An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2024 Pearson Edexcel GCSE Geography A (1GA0) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Pearson.
Paper 1: Physical Environment
Answer Question 1 in Section A, and TWO optional landscape questions from coastal, river, or glaciated upland processes. Answer all questions in Sections B and C.
34 Question · 90.30000000000001 marks
Question 1 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following statements correctly describes the distribution of UK rock types relative to the Tees-Exe line?
A.Igneous and metamorphic rocks are mostly found to the south and east of the line.
B.Sedimentary rocks are predominantly found to the north and west of the line.
C.Older igneous and metamorphic rocks are mostly found to the north and west of the line.
D.Younger sedimentary rocks are evenly distributed across both sides of the line.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Older, more resistant igneous and metamorphic rocks are predominantly found to the north and west of the Tees-Exe line, forming the UK's upland landscapes. Younger, softer sedimentary rocks are mostly found to the south and east, forming lowland landscapes.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option (C). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 2 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following is a characteristic of destructive waves?
A.They have a strong swash and a weak backwash.
B.They have a high wave frequency and a strong backwash.
C.They lead to the build-up of wide, sandy beaches.
D.They are low in height and have a long wavelength.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Destructive waves are characterized by a high wave frequency (typically 10 to 14 waves per minute) and a strong backwash which is more powerful than their swash, resulting in the removal of sediment from the beach.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option (B). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 3 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which coastal management strategy is an example of soft engineering?
A.Building a concrete sea wall to reflect wave energy.
B.Installing rock armour (rip-rap) at the base of vulnerable cliffs.
C.Implementing beach nourishment to build up the beach profile.
D.Constructing timber groynes to trap sediment from longshore drift.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Beach nourishment is a soft engineering technique because it involves working with natural processes by adding sand or shingle to a beach to make it wider, rather than constructing artificial, hard-engineered barriers like sea walls, rip-rap, or groynes.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option (C). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 4 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which river transport process involves small pebbles and stones bouncing along the river bed?
A.Traction
B.Saltation
C.Suspension
D.Solution
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Saltation is the transport process where small pebbles and coarse sand particles are temporarily lifted by the water flow and bounced along the river bed.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option (B). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 5 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which factor is most likely to decrease the lag time on a river flood hydrograph?
A.High density of urban development in the catchment area.
B.Deep, highly permeable sandy soils.
C.Dense deciduous woodland planting across the drainage basin.
D.Gentle sloping topography throughout the drainage basin.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Urbanization increases the amount of impermeable surfaces (such as concrete and tarmac) and creates artificial drainage systems. This reduces infiltration and increases surface runoff, causing rainfall to reach the river channel much faster, which decreases the lag time.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option (A). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 6 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which Milankovitch cycle refers to the change in the tilt of the Earth's axis over an approximate cycle of 41,000 years?
A.Eccentricity
B.Precession
C.Obliquity
D.Solar output variation
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Obliquity refers to the change in the tilt of the Earth's axis, which varies between approximately 22.1 and 24.5 degrees over a cycle of roughly 41,000 years, affecting the severity of seasonal temperature differences.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option (C). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 7 · multiple-choice
1 marks
At approximately which latitude is sinking air associated with dry, high-pressure desert belts found?
A.0 degrees (Equator)
B.30 degrees North and South
C.60 degrees North and South
D.90 degrees North and South only
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Sinking air from the Hadley and Ferrel atmospheric circulation cells creates zones of high pressure at approximately 30 degrees North and South of the Equator. This sinking air warms and dries, suppressing cloud formation and leading to desert climates.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option (B). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 8 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Why do many emergent and canopy trees in the tropical rainforest have large, flared buttress roots?
A.To store water during long, intense dry seasons.
B.To absorb nutrients deep within the underlying bedrock.
C.To support the heavy, tall trees in shallow, nutrient-poor soils.
D.To prevent the trees from absorbing too much surface water.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Tropical rainforest soils are highly leached and nutrients are concentrated in the very top layer. Buttress roots spread out widely to anchor and support extremely tall, heavy trees in these shallow, nutrient-poor soils.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option (C). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 9 · short_answer
2.45 marks
State two distinct differences between the physical characteristics of upland and lowland landscapes in the UK.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Upland landscapes in the UK, such as those in Scotland or Wales, are typically characterized by rugged, steep relief and resistant rocks (like granite). Lowland landscapes, such as East Anglia, feature flat or gently rolling relief and less resistant sedimentary rocks (like clay).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each valid difference identified, up to a maximum of 2.45 marks: Upland areas have steeper/more rugged relief, whereas lowland areas are flatter/gently rolling (1 mark). Upland areas are composed of harder igneous/metamorphic rocks, whereas lowland areas are composed of softer sedimentary rocks (1 mark).
Question 10 · short_answer
2.45 marks
Explain how constructive waves help to build up a beach.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Constructive waves are low in energy and have a strong swash which pushes sand and pebbles up the beach. Since their backwash is weak, they fail to pull the sediment back down into the sea, resulting in net deposition and the gradual accumulation of beach material.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for describing a wave characteristic (strong swash/weak backwash or low energy) and 1 mark for explaining the resulting deposition: Strong swash transports material up the beach (1 mark). Weak backwash cannot remove the material, leading to deposition (1 mark).
Question 11 · short_answer
2.45 marks
Explain the process of saltation as a method of river transport.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Saltation is a transport process where small pebbles and coarse sand particles are briefly lifted by the energy of the river flow and then dropped back to the bed. This creates a distinctive bouncing or hopping motion along the channel floor in the direction of the current.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for describing the movement (bouncing/hopping) and 1 mark for identifying what is being moved or the action of the water: Pebbles or small stones are bounced/hopped along the river bed (1 mark). This occurs because the water flow is strong enough to lift them temporarily but not support them continuously (1 mark).
Question 12 · short_answer
2.45 marks
Explain how rotational slip contributes to the formation of a corrie.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
As snow accumulates and turns to ice in a hillside hollow, the weight of the gravity-driven glacier causes it to move in a curved or rotational slip. This circular movement plucks rocks from the back wall and grinds them against the hollow floor (abrasion), deepening it into a bowl-shaped corrie.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for explaining rotational slip (curving/circular movement of ice due to gravity) and 1 mark for linking this movement to the erosion/deepening of the hollow: The ice moves in a rotational, circular way down the slope (1 mark). This movement abrades and plucks the rock, deepening the hollow (1 mark).
Question 13 · short_answer
2.45 marks
Explain how volcanic eruptions can cause short-term cooling of the global climate.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Major volcanic eruptions inject massive quantities of sulfur dioxide gas and ash into the stratosphere. The sulfur dioxide reacts with water vapour to produce highly reflective aerosol droplets. These aerosols, along with the ash, reflect incoming solar radiation back into space, reducing global temperatures.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying the material released (sulfur dioxide/aerosols/ash) and 1 mark for explaining the impact on solar radiation: Volcanic eruptions eject sulfur dioxide or ash high into the atmosphere (1 mark). These substances reflect sunlight/solar radiation back into space, reducing the heat reaching the Earth (1 mark).
Question 14 · short_answer
2.45 marks
Explain how sea surface temperatures influence the geographic distribution of tropical cyclones.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Tropical cyclones require sea surface temperatures of \(26.5^{\circ}\text{C}\) or higher to form. This high temperature provides the heat and moisture needed to fuel the storm. Consequently, tropical cyclones are only distributed within warm tropical and subtropical waters, generally between \(5^{\circ}\) and \(30^{\circ}\) north and south of the equator.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying the temperature threshold and 1 mark for linking this to their location: Sea surface temperatures must be at least 26.5\(^{\circ}\)C for cyclones to form (1 mark). This limits their distribution to warm tropical/subtropical oceans (1 mark).
Question 15 · short_answer
2.45 marks
Explain one way in which plants in the shrub layer of a tropical rainforest are adapted to low light levels.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
The dense upper canopy of the tropical rainforest intercepts most of the sunlight, leaving the shrub layer in deep shade. To adapt, plants here have evolved very large, broad leaves with a high surface area to intercept and capture as much of the scarce, filtered sunlight as possible for photosynthesis.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying an adaptation and 1 mark for explaining how it helps capture low light levels: Plants have very wide or large leaves (1 mark). This maximises the surface area to absorb the small amount of sunlight filtering through the canopy (1 mark).
