the downstream sequence
C.The formation of a premature stop codon, leading to a truncated protein
D.The insertion of an incorrect amino acid that changes the folding of the protein
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Worked solution
Since three nucleotides form a single codon, deleting exactly three nucleotides results in the loss of one amino acid (phenylalanine at position 508) from the polypeptide chain. Because the deletion is a multiple of three, it does not cause a frameshift mutation, meaning downstream amino acids remain unaffected.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for selecting option (b). The candidate must recognize that deleting three bases removes one complete codon without causing a frameshift.
Question 3 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following correctly describes the formation of a sucrose molecule?
A.A condensation reaction between two \(\alpha\)-glucose molecules
B.A hydrolysis reaction between a glucose molecule and a galactose molecule
C.A condensation reaction between a glucose molecule and a fructose molecule
D.A hydrolysis reaction between two fructose molecules
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Worked solution
Sucrose is a disaccharide formed by a condensation reaction between a molecule of \(\alpha\)-glucose and a molecule of fructose. A water molecule is released during this reaction, forming a 1,2-glycosidic bond.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for selecting option (c), which correctly identifies the two constituent monosaccharides (glucose and fructose) and the reaction type (condensation).
Question 4 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes the orientation of phospholipid molecules within the cell surface membrane?
A.Hydrophobic phosphate heads face outwards and hydrophilic fatty acid tails face inwards
B.Hydrophilic phosphate heads face outwards and hydrophobic fatty acid tails face inwards
C.Hydrophilic phosphate heads and fatty acid tails both face outwards
D.Hydrophobic phosphate heads and fatty acid tails both face inwards
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Worked solution
Phospholipids are amphipathic molecules. The phosphate heads are hydrophilic (polar) and orient outward towards the aqueous environments of the cytoplasm and intercellular space, while the fatty acid tails are hydrophobic (non-polar) and orient inward, away from water, to form the hydrophobic core of the bilayer.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for selecting option (b). Candidate must correctly identify the hydrophilic/hydrophobic nature of the head and tail, along with their correct orientation.
Question 5 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
During which stage of the cardiac cycle is the pressure within the left ventricle higher than the pressure in the aorta?
A.Atrial systole
B.Atrial diastole
C.Ventricular diastole
D.Ventricular systole
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Worked solution
During ventricular systole, the left ventricle contracts, rapidly increasing the intraventricular pressure. Once this pressure exceeds the pressure in the aorta, the semilunar valve is forced open, and blood is ejected from the ventricle into the aorta.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for selecting option (d). The candidate must identify that ventricular contraction (systole) generates the high pressure required to exceed aortic pressure and open the semilunar valve.
Question 6 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Bacteria were grown in a medium containing only heavy nitrogen (\(^{15}\text{N}\)) until all of their DNA was fully labelled. These bacteria were then transferred to a medium containing only light nitrogen (\(^{14}\text{N}\)) and allowed to undergo two rounds of cell division. What percentage of the resulting DNA molecules will be hybrid DNA (containing one strand of \(^{15}\text{N}\) and one strand of \(^{14}\text{N}\))?
A.25%
B.0%
C.50%
D.100%
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Worked solution
After the first division in \(^{14}\text{N}\), all DNA molecules consist of one heavy and one light strand (100% hybrid). During the second division in \(^{14}\text{N}\), these strands separate and act as templates. The heavy strands form hybrid DNA, while the light strands form completely light DNA. This results in 50% hybrid DNA and 50% light DNA.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for selecting option (c), representing the correct percentage of hybrid molecules based on the semi-conservative model of replication.
Question 7 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following statements correctly compares high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) and low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)?
A.HDLs contain a higher percentage of protein and transport cholesterol from body tissues to the liver.
B.HDLs contain a lower percentage of protein and transport cholesterol from the liver to body tissues.
C.LDLs contain a higher percentage of protein and transport cholesterol from body tissues to the liver.
D.LDLs contain a lower percentage of protein and transport cholesterol from body tissues to the liver.
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Worked solution
HDLs have a higher protein-to-lipid ratio (making them denser) and function to transport cholesterol away from body tissues to the liver for excretion or recycling, thereby reducing the risk of atherosclerosis. LDLs have more lipid and transport cholesterol to the body tissues.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for selecting option (a). Candidate must correctly identify that HDLs have a higher protein proportion and carry cholesterol to the liver.
Question 8 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Albinism is an autosomal recessive condition. If two parents with normal pigmentation have a child with albinism, what is the probability that their next child will be a heterozygous carrier of the albinism allele?
A.0.25
B.0.50
C.0.75
D.1.00
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Worked solution
Since the parents have normal pigmentation but have produced an offspring with the recessive condition (aa), both parents must be heterozygous carriers (Aa). A cross between two carriers (Aa x Aa) yields a genotype probability of 25% AA, 50% Aa, and 25% aa. Therefore, the probability of having a carrier child (Aa) is 0.50 (or 50%).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for selecting option (b), demonstrating understanding of autosomal recessive monohybrid inheritance and carrier probability.
Question 9 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
In a 10-year cohort study investigating physical activity and mortality from cardiovascular disease (CVD), the mortality rate for inactive individuals was 120 per 10,000 person-years. For highly active individuals, the mortality rate was 42 per 10,000 person-years. Calculate the percentage reduction in CVD mortality rate for highly active individuals compared to inactive individuals. Show your working.
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Worked solution
First, calculate the absolute reduction in the mortality rate: \(120 - 42 = 78\) per 10,000 person-years. Next, calculate this reduction as a percentage of the rate for inactive individuals: \((78 / 120) \times 100 = 65\%\).
Marking scheme
1.00 mark for calculating the correct absolute difference of 78. 1.75 marks for calculating the correct percentage reduction of 65%. Award full marks for correct answer without working.
Question 10 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the CFTR gene. A man who is a known carrier of the CFTR mutation has a child with a woman who has no family history of cystic fibrosis, but the carrier frequency in her population is estimated to be 1 in 25. Calculate the probability that their first child will be born with cystic fibrosis. Show your working.
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Worked solution
1. Probability that the mother is a carrier = \(1/25 = 0.04\). 2. If both parents are carriers, the probability of them passing the recessive mutant allele to their offspring is \(0.5\) for each parent. 3. Total probability of an affected child = \(\text{P(mother is carrier)} \times \text{P(mother passes allele)} \times \text{P(father passes allele)}\) which equals \(1/25 \times 1/2 \times 1/2 = 1/100 = 0.01\) (or 1%).
Marking scheme
1.00 mark for identifying the correct probabilities of allele transmission (0.5 for mother, 0.5 for father). 1.75 marks for calculating the final correct probability of 0.01 (or 1% / 1/100). Accept equivalent decimal, fraction, or percentage.
Question 11 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
During a cardiovascular fitness test, a healthy volunteer's blood pressure was recorded as 122/78 mmHg. Calculate the pulse pressure and use the formula: \(\text{MAP} = \text{diastolic pressure} + \frac{1}{3}(\text{pulse pressure})\) to calculate their Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP). Give your final MAP answer to one decimal place.
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Worked solution
1. Calculate pulse pressure: \(\text{systolic} - \text{diastolic} = 122 - 78 = 44\text{ mmHg}\). 2. Use the MAP formula: \(\text{MAP} = 78 + \frac{1}{3}(44) = 78 + 14.67 = 92.67\text{ mmHg}\). 3. Round to one decimal place: \(92.7\text{ mmHg}\).
Marking scheme
1.00 mark for finding the correct pulse pressure of 44 mmHg. 1.75 marks for the correct final MAP of 92.7 mmHg (accept 92.7, reject 92.67 or 93 due to rounding instructions).
Question 12 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
The rate of diffusion of oxygen across the alveolar membrane can be calculated using Fick's Law. In a healthy alveolus, the surface area is \(1.2 \times 10^{-2}\text{ m}^2\), the concentration gradient across the membrane is \(4.0\text{ kPa}\), and the diffusion distance is \(0.5\ \mu\text{m}\). Calculate the relative rate of diffusion using the formula: \(\text{Relative Rate} = \frac{\text{Surface Area } (\text{m}^2) \times \text{Concentration Difference } (\text{kPa})}{\text{Thickness of Membrane } (\mu\text{m})}\).
