An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jan 2025 Cambridge International A Level Biology (YBI11) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.
Section Unit 1: Molecules, Diet, Transport and Health
Answer ALL questions. Use black ink. Calculators may be used. Show all working out clearly.
16 Question · 80 marks
Question 1 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The high specific heat capacity of water is a crucial property that supports life. Which of the following statements correctly explains the cause of water's high specific heat capacity and its biological significance?
A.Hydrogen bonds between water molecules require a large amount of energy to break, which helps aquatic environments maintain a relatively stable temperature.
B.Covalent bonds within water molecules require a large amount of energy to break, preventing water from evaporating rapidly from leaves.
C.Hydrogen bonds between water molecules require very little energy to break, allowing rapid cooling of organisms through sweating.
D.Hydrophobic interactions between non-polar water molecules prevent heat transfer, insulating aquatic organisms from cold air.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Water has a high specific heat capacity because it contains numerous hydrogen bonds between the polar water molecules. A large amount of heat energy is required to break these bonds and increase the kinetic energy (and thus temperature) of the water molecules. This property is biologically significant because it prevents large, rapid temperature fluctuations in aquatic habitats, providing a stable environment for organisms.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] A is the correct response. Reject B because covalent bonds are not broken during heating of liquid water. Reject C because hydrogen bonds require a significant amount of energy to break, and sweating is associated with a high latent heat of vaporisation. Reject D because water is a polar molecule and does not form hydrophobic interactions with itself.
Question 2 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Trehalose is a disaccharide found in some fungi, made of two \(\alpha\)-glucose molecules. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the synthesis of one molecule of trehalose from its monomers?
A.It is formed by a condensation reaction between two glucose molecules, releasing one molecule of water.
B.It is formed by a hydrolysis reaction between two glucose molecules, releasing one molecule of water.
C.It is formed by a condensation reaction between two glucose molecules, requiring the addition of one molecule of water.
D.It is formed by a hydrolysis reaction between two glucose molecules, requiring the addition of one molecule of water.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Disaccharides are formed when two monosaccharides undergo a condensation reaction. This reaction involves the elimination of a water molecule (release of one water molecule) and the formation of a glycosidic bond.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] A is the correct response. Reject B because hydrolysis reactions break bonds rather than synthesize disaccharides. Reject C and D because condensation reactions release water, while hydrolysis reactions consume water.
Question 3 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Amylopectin and glycogen are both branched polysaccharides used for energy storage. Which of the following statements correctly compares amylopectin and glycogen?
A.Glycogen is more highly branched than amylopectin because it has more frequent 1,6-glycosidic bonds, allowing more rapid hydrolysis to release glucose.
B.Amylopectin has only 1,4-glycosidic bonds, whereas glycogen has both 1,4- and 1,6-glycosidic bonds.
C.Glycogen is found in plants and is less compact than amylopectin, which is found in animals.
D.Amylopectin is more highly branched than glycogen, making it more soluble in the cytoplasm.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Both amylopectin and glycogen contain \(1,4\)- and \(1,6\)-glycosidic bonds. However, glycogen is much more highly branched than amylopectin due to more frequent \(1,6\)-glycosidic bonds. This allows enzymes to act simultaneously on multiple branch ends, resulting in rapid hydrolysis to release glucose to meet the high metabolic demands of animals.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] A is the correct response. Reject B because amylopectin also contains 1,6-glycosidic bonds at its branch points. Reject C because glycogen is found in animals and fungi, whereas starch (containing amylose and amylopectin) is found in plants. Reject D because glycogen is more branched than amylopectin.
Question 4 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The melting point of lipids is highly influenced by the structure of their fatty acid chains. Saturated fatty acids generally have higher melting points than unsaturated fatty acids of similar chain lengths. Which of the following statements correctly explains this difference?
A.Unsaturated fatty acids contain double bonds that cause kinks in the carbon chain, preventing them from packing closely together and weakening the intermolecular forces.
B.Saturated fatty acids contain double bonds that allow them to align linearly, strengthening the covalent bonds within the molecules.
C.Unsaturated fatty acids contain single bonds only, which increases the distance between molecules and reduces the energy needed to break ester bonds.
D.Saturated fatty acids have fewer hydrogen atoms, allowing them to form strong hydrogen bonds with adjacent fatty acids.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Unsaturated fatty acids contain one or more carbon-to-carbon double bonds (\(C=C\)). These double bonds create 'kinks' or bends in the hydrocarbon chains. As a result, the molecules cannot pack as closely or neatly together as the straight chains of saturated fatty acids. This reduces the intermolecular forces (such as London dispersion forces) between the chains, meaning less thermal energy is required to separate them, leading to a lower melting point.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] A is the correct response. Reject B because saturated fatty acids do not contain carbon-to-carbon double bonds. Reject C because unsaturated fatty acids contain double bonds, and melting does not involve breaking covalent ester bonds. Reject D because saturated fatty acids have the maximum possible number of hydrogen atoms and do not form intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
Question 5 · multiple-choice
1 marks
In the blood clotting cascade, the conversion of soluble proteins to insoluble fibres is essential to plug a damaged blood vessel. Which row of the table correctly identifies the enzyme, its substrate, and the product of the final step of this cascade?
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
The final step of the blood clotting cascade involves the active enzyme thrombin, which catalyses the conversion of the soluble plasma protein fibrinogen (the substrate) into insoluble fibrin fibres (the product). These fibrin fibres form a mesh that traps red blood cells and platelets to form a stable clot.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] A is the correct response. Reject B because thromboplastin converting prothrombin to thrombin is an earlier step in the cascade, not the final step that directly forms the insoluble fibres. Reject C because the substrate is fibrinogen and the product is fibrin, not vice versa. Reject D because prothrombin is the inactive precursor, not the active enzyme, and thrombin is not the substrate.
Question 6 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The walls of arteries, veins, and capillaries are adapted to their specific functions. Which of the following statements correctly relates the structural features of a blood vessel to its function?
A.Arteries have a thick layer of elastic fibres to allow stretching and recoiling, which helps maintain high blood pressure.
B.Veins have thick walls of smooth muscle to pump deoxygenated blood back to the heart under high pressure.
C.Capillaries have thin walls composed of elastic fibres and collagen to withstand pressure changes as blood enters tissues.