Question 16 · short_answer
2.45 marks
State two differences between the nutrient cycle of a tropical rainforest and that of a temperate deciduous forest.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
In tropical rainforests, the hot and humid climate allows for rapid decomposition, meaning nutrients are quickly reabsorbed by plants, making the biomass store the largest and the litter store very small. In temperate deciduous forests, cooler temperatures slow down decomposition, resulting in a larger litter store and more nutrients remaining in the soil store.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each valid difference, up to a maximum of 2.45 marks: Decomposition is much faster in the tropical rainforest than in the temperate forest due to warmer/wetter conditions (1 mark). The biomass store is much larger in the rainforest, whereas the soil or litter store is relatively larger/more significant in the temperate forest (1 mark).
Question 17 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain one way in which commercial farming causes deforestation in tropical rainforests.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Commercial farming, such as cattle ranching or large-scale crop cultivation (e.g., palm oil, soy), requires vast amounts of land. To accommodate this, extensive areas of tropical rainforest are clear-cut or burned down (1 mark), resulting in permanent forest loss to establish agricultural pastures or fields (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a commercial farming activity/requirement and 1 mark for explaining how this leads to deforestation. E.g., Large areas of forest are cut down/cleared (1) to create space for grazing cattle/planting palm oil crops (1). Accept any other valid explanations.
Question 18 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain one way that ice cores provide evidence for climate change during the Quaternary period.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Ice cores are drilled from ice sheets and contain layers accumulated over hundreds of thousands of years. Within these layers are tiny bubbles of ancient atmosphere trapped when the snow fell (1 mark). By measuring the concentrations of greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide and isotopes of oxygen within these bubbles, scientists can determine the global temperature at the time the ice formed (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying how the evidence is preserved/extracted, and 1 mark for how it is analysed/what it shows. E.g., Ice cores contain trapped air bubbles from ancient atmospheres (1) which can be analysed to estimate past atmospheric carbon dioxide levels and temperatures (1). Accept other valid explanations.
Question 19 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain how discordant coastlines lead to the formation of headlands and bays.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
On discordant coastlines, bands of differing rock resistance run at right angles to the coastline. Marine erosion processes (such as hydraulic action and abrasion) erode the less resistant soft clay or sand more rapidly, creating recessed bays (1 mark). The more resistant hard rock (such as limestone or granite) erodes much more slowly, leaving them protruding out into the sea as headlands (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for explaining the geological structure/differential erosion, and 1 mark for linking this to the specific landform formation. E.g., Discordant coastlines have alternating bands of hard and soft rock at right angles to the coast (1). The softer rock erodes faster to form bays, leaving the harder rock sticking out as headlands (1). Accept other valid developments.
Question 20 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain how hydraulic action erodes a river bed and banks.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Hydraulic action is the sheer force of the moving water against the river banks and bed. When fast-flowing water enters cracks in the channel walls, it traps and compresses air inside them (1 mark). When the water pressure changes, the sudden expansion of this air shatters the surrounding rock, widening the cracks and causing fragments to break off (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the initial mechanism (water forcing/trapping air in cracks) and 1 mark for the consequence/development (compression/expansion causing rock to shatter). E.g., Water forces air into cracks in the river bed/banks (1). The air is compressed and expands, widening the cracks and breaking the rock apart (1). Accept other valid descriptions.
Question 21 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain how freeze-thaw weathering breaks down rock in glaciated upland areas.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
In glaciated uplands, temperatures frequently fluctuate around freezing. During warmer periods, meltwater flows into pre-existing cracks in the rock. When temperatures plunge below 0 degrees Celsius, this water freezes and expands in volume by approximately 9% (1 mark). This exerts immense outward pressure on the surrounding rock, widening the crack. Repeated cycles of freezing and thawing weaken the rock structure until fragments break off as scree (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying the water entry and freezing/expansion, and 1 mark for explaining the result of repeated freeze-thaw cycles. E.g., Water gets into cracks in the rock and expands when it freezes (1). Repeated freezing and thawing puts pressure on the rock, widening the cracks until it breaks apart (1).
Question 22 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain one way in which past tectonic activity has influenced the upland landscapes of the UK.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Millions of years ago, the UK experienced significant tectonic activity, including volcanic eruptions and plate collisions. This resulted in the formation of tough, highly resistant igneous and metamorphic rocks, such as granite and basalt (1 mark). Because these rocks are much harder than the surrounding sedimentary rocks, they have resisted weathering and erosion over geological time, remaining as the high-altitude upland areas we see today in places like Scotland and the Lake District (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying the tectonic product/process (e.g. igneous rock formation, folding) and 1 mark for linking it to the modern landscape characteristics (e.g. resistance to erosion, steep/high terrain). E.g., Volcanic activity formed tough igneous rocks like granite (1). These rocks resist erosion and weathered slowly, leaving high, mountainous landscapes (1).
Question 23 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain how the global atmospheric circulation system creates areas of high pressure at the poles.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
At the poles, the Earth receives very little solar radiation, causing temperatures to remain extremely low. This cold air is highly dense and therefore sinks towards the Earth's surface (1 mark). As the air continually descends, it exerts high pressure on the ground below and prevents air from rising, resulting in stable, dry, high-pressure zones known as polar high cells (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for explaining why the air sinks (cold, dense air), and 1 mark for linking the sinking air to the creation of high pressure on the surface. E.g., Cold air at the poles is dense and sinks towards the surface (1). This descending air exerts high pressure on the Earth's surface, preventing cloud formation (1).
Question 24 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain one way in which plants in deciduous woodlands are adapted to survive the winter season.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
During the winter, temperatures drop, sunlight hours decrease, and liquid water becomes scarce or frozen. Deciduous trees adapt by shedding their broad leaves in the autumn (1 mark). This process of abscission prevents excessive water loss through transpiration when the ground is frozen, and it also reduces the risk of heavy snow or high winds breaking the bare branches (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying the plant adaptation (shedding leaves/going dormant) and 1 mark for explaining how this helps survival (conserving water/preventing damage). E.g., Deciduous trees drop their leaves in autumn (1). This stops transpiration, conserving water when the soil is frozen in winter (1). Accept other valid adaptations, e.g., low-lying plants growing and flowering rapidly in spring before the tree canopy closes (1) to capture maximum sunlight (1).
Question 25 · Short Answer
2.45 marks
Explain one way in which the geological structure of the UK affects its landscape.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Igneous and metamorphic rocks are highly resistant to weathering and erosion. This means they remain as high ground, creating rugged, upland landscapes (such as in Scotland or Wales), whereas softer sedimentary rocks erode more easily to form lowland plains.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying an effect of geological structure (1) and a further 1 mark for explanation/expansion (1). For example: Resistant rocks like granite do not erode easily (1), leading to the formation of upland areas and mountains (1).
Question 26 · Short Answer
2.45 marks
Explain one way that destructive waves shape a coastline.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Destructive waves have a very strong backwash compared to their swash. This strong backwash erodes sediment from the beach and pulls it offshore, lowering the beach profile over time.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a characteristic/process of destructive waves (1) and a further 1 mark for explaining how this shapes the coast (1). For example: Destructive waves have a stronger backwash than swash (1), which removes sand and shingle from the beach, causing coastal erosion (1).
Question 27 · Short Answer
2.45 marks
Explain how lateral erosion leads to the formation of a river cliff.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
On the outside of a river bend (meander), the water flows fastest and has the most kinetic energy. This causes lateral erosion through hydraulic action and abrasion, which undercuts the outer bank and creates a steep river cliff.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying the process/location of erosion on the bend (1) and a further 1 mark for explaining how this creates the cliff (1). For example: Fast-flowing water on the outside of a bend erodes the bank (1), undercutting it to create a steep cliff face (1).
Question 28 · Short Answer
2.45 marks
Explain one way in which Milankovitch cycles cause climate change.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
One Milankovitch cycle is eccentricity, which is the change in the shape of Earth's orbit from circular to elliptical over a 100,000-year cycle. When the orbit is more elliptical, the Earth is further from the sun for parts of the year, reducing solar radiation and cooling the global climate.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a Milankovitch cycle (eccentricity, obliquity, or precession) (1) and a further 1 mark for explaining how it changes the climate (1). For example: Eccentricity changes the shape of Earth's orbit from circular to elliptical (1), which alters the amount of solar radiation reaching the Earth and causes global cooling or warming (1).
Question 29 · Short Answer
2.45 marks
Explain one way that deforestation disrupts the nutrient cycle in a tropical rainforest.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Deforestation removes the forest canopy and trees, meaning there are no falling leaves to create a litter layer. Without a decomposing litter layer, fewer nutrients are returned to the soil, causing the soil to quickly become infertile.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a disruption to a component of the nutrient cycle (1) and a further 1 mark for explaining the consequence of this disruption (1). For example: Cutting down trees removes the source of leaf litter (1), which stops nutrients being returned to the soil and disrupts the cycle (1).