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Worked solution
Substitute the values directly into Fick's Law equation: \(\text{Relative Rate} = \frac{(1.2 \times 10^{-2}) \times 4.0}{0.5} = \frac{0.048}{0.5} = 0.096\).
Marking scheme
1.00 mark for calculating correct numerator (0.048). 1.75 marks for final calculated relative rate of 0.096.
Question 13 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
A nutritional analysis of a sample of dietary fat showed that it contained 24 g of saturated fatty acids, 36 g of monounsaturated fatty acids, and 15 g of polyunsaturated fatty acids. Calculate the percentage of unsaturated fatty acids present in this sample. Give your answer to 3 significant figures.
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1.00 mark for identifying total fat mass as 75g and total unsaturated fat mass as 51g. 1.75 marks for calculating the correct percentage to 3 significant figures (68.0%).
Question 14 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
A cell line expressing mutant CFTR channels has a chloride transport rate of 1.2 picomoles per second per million cells. After treatment with a CFTR potentiator drug, the transport rate increases to 4.5 picomoles per second per million cells. Calculate the percentage increase in chloride transport rate.
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1.00 mark for correct absolute change in rate of 3.3. 1.75 marks for correct final percentage increase of 275%.
Question 15 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
An individual has a body mass of 82.5 kg and a height of 1.72 m. Calculate their Body Mass Index (BMI) and state their weight classification. Show your working and round your BMI to one decimal place.
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Worked solution
1. Calculate BMI: \(\text{BMI} = \frac{\text{mass in kg}}{(\text{height in m})^2} = \frac{82.5}{1.72^2} = \frac{82.5}{2.9584} = 27.886\dots\text{ kg m}^{-2}\). 2. Rounded to 1 decimal place: 27.9. 3. Classification: Overweight (defined as a BMI between 25.0 and 29.9).
Marking scheme
1.00 mark for correct calculation of BMI to 27.9 (accept 27.89). 1.75 marks for linking the correct BMI to the classification of 'Overweight' (accept 'overweight').
Question 16 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
A double-stranded DNA molecule contains 2400 base pairs. If 35% of the bases are cytosine, calculate the total number of adenine bases in this DNA molecule.
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Worked solution
1. Total bases = \(2400 \times 2 = 4800\) bases. 2. Since Cytosine = 35%, Guanine = 35% (total CG content = 70%). 3. This leaves 30% for Adenine + Thymine. 4. Since Adenine equals Thymine, Adenine makes up 15% of the total bases. 5. Total Adenine bases = \(0.15 \times 4800 = 720\).
Marking scheme
1.00 mark for calculating total bases as 4800 OR identifying that Adenine constitutes 15% of total bases. 1.75 marks for calculating the correct number of adenine bases (720).
Question 17 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
A phospholipid bilayer has a thickness of \(7.5 \times 10^{-9}\text{ m}\) and a surface area of \(1.5 \times 10^{-5}\text{ m}^2\). The concentration difference of a lipid-soluble solute across the membrane is \(0.040\text{ mol m}^{-3}\). If the diffusion coefficient of this solute through the bilayer is \(2.5 \times 10^{-11}\text{ m}^2\text{ s}^{-1}\), calculate the rate of diffusion of the solute across the membrane using Fick's Law: Rate of diffusion is proportional to (Surface Area \times Difference in Concentration) / Thickness of membrane. Assume the constant of proportionality is equal to the diffusion coefficient. Express your answer in standard form (\(A \times 10^{n}\)) to two significant figures with appropriate units.
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Worked solution
First, state Fick's Law equation incorporating the diffusion coefficient: Rate = (Surface Area \times Concentration Difference \times Diffusion Coefficient) / Thickness. Substitute the values: Rate = (1.5 \times 10^{-5} \times 0.040 \times 2.5 \times 10^{-11}) / (7.5 \times 10^{-9}). First calculate the concentration gradient term: (1.5 \times 10^{-5} \times 0.040) / (7.5 \times 10^{-9}) = 6.0 \times 10^{-7} / 7.5 \times 10^{-9} = 80. Then multiply by the diffusion coefficient: 80 \times 2.5 \times 10^{-11} = 2.0 \times 10^{-9} mol s^{-1}.
Marking scheme
- 1 mark for correct substitution of values into the formula: (1.5 \times 10^{-5} \times 0.040 / 7.5 \times 10^{-9}) \times 2.5 \times 10^{-11}. - 1 mark for calculating intermediate value of 80 (gradient term). - 0.75 marks for the final correct answer in standard form with correct units: 2.0 \times 10^{-9} mol s^{-1} (accept 2 \times 10^{-9} mol s^{-1}, reject other units or non-standard form).
Question 18 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
Following damage to the endothelial lining of a coronary artery, blood clotting is initiated. Describe the roles of platelets and the enzyme thrombin in this clotting process.
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Worked solution
When the endothelium is damaged, collagen is exposed, causing platelets to adhere and release thromboplastin. Thromboplastin catalyzes the conversion of prothrombin into active thrombin in the presence of calcium ions. Thrombin then acts as a protease to catalyze the hydrolysis of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin, which forms a mesh that traps blood cells and forms a secure clot.
Marking scheme
- 1 mark for stating that platelets aggregate at the damaged endothelium/exposed collagen and release thromboplastin. - 1 mark for explaining that thromboplastin converts inactive prothrombin into active thrombin (in the presence of calcium ions). - 0.75 marks for stating that thrombin catalyzes the conversion of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin, trapping blood cells to form the clot.
Question 19 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
A male patient has a body mass of 94.5 kg and a height of 1.78 m. His waist circumference is 102 cm and his hip circumference is 96 cm. 1. Calculate his Body Mass Index (BMI) to one decimal place. 2. Calculate his Waist-to-Hip Ratio (WHR) to two decimal places. 3. Determine which of these two indicators places him in a higher risk category for cardiovascular disease (CVD), given that a WHR > 0.90 indicates high risk for men, and a BMI >= 30.0 indicates obesity.
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Worked solution
1. Calculate BMI: BMI = mass / height^2 = 94.5 / (1.78)^2 = 94.5 / 3.1684 = 29.826... = 29.8 kg m^-2. 2. Calculate WHR: WHR = waist / hip = 102 / 96 = 1.0625 = 1.06. 3. Identify risk category: His BMI of 29.8 is classified as overweight but not obese (threshold 30.0). However, his WHR of 1.06 is well above the high-risk threshold of 0.90 for males. Thus, WHR places him in a higher risk category.
Marking scheme
- 1 mark for correct BMI calculation and unit: 29.8 kg m^-2 (accept 29.8, reject 30 or 29.83). - 1 mark for correct WHR calculation: 1.06 (accept 1.063, reject 1.1). - 0.75 marks for identifying that WHR represents a higher risk category because 1.06 is greater than the threshold of 0.90 (abdominal obesity), whereas his BMI (29.8) is below the obesity threshold (30.0).
Question 20 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
Explain how the blocking of pancreatic ducts by thick, sticky mucus in individuals with cystic fibrosis affects the digestion and absorption of dietary lipids.
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Worked solution
In cystic fibrosis, impaired chloride transport leads to thick, sticky mucus that blocks the pancreatic duct. This prevents digestive enzymes, including pancreatic lipase, from being secreted into the duodenum. Consequently, dietary lipids are not hydrolyzed into fatty acids and monoglycerides. The absence of these breakdown products lowers their concentration in the intestinal lumen, reducing the concentration gradient and severely decreasing their absorption across the epithelial lining of the small intestine.
Marking scheme
- 1 mark for stating that thick mucus blocks pancreatic secretions, preventing pancreatic lipase from reaching the duodenum. - 1 mark for explaining that this leads to reduced hydrolysis of lipids into fatty acids and monoglycerides. - 0.75 marks for explaining that this decreases the concentration gradient of digestion products across the ileum wall, leading to malabsorption of lipids.