D.Arteries have a wide lumen and valves to prevent the backflow of blood as it travels away from the heart.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Arteries must withstand and maintain high pressure. They have thick walls with a substantial layer of elastic fibres. When the heart contracts (systole), these elastic fibres stretch to accommodate the surge of blood. During diastole, they recoil, which helps maintain blood pressure and smooths out the flow of blood. Veins have much thinner walls and a wide lumen because they carry blood under low pressure back to the heart, and they contain valves to prevent backflow.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] A is the correct response. Reject B because veins have thin walls with little smooth muscle and carry blood under low pressure. Reject C because capillaries lack elastic fibres and collagen; they consist of a single layer of endothelial cells. Reject D because arteries have a narrow lumen and do not contain valves (except at the base of the aorta and pulmonary artery).
Question 7 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During the cardiac cycle, pressure changes within the heart chambers cause valves to open and close. Which of the following events occurs when the pressure in the left ventricle becomes higher than the pressure in the aorta?
A.The semilunar valve opens, allowing blood to flow into the aorta.
B.The atrioventricular valve opens, allowing blood to flow into the left atrium.
C.The semilunar valve closes, preventing the backflow of blood into the left ventricle.
D.The atrioventricular valve closes, preventing the backflow of blood into the left ventricle.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
When the left ventricle contracts (ventricular systole), pressure inside the chamber rises. Once the ventricular pressure exceeds the pressure in the aorta, the semilunar (aortic) valve is forced open. This allows blood to be ejected from the ventricle into the aorta. The atrioventricular valve closes much earlier in the cycle when ventricular pressure first exceeds atrial pressure.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] A is the correct response. Reject B because the atrioventricular valve closes (it does not open) during ventricular contraction to prevent backflow to the atrium. Reject C because the semilunar valve opens rather than closes when ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure. Reject D because the atrioventricular valve closes earlier when ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure, not when it exceeds aortic pressure.
Question 8 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A group of researchers investigated the link between dietary saturated fat intake and the incidence of cardiovascular disease (CVD). They recruited 10,000 healthy individuals, recorded their baseline diets, and monitored their health outcomes over a 20-year period. Which type of study is this, and what is its main advantage?
A.Cohort study; it is prospective, meaning diet is assessed before individuals develop CVD, which reduces recall bias.
B.Case-control study; it is retrospective, meaning researchers can quickly compare individuals with and without CVD.
C.Cohort study; it is retrospective, allowing researchers to quickly establish cause and effect without waiting for disease onset.
D.Case-control study; it is prospective, allowing researchers to control all environmental variables of the participants.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
A study that recruits healthy participants and follows them forward in time (prospective) to monitor who develops a disease is a cohort study. Since dietary habits and other risk factors are recorded before the disease develops, this design significantly reduces recall bias, which is a major limitation of retrospective case-control studies.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] A is the correct response. Reject B because a case-control study starts with individuals who already have the disease (cases) and compares them to healthy controls. Reject C because cohort studies of this type are prospective, not retrospective, and take a long time to complete. Reject D because case-control studies are retrospective by definition, and prospective cohorts do not allow complete control over all environmental variables.
Question 9 · structured
9 marks
Glycogen and starch are both storage polysaccharides. (a) Describe how the structure of glycogen makes it suitable for its role as an energy storage molecule in animals. (4 marks) (b) Contrast the structure of glycogen with the structure of cellulose. (5 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Glycogen has several structural adaptations for energy storage: 1. It is a polymer of alpha-glucose molecules, which can be easily hydrolysed to release glucose for respiration. 2. It contains 1,6-glycosidic bonds (in addition to 1,4-glycosidic bonds), resulting in a highly branched structure. This provides a large number of terminal glucose residues, allowing rapid hydrolysis by glycogen phosphorylase. 3. It is insoluble in water, which means it has no osmotic effect on the host cell and does not cause water to enter via osmosis. 4. It has a coiled and compact helical shape, allowing a massive amount of glucose to be packed into a small volume. (b) Glycogen and cellulose differ significantly in structure: 1. Monomer type: Glycogen is composed of alpha-glucose monomers, whereas cellulose is composed of beta-glucose monomers. 2. Glycosidic bonds: Glycogen has both 1,4- and 1,6-glycosidic bonds, whereas cellulose contains only 1,4-glycosidic bonds. 3. Branching: Glycogen is highly branched, while cellulose is an unbranched, linear, straight-chain polymer. 4. Molecular orientation: In cellulose, alternate beta-glucose molecules must be rotated 180 degrees to form glycosidic bonds, whereas all alpha-glucose monomers in glycogen are in the same orientation. 5. Intermolecular bonding: Cellulose molecules lie parallel to each other and form cross-linking hydrogen bonds to create microfibrils, which provide structural support. Glycogen molecules do not form hydrogen-bonded microfibrils.
Marking scheme
Part (a): 1 mark for mentioning alpha-glucose monomers and high insolubility, preventing osmotic water movement. 1 mark for identifying 1,6-glycosidic branches. 1 mark for stating that branching creates many terminal ends for rapid enzymatic hydrolysis. 1 mark for stating that its coiled, compact structure allows maximum storage in a small space. Part (b): 1 mark for identifying alpha-glucose in glycogen vs beta-glucose in cellulose. 1 mark for noting glycogen has 1,4 and 1,6-glycosidic bonds while cellulose only has 1,4-glycosidic bonds. 1 mark for describing glycogen as branched and cellulose as unbranched/straight chains. 1 mark for stating alternate beta-glucose molecules in cellulose are rotated 180 degrees. 1 mark for stating parallel cellulose chains form hydrogen bonds to make microfibrils, whereas glycogen does not.
Question 10 · structured
9 marks
Atherosclerosis is a disease of the coronary arteries that can lead to coronary heart disease (CHD). (a) Explain how high blood pressure (hypertension) increases the risk of atherosclerosis. (4 marks) (b) Describe the cascade of events that leads to the formation of an atheroma following damage to the endothelial lining. (5 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) High blood pressure increases the risk of atherosclerosis because: 1. It exerts high shear stress on the inner lining of the coronary arteries. 2. This mechanical stress damages or tears the thin, delicate endothelial cell layer. 3. The damage exposes the underlying connective tissue and collagen fibers to the blood. 4. This triggers an inflammatory response, making the vessel wall more susceptible to accumulation of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) and plaque formation. (b) The cascade of atheroma formation consists of: 1. Endothelial damage triggers an inflammatory response. 2. White blood cells (monocytes) migrate from the blood into the damaged artery wall. 3. These monocytes differentiate into macrophages, which actively ingest circulating low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) and cholesterol. 4. The lipid-laden macrophages become foam cells which accumulate and die, forming a fatty streak. 5. Smooth muscle cells migrate to the site and proliferate, secreting collagen and other fibrous proteins. This forms a hard fibrotic plaque (atheroma) that narrows the lumen of the artery.