Question 30 · Short Answer
2.45 marks
Explain how freeze-thaw weathering contributes to the formation of scree slopes in glaciated landscapes.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Water enters joints and cracks in the exposed rock face on a mountain side. When temperatures drop below freezing, the water expands by about nine percent, exerting pressure on the rock; repeated cycles of this freeze-thaw action cause rock fragments to shatter off and accumulate at the base of the slope as scree.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for explaining how freeze-thaw shatters the rock (1) and a further 1 mark for explaining how this forms scree (1). For example: Water freezes and expands in rock cracks, causing rock fragments to break off (1), which then fall to the bottom of the slope under gravity to accumulate as a scree slope (1).
Question 31 · Extended Essay
8 marks
Assess the view that soft engineering strategies are a more sustainable way of managing coastal erosion than hard engineering strategies.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Soft engineering works with natural processes to manage erosion. Examples include beach nourishment (adding sand to beaches to absorb wave energy) and sand dune regeneration (planting marram grass to stabilize dunes). These methods are sustainable because they are relatively cheap, preserve the natural landscape, benefit local tourism, and do not cause severe negative impacts downdrift. However, they require ongoing maintenance, can be easily destroyed in severe storms, and do not guarantee protection for critical infrastructure. In contrast, hard engineering involves building physical barriers (e.g., concrete sea walls, rock armour, groynes). These are highly effective at stopping erosion in the short to medium term and provide immediate confidence to residents and investors in high-value coastal areas. However, they are unsustainable in the long term because they are extremely expensive to build and maintain, disrupt natural ecosystems, look visually intrusive, and often accelerate erosion further down the coast (downdrift) by stopping the supply of sediment. In conclusion, while soft engineering is far more sustainable environmentally and economically for low-value land, high-value urban coastlines still rely heavily on hard engineering, suggesting that a combination of both is often the most practical and sustainable approach.
Marking scheme
AO2 (4 marks): Candidates demonstrate knowledge and understanding of different hard and soft engineering coastal management strategies and their respective impacts. AO3 (4 marks): Candidates evaluate the sustainability (economic, social, environmental) of both approaches, drawing a balanced and justified conclusion. Level 1 (1-3 marks): Demonstrates isolated knowledge of coastal management. Explanations are descriptive and unstructured. Level 2 (4-6 marks): Demonstrates logical understanding of hard and soft engineering with clear explanations of their advantages and disadvantages. Shows a balanced comparison but may lack a fully justified conclusion. Level 3 (7-8 marks): Demonstrates detailed, comprehensive understanding. Offers a well-constructed argument assessing sustainability across economic, social, and environmental factors, concluding with a fully justified judgment.
Question 32 · Extended Essay
8 marks
Assess the extent to which the impacts of a tropical cyclone are determined by a country's level of development.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Development level directly influences a country's capacity to prepare for, respond to, and recover from a tropical cyclone. Emerging or developing countries (e.g., the Philippines during Typhoon Haiyan) often suffer catastrophic social impacts, including high death tolls, due to substandard housing, lack of robust early warning systems, limited evacuation infrastructure, and poor medical response. Economic impacts can destroy a massive percentage of their GDP, leading to long-term dependency on international aid. Conversely, developed countries (e.g., the USA during Hurricane Katrina) usually experience much lower loss of life because they have sophisticated meteorological forecasting, mandatory evacuation plans, and resilient, hazard-resistant infrastructure. However, their economic losses can be far higher in absolute terms due to the high density of expensive real estate and infrastructure. Furthermore, physical factors can sometimes overwhelm even the most developed nations. For example, extreme category 5 winds, devastating storm surges, and low-lying coastal geography (such as New Orleans being below sea level) can bypass defenses and cause massive destruction regardless of a country's wealth. In conclusion, while physical intensity sets the potential hazard, development level is the single most critical factor determining the human cost and the long-term resilience of a population.
Marking scheme
AO2 (4 marks): Candidates demonstrate knowledge of the impacts of tropical cyclones using named case studies and explain how level of development influences preparedness, response, and recovery. AO3 (4 marks): Candidates evaluate the relative importance of human factors (development) compared to physical factors (intensity, storm surge, topography) in determining overall impact. Level 1 (1-3 marks): Identifies basic impacts of a tropical cyclone. Response is descriptive and lacks a comparison between countries at different stages of development. Level 2 (4-6 marks): Explains how development affects impacts, using some case study detail (e.g., Typhoon Haiyan vs Hurricane Katrina). There is a balanced discussion, but physical factors may be neglected. Level 3 (7-8 marks): Formulates a sophisticated, balanced argument that clearly assesses both development and physical factors. Uses precise case study facts to support a logical, well-supported conclusion.
Question 33 · Extended Essay
8 marks
For a tropical rainforest you have studied, assess the effectiveness of global and local strategies used to manage it sustainably.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
In a studied rainforest, such as the Amazon, managing deforestation requires action at multiple scales. Global strategies include agreements like CITES (restricting trade in endangered species) and international timber certifications (FSC), which reduce global demand for illegally logged hardwoods. Debt-for-nature swaps (where high-income countries write off debt in exchange for conservation commitments) provide significant funding. However, global strategies can be difficult to police, rely on voluntary cooperation, and may be undermined by corruption or shifts in national political priorities. Local strategies are more direct. Ecotourism provides income for local indigenous communities, incentivizing them to keep the forest standing. Selective logging (only cutting mature trees and leaving the canopy intact) preserves biodiversity and allows the forest to regenerate. Agroforestry combines crops with forest trees, maintaining soil fertility. These local strategies are highly effective because they meet the immediate economic needs of local people, reducing their pressure to clear land for cattle ranching or soy farming. However, local strategies are often small-scale and struggle to compete with the massive profits offered by illegal logging and commercial agriculture. In conclusion, local strategies are highly effective on the ground but must be supported by the overarching funding, policy, and market demand reduction provided by global initiatives to achieve true sustainability.
Marking scheme
AO2 (4 marks): Candidates demonstrate knowledge of global and local management strategies within a named tropical rainforest ecosystem. AO3 (4 marks): Candidates analyze and evaluate the effectiveness and limitations of these strategies, forming a balanced and justified judgment. Level 1 (1-3 marks): Descriptive account of basic management strategies. Mentions of global/local are vague with little or no reference to a named rainforest. Level 2 (4-6 marks): Explains both global and local strategies with some reference to a named ecosystem. Evaluates their effectiveness with some structure, but may favor one scale over the other. Level 3 (7-8 marks): Detailed, structured evaluation of both global and local strategies using precise case study knowledge. Reaches a clear, logical, and nuanced conclusion about how the two scales interact to create sustainable management.
Question 34 · Extended Essay
8 marks
Assess the relative importance of physical factors compared to human activities in causing river flooding.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Physical factors are the primary natural triggers of river flooding. Intense, short-duration rainfall can quickly saturate soil, leading to rapid surface runoff and high peak discharge (flash flooding). Similarly, prolonged rainfall saturates the ground over time, elevating the water table. Physical landscape features like impermeable igneous rock geology, steep valley sides (which accelerate runoff), and small, circular drainage basins also inherently increase flood risk. Human activities, however, alter these natural processes. Deforestation removes the vegetation canopy that normally intercepts rainfall, increases surface runoff, and causes soil erosion, which fills river channels and reduces their capacity. Urbanization covers natural floodplains with impermeable tarmac and concrete, while storm drains quickly channel rainwater directly into rivers, vastly reducing lag time. Additionally, human-induced climate change is increasing the frequency of extreme weather events and intense rainfall. In conclusion, physical factors determine the baseline vulnerability of a drainage basin and provide the water inputs required to cause a flood. However, human activities have dramatically amplified this natural risk by altering land use and atmospheric conditions, making human actions a critical and growing driver of modern flooding events.
Marking scheme
AO2 (4 marks): Candidates demonstrate knowledge and understanding of physical causes of flooding (e.g., rainfall, geology, relief) and human causes (e.g., urbanization, deforestation). AO3 (4 marks): Candidates evaluate the relative importance of these factors, establishing how they interact to cause flooding. Level 1 (1-3 marks): Identifies simple physical or human causes of flooding. Explanations are basic and lack structure. Level 2 (4-6 marks): Explains both physical and human causes of flooding clearly, using appropriate geographical terminology. Shows a balanced comparison but may lack a strong concluding judgment. Level 3 (7-8 marks): Demonstrates detailed and comprehensive understanding of the hydrological cycle and basin factors. Evaluates the relative importance and interaction of human and physical causes, culminating in a logical, well-justified conclusion.