Question 21 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
A sample of double-stranded DNA consists of 3400 nucleotides. Quantitative analysis shows that 544 of these nucleotides contain the base cytosine. Calculate: 1. The total number of adenine nucleotides in this DNA sample. 2. The percentage (%) of the DNA sample that consists of purine bases.
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Worked solution
1. In double-stranded DNA, Cytosine (C) = Guanine (G). Given C = 544, G must also be 544. Therefore, total C + G = 1088 nucleotides. The remaining nucleotides are Adenine (A) and Thymine (T): 3400 - 1088 = 2312. Since A = T, the number of adenine nucleotides = 2312 / 2 = 1156. 2. Purine bases are Adenine (A) and Guanine (G). Total purines = 1156 + 544 = 1700. The percentage of purines is (1700 / 3400) * 100 = 50%. (Alternatively, double-stranded DNA always contains exactly 50% purine bases due to complementary pairing with pyrimidines).
Marking scheme
- 1 mark for calculating the correct number of A and T nucleotides combined (2312) or stating C=G=544. - 1 mark for calculating the correct number of adenine nucleotides: 1156. - 0.75 marks for stating that the percentage of purines is 50% (accept correct working showing 1700/3400 = 50%).
Question 22 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
Explain how a single amino acid substitution in a region of an enzyme far from the active site can still result in a complete loss of catalytic activity.
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Worked solution
A single amino acid substitution changes the primary structure of the polypeptide chain, which alters the specific R-groups present. This can prevent the formation of critical bonds (such as hydrogen, ionic, or disulfide bonds) that stabilize the protein's overall folding. The alteration in folding changes the tertiary structure (3D shape) of the entire enzyme. Since the precise shape of the active site is determined by this overall tertiary conformation, the active site becomes deformed and is no longer complementary to the substrate. Consequently, the substrate cannot bind, no enzyme-substrate complexes can form, and catalytic activity is lost.
Marking scheme
- 1 mark for explaining that a change in the primary structure alters the R-groups, preventing the formation of specific ionic, hydrogen, or disulfide bonds. - 1 mark for stating that this alters the folding and overall tertiary structure (3D shape) of the enzyme. - 0.75 marks for explaining that this changes the shape of the active site so that it is no longer complementary, preventing the formation of enzyme-substrate complexes.
Question 23 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
During a clinical assessment, a patient's left ventricular volume was monitored. The maximum volume of blood in the left ventricle (end-diastolic volume) was measured at \(138\text{ cm}^3\), and the minimum volume (end-systolic volume) was \(53\text{ cm}^3\). The duration of one complete cardiac cycle was recorded as \(0.80\text{ seconds}\). Calculate the cardiac output of this patient in \(dm^3 min^{-1}\). Show your working.
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- 1 mark for calculating correct Stroke Volume: 85 cm^3. - 1 mark for calculating correct Heart Rate: 75 bpm. - 0.75 marks for correct final cardiac output with correct units: 6.375 dm^3 min^-1 or 6.4 dm^3 min^-1 (deduct 1 mark if calculated as 6375 but unit conversion to dm^3 min^-1 is incorrect or missing).
Question 24 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
Explain how the dipolar nature of water molecules makes water an excellent transport medium in the mammalian circulatory system.
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Worked solution
Water is a polar molecule with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom and a slight positive charge on the hydrogen atoms. This dipolar nature allows water to form hydrogen bonds with other water molecules (causing cohesion) and with other polar or ionic substances. Because of this, key nutrients (like glucose and amino acids) and ions (like sodium) easily dissolve in water because hydration shells form around them. This excellent solvent property allows the blood plasma to transport a wide range of dissolved substances. Furthermore, the strong cohesive forces between water molecules allow blood to flow as a continuous column under pressure during mass transport through the blood vessels.
Marking scheme
- 1 mark for explaining that water is dipolar because oxygen has a slight negative charge and hydrogen has a slight positive charge, allowing it to form hydrogen bonds. - 1 mark for explaining that this polarity allows water to act as a solvent by surrounding and dissolving polar molecules/ionic substances for transport. - 0.75 marks for explaining that cohesion between water molecules allows blood to flow under pressure / as a continuous stream through blood vessels (mass flow).
Question 25 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
In a prospective cohort study investigating cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk factors, a group of 12,500 healthy middle-aged adults was followed over an 8-year period. During the course of this study, 320 participants developed CVD. Calculate the incidence rate of CVD per 1,000 person-years, assuming all participants were followed for the entire duration of the study.
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Worked solution
1. First, calculate the total person-years of exposure: \(12,500 \text{ participants} \times 8 \text{ years} = 100,000 \text{ person-years}\). 2. Next, calculate the incidence rate per person-year: \(\frac{320 \text{ cases}}{100,000 \text{ person-years}} = 0.0032 \text{ cases per person-year}\). 3. Convert this rate to the rate per 1,000 person-years: \(0.0032 \times 1,000 = 3.2 \text{ cases per 1,000 person-years}\).
Marking scheme
1 mark: Correct calculation of total person-years (100,000 person-years). 1 mark: Correct calculation of incidence rate (3.2). 0.75 mark: Correct units (per 1,000 person-years).
Question 26 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
The cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein is an apical chloride channel. In a typical epithelial cell, the concentration of chloride ions must be regulated. If a model epithelial cell has an internal volume of \(4.2 \times 10^{-9} \text{ cm}^3\) and contains \(2.52 \times 10^{-14} \text{ moles}\) of chloride ions, calculate the internal chloride ion concentration in \(\text{mmol dm}^{-3}\). Note that \(1 \text{ cm}^3 = 10^{-3} \text{ dm}^3\).
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1 mark: Correct conversion of volume to \(\text{dm}^3\) (\(4.2 \times 10^{-12}\)). 1 mark: Correct concentration calculation in \(\text{mol dm}^{-3}\) (\(0.006\)). 0.75 mark: Correct conversion to \(\text{mmol dm}^{-3}\) (\(6.0\)) with appropriate units.
Question 27 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
An individual with a height of \(1.75 \text{ m}\) and a body mass of \(88.0 \text{ kg}\) aims to reduce their BMI to \(24.0 \text{ kg m}^{-2}\) solely through fat loss. If a deficit of \(30,000 \text{ kJ}\) is required to lose \(1.0 \text{ kg}\) of adipose tissue, calculate the total energy deficit required in megajoules (MJ) to achieve this target weight. (1 MJ = 1,000 kJ).
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Worked solution
1. Calculate target mass using the formula \(\text{BMI} = \frac{\text{mass}}{\text{height}^2}\): \(24.0 = \frac{\text{mass}}{1.75^2} \Rightarrow \text{mass} = 24.0 \times 3.0625 = 73.5 \text{ kg}\). 2. Calculate mass to lose: \(88.0 \text{ kg} - 73.5 \text{ kg} = 14.5 \text{ kg}\). 3. Calculate energy deficit in kJ: \(14.5 \text{ kg} \times 30,000 \text{ kJ kg}^{-1} = 435,000 \text{ kJ}\). 4. Convert to MJ: \(\frac{435,000 \text{ kJ}}{1,000} = 435 \text{ MJ}\).
Marking scheme
1 mark: Correct calculation of target weight (73.5 kg) or mass loss (14.5 kg). 1 mark: Correct calculation of energy deficit in kJ (435,000 kJ). 0.75 mark: Correct conversion to MJ (435 MJ) with units.
Question 28 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
A double-stranded DNA fragment from a eukaryotic gene is \(450\) base pairs long. If cytosine makes up \(32\%\) of the total nitrogenous bases in this fragment, calculate the total number of hydrogen bonds holding the two strands together.
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Worked solution
1. Total bases = \(450 \times 2 = 900\) bases. 2. Cytosine (C) = \(32\%\) of 900 = \(288\) bases. Therefore, Guanine (G) = \(288\) bases. This gives \(288\) C-G base pairs. 3. Remaining percentage for Adenine (A) and Thymine (T) = \(100\% - (32\% + 32\%) = 36\%\). 4. Number of A-T bases = \(36\%\) of 900 = \(324\) bases, which gives \(162\) A-T base pairs. 5. C-G pairs form 3 hydrogen bonds each: \(288 \times 3 = 864\). 6. A-T pairs form 2 hydrogen bonds each: \(162 \times 2 = 324\). 7. Total hydrogen bonds = \(864 + 324 = 1188\).