Marking scheme
Part (a): 1 mark for high shear stress on coronary artery walls. 1 mark for damage/tears to the endothelial lining. 1 mark for exposing underlying collagen fibers. 1 mark for triggering an inflammatory response. Part (b): 1 mark for migration of monocytes into the damaged artery wall. 1 mark for monocytes differentiating into macrophages. 1 mark for macrophages engulfing LDLs/cholesterol to form foam cells. 1 mark for accumulation of foam cells forming a fatty streak. 1 mark for smooth muscle cell migration and collagen deposition to form a fibrous plaque/atheroma.
Question 11 · structured
9 marks
Blood clotting is a complex cascade of reactions that is vital for sealing damaged blood vessels. (a) Describe the role of platelets and clotting factors in the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. (4 marks) (b) Explain how thrombin leads to the formation of a blood clot, and why it is important that this process only occurs when a blood vessel is damaged. (5 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) When a blood vessel is damaged: 1. Platelets adhere to the exposed collagen fibers in the damaged vessel wall and become activated. 2. Activated platelets and damaged tissues release a clotting factor called thromboplastin. 3. Thromboplastin acts as an enzyme, and in the presence of calcium ions (Ca2+) and vitamin K, it catalyzes the conversion of the inactive plasma protein prothrombin into the active enzyme thrombin. 4. This represents a key amplification step in the coagulation cascade. (b) Thrombin and clot regulation: 1. Thrombin is a protease enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin monomers. 2. These fibrin monomers polymerize to form long, sticky, insoluble fibrin fibers. 3. The fibrin fibers form a dense meshwork that traps red blood cells, platelets, and other cellular debris, forming a solid clot. 4. It is essential that this process is restricted to damaged vessels because inappropriate clotting (thrombosis) inside intact blood vessels can block blood flow. 5. If a clot blocks a coronary artery, it causes myocardial infarction; if it blocks an artery to the brain, it causes an ischaemic stroke.
Marking scheme
Part (a): 1 mark for platelets adhering to exposed collagen fibers. 1 mark for release of thromboplastin from platelets/damaged tissues. 1 mark for stating that thromboplastin acts as an enzyme. 1 mark for identifying the requirement of calcium ions (Ca2+) to convert prothrombin to thrombin. Part (b): 1 mark for thrombin converting soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin. 1 mark for describing fibrin forming a meshwork. 1 mark for explaining that the mesh traps red blood cells and platelets to form a clot. 1 mark for explaining that intravascular clotting (thrombosis) can occlude intact blood vessels. 1 mark for connecting occlusion to myocardial infarction (heart attack) or stroke.
Question 12 · structured
9 marks
The cardiac cycle consists of a sequence of events regulated by pressure changes. (a) Explain the changes in pressure in the left ventricle and aorta during ventricular systole. (5 marks) (b) Describe the role of the atrioventricular (AV) valves and semilunar valves during diastole and atrial systole. (4 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Pressure changes during ventricular systole: 1. As the ventricles contract, the volume of the chamber decreases, causing intraventricular pressure to rise rapidly. 2. When the pressure inside the left ventricle becomes greater than the pressure in the left atrium, the atrioventricular (bicuspid) valve closes to prevent backflow of blood. 3. The pressure continues to rise in the closed ventricle (isovolumetric contraction) until it exceeds the pressure in the aorta (approx. 80 mmHg). 4. Once ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure, the semilunar (aortic) valve is forced open. 5. Blood is rapidly ejected into the aorta, causing aortic pressure to rise in tandem with ventricular pressure to a maximum systolic pressure (approx. 120 mmHg). (b) Valve actions in diastole and atrial systole: 1. During diastole, both the atria and ventricles are relaxed. 2. Because the pressure in the aorta and pulmonary artery is higher than in the ventricles, the semilunar valves close to prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles. 3. At the same time, the pressure in the atria is slightly higher than in the relaxed ventricles, causing the AV valves to open, allowing blood to flow passively from the atria into the ventricles. 4. During atrial systole, the atria contract to force the remaining blood through the already open AV valves into the ventricles, while the semilunar valves remain firmly closed.
Marking scheme
Part (a): 1 mark for ventricle contraction causing a rapid rise in ventricular pressure. 1 mark for closure of the AV valve when ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure. 1 mark for pressure continuing to rise until it exceeds aortic pressure. 1 mark for opening of the semilunar valve. 1 mark for blood entering the aorta, causing aortic pressure to rise to a peak (systolic pressure). Part (b): 1 mark for semilunar valves closing during diastole to prevent backflow from arteries. 1 mark for AV valves opening during diastole as atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure. 1 mark for passive blood flow from atria to ventricles during diastole. 1 mark for atrial systole forcing remaining blood through open AV valves while semilunar valves remain closed.
Question 13 · structured
9 marks
Water is a vital component of blood plasma and acts as an efficient transport medium. (a) Explain how the dipolar nature of water molecules makes water an effective transport medium in the blood. (5 marks) (b) Distinguish between the cohesive and adhesive properties of water, and state how these are important in biological systems. (4 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Dipolar nature of water as a transport medium: 1. Water consists of one oxygen atom covalently bonded to two hydrogen atoms. Oxygen is highly electronegative, pulling electrons closer, resulting in a delta-negative charge on oxygen and a delta-positive charge on hydrogen. 2. This separation of charge makes water a dipolar molecule. 3. Water can form hydrogen bonds with other water molecules and with polar or charged solute molecules. 4. Polar molecules (like glucose and amino acids) and ionic compounds (like sodium chloride) dissolve easily in water because water molecules surround them, forming hydration shells. 5. Due to extensive hydrogen bonding, water has high cohesion, allowing blood to flow as a continuous stream under pressure through blood vessels (mass flow). (b) Cohesion versus adhesion: 1. Cohesion is the force of attraction between identical water molecules, primarily due to hydrogen bonding. 2. Adhesion is the force of attraction between water molecules and other polar or charged surfaces, such as the walls of transport vessels. 3. Cohesion is important because it maintains a continuous, unbroken column of water/fluid during transport under tension. 4. Adhesion is important because it helps prevent the water column from dropping or breaking, supporting capillary action and transport in narrow tubes.
Marking scheme
Part (a): 1 mark for explaining electronegative oxygen creating a delta-negative charge and hydrogen creating a delta-positive charge. 1 mark for identifying that water is dipolar. 1 mark for explaining that water forms hydrogen bonds. 1 mark for stating that water surrounds polar/ionic solutes to dissolve them. 1 mark for explaining that hydrogen bonding gives high cohesion, allowing continuous mass flow in blood vessels. Part (b): 1 mark for defining cohesion as attraction between water molecules. 1 mark for defining adhesion as attraction between water molecules and vessel walls. 1 mark for stating cohesion keeps the transport fluid column continuous/unbroken. 1 mark for stating adhesion helps water resist gravity/maintain transport in narrow channels.