Paper 2: Human Environment
Answer all questions in Sections A and B. In Section C, answer Question 3 (compulsory) and choose either Question 4 (Energy) or Question 5 (Water).
38 Question · 84.95999999999998 marks
Question 1 · mcq
1 marks
Which of the following is the most accurate definition of suburbanisation?
A.The movement of people from rural areas into the centre of major cities.
B.The outward growth of urban areas as people move from the inner city to the edge of the city.
C.The rehabilitation and redevelopment of deteriorated inner-city areas.
D.The movement of people out of cities altogether into surrounding rural areas.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Suburbanisation is defined as the outward growth of urban areas as people migrate from inner-city residential zones to the edge of the city (suburbs), where they can often find larger homes and more open space.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct option (b). All other options represent different geographical processes (a is urbanisation, c is gentrification/redevelopment, d is counter-urbanisation).
Question 2 · mcq
1 marks
Which of the following is typically a major cause of rapid urban growth in developing countries' megacities, such as Mumbai or Lagos?
A.High rates of counter-urbanisation driven by elderly retirees.
B.Low rates of natural increase due to aging populations.
C.High rates of rural-to-urban migration combined with high rates of natural increase.
D.Massive industrial decline causing depopulation in suburbs.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Rapid urban growth in developing cities is primarily driven by a combination of high rates of rural-to-urban migration (pushed by rural poverty and pulled by urban jobs) and a high rate of natural increase (young populations migrating and having children).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct option (c). Other options do not reflect the physical or demographic realities of developing megacities.
Question 3 · mcq
1 marks
According to Rostow's model of economic growth, which stage is characterised by the rapid growth of manufacturing and the introduction of modern technology?
A.Stage 1: The traditional society
B.Stage 3: Take-off
C.Stage 5: Age of high mass consumption
D.Stage 2: Preconditions for take-off
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Stage 3 of Rostow's model is 'Take-off'. During this stage, industrialisation begins to increase rapidly, manufacturing sectors grow, and technological breakthroughs occur, shifting the economy away from primary agriculture.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct option (b). Stage 1 is dominated by primary activities, Stage 2 sets up preconditions, and Stage 5 is high mass consumption.
Question 4 · mcq
1 marks
Identify which combination of indicators is used to calculate the UN's Human Development Index (HDI).
A.GNI per capita, life expectancy at birth, and average years of schooling.
B.GDP per capita, infant mortality rate, and literacy rate.
C.GNI per capita, carbon emissions per capita, and happy planet index.
D.Access to clean water, calorie intake, and number of doctors per 1000 people.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index that measures three key dimensions: health (life expectancy at birth), education (mean and expected years of schooling), and living standards (GNI per capita).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct option (a). Options b, c, and d include elements like infant mortality, happy planet index, or calorie intake which are not parts of the formal HDI calculation.
Question 5 · mcq
1 marks
Which of the following best describes the term 'resource consumption'?
A.The total amount of natural resources exported by a nation.
B.The speed at which non-renewable resources are naturally replenished.
C.The process of extracting resources from deep underground mines.
D.The use of natural resources such as water, energy, and food by a population.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Resource consumption refers directly to the way populations use natural resources such as water, energy, food, and minerals to meet their daily needs and fuel economic activities.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct option (d). Option a refers to trade, option b refers to natural replenishment, and option c refers to resource extraction.
Question 6 · mcq
1 marks
Which of the following is a non-renewable energy source?
A.Biomass
B.Geothermal
C.Natural gas
D.Wind
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Natural gas is a fossil fuel. It takes millions of years to form from organic remains and is consumed much faster than it can reform, making it a finite, non-renewable source of energy.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct option (c). Biomass, geothermal, and wind are all renewable energy sources.
Question 7 · mcq
1 marks
What is meant by the term 'water stress'?
A.When the demand for water exceeds the available supply during a certain period or when its quality limits its use.
B.The movement of water through the hydrological cycle under high pressure.
C.The high concentration of industrial pollutants found in freshwater reservoirs.
D.When water is transported from areas of surplus to areas of deficit.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Water stress occurs when the demand for water exceeds the available volume during a specific period, or when its poor quality restricts its usage for human and ecological needs.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct option (a). Option b describes physical movement/pressure, option c is pollution definition, and option d is water transfer.
Question 8 · mcq
1 marks
Which of the following is a key 'pull factor' driving re-urbanisation in UK cities?
A.High rates of traffic congestion and noise pollution in central areas.
B.High land values and expensive housing options in urban centres.
C.Redevelopment of brownfield sites with modern apartments and leisure facilities.
D.The relocation of major offices and factories to remote rural business parks.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Re-urbanisation is the movement of people back into city centres. The redevelopment of old derelict brownfield sites into trendy apartments, offices, and leisure venues acts as a major pull factor for young professionals and couples.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct option (c). Options a and b are push factors away from urban areas, and option d would encourage suburbanisation or counter-urbanisation.
Question 9 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following is a pull factor that has led to suburbanisation in UK cities?
A.High traffic congestion and air pollution in inner-city areas.
B.The loss of traditional manufacturing jobs in the central business district.
C.The perception of a safer environment and larger homes with gardens on the city edge.
D.The high cost of land and rental values in central urban zones.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Suburbanisation is the outward growth of urban areas as people move from the inner city to the suburbs. A 'pull' factor is a positive aspect that attracts people to a new area. Larger homes with gardens and a perceived safer, quieter environment are key pull factors of the suburbs. Traffic congestion, job loss, and high land costs are 'push' factors that drive people away from central urban areas.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying the correct pull factor (c). All other options represent push factors from central urban zones.
Question 10 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite measure of development. Which of the following indicators is used to calculate HDI?
A.Infant mortality rate
B.Life expectancy at birth
C.Percentage of the workforce in agriculture
D.Carbon dioxide emissions per capita
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
The Human Development Index (HDI) is a combined social and economic measure of development. It is calculated using three main dimensions: health (measured by life expectancy at birth), education (measured by mean and expected years of schooling), and living standards (measured by Gross National Income per capita at purchasing power parity).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct answer (b). Other options are separate physical, social, or economic indicators but are not components of the official UN Human Development Index calculation.
Question 11 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one reason why suburbanisation has occurred in major UK cities.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
One mark is awarded for a valid reason for suburbanisation, with a second mark awarded for explaining how this enables people to move. For example, improved public transport links (1 mark) allow people to easily commute to city centre offices while living in cheaper, quieter suburban areas (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a valid reason (e.g. transport, cheaper housing, cleaner environment) and 1 mark for explanation of how it drives suburbanisation, up to a maximum of 2 marks.
Question 12 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Suggest one negative economic impact of deindustrialisation on UK cities.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
One mark is awarded for identifying a negative economic impact of deindustrialisation, and a second mark is awarded for explaining its consequences. For example, job losses in manufacturing (1 mark) mean residents have less money to spend, causing local shops and services to close (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a negative economic impact (e.g. job losses, reduced investment) and 1 mark for explanation of its knock-on economic effects, up to a maximum of 2 marks.
Question 13 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
State one reason why death rates decrease in Stage 2 of the Demographic Transition Model (DTM).
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
One mark is awarded for identifying a factor that reduces death rates, and a second mark is awarded for explaining its impact. For example, access to clean drinking water (1 mark) prevents diseases like cholera, which dramatically decreases child mortality rates (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a valid reason for falling death rates (e.g. healthcare, food supply, sanitation) and 1 mark for describing its effect on mortality, up to a maximum of 2 marks.
Question 14 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one way that membership of international trade blocs can promote economic development.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
One mark is awarded for explaining how trade blocs function to ease trade, and a second mark is awarded for connecting this to economic development. For example, member nations can trade freely without paying import tariffs (1 mark), which increases export volumes and creates more jobs in manufacturing (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a feature of trade blocs (e.g. no tariffs, shared standards) and 1 mark for explaining how this leads to economic growth or development, up to a maximum of 2 marks.
Question 15 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one reason why global food consumption is rising.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
One mark is awarded for identifying a driver of rising food consumption, and a second mark is awarded for explaining its impact. For example, rapid global population growth (1 mark) increases the sheer volume of food demand globally (1 mark). Alternatively, rising incomes (1 mark) allow people to buy more food, particularly meat (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a valid driver (e.g. population growth, rising disposable income, urbanisation) and 1 mark for explaining how it increases food consumption, up to a maximum of 2 marks.