Marking scheme
1 mark: Correct identification of the number of C-G pairs (288) and A-T pairs (162). 1 mark: Correct application of hydrogen bond rules (3 for C-G, 2 for A-T). 0.75 mark: Correct total of 1188.
Question 29 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
A clinician tests a \(2.5 \text{ cm}^3\) sample of blood plasma which has a fibrinogen concentration of \(3.0 \text{ g dm}^{-3}\). If the thrombin-catalysed conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin polymer has an efficiency of \(85\%\), calculate the dry mass of the resulting fibrin clot in milligrams (mg). Give your answer to 3 significant figures.
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Worked solution
1. Convert the plasma sample volume to \(\text{dm}^3\): \(2.5 \text{ cm}^3 = 0.0025 \text{ dm}^3\). 2. Calculate the mass of fibrinogen in the sample: \(3.0 \text{ g dm}^{-3} \times 0.0025 \text{ dm}^3 = 0.0075 \text{ g}\), which is \(7.5 \text{ mg}\). 3. Calculate the mass of fibrin produced using the 85% conversion efficiency: \(7.5 \text{ mg} \times 0.85 = 6.375 \text{ mg}\). 4. Round to 3 significant figures: \(6.38 \text{ mg}\).
Marking scheme
1 mark: Correct calculation of total fibrinogen mass in the sample (7.5 mg or 0.0075 g). 1 mark: Correct application of 85% conversion efficiency (6.375 mg). 0.75 mark: Correct rounding to 3 significant figures with units (6.38 mg).
Question 30 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
A messenger RNA (mRNA) transcript codes for a polypeptide chain consisting of \(340\) amino acids, including the initial methionine. Calculate the minimum length of this mRNA molecule in nucleotides, assuming it contains only the coding region (including the start codon) and exactly one stop codon.
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Worked solution
1. Each amino acid is coded by a triplet of nucleotides (codon). For \(340\) amino acids, this requires: \(340 \times 3 = 1020\) nucleotides. 2. The stop codon does not code for an amino acid, but is still present in the mRNA molecule as a triplet: \(1 \text{ stop codon} \times 3 = 3\) nucleotides. 3. Total minimum nucleotides = \(1020 + 3 = 1023\) nucleotides.
Marking scheme
1 mark: Correct calculation of nucleotides required for the amino acids (1020). 1 mark: Correct addition of stop codon nucleotides (+3). 0.75 mark: Correct final answer of 1023.
Question 31 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
A patient with mild hypertension has a resting heart rate of \(78 \text{ beats per minute (bpm)}\) and a stroke volume of \(65 \text{ cm}^3\). During a standard exercise stress test, their cardiac output increases by \(110\%\). If their stroke volume increases to \(85 \text{ cm}^3\) during this exercise, calculate their heart rate during the exercise. Round your answer to the nearest whole number.
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1 mark: Correct calculation of resting cardiac output (5070 cm3 min-1). 1 mark: Correct calculation of exercise cardiac output (10,647 cm3 min-1). 0.75 mark: Correct heart rate calculation rounded to nearest whole number (125 bpm).
Question 32 · Structured Short Answer & Calculation
2.75 marks
A blood sample suspension originally contains \(4.8 \times 10^6 \text{ red blood cells per mm}^3\). A \(0.5 \text{ mm}^3\) aliquot of this suspension is incubated in a \(0.12 \text{ mol dm}^{-3} \text{ NaCl}\) solution, which causes \(45\%\) of the red blood cells to lyse due to osmosis. Calculate the number of intact red blood cells remaining in this aliquot. Write your answer in standard scientific notation.
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Worked solution
1. Calculate the initial number of red blood cells in the 0.5 mm3 aliquot: \(4.8 \times 10^6 \text{ cells mm}^{-3} \times 0.5 \text{ mm}^3 = 2.4 \times 10^6 \text{ cells}\). 2. Find the percentage of remaining intact cells: \(100\% - 45\% = 55\%\). 3. Calculate the number of intact cells: \(2.4 \times 10^6 \times 0.55 = 1.32 \times 10^6\) intact cells.
Marking scheme
1 mark: Correct calculation of initial cell count in the aliquot (2.4 x 10^6). 1 mark: Multiplication by the remaining percentage (0.55). 0.75 mark: Correct final value in scientific notation (1.32 x 10^6).
Question 33 · Extended Response
6 marks
Atherosclerosis is a disease of the arteries that can lead to coronary heart disease. Explain how the rupture of an atheroma (plaque) in a coronary artery can trigger the blood clotting cascade, and describe how this can lead to a myocardial infarction (heart attack).
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Worked solution
When an atheroma ruptures, the endothelial lining of the coronary artery is damaged, exposing collagen fibres in the blood vessel wall to the blood. Platelets immediately bind to this exposed collagen and become activated. The damaged tissue and activated platelets release an enzyme called thromboplastin. In the presence of calcium ions and clotting factors, thromboplastin catalyses the conversion of the inactive plasma protein prothrombin into the active enzyme thrombin. Thrombin then catalyses the conversion of the soluble plasma protein fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin. Fibrin forms a mesh of fibres that traps red blood cells and more platelets, forming a blood clot (thrombus). If this clot blocks the lumen of the coronary artery, blood flow to the downstream heart muscle (myocardium) is severely restricted or stopped. Consequently, the heart muscle cells are deprived of oxygen and glucose, which are essential for aerobic respiration. The cells are forced to respire anaerobically, leading to lactic acid accumulation, which lowers the pH and damages enzymes. Ultimately, the lack of ATP and build-up of toxic waste causes cell death (necrosis) of the cardiac tissue, resulting in a myocardial infarction.
Marking scheme
Level 1 (1-2 marks): Answer describes some parts of the clotting cascade or mentions coronary blockage/heart attack. The explanation is fragmented, lacks detail, and has limited logical structure. Level 2 (3-4 marks): Answer describes the sequential steps of the clotting cascade (e.g., thromboplastin, prothrombin to thrombin, fibrinogen to fibrin) OR explains how a blockage leads to lack of oxygen and death of heart muscle. The explanation shows a reasonable logical flow with some scientific terms used correctly. Level 3 (5-6 marks): Answer provides a complete, detailed, and logically structured account of BOTH the blood clotting cascade (including roles of collagen, thromboplastin, calcium ions, thrombin, and fibrin) AND the progression to myocardial infarction (occlusion of coronary artery, lack of oxygen/aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, cell death). Indicative content points: 1. Rupture of atheroma exposes collagen. 2. Platelets release thromboplastin. 3. Thromboplastin catalyses conversion of prothrombin to thrombin (requires calcium ions). 4. Thrombin catalyses conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin, forming a mesh/clot. 5. Clot blocks/occludes the coronary artery, cutting off blood flow to heart muscle. 6. Muscle cells lack oxygen/glucose for aerobic respiration. 7. Anaerobic respiration leads to lactic acid build-up, cell damage, and cell death/myocardial infarction.
Paper 2: Development, Plants and the Environment
Answer all questions. Show all your working out in calculations and include units where appropriate.
33 Question · 80 marks
Question 1 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following describes the role of calcium ions in plant cell walls?
A.They are required for the synthesis of chlorophyll in chloroplasts.
B.They bind to pectin to form calcium pectate in the middle lamella.
C.They act as a cofactor for enzymes involved in cellulose synthesis.
D.They form cross-links between lignin molecules in the secondary cell wall.
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Worked solution
Calcium ions are essential for the formation of calcium pectate, which cements adjacent plant cell walls together in the middle lamella. Without calcium, plants show stunted growth and weak cell walls.
Marking scheme
1 mark for correct identification of calcium pectate and its location in the middle lamella (B).
Question 2 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following statements correctly describes pluripotent stem cells?
A.They can divide to give rise to any cell type, including extra-embryonic tissues.
B.They can differentiate into most cell types but cannot form extra-embryonic tissues.
C.They are only found in adult tissues and can only differentiate into a limited number of specialized cell types.