Question 14 · structured
9 marks
Cardiovascular disease is linked to cholesterol levels and the relative concentrations of lipoproteins. (a) Compare and contrast the roles and structures of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) and high-density lipoproteins (HDLs). (5 marks) (b) Explain how an unbalanced ratio of LDL to HDL in the blood can increase the risk of coronary heart disease. (4 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Comparison of LDLs and HDLs: 1. Similarities: Both are spherical lipoprotein complexes containing lipids (cholesterol, triglycerides) and proteins, and both function to transport hydrophobic cholesterol through the watery bloodstream. 2. Structural difference: LDLs contain a higher proportion of lipid (cholesterol) and a lower proportion of protein compared to HDLs (HDLs have a higher protein-to-lipid ratio). 3. Functional difference (transport direction): LDLs transport cholesterol from the liver to the body tissues and systemic arteries, where it binds to cell receptors. 4. Functional difference (removal): HDLs transport excess cholesterol from the body tissues and artery walls back to the liver to be broken down, excreted, or recycled. (b) Unbalanced LDL:HDL ratio and CHD: 1. A high LDL:HDL ratio means there is a high concentration of circulating cholesterol relative to the rate of removal. 2. Excess LDLs in the bloodstream are deposited in the walls of the coronary arteries, especially at sites of endothelial damage. 3. This leads to the formation of atheromas (fatty plaques) and initiates atherosclerosis. 4. This narrows the lumen of the coronary arteries, restricting blood flow and reducing the supply of oxygen and glucose to the cardiac muscle, which can result in myocardial infarction.
Marking scheme
Part (a): 1 mark for stating both are lipoproteins that transport cholesterol in the blood. 1 mark for stating LDLs have a higher lipid/cholesterol content (or lower protein content) than HDLs. 1 mark for stating LDLs transport cholesterol from liver to body tissues. 1 mark for stating HDLs transport cholesterol from tissues back to the liver. 1 mark for describing that HDLs remove/clear excess cholesterol from artery walls. Part (b): 1 mark for stating that a high ratio means more cholesterol is deposited than cleared. 1 mark for explaining that excess LDLs deposit cholesterol in damaged coronary artery walls. 1 mark for explaining that this leads to plaque/atheroma formation (atherosclerosis). 1 mark for explaining that narrowed lumens reduce oxygenated blood flow to cardiac muscle, increasing risk of heart attack.
Question 15 · structured
9 marks
Scientists conduct epidemiological studies to investigate the link between dietary fat intake and cardiovascular disease. (a) Explain the differences between a cohort study and a case-control study when investigating this link. (5 marks) (b) State four factors that must be controlled or considered to ensure the validity of data collected in these epidemiological studies. (4 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Differences between cohort and case-control studies: 1. Direction of study: Cohort studies are prospective (they follow a group of healthy individuals over time to see who develops CVD), whereas case-control studies are retrospective (they look back in time, comparing individuals who already have CVD with a healthy control group). 2. Timing of exposure measurement: In cohort studies, dietary fat intake is measured before any symptoms of CVD develop, which reduces recall bias. In case-control studies, dietary fat intake is self-reported after diagnosis, which can lead to inaccurate recall (recall bias). 3. Selection of participants: Cohort studies select participants based on exposure status or general population, while case-control studies select participants based on their disease status (cases vs. controls). 4. Time and Cost: Cohort studies take a long time (years or decades) and are expensive, whereas case-control studies are faster and cheaper because the outcome has already occurred. (b) Control factors to ensure validity: 1. Age: Both groups should have a similar age distribution because CVD risk increases with age. 2. Sex/Gender: Hormonal differences (e.g., estrogen levels in females) affect CVD risk. 3. Smoking status: Smoking is a strong independent risk factor that damages blood vessels. 4. Physical activity levels: Regular exercise reduces CVD risk, so differences in activity must be controlled. (Alternative factors like family history, alcohol intake, BMI, or socioeconomic status are also acceptable.)
Marking scheme
Part (a): 1 mark for stating cohort studies are prospective while case-control studies are retrospective. 1 mark for explaining that cohort studies measure diet before disease onset, avoiding recall bias. 1 mark for explaining that case-control studies rely on recall of past diet, which is susceptible to bias. 1 mark for stating cohort studies follow healthy groups while case-control studies select based on disease presence (case vs control). 1 mark for stating cohort studies are long-term and expensive, while case-control are rapid and cost-effective. Part (b): 1 mark per valid factor (maximum of 4 marks): Age, Sex/gender, Smoking status, Physical activity levels, Alcohol intake, BMI, Family history of CVD, Diet (other than fat intake), or Socioeconomic status.
Question 16 · structured
9 marks
Blood vessels are structurally adapted to their specific functions in transport and exchange. (a) Explain how the structure of an artery is adapted to withstand and maintain high blood pressure. (5 marks) (b) Describe how the structure of a capillary is adapted to facilitate rapid exchange of substances between the blood and tissue fluid. (4 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Artery adaptations to high blood pressure: 1. They have a thick overall wall to withstand the high hydrostatic pressure of blood leaving the heart. 2. They contain a thick layer of elastic fibers (elastin) in the tunica media. These fibers stretch during ventricular systole to accommodate the surge of blood, and recoil during diastole to maintain a high blood pressure and smooth out flow. 3. They have a thick layer of smooth muscle in the wall, which can contract (vasoconstriction) or relax (vasodilation) to regulate blood pressure and distribute blood flow. 4. The outer layer (tunica externa) contains a large amount of collagen, a tough fibrous protein that provides structural strength and prevents the artery from overstretching or bursting under high pressure. 5. The endothelium is folded, allowing the lumen to expand without tearing when blood pressure surges. (b) Capillary adaptations to rapid exchange: 1. Capillary walls are only one cell thick, consisting of a single layer of squamous endothelial cells. This minimizes the diffusion distance for gases and nutrients. 2. The lumen is extremely narrow (about 7-8 micrometers), which matches the diameter of red blood cells. This forces red blood cells to slow down and pass through in single file, pressing them close to the capillary wall, which maximizes the rate of gas exchange. 3. Capillaries form highly branched networks (capillary beds) with an enormous total surface area, maximizing the rate of diffusion. 4. There are small gaps (fenestrations/pores) between adjacent endothelial cells, allowing water and small solutes to filter out into tissue fluid while keeping large plasma proteins inside.