Question 16 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
State one environmental impact of transferring water over long distances through large-scale pipelines.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
One mark is awarded for identifying an environmental impact of water transfer pipelines, and a second mark is awarded for explaining how this affects ecosystems. For example, building long pipelines fragments habitats (1 mark), which prevents land animals from migrating safely to find food or mates (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a valid environmental impact (e.g. habitat destruction, loss of biodiversity, altered river flows) and 1 mark for explaining the ecological consequence, up to a maximum of 2 marks.
Question 17 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one reason why some countries continue to rely on coal for electricity generation despite its environmental impacts.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
One mark is awarded for identifying a reason for continued coal reliance, and a second mark is awarded for explaining the economic or practical constraint. For example, coal is a very cheap and reliable energy source (1 mark), making it financially difficult for developing countries to shut down existing plants and invest in expensive renewable alternatives (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a reason (e.g. cheap, abundant, existing infrastructure, reliable base-load energy) and 1 mark for explaining why this makes transitioning away difficult or unattractive, up to a maximum of 2 marks.
Question 18 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Suggest one reason why agricultural pollution can lead to water insecurity.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
One mark is awarded for identifying a type of agricultural pollution or process, and a second mark is awarded for explaining how this leads to a lack of clean water. For example, chemical fertilizers leach into rivers and cause massive algae blooms (1 mark), which depletes oxygen and makes the water unsafe to drink, reducing the clean water supply (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying agricultural pollution (e.g. pesticide run-off, animal waste, fertilizer eutrophication) and 1 mark for explaining how this reduces the availability of clean, usable water, up to a maximum of 2 marks.
Question 19 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one reason why major UK cities have experienced a rise in suburbanisation in recent decades.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Suburbanisation is often driven by pull factors from the rural-urban fringe, such as lower crime rates, cleaner air, and larger housing with gardens (1 mark). This attracts affluent families who want a better quality of life but can still commute to the city for work (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for a valid reason for suburbanisation (e.g. cheaper land, larger properties, safer environment, lower pollution levels) and 1 mark for explaining how this leads to suburbanisation (e.g. making it highly attractive to growing families who can commute back to the city for work).
Question 20 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one environmental challenge caused by rapid urbanization in a named developing or emerging city.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
In rapidly growing cities like Mumbai, waste disposal infrastructure cannot keep up with population growth (1 mark). This results in large volumes of untreated sewage and industrial waste flowing into local water bodies, causing severe water pollution and harming aquatic ecosystems (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying an environmental challenge (e.g. water pollution, air pollution from traffic, loss of green space) and 1 mark for explaining its cause or impact (e.g. because municipal waste services cannot cope with the sheer volume of waste generated by the rapidly increasing population).
Question 21 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one political cause of uneven global development.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Political instability or corruption can lead to the diversion of national funds away from public services (1 mark). This discourages foreign direct investment and limits the development of vital infrastructure such as healthcare and education, keeping the country economically poor (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a political cause (e.g. government corruption, civil war, poor governance, colonial legacy) and 1 mark for explaining how this limits development (e.g. leading to a lack of investment in infrastructure and services which prevents economic growth).
Question 22 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one way that fair trade can help reduce the development gap.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Fair trade guarantees small-scale producers a stable minimum price for their goods (1 mark). This provides them with a secure income and a premium that can be reinvested in local schools, healthcare, and infrastructure, boosting the community's quality of life (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying how fair trade operates (e.g. guaranteed minimum price, paying a social premium) and 1 mark for explaining how this helps reduce the development gap (e.g. enabling farmers to invest in education and healthcare, improving local living standards).
Question 23 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one way in which rising global wealth increases the demand for resources.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
An increase in personal wealth leads to a growing middle class with higher disposable income (1 mark). This results in a higher demand for energy-intensive goods like cars, refrigerators, and electronics, which significantly drives up the demand for fossil fuels and minerals (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for a link between rising wealth and consumer behavior (e.g. buying more electronic goods, eating more resource-intensive meat, purchasing cars) and 1 mark for explaining the impact on resource demand (e.g. which increases the manufacturing demand for raw minerals and fossil fuels).
Question 24 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one way in which human activity can cause water pollution.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Agriculture heavily uses synthetic fertilizers and pesticides (1 mark). During heavy rainfall, these chemicals are washed off fields into nearby streams and lakes, causing nutrient enrichment (eutrophication) which depletes oxygen and kills aquatic life (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a human activity that pollutes water (e.g. agricultural runoff, industrial waste disposal, untreated sewage release) and 1 mark for explaining the polluting mechanism or impact (e.g. leading to eutrophication which kills fish and destroys aquatic ecosystems).
Question 25 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one economic factor that affects the exploitation of energy resources.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
The financial cost of extraction technologies, such as deep-sea drilling or hydraulic fracturing, is very high (1 mark). If global oil or gas prices fall below a certain level, extracting these resources is no longer economically viable, leading companies to halt projects (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying an economic factor (e.g. cost of extraction technology, global market price of energy, investment capital available) and 1 mark for explaining how this affects exploitation (e.g. meaning that resources are only extracted when energy prices are high enough to ensure a profit).
Question 26 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one reason why some countries experience physical water scarcity.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Physical water scarcity occurs when the natural climate of a region has low levels of rainfall and high rates of evaporation (1 mark). This results in insufficient freshwater resources in rivers and aquifers to meet the basic needs of the local population (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a physical/climatic cause (e.g. low annual precipitation, high temperatures causing rapid evaporation, lack of permanent rivers) and 1 mark for explaining how this leads to scarcity (e.g. meaning that groundwater aquifers and surface reservoirs are not adequately replenished, leaving insufficient water for demand).
Question 27 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
State two reasons why many UK cities experienced deindustrialisation in the second half of the 20th century.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Award 1 mark for each valid reason stated, up to a maximum of 2 marks. Valid reasons include: Global shift / competition from abroad (1); Cheaper labour costs in other countries (1); Mechanisation / automation / technological advances (1); Exhaustion of local raw materials (1); Rise of the service sector / tertiary industry (1).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each identified reason, up to a maximum of 2 marks. Do not accept vague answers like 'factories closed' without an explaining factor.
Question 28 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one way that urban green spaces can improve the quality of life for people living in major cities.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Award 1 mark for identifying a way urban green spaces improve quality of life, and 1 mark for an explanatory development of this point. For example: Green spaces provide safe areas for outdoor recreation and sports (1), which helps to reduce obesity rates and improve physical health (1). Alternatively: Trees and vegetation help filter out air pollutants (1), which reduces respiratory illnesses like asthma for local residents (1).
Marking scheme
1 mark for identifying a relevant pathway/benefit of green space. 1 mark for explaining how this directly leads to an improved quality of life (physical, mental, or environmental).
Question 29 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one push factor that leads to rapid rural-to-urban migration in emerging countries.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Award 1 mark for identifying a valid push factor, and 1 mark for explaining how this factor drives people to migrate. For example: Low crop yields/agricultural failure (1), which means families cannot earn enough income or grow enough food to survive, forcing them to leave (1). Alternatively: A lack of basic services like healthcare and high schools (1), which drives families to move away in search of better life chances (1).
Marking scheme
1 mark for identifying a valid rural push factor (e.g. natural disasters, lack of jobs, poor services). 1 mark for explaining how this factor acts as a driver to force people away from rural areas.
Question 30 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain why Gross National Income (GNI) per capita may not give an accurate picture of the quality of life in a country.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Award 1 mark for identifying a limitation of GNI per capita, and 1 mark for explaining how this affects its accuracy in representing quality of life. For example: GNI per capita is a mean average (1), which masks high levels of wealth inequality within the population (1). Alternatively: GNI per capita only measures economic output (1), meaning it ignores social aspects of quality of life such as access to healthcare, education, or freedom of speech (1).
Marking scheme
1 mark for identifying a specific limitation of GNI per capita (e.g., average figure, ignores social factors, ignores informal economy). 1 mark for explaining how this distorts or fails to capture the actual quality of life.
Question 31 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
State two reasons why death rates fall rapidly during Stage 2 of the Demographic Transition Model (DTM).
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Award 1 mark for each valid reason stated, up to a maximum of 2 marks. Valid reasons include: Improved healthcare / access to hospitals / vaccinations (1); Improved sanitation / cleaner drinking water / better sewage disposal (1); Improved food production / higher crop yields / better transport of food (1); Reduction in infant mortality rates (1).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each valid, distinct reason, up to a maximum of 2 marks. Accept any reasonable factors related to medicine, sanitation, food, or infrastructure.