D.They are completely unspecialized cells that can only divide by meiosis.
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Worked solution
Pluripotent stem cells can differentiate into almost all cell types of the body (from the three germ layers), but unlike totipotent cells, they cannot form extra-embryonic tissues such as the placenta.
Marking scheme
1 mark for distinguishing pluripotency from totipotency and multipotency (B).
Question 3 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following features is characteristic of cellulose but not starch?
A.It is a polymer of \(\beta\)-glucose molecules joined by 1,4-glycosidic bonds.
B.It contains 1,6-glycosidic bonds that form branches.
C.It is stored inside plastids called amyloplasts.
D.It can be easily hydrolysed by amylase enzymes.
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Worked solution
Cellulose is a linear, unbranched polymer of \(\beta\)-glucose molecules linked by 1,4-glycosidic bonds, whereas starch is made of \(\alpha\)-glucose monomers and contains branches in its amylopectin component.
Marking scheme
1 mark for identifying the polymer and bond type specific to cellulose (A).
Question 4 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A cell biologist measures the mass of DNA in a population of actively dividing cells. Which of the following stages of the cell cycle is characterized by a continuous increase in DNA mass per cell?
A.G1 phase
B.S phase
C.G2 phase
D.Metaphase
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Worked solution
DNA replication (synthesis) occurs during the S phase of interphase. During this phase, the mass of DNA in the cell increases continuously until it has doubled.
Marking scheme
1 mark for identifying S phase as the period of DNA replication (B).
Question 5 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Seed banks store seeds under specific conditions to maintain their viability over long periods. Which combination of conditions is used to store seeds in a seed bank?
A.High moisture and high temperature
B.Low moisture and low temperature
C.High moisture and low temperature
D.Low moisture and high temperature
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Worked solution
To prevent germination, slow down decay, and reduce cellular respiration, seeds are dried (low moisture) and kept frozen (low temperature, typically around \(-20^\circ\text{C}\)).
Marking scheme
1 mark for identifying the correct low moisture and low temperature combination (B).
Question 6 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following epigenetic modifications typically leads to increased transcription of a gene?
A.Increased methylation of DNA
B.Decreased acetylation of histone proteins
C.Increased acetylation of histone proteins
D.Removal of the promoter region from DNA
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Worked solution
Increased acetylation of histone proteins reduces their positive charge, weakening their interaction with DNA. This relaxes the chromatin structure, making the DNA more accessible to RNA polymerase and transcription factors, thereby increasing transcription.
Marking scheme
1 mark for identifying histone acetylation as a promoter of transcription (C).
Question 7 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A student is investigating the antimicrobial properties of garlic extract using an agar plate seeded with E. coli. After incubation, they measure the zone of inhibition. What does a larger zone of inhibition indicate?
A.The garlic extract is less effective at inhibiting bacterial growth.
B.The garlic extract is more effective at inhibiting bacterial growth.
C.The bacterial population has developed resistance to the extract.
D.The concentration of agar in the plate was too high.
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Worked solution
The zone of inhibition is the clear area around the disk where bacteria cannot grow. A larger zone indicates that the active antimicrobial substance in the garlic extract is more effective at preventing bacterial growth.
Marking scheme
1 mark for linking a larger zone of inhibition to greater antimicrobial effectiveness (B).
Question 8 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following statements about continuous variation in a population is correct?
A.It is controlled by a single gene and is highly influenced by the environment.
B.It is controlled by many genes (polygenic) and is not influenced by the environment.
C.It is controlled by many genes (polygenic) and can be influenced by environmental factors.
D.It produces distinct, non-overlapping categories of phenotypes.
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Worked solution
Continuous variation (such as human height) is typically polygenic (controlled by many genes) and exhibits a wide range of phenotypes that can be modified by environmental factors (e.g., nutrition).
Marking scheme
1 mark for recognizing that continuous variation is polygenic and environmentally influenced (C).
Question 9 · calculation
2.75 marks
A student prepared a root tip squash of onion (*Allium cepa*) cells to observe stages of mitosis. In their field of view, they counted a total of 342 cells. Among these, 28 were in prophase, 12 in metaphase, 8 in anaphase, and 15 in telophase. Calculate the mitotic index of this sample as a percentage. Give your answer to three significant figures.
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Worked solution
First, calculate the total number of cells undergoing mitosis: \( 28 \text{ (prophase)} + 12 \text{ (metaphase)} + 8 \text{ (anaphase)} + 15 \text{ (telophase)} = 63 \text{ dividing cells} \). Next, divide the number of dividing cells by the total number of cells: \( \frac{63}{342} \approx 0.18421 \). Finally, multiply by 100 to convert to a percentage and round to three significant figures: \( 0.18421 \times 100 = 18.421\% \rightarrow 18.4\% \).
Marking scheme
1. **Method Mark (1.0 mark):** Correct sum of active mitotic cells: \( 28 + 12 + 8 + 15 = 63 \) cells. 2. **Accuracy Mark (1.0 mark):** Correct division by total cells to find fraction: \( \frac{63}{342} \) or \( 0.184 \). 3. **Precision and Units Mark (0.75 marks):** Final answer expressed as a percentage to 3 significant figures: \( 18.4\% \) (Accept 18.4 without the percentage sign if units are assumed, but reject 18% or 18.42%).
Question 10 · calculation
2.75 marks
A student investigated the tensile strength of stinging nettle (*Urtica dioica*) fibres. A single sclerenchyma fibre with a cross-sectional area of \( 0.045 \text{ mm}^2 \) broke when a maximum force of \( 13.5 \text{ N} \) was applied. Calculate the tensile strength of this fibre in \( \text{N mm}^{-2} \).
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Worked solution
Tensile strength is calculated using the formula: \( \text{Tensile Strength} = \frac{\text{Force (N)}}{\text{Cross-sectional Area (mm}^2\text{)}} \) Substitute the given values into the equation: \( \text{Tensile Strength} = \frac{13.5 \text{ N}}{0.045 \text{ mm}^2} = 300 \text{ N mm}^{-2} \).
Marking scheme
1. **Formula Mark (1.0 mark):** Use of correct formula \( \text{Tensile Strength} = \frac{\text{Force}}{\text{Area}} \). 2. **Calculation Mark (1.0 mark):** Correct substitution of values: \( \frac{13.5}{0.045} \). 3. **Accuracy Mark (0.75 marks):** Correct final answer: \( 300 \text{ N mm}^{-2} \) (Accept 300).
Question 11 · structured
2.75 marks
Describe the differences in differentiation potential between pluripotent stem cells and multipotent stem cells.
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Worked solution
Pluripotent stem cells (such as embryonic stem cells) have the capacity to give rise to any cell type derived from the three germ layers (ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm) but cannot form extraembryonic tissues like the placenta. Multipotent stem cells (such as adult stem cells in bone marrow) are more restricted and can only differentiate into cell types of a closely related family of cells (e.g., hematopoietic stem cells into red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets).
Marking scheme
1. **Pluripotency description (1.0 mark):** State that pluripotent cells can differentiate into almost all cell types / any cell type in the body (except placenta/extraembryonic tissue). 2. **Multipotency description (1.0 mark):** State that multipotent cells are limited to a specific range or lineage of specialized cell types (e.g., blood cells from bone marrow stem cells). 3. **Comparative clarity (0.75 marks):** Correctly contrast the hierarchy of potency, emphasizing that pluripotent cells have a wider/less restricted differentiation potential than multipotent cells.
Question 12 · calculation
2.75 marks
An ecologist calculated the species diversity of trees in a managed woodland. They recorded 15 silver birch, 8 English oak, and 7 rowan trees. Use Simpson's Index of Diversity formula: \( D = \frac{N(N-1)}{\sum n(n-1)} \) to calculate the index of diversity (\(D\)) for this woodland. Give your answer to two decimal places.
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Worked solution
1. Calculate total number of individuals, \( N \): \( N = 15 + 8 + 7 = 30 \) \( N(N-1) = 30 \times 29 = 870 \)
3. Sum these values: \( \sum n(n-1) = 210 + 56 + 42 = 308 \)
4. Divide \( N(N-1) \) by \( \sum n(n-1) \): \( D = \frac{870}{308} \approx 2.8247 \) To 2 decimal places, \( D = 2.82 \).