Marking scheme
Part (a): 1 mark for explaining that a thick wall withstands high pressure. 1 mark for elastic fibers stretching to accommodate pressure and recoiling to maintain it. 1 mark for smooth muscle layer contracting/relaxing to regulate flow/pressure. 1 mark for outer collagen layer providing structural strength to prevent bursting. 1 mark for folded endothelium allowing expansion. Part (b): 1 mark for walls being one cell thick/squamous endothelium, reducing diffusion distance. 1 mark for narrow lumen forcing red blood cells into single file, slowing flow and reducing diffusion distance. 1 mark for highly branched capillary beds providing a large total surface area. 1 mark for pores/gaps between cells allowing filtration of water and small solutes to form tissue fluid.
Section Unit 2: Cells, Development, Biodiversity and Conservation
Answer ALL questions. Calculators and scientific rulers may be used.
8 Question · 80 marks
Question 1 · structured
10 marks
Pancreatic acinar cells are highly specialized for the synthesis and secretion of digestive enzymes such as amylase.
(a) Describe the roles of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) and the Golgi apparatus in the production and secretion of active amylase enzymes. (5)
(b) Compare and contrast the structure of a eukaryotic pancreatic cell with that of a prokaryotic bacterium. (3)
(c) An electron micrograph of a pancreatic cell shows a secretory vesicle with a diameter of \(0.8\text{ }\mu\text{m}\). In the micrograph, this same vesicle measures \(24\text{ mm}\). Calculate the magnification of this micrograph. Show your working. (2)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) 1. Ribosomes on the RER synthesize the polypeptide chain of amylase. 2. The polypeptide chain enters the lumen of the RER, where it is folded into its specific 3D tertiary structure. 3. The RER packages the folded protein into transport vesicles, which bud off the RER and travel to the Golgi apparatus. 4. In the Golgi apparatus, the protein is chemically modified (e.g., carbohydrate groups are added/glycosylated). 5. The active amylase is packaged into secretory vesicles, which move to and fuse with the cell surface membrane, releasing the enzyme by exocytosis.
(b) Similarities: 1. Both contain a cell surface membrane, cytoplasm, and ribosomes.
Differences: 2. Eukaryotes have membrane-bound organelles (e.g., mitochondria, RER, Golgi apparatus) whereas prokaryotes do not. 3. Eukaryotic DNA is linear, associated with histone proteins, and enclosed in a nucleus, whereas prokaryotic DNA is circular, naked (not associated with histones), and free in the cytoplasm (nucleoid). 4. Eukaryotic ribosomes are larger (\(80\text{S}\)) than prokaryotic ribosomes (\(70\text{S}\)).
(c) 1. Convert the measured image size into the same units as the actual size: \(24\text{ mm} = 24,000\text{ }\mu\text{m}\). 2. Use the magnification formula: \(\text{Magnification} = \frac{\text{Image size}}{\text{Actual size}} = \frac{24,000}{0.8} = \times 30,000\).
Marking scheme
(a) - MP1: Amylase polypeptide synthesized by ribosomes on the RER. (1) - MP2: Folded into 3D tertiary shape within the lumen of the RER. (1) - MP3: Packaged into transport vesicles that bud off the RER and fuse with the Golgi. (1) - MP4: Amylase is chemically modified (e.g., glycosylated) in the Golgi. (1) - MP5: Packaged into secretory vesicles that fuse with the cell membrane to release amylase via exocytosis. (1)
(b) - MP1: Reference to a similarity (e.g., both contain cell membrane / ribosomes). (1) - MP2: Pancreatic cell has membrane-bound organelles / a nucleus, whereas prokaryotes do not. (1) - MP3: Pancreatic cell has larger \(80\text{S}\) ribosomes, whereas prokaryotes have smaller \(70\text{S}\) ribosomes OR comparison of DNA structure (linear/histone-associated vs circular/naked). (1) [Note: Accept comparisons only; do not credit isolated statements about one cell type.]
(c) - MP1: Conversion of units (e.g., \(24\text{ mm}\) to \(24,000\text{ }\mu\text{m}\)). (1) - MP2: Correct calculation of magnification of \(\times 30,000\) (accept \(30,000\) or \(30000\)). (1)
Question 2 · structured
10 marks
Mitosis is a critical process in the cell cycle that ensures genetic consistency across generations of somatic cells.
(a) Explain the roles of spindle fibres and centromeres during mitosis. (4)
(b) Describe how the cell cycle is regulated to prevent damaged cells from dividing. (3)
(c) A student prepared a root tip squash of onion (*Allium cepa*) to observe mitosis. Out of \(150\) cells observed in the field of view, \(18\) were in prophase, \(6\) in metaphase, \(4\) in anaphase, and \(2\) in telophase. Calculate the mitotic index of this root tip tissue. Show your working. (3)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) 1. Spindle fibres attach to the centromeres of chromosomes during prophase/metaphase. 2. Centromeres hold the sister chromatids together, keeping them aligned along the equator/metaphase plate. 3. During anaphase, spindle fibres contract and shorten. 4. This exerts tension, splitting the centromere and pulling individual sister chromatids (now chromosomes) to opposite poles of the cell, ensuring each daughter cell receives an identical set of chromosomes.
(b) 1. The cell cycle is regulated by checkpoints (such as the G1, G2, and Metaphase checkpoints). 2. At these checkpoints, specific proteins (such as cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases) monitor DNA integrity and replication. 3. If DNA damage is detected, the cycle is arrested (halted) to allow for repair. If the damage is too severe to repair, the cell undergoes programmed cell death (apoptosis) to prevent mutated cells from multiplying.
(c) 1. First, calculate the total number of cells undergoing mitosis: \(\text{Mitotic cells} = 18 \text{ (prophase)} + 6 \text{ (metaphase)} + 4 \text{ (anaphase)} + 2 \text{ (telophase)} = 30\text{ cells}\). 2. Calculate the mitotic index: \(\text{Mitotic Index} = \frac{\text{Number of cells in mitosis}}{\text{Total number of cells observed}} = \frac{30}{150} = 0.2\) (or \(20\%\)).