Question 32 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one disadvantage of receiving tied aid for a developing country.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Award 1 mark for identifying a disadvantage of tied aid, and 1 mark for explaining its impact on the developing country. For example: The aid must be spent on goods and services from the donor country (1), which might be more expensive than sourcing them locally, reducing the real value of the aid (1). Alternatively: It can prevent the development of local industries (1) because the recipient country is forced to import goods and technical expertise rather than training and employing local people (1).
Marking scheme
1 mark for identifying a key feature of tied aid that is disadvantageous. 1 mark for explaining the negative consequence/impact of this feature on the recipient country.
Question 33 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one reason why the demand for water is increasing in some regions of the UK.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Award 1 mark for identifying a reason for increasing water demand, and 1 mark for explaining how this increases water consumption. For example: The UK's population is growing, particularly in the South East (1), which increases the sheer number of domestic users and household appliances demanding water (1). Alternatively: Rising personal wealth (1) has led to an increase in the use of water-intensive appliances like dishwashers, power showers, and garden sprinklers (1).
Marking scheme
1 mark for identifying a factor driving demand (e.g., population growth, wealth/appliances, industrial demand). 1 mark for explaining how this translates into higher water usage.
Question 34 · Short Answer
2.04 marks
Explain one disadvantage of relying on wind power as a primary source of electricity.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Award 1 mark for identifying a disadvantage of wind power, and 1 mark for explaining why this is a challenge for energy management. For example: Wind is an intermittent energy source (1), which means electricity cannot be generated on calm days, requiring backup power sources to prevent blackouts (1). Alternatively: Wind turbines can cause visual and noise pollution (1), leading to local opposition (NIMBYism) when planning new wind farms near residential areas (1).
Marking scheme
1 mark for identifying a valid disadvantage (e.g. intermittency, high setup cost, aesthetic impact, wildlife threat). 1 mark for explaining why this disadvantage is a significant issue or limitation.
Question 35 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain one reason why major cities in the UK have experienced counter-urbanisation in recent decades.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Counter-urbanisation is the movement of people out of cities to rural areas or smaller towns. One key driver is the desire for a better quality of life. For instance, families often wish to escape the air pollution and traffic congestion associated with large UK cities like London or Birmingham (1). This drives them to relocate to rural areas where they can enjoy cleaner air, larger green spaces, and often cheaper housing (1). Alternatively, technological advancements such as high-speed broadband and remote working mean that people no longer need to live close to city-centre offices (1), allowing them to commute less and live in quieter rural environments (1).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a valid reason (push factor from cities or pull factor to rural areas/suburbs) (AO1), and a further 1 mark for explaining how this causes counter-urbanisation (AO2).
Example responses: - House prices in cities are very high (1), which encourages people to move to rural areas where they can get larger properties for their money (1). - Improved technology allows remote working (1), meaning employees do not need to live near city-centre offices and can move to rural villages (1). - Urban environments suffer from high noise and air pollution (1), prompting families to move to the countryside for a cleaner, healthier lifestyle (1).
Question 36 · essay
8 marks
For a named major city in a developing or emerging country, assess the success of one or more strategies used to improve the quality of life for its residents.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Case study: Rio de Janeiro (Favela-Bairro Project). Strategies included: Paving roads, installing drainage systems, securing hillsides to prevent landslides, and building new health and educational facilities. Successes (AO2/AO3): Improved health outcomes due to clean water and sewage infrastructure, reduced landslide fatalities, increased property values, and formal recognition of favela businesses. Failures/Limitations (AO2/AO3): High cost meant not all favelas were reached; newly built infrastructure was poorly maintained due to budget cuts; rent increases priced out the poorest residents, forcing them to move to outer-suburb informal settlements. In conclusion, while the project significantly improved living conditions for hundreds of thousands, it did not fully solve the underlying housing and poverty crises.
Marking scheme
Level 1 (1-3 marks): Demonstrates isolated knowledge/understanding of urban strategies. Points are descriptive with little or no assessment of success. Level 2 (4-6 marks): Demonstrates good geographical understanding of the strategies used. Offers some assessment/evaluation of successes and failures, supported by some case study detail. Level 3 (7-8 marks): Demonstrates detailed, accurate geographical understanding. Evaluates a range of successes and limitations in detail, with a balanced, well-supported conclusion that directly addresses the 'quality of life' aspect of the question.
Question 37 · essay
8 marks
For a named emerging or developing country, assess the social and economic benefits of top-down development strategies compared to bottom-up development strategies.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Case study: India. Top-down strategy (Narmada River Dams): Designed to provide hydroelectric power and massive irrigation. Economic benefits: Powers industries, increases crop yields through large-scale irrigation. Social impacts: Displaced over 300,000 tribal people, losing their ancestral lands with minimal compensation. Bottom-up strategy (Astra biogas digesters): Local scale, cheap technology converting cow dung to gas. Economic benefits: Free cooking gas saves money and reduces fuel-gathering time, allowing women to pursue crafts or education. Social benefits: Cleaner air inside homes reduces respiratory illnesses, and it uses local skills. Evaluation: Top-down strategies stimulate national GDP and industrial growth but often marginalize the poorest. Bottom-up strategies provide immediate, sustainable social and economic improvements at a local level, but do not generate the national-scale infrastructure required for rapid economic transition. A combination of both is essential.
Marking scheme
Level 1 (1-3 marks): Descriptive account of top-down and/or bottom-up strategies. Limited comparison or assessment of benefits. Level 2 (4-6 marks): Explains both strategies with reference to a named country. Compares the social and economic impacts of both, showing some assessment of their relative merits. Level 3 (7-8 marks): Detailed, balanced comparative assessment of both strategies using a specific country context. Reaches a clear, justified conclusion about their relative benefits and limitations for national vs. local development.
Question 38 · essay
8 marks
For a named country, assess the success of national strategies used to manage energy resources sustainably.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Case study: Germany (Energiewende). Strategies: Phase out nuclear power by 2022, phase out coal by 2038, and transition to 80% renewable electricity by 2050. Successes (AO2/AO3): Rapid expansion of wind and solar capacity, which now supply over 40% of electricity; creation of thousands of green jobs; reduction in carbon emissions. Failures/Limitations (AO2/AO3): Phasing out nuclear early forced a temporary reliance on lignite coal for grid stability; high feed-in tariffs increased electricity costs for consumers; grid storage is insufficient, necessitating imported energy during windless periods. In conclusion, Germany has shown immense progress in renewable capacity, but the speed of the transition has compromised economic efficiency and short-term carbon reduction targets.
Marking scheme
Level 1 (1-3 marks): Identifies some renewable or non-renewable energy strategies with limited detail. Little or no assessment of sustainability or success. Level 2 (4-6 marks): Explains specific national strategies with relevant country details. Assesses both positive and negative aspects of the energy policy. Level 3 (7-8 marks): Fully detailed evaluation of a national energy policy's success. Critically balances achievements against ongoing economic, environmental, or political challenges, concluding with a clear, justified judgment.
Paper 3: Geographical Investigations
Answer either Question 1 or 2 in Section A (Physical Fieldwork), either Question 3 or 4 in Section B (Human Fieldwork), and all questions in Section C (UK Challenges).
23 Question · 59.97999999999999 marks
Question 1 · MCQ
1.5 marks
During a physical geography river investigation, a group of students want to measure bedload size across the channel width. They decide to stretch a tape measure across the river and select a pebble to measure at every 20 cm interval. Identify the type of sampling method they are using.
A.Stratified sampling
B.Random sampling
C.Systematic sampling
D.Opportunistic sampling
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Systematic sampling is a method where samples are chosen at regular, pre-determined intervals (such as every 20 cm along a transect line). This ensures an even distribution of sample points across the channel width.
Marking scheme
Award 1.5 marks for the correct answer (C).
Question 2 · MCQ
1.5 marks
A student group is investigating how environmental quality changes with distance from a city centre. They collect environmental quality index (EQI) scores at 12 distinct sites at varying distances from the central point. Identify which presentation method would be most appropriate to show the relationship between distance and EQI score.
A.Pie chart
B.Scatter graph
C.Radial diagram
D.Proportional symbol map
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
A scatter graph is the most appropriate technique for displaying the relationship (correlation) between two sets of continuous data: distance from the city centre (independent variable) and EQI score (dependent variable).