Marking scheme
1. **Method Mark (1.0 mark):** Correctly calculated numerator value: \( N(N-1) = 870 \). 2. **Method Mark (1.0 mark):** Correctly calculated denominator sum: \( \sum n(n-1) = 308 \) (working shown for individual species products: 210, 56, 42). 3. **Accuracy Mark (0.75 marks):** Final correct value of \( 2.82 \) to two decimal places. (Reject 2.8 or 2.825).
Question 13 · structured
2.75 marks
Describe the function of the Golgi apparatus in a secretory cell.
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Worked solution
Proteins synthesized on the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) are transported to the Golgi apparatus in transition vesicles. Within the cisternae of the Golgi, these proteins are chemically modified (e.g., by adding carbohydrate groups to form glycoproteins, or lipid groups to form lipoproteins). The modified proteins are then sorted and packaged into secretory vesicles, which bud off from the Golgi and move along microtubules to fuse with the cell surface membrane, releasing the proteins via exocytosis.
Marking scheme
1. **Modification Mark (1.0 mark):** Mention modification of proteins (e.g., addition of carbohydrate groups / glycosylation / lipid groups). 2. **Packaging Mark (1.0 mark):** Mention packaging of these proteins into (secretory) vesicles. 3. **Transport/Destination Mark (0.75 marks):** Reference to sending these vesicles to the cell surface membrane for release / exocytosis.
Question 14 · structured
2.75 marks
Explain why a plant grown in magnesium-deficient soil shows symptoms of chlorosis (yellowing of the leaves) and stunted growth.
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Worked solution
Magnesium ions are a key central component of the chlorophyll molecule. When magnesium is deficient in the soil, the plant cannot synthesize adequate chlorophyll, which results in the loss of green pigmentation (chlorosis), causing leaves to turn yellow. With less chlorophyll, the plant absorbs less light energy, decreasing the rate of photosynthesis. This leads to a reduction in the production of carbohydrates (such as glucose), which are vital substrates for cellular respiration and the synthesis of structural materials (like cellulose) and proteins needed for cell division and growth.
Marking scheme
1. **Biochemical link (1.0 mark):** Explain that magnesium ions are required for the synthesis of chlorophyll. 2. **Functional effect (1.0 mark):** Link chlorophyll deficiency to reduced light absorption and a lower rate of photosynthesis. 3. **Growth impact (0.75 marks):** Connect reduced photosynthesis to decreased production of glucose/sugars, resulting in less respiration/energy or less structural material (cellulose/proteins) for plant growth.
Question 15 · structured
2.75 marks
Explain how increased DNA methylation can regulate gene expression during cell differentiation.
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Worked solution
DNA methylation is an epigenetic mechanism where methyl groups are covalently added to cytosine bases in the DNA, typically at CpG islands located in promoter regions of genes. The presence of these methyl groups alters the DNA conformation and physically prevents transcription factors and RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter region. Consequently, the gene is silenced because transcription cannot occur, preventing the production of mRNA and the corresponding protein.
Marking scheme
1. **Mechanism Location (1.0 mark):** State that methyl groups are added to DNA/cytosine bases at CpG sites/islands in the promoter region of a gene. 2. **Transcription Prevention (1.0 mark):** Explain that this prevents the binding of transcription factors / RNA polymerase. 3. **Consequence (0.75 marks):** State that this inhibits transcription / silences the gene, preventing mRNA synthesis or protein production.
Question 16 · calculation
2.75 marks
A light micrograph shows a plant cell nucleolus with a measured image diameter of \( 18 \text{ mm} \). The actual diameter of this nucleolus is \( 3.6\ \mu\text{m} \). Calculate the magnification of the image.
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Worked solution
Magnification is calculated using the formula: \( \text{Magnification} = \frac{\text{Image Size}}{\text{Actual Size}} \)
1. Convert units to be consistent. Convert the image size from millimetres (mm) to micrometres (\(\mu\text{m}\)): \( 18 \text{ mm} \times 1000 = 18,000\ \mu\text{m} \).
2. Divide the image size in micrometres by the actual size in micrometres: \( \text{Magnification} = \frac{18,000\ \mu\text{m}}{3.6\ \mu\text{m}} = 5000 \).
Therefore, the magnification is \( \times 5000 \).
Marking scheme
1. **Unit Conversion Mark (1.0 mark):** Correct conversion of image units: \( 18 \text{ mm} = 18,000\ \mu\text{m} \) OR actual size: \( 3.6\ \mu\text{m} = 0.0036 \text{ mm} \). 2. **Formula Application Mark (1.0 mark):** Division of image size by actual size: \( \frac{18,000}{3.6} \) or \( \frac{18}{0.0036} \). 3. **Accuracy Mark (0.75 marks):** Correct final magnification value of 5000 (Accept \( \times 5000 \)).
Question 17 · Calculation
2.75 marks
The mitotic index is a measure of the proliferation status of a cell population. A student prepared a root tip squash of Allium cepa and observed the cells under a high-power light microscope. Out of 250 cells counted in the field of view, the student recorded the following numbers of cells in each stage of mitosis: Prophase: 32; Metaphase: 12; Anaphase: 8; Telophase: 14. Calculate the mitotic index of this root tip tissue as a percentage. Show your working.
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Worked solution
Step 1: Calculate the total number of cells currently undergoing mitosis (dividing cells). Dividing cells = Prophase + Metaphase + Anaphase + Telophase = 32 + 12 + 8 + 14 = 66 cells. Step 2: Calculate the mitotic index as a percentage of the total observed cells. Mitotic Index = (Number of dividing cells / Total number of cells) * 100 = (66 / 250) * 100 = 26.4%.
Marking scheme
1 mark: Correct calculation of the total number of dividing cells (66). 1 mark: Correct substitution into the mitotic index formula (66 / 250) * 100. 0.75 mark: Correct final answer of 26.4% with unit (%).
Question 18 · Calculation
2.75 marks
A student investigated the mechanical properties of plant fibres using hemp (Cannabis sativa). A single hemp fibre with a uniform diameter of 0.40 mm was suspended from a clamp, and weights were added until the fibre broke. The breaking force was recorded as 12.0 N. Calculate the tensile strength of this hemp fibre in megapascals (MPa). Use the formula: \(\text{Tensile Strength} = \frac{\text{Force}}{\text{Cross-sectional Area}}\). Assume the fibre is perfectly cylindrical. Give your answer to 3 significant figures. Note: 1 MPa = 1 N mm^-2.
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Worked solution
Step 1: Calculate the radius of the fibre. Radius (r) = diameter / 2 = 0.40 mm / 2 = 0.20 mm. Step 2: Calculate the cross-sectional area of the cylindrical fibre. Area = \(\pi r^2\) = \(\pi \times (0.20)^2\) = 0.12566 mm^2. Step 3: Calculate the tensile strength. Tensile Strength = Force / Area = 12.0 N / 0.12566 mm^2 = 95.493 N mm^-2 (or MPa). Step 4: Round the final answer to 3 significant figures: 95.5 MPa.
Marking scheme
1 mark: Correct calculation of the cross-sectional area as 0.126 mm^2 (or 0.1257 mm^2) based on a radius of 0.20 mm. 1 mark: Correct substitution of force and area into the formula (12.0 / 0.12566). 0.75 mark: Correct final answer of 95.5 MPa (accept 95.2 to 96.0 depending on rounding of pi) with correct unit.
Question 19 · Structured Short Answer
2.75 marks
Stem cell therapies offer potential treatments for degenerative diseases. Explain the biological advantages of using a patient's own stem cells, such as induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs), rather than donor embryonic stem cells for these treatments.
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Worked solution
When using a patient's own stem cells, the cells are genetically identical to the patient's body cells. This means they express the same self-antigens (MHC/HLA glycoproteins) on their cell surface membrane, preventing the patient's immune system from recognizing them as foreign and initiating an immune response (rejection). Consequently, the patient does not need to take lifelong immunosuppressant drugs, which have severe side effects. Additionally, because these cells are generated from somatic adult cells rather than blastocysts, their use does not involve the ethical controversy of destroying human embryos.