Marking scheme
(a) - MP1: Centromeres hold sister chromatids together (until anaphase). (1) - MP2: Spindle fibres attach to the centromeres (during prophase/metaphase). (1) - MP3: Spindle fibres contract/shorten to pull sister chromatids to opposite poles. (1) - MP4: This ensures equal distribution / identical copies of genetic material to each daughter cell. (1)
(b) - MP1: Reference to checkpoints in the cell cycle (e.g., G1, G2, metaphase check). (1) - MP2: Proteins / enzymes monitor the cell for DNA damage or incomplete replication. (1) - MP3: Cycle is halted to allow DNA repair, or if irreparable, cell undergoes programmed cell death / apoptosis. (1)
(c) - MP1: Summing the cells in mitotic stages to find \(30\). (1) - MP2: Dividing the number of mitotic cells by total cells (\(\frac{30}{150}\)). (1) - MP3: Correct final answer of \(0.2\) or \(20\%\). (1)
Question 3 · structured
10 marks
Fertilisation in mammals involves complex cellular interactions between sperm and the oocyte, ending in the fusion of their nuclei.
(a) Compare the structure of a mature human secondary oocyte with that of a mature human spermatozoon. (4)
(b) Describe the sequence of events that occurs immediately after sperm binding to the zona pellucida, up to the prevention of polyspermy. (4)
(c) Explain the role of the acrosome reaction in fertilisation. (2)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) 1. Both gametes are haploid (contain \(23\) chromosomes). 2. The oocyte is a much larger cell than the spermatozoon and has a high volume of cytoplasm containing lipid droplets, whereas the spermatozoon has very little cytoplasm and is streamlined. 3. The spermatozoon has a flagellum (tail) for motility and mitochondria concentrated in its midpiece, whereas the oocyte is non-motile. 4. The oocyte is surrounded by a jelly-like zona pellucida and follicle cells (corona radiata), while the spermatozoon has an acrosome at its head and no surrounding follicle cells.
(b) 1. Binding of the sperm to receptors on the zona pellucida triggers the acrosome reaction, causing the acrosome membrane to fuse with the sperm cell surface membrane. 2. Hydrolytic enzymes (such as acrosin) are released via exocytosis and digest a path through the zona pellucida. 3. The sperm cell membrane fuses with the oocyte cell membrane, allowing the sperm nucleus to enter the oocyte cytoplasm. 4. This triggers the cortical reaction: cortical granules in the oocyte fuse with the cell surface membrane and release enzymes by exocytosis, which harden and modify the zona pellucida to prevent further sperm entry.
(c) 1. The acrosome reaction releases digestive enzymes (acrosin) from the sperm head. 2. These enzymes break down the glycoproteins of the protective jelly layer (zona pellucida) surrounding the egg, allowing the sperm head to physically reach and fuse with the egg cell membrane.
Marking scheme
(a) - MP1: Similarity: Both cells are haploid / contain one set of chromosomes. (1) - MP2: Sperm has flagellum / is motile, whereas oocyte is non-motile. (1) - MP3: Sperm has very little cytoplasm / is streamlined / has mitochondria in midpiece, whereas oocyte has large volume of cytoplasm with yolk/lipid droplets. (1) - MP4: Sperm has an acrosome, whereas the oocyte has cortical granules / is surrounded by the zona pellucida / corona radiata. (1) [Note: Must present direct comparisons to gain differences marks.]
(b) - MP1: Binding triggers acrosome reaction / fusion of acrosome membrane with sperm cell membrane. (1) - MP2: Release of digestive enzymes / acrosin via exocytosis to digest the zona pellucida. (1) - MP3: Sperm membrane fuses with oocyte membrane (releasing sperm nucleus). (1) - MP4: Cortical reaction occurs where cortical granules release enzymes that cross-link/harden the zona pellucida (preventing polyspermy). (1)
(c) - MP1: Release of acrosin / hydrolytic enzymes. (1) - MP2: Digestion of the protective zona pellucida layer to allow sperm membrane to contact and fuse with the egg membrane. (1)
Question 4 · structured
10 marks
Stem cells hold immense potential in medicine because of their ability to divide and differentiate into specialized cell types.
(a) Explain the difference between totipotent and pluripotent stem cells, giving an example of where each can be found in human development. (3)
(b) Describe how differential gene expression leads to the specialization of stem cells into specific tissue types. (4)
(c) Explain how epigenetic modifications, such as DNA methylation, can regulate gene expression without altering the base sequence of DNA. (3)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) 1. Totipotent stem cells can differentiate into any body cell type PLUS extra-embryonic tissues (such as the placenta and umbilical cord). They are found in the zygote or early blastomeres (up to the 8-cell stage). 2. Pluripotent stem cells can differentiate into any cell type of the embryo proper (cannot form extra-embryonic tissues). They are found in the inner cell mass of the blastocyst.
(b) 1. Stem cells receive specific chemical stimuli, environmental signals, or transcription factors. 2. Under these influences, some genes are activated (switched on) while others are deactivated/silenced (switched off). 3. Active genes are transcribed to produce messenger RNA (mRNA). 4. This mRNA is translated on ribosomes to synthesize specific structural proteins and enzymes. 5. These proteins permanently alter the cell's structure and function, causing it to differentiate into a specialized cell.
(c) 1. DNA methylation involves the addition of methyl groups (\(-\text{CH}_3\)) to cytosine bases in DNA, often at CpG islands. 2. This modification prevents the binding of transcription factors and RNA polymerase to the gene's promoter region. 3. As a result, the gene cannot be transcribed into mRNA (it is silenced), changing the phenotype/cell function without altering the actual sequence of DNA bases.
Marking scheme
(a) - MP1: Totipotent cells can differentiate into any body cell type plus extra-embryonic tissues / placenta, whereas pluripotent cells can differentiate into any embryonic cell but not extra-embryonic tissues. (1) - MP2: Totipotent cells are found in the zygote / early embryo (up to 8 cells). (1) - MP3: Pluripotent cells are found in the inner cell mass of the blastocyst. (1)
(b) - MP1: Cells receive chemical signals / transcription factors / stimulus. (1) - MP2: Certain genes are activated (switched on) / transcribed, while others are deactivated/silenced (switched off). (1) - MP3: Active genes produce mRNA which is translated into specific proteins. (1) - MP4: These specific proteins determine the cell's structural and physiological characteristics, leading to specialization. (1)
(c) - MP1: Methyl groups (\(-\text{CH}_3\)) are added to cytosine bases/CpG islands. (1) - MP2: This prevents transcription factors / RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter region. (1) - MP3: This prevents transcription (silences the gene) without altering the DNA base sequence. (1)
Question 5 · structured
10 marks
Plants depend on specialized cells and macromolecules to provide physical support and transport water throughout their structures.
(a) Compare and contrast the structures of cellulose and starch. (4)
(b) Explain how the arrangement of cellulose microfibrils and the presence of lignin contribute to the function of xylem vessels. (4)
(c) State two differences in structure between xylem vessels and sclerenchyma fibres. (2)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Similarities: 1. Both cellulose and starch are polysaccharides made of glucose monomers joined by glycosidic bonds.