Marking scheme
Award 1.5 marks for the correct answer (B).
Question 3 · Short Answer
1.61 marks
State one advantage of using a digital flow meter rather than a float (such as an orange peel) to measure river velocity.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Digital flow meters are designed to measure water velocity at a specific depth (usually at 60% of the total depth, where average velocity occurs). In contrast, floats only measure the surface velocity, which is often affected by wind speed and friction from surface debris. Additionally, flow meters eliminate human stopwatch timing errors.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a valid advantage (e.g. more accurate, measures below the surface, reduces human timing error, not affected by wind) and 0.61 mark for explanation/expansion (e.g. because surface floats can be blown by the wind, leading to inaccurate readings).
Question 4 · Short Answer
1.61 marks
Explain one reason why it is important to take multiple beach profile measurements along a stretch of coastline.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Coastal environments are highly dynamic and exhibit spatial variation. Taking multiple profiles ensures that the data collected is representative of the wider coastline rather than an anomaly. For example, some areas may be protected by groynes, trapping sediment and creating wider beaches, while other areas down-drift experience higher erosion rates.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a valid reason (e.g. to identify spatial variation, to make data representative, to see the effect of coastal management). Award 0.61 mark for explaining why this is important (e.g. because a single profile might be an anomaly or located near a groyne, so multiple profiles ensure a more reliable conclusion about the coastal processes).
Question 5 · Short Answer
1.61 marks
Suggest one way to reduce subjectivity when carrying out an Environmental Quality Survey (EQS) in an urban area.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Environmental Quality Surveys rely on personal opinion, which makes them subjective. By creating a standardized, descriptive rubric (e.g., defining exactly what a score of '1' vs. '5' looks like for litter) and averaging the scores of several group members, researchers can significantly reduce individual bias and improve the reliability of the data.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a valid method to reduce subjectivity (e.g., using a standardised grading rubric, working in groups to average scores, training students beforehand). Award 0.61 mark for explaining how this reduces bias or improves reliability (e.g., by ensuring everyone uses the exact same criteria rather than personal opinions).
Question 6 · Short Answer
1.61 marks
Identify one reason why stratified sampling might be preferred over random sampling when choosing residents to interview about rural services.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Stratified sampling divides the target population into subgroups (strata), such as age bands or socio-economic backgrounds, and then samples from each subgroup in proportion to its size in the population. This prevents smaller, yet significant, groups from being completely missed, which could easily happen with a purely random sample.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a reason (e.g., representation of key subgroups, avoiding bias, ensuring proportional representation). Award 0.61 mark for explaining how this benefits the geographical investigation (e.g., ensuring views from all age groups or different parts of the village are gathered, making the conclusions more valid).
Question 7 · Short Answer
1.61 marks
State one reason why the UK's demand for electricity is projected to increase despite improvements in energy efficiency.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Even though domestic appliances and industrial machinery are becoming more energy efficient, the UK is undergoing a major energy transition. The government is actively promoting the electrification of transport (e.g., banning new petrol/diesel cars) and domestic heating (replacing gas boilers with electric heat pumps), which will significantly increase the total demand placed on the national grid.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a key driver of increased electricity demand (e.g., adoption of electric vehicles, transition to electric heat pumps, growing population, expansion of data centres). Award 0.61 mark for explaining how this shifts demand (e.g., by substituting fossil fuel use with electricity).
Question 8 · Short Answer
1.61 marks
Explain one way that greenfield development can lead to environmental conflicts in the UK rural-urban fringe.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Greenfield sites are undeveloped areas of land, often agricultural fields or natural woodlands. When developers purchase these sites to build new housing estates or retail parks, they disrupt ecosystems and cause habitat loss. This generates conflict with conservationists and local residents who wish to preserve green spaces, local biodiversity, and rural views.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a point of environmental conflict (e.g., habitat destruction, loss of agricultural land, increased traffic congestion/pollution). Award 0.61 mark for explaining why this causes a conflict between stakeholders (e.g., developers prioritising housing supply vs. local groups/conservationists wanting to preserve biodiversity/natural landscapes).
Question 9 · Short Answer
1.61 marks
State one reason why climate change is expected to increase the frequency of river flooding events in the UK.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Warmer atmospheric temperatures due to global warming lead to increased evaporation rates. This allows the air to hold more water vapour, which results in heavier and more frequent extreme rainfall events, particularly during UK winters. These intense storms rapidly saturate the ground, leading to immediate surface runoff and severe river discharge peaks.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying the link (e.g., increased intensity/frequency of heavy rainstorms, wetter winters). Award 0.61 mark for explaining how this leads to river flooding (e.g., soils become saturated faster, leading to high overland flow/surface runoff into rivers).
Question 10 · Short Answer
1.61 marks
Explain one socioeconomic benefit of developing major high-speed rail networks, such as High Speed 2 (HS2), in the UK.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Major transport infrastructure investments like high-speed rail networks significantly reduce travel times between regions. This increases connectivity, making regional hubs (e.g., the Midlands and Northern England) more attractive to businesses, which can create employment opportunities and help narrow the economic gap (North-South divide) in the UK.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a valid socioeconomic benefit (e.g., reduced journey times, rebalancing the economy/bridging North-South divide, creating construction/operational jobs, increasing capacity of the rail network). Award 0.61 mark for explaining how this benefit occurs or its positive impact (e.g., by making regional cities more attractive for business investment or making commuting more efficient).
Question 11 · short_answer
1.61 marks
State one reason why repeating the measurement of river velocity three times at each sampling site improves the reliability of the data.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Repeating measurements of river velocity reduces the influence of temporary local changes in flow (e.g. passing debris or turbulent eddies) and human timing errors. It allows the calculation of a more representative mean and the identification of anomalies.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying the identification/removal of anomalies, and 0.61 marks for linking this to calculating a mean average or increasing overall accuracy.
Question 12 · short_answer
1.61 marks
Explain one way that a systematic sampling strategy could be used to select points along a beach transect.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
In systematic sampling, points are chosen at equal, predetermined intervals along a transect line. For a beach study, this ensures that the full width of the beach is represented without bias, allowing clear observation of changes from the sea to the cliffs.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for specifying the regular, fixed intervals of sampling (e.g. every 5m), and 0.61 marks for explaining its application along a profile/transect line.
Question 13 · short_answer
1.61 marks
State one advantage of using an environmental quality survey (EQS) to investigate the quality of a central urban area.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
An EQS uses a structured scoring system to quantify qualitative perceptions of urban features (such as litter, noise, or green space), allowing researchers to easily compare different locations using statistical techniques or graphs.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying that it quantifies qualitative observations/makes subjective ideas measurable, and 0.61 marks for stating how this enables comparison or graphical representation.
Question 14 · short_answer
1.61 marks
Identify one secondary source of data that would be useful when preparing for a geographical investigation into rural commuter settlements.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Census data from the Office for National Statistics (ONS) provides reliable, pre-collected demographic and socio-economic data on employment and commuting patterns, helping researchers select suitable study locations.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying an appropriate secondary source (e.g. Census data, local parish plans, historic OS maps), and 0.61 marks for describing its specific relevance to commuting or rural changes.
Question 15 · short_answer
1.61 marks
State one challenge created by an ageing population for healthcare services in the UK.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
An older population has a higher rate of chronic, age-related illnesses (such as dementia or arthritis) and mobility issues. This increases the demand for specialized long-term medical care, hospital beds, and GP appointments, raising overall healthcare costs.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying pressure/cost on the NHS or social care, and 0.61 marks for linking this directly to long-term chronic conditions or specific needs of an older demographic.
Question 16 · short_answer
1.61 marks
Explain one way the UK can use sustainable transport strategies to reduce carbon emissions in major cities.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Developing clean, efficient public transport (like electric buses and light rail networks) alongside safe, active travel routes (such as segregated cycle lanes) offers viable alternatives to driving, reducing the volume of fossil-fuel combustion in cities.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a specific sustainable transport strategy (e.g. cycle lanes, low-emission zones, electric buses), and 0.61 marks for explaining how this leads to reduced emissions (e.g. modal shift from private cars).
Question 17 · short_answer
1.61 marks
State one reason why the UK's high dependence on fossil fuels for electricity generation has decreased since 1990.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Since 1990, the UK has actively transitioned away from coal-fired power stations due to climate commitments and carbon taxation, replacing them with massive investments in renewable technologies, particularly offshore wind farms.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying the growth of renewable energy sources or the phased closure of coal power plants, and 0.61 marks for linking this to government policies, climate targets, or economic factors.