Marking scheme
1 mark: Reference to no risk of immune rejection / no immune response because the stem cells are genetically identical / have the same self-antigens. 1 mark: Reference to no need for immunosuppressant drugs (which leave the patient vulnerable to infections). 0.75 mark: Reference to the avoidance of ethical issues/concerns associated with the destruction of human embryos.
Question 20 · Calculation
2.75 marks
A student sampled a woodland area to determine the species diversity of beetles. The results of the sampling are shown below: Species A: 12; Species B: 8; Species C: 4; Species D: 2; Species E: 1. Calculate the index of diversity (d) using the formula: \(d = \frac{N(N-1)}{\sum n(n-1)}\), where N is the total number of organisms of all species and n is the total number of organisms of each species. Give your answer to 2 decimal places.
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Worked solution
Step 1: Calculate N, the total number of individuals of all species. N = 12 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 27. Therefore, N(N-1) = 27 * 26 = 702. Step 2: Calculate n(n-1) for each species: Species A: 12 * 11 = 132; Species B: 8 * 7 = 56; Species C: 4 * 3 = 12; Species D: 2 * 1 = 2; Species E: 1 * 0 = 0. Step 3: Sum the n(n-1) values. \(\sum n(n-1)\) = 132 + 56 + 12 + 2 + 0 = 202. Step 4: Calculate the index of diversity (d). d = 702 / 202 = 3.4752... Step 5: Round to 2 decimal places, giving 3.48.
Marking scheme
1 mark: Correct calculation of N = 27 and N(N-1) = 702. 1 mark: Correct calculation of the sum of n(n-1) as 202. 0.75 mark: Correct final value of 3.48 (must be rounded to 2 decimal places).
Question 21 · Structured Short Answer
2.75 marks
Epigenetic modifications play a crucial role in regulating gene expression during development. Explain how the methylation of DNA can lead to the silencing of a gene.
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Worked solution
DNA methylation involves the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases, typically at CpG sites within the promoter region of a gene. This modification physically blocks the binding of transcription factors and RNA polymerase to the promoter, preventing transcription from being initiated. Furthermore, DNA methylation can recruit histone-modifying proteins that lead to chromatin condensation (forming heterochromatin). Because the DNA becomes tightly packed, the transcription machinery cannot access the gene, effectively silencing its expression.
Marking scheme
1 mark: Reference to the addition of methyl groups to DNA cytosine bases / CpG islands in the promoter region of the gene. 1 mark: Reference to the prevention of transcription factor / RNA polymerase binding to the promoter. 0.75 mark: Reference to chromatin condensation / forming tightly packed heterochromatin, which prevents transcription of the gene.
Question 22 · Structured Short Answer
2.75 marks
Seed banks, such as the Millennium Seed Bank, play a critical role in conserving plant biodiversity. Explain the biological reasons why seeds are dried and stored at very low temperatures (e.g., -20 degrees Celsius).
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Worked solution
Seeds are dried to reduce their water content and stored at sub-zero temperatures to drastically slow down metabolic processes and enzyme-controlled reactions (such as respiration) within the seed. This prevents premature germination and keeps the embryo alive in a dormant state for a long period. Additionally, low moisture and cold temperatures inhibit the growth and reproduction of decay-causing microorganisms, such as fungi and bacteria, which would otherwise decompose and destroy the seeds.
Marking scheme
1 mark: Reference to drying and low temperatures reducing enzyme activity / rate of respiration / metabolic rate within the seeds to keep them dormant / prevent germination. 1 mark: Reference to preventing the growth / reproduction of decay-causing microorganisms (such as bacteria / fungi). 0.75 mark: Reference to increasing the viability / lifespan of the seeds for long-term storage.
Question 23 · Structured Short Answer
2.75 marks
In many plant species, height is a continuous trait that exhibits a wide range of phenotypes. Explain how a plant's height can be influenced by both its genotype and environmental factors.
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Worked solution
Plant height is a polygenic characteristic, meaning it is controlled by several genes at different loci (polygenic inheritance). Each gene has an additive effect on the phenotype, creating a range of potential heights (continuous variation) rather than distinct categories. This genotype sets the maximum possible height the plant can achieve. However, environmental factors such as light intensity, temperature, water availability, and soil mineral ions (like nitrates for protein synthesis or magnesium for chlorophyll) are necessary for growth. If these resources are limiting, the plant cannot perform photosynthesis or build tissues effectively, meaning it will not reach its genetic potential height.
Marking scheme
1 mark: Reference to height being polygenic / controlled by multiple genes at different loci, which have an additive effect on the phenotype (giving continuous variation / setting genetic potential). 1 mark: Reference to environmental factors (such as light intensity, water, or nutrient availability, e.g., nitrates / magnesium) being needed for growth / protein synthesis / photosynthesis. 0.75 mark: Reference to the fact that if environmental resources are limiting, the plant cannot reach its maximum genetic potential height.
Question 24 · Structured Short Answer
2.75 marks
Plant cell walls provide structural support and prevent cells from bursting. Describe the molecular structure of cellulose microfibrils and explain how their arrangement in the cell wall provides high tensile strength.
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Worked solution
The primary plant cell wall is composed of cellulose microfibrils. Cellulose is a polysaccharide made of beta-glucose monomers joined by beta-1,4-glycosidic bonds, where alternate glucose molecules are rotated 180 degrees. These linear, unbranched chains run parallel to each other and are linked by hydrogen bonds to form tough bundles called microfibrils. The microfibrils are arranged in a criss-cross net-like structure and are held together by a matrix of hemicelluloses and pectin. This composition gives the cell wall a very high tensile strength, allowing it to resist the high internal turgor pressure when water enters by osmosis, thereby preventing the cell from bursting and providing mechanical support to the plant.
Marking scheme
1 mark: Description of cellulose as beta-glucose chains linked by beta-1,4-glycosidic bonds, forming linear chains. 1 mark: Cellulose chains are held together by hydrogen bonds to form microfibrils, which are arranged in a criss-cross / net-like structure embedded in pectin / hemicelluloses. 0.75 mark: This arrangement/composition provides high tensile strength to resist turgor pressure / prevent the cell bursting.
Question 25 · Calculation
2.75 marks
A conservation group sampled a population of a rare orchid, Orchis mascula, to determine its genetic diversity. They analyzed 160 different gene loci and found that 44 of these loci were heterozygous. Calculate the heterozygosity index (\(H\)) for this population. Give your answer to two decimal places.
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Worked solution
To calculate the heterozygosity index (\(H\)), use the formula: \(H = \frac{\text{Number of heterozygous loci}}{\text{Total number of loci}}\). Substituting the given values: \(H = \frac{44}{160} = 0.275\). Rounding to two decimal places gives 0.28.
Marking scheme
1. Correct formula or identification of values: \(44 / 160\) (1 mark). 2. Correct calculation of 0.275 (1 mark). 3. Correct rounding to 2 decimal places: 0.28 (0.75 marks).
Question 26 · Structured Short Answer
2.75 marks
Explain how epigenetic modification by DNA methylation can lead to a reduction in the expression of a specific protein.
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Worked solution
DNA methylation involves the attachment of methyl groups to cytosine bases (often at CpG sites) in the promoter region of a gene. This modification changes the structure of the DNA and physically blocks transcription factors and RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter. Consequently, transcription is inhibited, meaning no mRNA is produced, and the translation of the encoded protein cannot occur.
Marking scheme
1. Reference to the addition of methyl groups to CpG islands / promoter region of DNA (1 mark). 2. Prevents the binding of RNA polymerase / transcription factors (1 mark). 3. Inhibits transcription, so no mRNA is synthesized for translation (0.75 marks).
Question 27 · Calculation
2.75 marks
A student investigating mitosis in a garlic root tip counted cells in various stages of the cell cycle. The results were: 18 cells in prophase, 11 in metaphase, 6 in anaphase, 5 in telophase, and 160 in interphase. Calculate the mitotic index of this root tip tissue. Give your answer as a percentage to one decimal place.