Differences: 2. Cellulose is composed of \(\beta\)-glucose monomers, whereas starch is composed of \(\alpha\)-glucose monomers (amylose and amylopectin). 3. Cellulose consists of straight, unbranched chains, whereas starch contains coiled (amylose) or branched (amylopectin) chains. 4. In cellulose, alternate glucose monomers are inverted (rotated \(180^\circ\)) relative to each other, allowing hydrogen bonds to form between parallel chains (forming microfibrils), which does not occur in starch. 5. Cellulose has only \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds, whereas starch contains \(\alpha\)-1,4- (in amylose and amylopectin) and \(\alpha\)-1,6-glycosidic bonds (at branches in amylopectin).
(b) 1. Cellulose microfibrils are arranged in a net-like or spiral arrangement (criss-crossed) within the primary cell wall. 2. This arrangement provides high tensile strength to the cell walls, preventing them from bursting and allowing them to resist pulling forces (tension) during water transport. 3. Lignin is deposited in the cell walls of xylem vessels, making them waterproof. This prevents water from leaking out of the vessels as it is transported. 4. Lignin also provides substantial structural reinforcement, preventing the hollow xylem vessels from collapsing under the negative pressure (tension) generated by transpiration.
(c) 1. Xylem vessels are continuous, hollow tubes with no end walls (they are perforated or completely lost), whereas sclerenchyma fibres are individual spindle-shaped cells with closed end walls. 2. Xylem vessels have a wider lumen than sclerenchyma fibres.
Marking scheme
(a) - MP1: Both are polysaccharides made of glucose monomers linked by glycosidic bonds. (1) - MP2: Cellulose is made of \(\beta\)-glucose, whereas starch is made of \(\alpha\)-glucose. (1) - MP3: Cellulose is straight / unbranched (with alternating monomers rotated \(180^\circ\)), whereas starch is branched (amylopectin) or helical/coiled (amylose). (1) - MP4: Cellulose has only 1,4-glycosidic bonds, while starch has both 1,4- and 1,6-glycosidic bonds. (1)
(b) - MP1: Cellulose microfibrils are arranged in a criss-cross / spiral pattern. (1) - MP2: This provides high tensile strength to withstand pulling forces (tension) of water transport. (1) - MP3: Lignin is waterproof, preventing water loss / leakage from the lumen. (1) - MP4: Lignin provides mechanical support, preventing xylem vessels from collapsing under negative pressure/tension. (1)
(c) - MP1: Xylem vessels have no end walls (form a continuous tube), whereas sclerenchyma fibres have closed end walls / are tapered. (1) - MP2: Xylem vessels have a wider lumen than sclerenchyma fibres. (1)
Question 6 · structured
10 marks
In plants, specific inorganic ions are crucial for survival. Historically, humans have exploited plant extracts to treat medical conditions, though methods of drug development have evolved significantly.
(a) Describe the roles of magnesium ions and calcium ions in plants, and explain the visual symptoms observed when a plant is deficient in these ions. (4)
(b) Compare William Withering's digitalis soup investigations with modern clinical drug trials. (4)
(c) Explain the purpose of a double-blind trial in Phase II of modern clinical drug testing. (2)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) 1. Magnesium ions are a central component of the chlorophyll molecule, which is required for photosynthesis. Deficiency leads to chlorosis (yellowing of leaves), particularly starting in the older leaves. 2. Calcium ions are required for the synthesis of calcium pectate, which forms the middle lamella that holds plant cell walls together. Deficiency leads to stunted growth, dying growing tips (meristems), and distorted/curling young leaves.
(b) Similarities: 1. Both aimed to find the correct, non-toxic dose (optimum concentration) of the active ingredient (Withering tested different strengths of 'digitalis soup'; modern Phase I and II trials identify appropriate dosing). 2. Both tested the substance on actual patients suffering from the target disease (Withering used dropsy patients; modern Phase II/III trials use patients).
Differences: 3. Withering did not test the substance on healthy volunteers beforehand, whereas modern clinical trials use healthy human volunteers in Phase I. 4. Withering did not perform pre-clinical testing on isolated cells or animals, whereas modern trials require extensive safety testing on animals and cells before human trials. 5. Withering did not use double-blind protocols or placebos, whereas modern Phase II and III trials are double-blind and utilize placebos to eliminate bias.
(c) 1. In a double-blind trial, neither the patients nor the doctors/researchers administering the drug know who is receiving the active drug and who is receiving the inactive placebo. 2. This eliminates observer bias (from researchers interpreting symptoms differently) and control for the psychological placebo effect (from patients reporting false positive improvements).
Marking scheme
(a) - MP1: Magnesium is needed for chlorophyll synthesis. (1) - MP2: Magnesium deficiency causes chlorosis / yellowing of leaves. (1) - MP3: Calcium is needed for calcium pectate / middle lamella formation. (1) - MP4: Calcium deficiency causes stunted growth / distorted leaves / dying growing tips. (1)
(b) - MP1: Similarity: Both tested on patients with the disease to find the effective dose. (1) - MP2: Difference: Withering did not test on healthy volunteers (Phase I), whereas modern trials do. (1) - MP3: Difference: Withering did not test on animal/cell cultures (pre-clinical), whereas modern trials do. (1) - MP4: Difference: Withering did not use placebos or double-blind designs, whereas modern trials do. (1)
(c) - MP1: Neither the patient nor the doctor knows who has the drug or the placebo. (1) - MP2: Eliminates researcher/observer bias AND controls for the placebo effect. (1)
Question 7 · structured
10 marks
Biodiversity and species adaptation are fundamental concepts in conservation biology.
(a) Define the terms "endemism" and "ecological niche". (2)
(b) A student sampled two different woodland sites (A and B) to calculate the Simpson's Index of Diversity (\(D\)) using the formula: \(D = 1 - \frac{\sum n(n-1)}{N(N-1)}\) In Site A, the total number of individuals of all species (\(N\)) was \(120\), and \(\sum n(n-1)\) was calculated as \(3480\). Calculate the Simpson's Index of Diversity (\(D\)) for Site A. Show your working. (2)
(c) Explain how natural selection can lead to the adaptation of a species to its ecological niche. (4)
(d) Suggest why conserving genetic diversity within a small, isolated population of an endangered species is important. (2)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) 1. Endemism: A species is endemic when it is unique to a defined geographic location (such as a specific island or region) and is not found naturally anywhere else in the world. 2. Ecological niche: The specific role or position that a species occupies within its habitat, including its interactions with biotic (e.g., food, predators) and abiotic (e.g., temperature, light) factors.