Question 18 · short_answer
1.61 marks
Identify one socio-economic impact of the 'North-South divide' on young people living in northern regions of the UK.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
The concentration of high-paying finance and technology sectors in the South-East of England means young people in northern regions often experience lower average household incomes, higher unemployment rates, and fewer opportunities for high-skilled career progression unless they relocate.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a specific socio-economic impact (e.g. lower wages, higher youth unemployment, fewer professional career opportunities), and 0.61 marks for explaining its developmental or personal consequences (e.g. migration to the South, lower disposable income).
Question 19 · Short Answer
1.61 marks
Explain one advantage of using a digital flow meter rather than a floating object (such as a tennis ball) to measure river velocity.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Students can explain that a digital flow meter measures velocity at a specific depth below the surface (1 mark) and explain that this avoids the influence of wind or surface friction, leading to more accurate and reliable data (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying an advantage of a digital flow meter, and a further 1 mark for explaining why this improves reliability or accuracy. Max 2 marks equivalent: - Advantage: Measures below the surface / unaffected by wind / avoids human timing errors (1 mark). - Explanation: This ensures the measurement reflects the true flow of the water column rather than being speeded up or slowed down by wind/air resistance (1 mark).
Question 20 · Short Answer
1.61 marks
Explain one way that students could reduce subjectivity when carrying out an Environmental Quality Survey (EQS) in an urban area.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Students can explain that agreeing on a clear, pre-defined scoring rubric before the survey reduces subjectivity (1 mark) because it ensures that all researchers apply the same criteria to evaluate factors like litter or noise, rather than relying on personal opinion (1 mark).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying a method to reduce subjectivity, and a further 1 mark for a linked explanation of how this improves reliability or objectivity. Max 2 marks equivalent: - Method: Working in groups and averaging results / establishing a clear scoring rubric with descriptive criteria / pre-survey training (1 mark). - Explanation: This reduces the influence of individual personal bias and ensures a more consistent application of the scale across different locations (1 mark).
Question 21 · Extended Writing
8 marks
For a physical geography fieldwork investigation you have carried out (either river or coastal landscapes), evaluate the effectiveness of your primary data collection methods.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
In our physical geography investigation, we examined downstream changes along the River Cardach to test the Bradshaw Model. We focused on measuring river velocity and channel depth as key primary variables. To measure velocity, we compared two primary data collection methods: an impeller flow meter and a floating orange peel. The flow meter was highly effective because it provided objective digital readings of velocity at a fixed depth (0.6 of total depth), minimizing human reaction-time errors. However, it was prone to error in shallower, weed-heavy sections where the impeller became blocked. The float method was less effective because surface friction and wind speed caused the orange peel to travel faster than the actual mean velocity of the river, and human error in operating stopwatches introduced further inaccuracy. To measure channel depth, we used systematic sampling, placing a tape measure across the channel and measuring the depth at 10cm intervals using a metre ruler. This was highly effective because it ensured a representative sample across the cross-section. However, the force of the flow pushed the ruler at an angle, which systematically overestimated the depth. To improve this, we used a heavy wading pole alongside the ruler to ensure vertical measurements. Overall, our primary data collection methods were effective, but the digital flow meter provided significantly more reliable and accurate data than the manual float method.
Marking scheme
Mark scheme (8 marks total: 4 marks AO3, 4 marks AO4). Level 1 (1-3 marks): Descriptive account of one or two primary methods. Focus is on what was done rather than how effective it was. Limited geographical terminology used. Level 2 (4-6 marks): Balanced evaluation of at least two primary methods, explaining their strengths and limitations. Makes a clear connection between the reliability of the methods and the quality of the data collected. Structured argument. Level 3 (7-8 marks): Sophisticated and critical evaluation of multiple primary methods. Evaluates issues of human and systematic error, and proposes realistic improvements. Draws a clear, well-supported judgement on the overall effectiveness of the methodology using precise geographical terminology.
Question 22 · Extended Writing
8 marks
For a human geography fieldwork investigation you have carried out (either in an urban area or a rural settlement), evaluate how successful your data presentation techniques were in helping you to draw reliable conclusions.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
In our human geography investigation, we assessed variation in the quality of life across three contrasting inner-to-outer suburbs of Sheffield. To analyze our data, we used two main presentation techniques: located proportional bar charts on an base map, and bipolar environmental quality graphs. The located proportional bar charts were extremely successful because they preserved the spatial context of our data, allowing us to instantly identify that environmental quality scores decreased significantly as we moved closer to the industrial sector of the city. However, a major limitation was that in dense urban zones, the bars overlapped, making them difficult to read and reducing the reliability of our spatial conclusions. Our second technique, the bipolar environmental quality graphs, was successful in summarizing complex, qualitative perceptions (e.g., litter, noise, graffiti) into clear, numerical comparisons between the suburbs. This allowed us to calculate mean scores and easily identify anomalies, such as an unexpectedly high environmental score in an otherwise deprived ward. Nevertheless, presenting only mean scores masked the full range of resident opinions, meaning some conclusions about social cohesion were overly simplified. In conclusion, while located bar charts were the most successful for identifying geographical patterns, using both techniques in combination was essential to drawing balanced, multi-faceted conclusions.
Marking scheme
Mark scheme (8 marks total: 4 marks AO3, 4 marks AO4). Level 1 (1-3 marks): Simple description of one or two data presentation techniques. Little or no evaluation of how they helped to draw conclusions. Level 2 (4-6 marks): Explains how at least two presentation techniques were used and evaluates their success in illustrating trends or patterns. Clearly links presentation to drawing conclusions. Level 3 (7-8 marks): Provides a highly critical and balanced evaluation of multiple presentation techniques. Discusses the strengths and limitations of each in representing anomalies and spatial patterns. Reaches a clear, logical conclusion on how presentation directly influenced the validity of the final geographical findings.
Question 23 · Extended Writing
12 marks
Assess the view that increasing the use of sustainable transport is the most effective way for the UK to reduce its carbon footprint and meet national climate change targets.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
The UK has committed to a legally-binding target of net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by 2050. Because transport is currently the highest-emitting sector in the UK, accounting for approximately 27% of total carbon emissions, many argue that sustainable transport is the single most critical area for reduction. Supporters of this view argue that major national investments in low-carbon infrastructure, such as high-speed rail networks, urban tram extensions, and active travel corridors, are highly effective because they encourage modal shift away from private, petrol-powered vehicles. Furthermore, the transition to electric vehicles (EVs) supported by government grants and charging networks drastically lowers tailpipe emissions. However, the effectiveness of sustainable transport is limited if the national electricity grid is not fully decarbonized; electric trains and cars still rely on fossil fuels if coal and gas dominate power generation. Therefore, other strategies are equally critical. For example, retrofitting the UK's inefficient, older housing stock with high-quality insulation and low-carbon heating (such as heat pumps) is essential, given that domestic energy use contributes 14% of UK emissions. Additionally, expanding utility-scale renewable energy (wind, solar, and nuclear) is arguably more fundamental, as it decarbonizes both domestic heating and transport charging simultaneously. In conclusion, while sustainable transport is vital because of the sheer scale of transport emissions, it cannot be considered the "most" effective strategy in isolation. A successful pathway to net-zero requires a coordinated approach that prioritizes grid decarbonization and domestic energy efficiency alongside transport reform.
Marking scheme
Mark scheme (12 marks total: 4 marks AO3, 4 marks AO4, 4 marks SPaG). Level 1 (1-3 marks): Simple, descriptive response identifying some sustainable transport or carbon reduction schemes. Lacks balance or critical assessment. Level 2 (4-6 marks): Balanced assessment of the role of transport alongside at least one other sector (e.g., energy generation, domestic housing). Shows clear understanding of UK carbon reduction targets and geographical context. Level 3 (7-8 marks): Sophisticated, detailed assessment of multiple sectors. Compares the relative impact, cost, and feasibility of sustainable transport versus other strategies, leading to a well-reasoned, nuanced judgement on their effectiveness. SPaG (4 marks): High performance (4 marks): Spells and punctuates with consistent accuracy; uses a wide range of specialist terms appropriately. Intermediate performance (2-3 marks): Spells and punctuates with considerable accuracy; uses some specialist terms. Threshold performance (1 mark): Spells and punctuates with reasonable accuracy; limited use of specialist terms.
Wondering how well you actually know this?
Thinka is an AI practice app for DSE students — unlimited questions, instant auto-marking, and detailed step-by-step solutions. 100,000+ students use it to confirm they actually know it, not just think they do.