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Worked solution
First, calculate the total number of cells in mitosis (prophase + metaphase + anaphase + telophase): \(18 + 11 + 6 + 5 = 40\text{ cells}\). Next, find the total number of cells observed: \(40 + 160 = 200\text{ cells}\). Finally, calculate the mitotic index as a percentage: \(\text{Mitotic Index} = \left( \frac{40}{200} \right) \times 100 = 20.0\%\).
Marking scheme
1. Correctly calculates cells in mitosis (40) and total cells (200) (1 mark). 2. Divides mitotic cells by total cells and multiplies by 100 (1 mark). 3. Correct answer to 1 decimal place with percentage sign: 20.0% (0.75 marks).
Question 28 · Structured Short Answer
2.75 marks
Describe how the arrangement of cellulose microfibrils in the plant cell wall contributes to its strength and ability to withstand turgor pressure.
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Worked solution
In the plant cell wall, cellulose microfibrils (held together by hydrogen bonds) are not aligned in a single direction; instead, they are laid down in a criss-cross, multi-layered meshwork. This structural arrangement is embedded in a sticky matrix of hemicelluloses and pectins. The cross-hatched meshwork provides high tensile strength in all directions, preventing the cell wall from stretching too much and bursting when the vacuole fills with water and exerts turgor pressure.
Marking scheme
1. Description of cellulose microfibrils arranged in a criss-cross / mesh-like pattern (1 mark). 2. Microfibrils are bound together by a matrix containing hemicelluloses / pectins (1 mark). 3. This arrangement provides high tensile strength to resist bursting under high turgor pressure (0.75 marks).
Question 29 · Calculation
2.75 marks
To measure the biodiversity of a woodland clearing, a student collected data on the abundance of three herbaceous plant species: Species A (8 individuals), Species B (12 individuals), and Species C (10 individuals). Calculate Simpson's Index of Diversity (\(D\)) using the formula: \(D = 1 - \frac{\sum n(n-1)}{N(N-1)}\). Give your answer to two decimal places.
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3. Sum the values: \(\sum n(n-1) = 56 + 132 + 90 = 278\). 4. Calculate \(D\): \(D = 1 - \frac{278}{870} = 1 - 0.3195 = 0.6805\). Rounding to two decimal places gives 0.68.
Marking scheme
1. Correct calculations of \(N = 30\) and \(N(N-1) = 870\) (1 mark). 2. Correct sum of \(n(n-1) = 278\) (1 mark). 3. Correct evaluation of \(D = 0.68\) rounded to two decimal places (0.75 marks).
Question 30 · Structured Short Answer
2.75 marks
State the difference between pluripotent and multipotent stem cells, and provide an example of where a multipotent stem cell can be found in the human body.
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Worked solution
Pluripotent stem cells can divide and differentiate into almost any specialized cell type in the body (belonging to any of the three germ layers), but they cannot form extraembryonic tissues such as the placenta. Multipotent stem cells are more restricted, as they can only differentiate into a limited range of cell types related to their tissue of origin. An example of a multipotent stem cell is a hematopoietic stem cell found in human bone marrow, which can differentiate into various blood cell types.
Marking scheme
1. Clear definition of pluripotent stem cells (can differentiate into almost any cell type except extraembryonic tissues) (1 mark). 2. Clear definition of multipotent stem cells (can only differentiate into a limited/restricted range of cell types) (1 mark). 3. Correct location of human multipotent stem cells, e.g., bone marrow / skin / brain / umbilical cord (0.75 marks).
Question 31 · Calculation
2.75 marks
A student took a micrograph of a starch granule inside an amyloplast. Under a magnification of \(\times 800\), the measured length of the starch granule in the photograph is \(24\text{ mm}\). Calculate the actual length of the starch granule in micrometres (\(\mu\text{m}\)). Give your answer to two significant figures.
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Worked solution
Use the formula: \(\text{Actual Size} = \frac{\text{Image Size}}{\text{Magnification}}\). 1. Convert the image size from millimetres to micrometres: \(24\text{ mm} = 24 \times 1000 = 24,000\ \mu\text{m}\). 2. Divide by the magnification: \(\text{Actual Size} = \frac{24,000}{800} = 30\ \mu\text{m}\). 3. Expressed to two significant figures, the answer is 30.
Marking scheme
1. Correctly converts millimetres to micrometres: \(24\text{ mm} = 24,000\ \mu\text{m}\) (1 mark). 2. Correct substitution into the formula: \(24,000 / 800\) (1 mark). 3. Correct final answer of 30 (or \(30\ \mu\text{m}\)) expressed to two significant figures (0.75 marks).
Question 32 · Structured Short Answer
2.75 marks
Explain how translation is initiated on eukaryotic ribosomes and stopped during the synthesis of a polypeptide.
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Worked solution
Translation initiation begins when the small ribosomal subunit binds to the mRNA molecule and scans for the start codon (usually AUG). A tRNA molecule carrying the amino acid methionine, with the complementary anticodon (UAC), binds to this codon. The large ribosomal subunit then associates to form the functional ribosome. Translation termination is triggered when the ribosome encounters a stop codon (UAA, UAG, or UGA) on the mRNA. Since there are no tRNA molecules with complementary anticodons for these codons, a protein called a release factor binds to the ribosome instead, causing the completed polypeptide chain to be cleaved and released.
Marking scheme
1. Initiation involves ribosome assembly at the start codon (AUG) and binding of tRNA carrying methionine / complementary anticodon (1 mark). 2. Termination occurs when the ribosome reaches a stop codon (UAA/UAG/UGA) (1 mark). 3. No tRNA binds to the stop codon; instead, a release factor binds to release the polypeptide chain (0.75 marks).
Question 33 · essay
6 marks
William Withering pioneered the use of digitalis (extract of foxglove) to treat dropsy (heart failure). Compare and contrast the historical drug testing method used by William Withering with contemporary drug testing protocols.
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Worked solution
Similarities: - Both methods aim to identify a safe and effective therapeutic dosage. - Both methods ultimately test the drug on patients who suffer from the disease the drug is intended to treat (with digitalis for Withering, and in Phase 2/3 of modern trials). - Both historically derived their active ingredients from natural plant sources.
Differences: - Pre-clinical stage: Modern testing involves testing on isolated cells, tissues, and live animals to evaluate toxicity and efficacy before human administration. Withering did not perform pre-clinical animal testing. - Healthy volunteers: Modern trials feature Phase 1, where the drug is tested on a small group of healthy volunteers to determine safety and pharmacokinetics. Withering tested directly on patients with dropsy. - Bias control (Double-blind & Placebo): Modern Phase 2 and 3 trials use placebos and double-blind techniques (where neither patients nor doctors know who receives the drug) to eliminate psychological bias and ensure objectivity. Withering used an open-label method, slowly increasing the dose on his patients while observing symptoms. - Sample size and progression: Modern trials use standardized, multi-phase scaling (Phase 1, 2, and 3) with progressively larger, statistically significant sample sizes. Withering used a smaller, less systematic group of individuals and adjusted doses trial-by-error. - Regulation: Modern trials are strictly regulated by ethical committees and national agencies (e.g., MHRA), requiring rigorous protocol approval, whereas Withering operated independently without regulatory oversight.
Marking scheme
This is a Quality of Written Communication (QWC) question marked using a level-of-response grid.
Level 1 (1-2 marks): - Mentions simple, isolated points of comparison or contrast (e.g., Withering tested on sick people, modern trials test on animals or healthy people). - Communication is basic with little structure.
Level 2 (3-4 marks): - Provides a structured comparison containing at least one similarity and several clear differences (e.g., pre-clinical trials, healthy volunteers in Phase 1, or placebos). - Explains the scientific purpose of at least one difference (e.g., placebos prevent bias, Phase 1 tests safety). - Writing is structured and mostly clear.
Level 3 (5-6 marks): - Explains a comprehensive range of both similarities and differences. - Explicitly compares pre-clinical stages, Phase 1 (healthy volunteers), Phase 2/3 (patients, placebos, double-blind trials), and regulatory/ethical controls. - Argument is highly coherent, using precise biological terminology throughout.
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