(b) 1. Calculate the denominator \(N(N-1)\): \(N(N-1) = 120 \times (120 - 1) = 120 \times 119 = 14280\). 2. Calculate the fraction: \(\frac{\sum n(n-1)}{N(N-1)} = \frac{3480}{14280} \approx 0.2437\). 3. Calculate the Index of Diversity \(D\): \(D = 1 - 0.2437 = 0.7563\) (accept \(0.76\)).
(c) 1. There is genetic variation within a population due to random mutations, resulting in different alleles. 2. An environmental change or selective pressure acts upon the population (e.g., a new predator, climate shift, competition for food). 3. Individuals with advantageous alleles (phenotypes) that make them better suited to exploit their niche are more likely to survive and successfully reproduce. 4. These survivors pass on their advantageous alleles to their offspring. 5. Over many generations, the frequency of these advantageous alleles increases within the gene pool, leading to physical, physiological, or behavioural adaptations.
(d) 1. Small, isolated populations have limited gene pools and are highly vulnerable to inbreeding depression and genetic drift, which can reduce survival rates. 2. Maintaining genetic diversity ensures that some individuals may possess alleles that allow the population to adapt to future environmental changes (e.g., new diseases or climate change), preventing extinction.
Marking scheme
(a) - MP1: Endemism: A species being unique to one specific geographic location / not found naturally elsewhere. (1) - MP2: Ecological niche: The role / function / position of a species within its habitat. (1)
(b) - MP1: Correct calculation of \(N(N-1) = 14280\). (1) - MP2: Correct final value of \(0.76\) or \(0.756\). (1)
(c) - MP1: Genetic variation exists within the population due to mutation. (1) - MP2: Selective pressure / environmental change acts on the population. (1) - MP3: Individuals with advantageous alleles are more likely to survive and reproduce. (1) - MP4: Advantageous alleles are passed on to offspring, increasing in frequency over generations. (1)
(d) - MP1: To avoid inbreeding depression / genetic drift / accumulation of harmful homozygous recessive alleles. (1) - MP2: To provide a wider gene pool that allows the population to adapt to future environmental changes / diseases. (1)
Question 8 · structured
10 marks
Conserving biodiversity often requires a combination of in-situ (on-site) and ex-situ (off-site) approaches.
(a) Explain why seeds are dried and kept at low temperatures (\(-20\text{ }^\circ\text{C}\)) when stored in a seed bank. (4)
(b) Describe how captive breeding programmes in zoos use genetic techniques and studbooks to maintain genetic diversity and prevent inbreeding depression in endangered species. (4)
(c) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage of ex-situ conservation compared with in-situ conservation. (2)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) 1. Drying removes moisture, and low temperatures decrease enzyme activity and metabolic rate within the seed. 2. This prevents the seeds from germinating during storage. 3. It also prevents the growth of decomposers (such as fungi or bacteria) which would otherwise rot and destroy the seeds. 4. This maximizes the lifespan and long-term viability of the seeds, allowing them to be stored for decades or centuries.
(b) 1. Studbooks record the ancestry, pedigree, and location of all captive individuals of an endangered species across different institutions globally. 2. Zoos use this data to select breeding pairs that are genetically unrelated / have the lowest kinship coefficient. 3. This prevents inbreeding, which would otherwise lead to a higher occurrence of homozygous recessive genetic disorders (inbreeding depression). 4. Genetic techniques (e.g., DNA profiling/micro-satellites) are used to measure heterozygosity and ensure genetic variation is maximized when exchanging individuals or gametes between zoos.
(c) 1. Advantage of ex-situ: Provides immediate protection from threats in the wild (e.g., poachers, predators, diseases, habitat destruction) under highly controlled conditions. 2. Disadvantage of ex-situ: Captive animals can lose natural survival behaviours (e.g., hunting, predator avoidance) which makes successful reintroduction difficult OR captive populations have small gene pools that can lead to rapid genetic drift.
Marking scheme
(a) - MP1: Drying/cooling reduces enzyme activity / metabolic rate. (1) - MP2: This prevents germination of the seeds during storage. (1) - MP3: It prevents the growth of decay-causing microorganisms (bacteria/fungi). (1) - MP4: It increases the survival time / viability of the seeds. (1)
(b) - MP1: Studbooks document the ancestry / genetic history of all captive individuals. (1) - MP2: Breeding pairs are selected based on being unrelated / having low kinship to prevent inbreeding. (1) - MP3: Inbreeding prevention reduces the risk of inbreeding depression / expression of harmful homozygous recessive alleles. (1) - MP4: Genetic profiling (DNA testing) is used to check genetic similarity / maximize heterozygosity when exchanging mates. (1)
(c) - MP1: Advantage: Controlled environment with protection from poaching / predators / diseases. (1) - MP2: Disadvantage: Captive animals may lose natural instincts/behaviours, making wild reintroduction unsuccessful OR high cost of maintenance. (1)
Section Unit 3: Practical Skills in Biology I
Answer ALL questions. Focuses on core practical competencies under Units 1 & 2.
3 Question · 49.800000000000004 marks
Question 1 · practical
16.6 marks
A student investigated the effect of ethanol concentration on the permeability of beetroot cell membranes. Beetroot cells contain a red pigment called betalain, located in the vacuole. The student prepared five different concentrations of ethanol (0%, 20%, 40%, 60%, and 80%). Equal-sized cylinders of beetroot were cut, washed thoroughly in distilled water, and then placed in the ethanol solutions for 20 minutes. The absorbance of each surrounding solution was measured using a colorimeter with a green filter. Part (a): Explain why the beetroot cylinders must be washed thoroughly in running water and then distilled water before being placed in the ethanol treatments. [3 marks] Part (b): Identify the independent variable and describe how it was manipulated, and identify two specific variables that must be controlled to ensure valid results. [4 marks] Part (c): Explain why a green filter (approx. 540 nm) is used in the colorimeter to measure the concentration of betalain. [3 marks] Part (d): The student found that absorbance increased significantly at higher ethanol concentrations. Explain this result in terms of the structure of cell membranes and the properties of ethanol. [6.6 marks]
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Part (a): Cutting the beetroot damages cell membranes, causing pigment (betalain) to spill out onto the outer surface. Washing removes any surface pigment so that any pigment detected during the experiment is solely due to the effect of the ethanol treatment, ensuring validity. Part (b): Independent variable: ethanol concentration (0%, 20%, 40%, 60%, 80%). It is varied by diluting a stock solution of 100% ethanol with distilled water. Control variables: temperature of the water bath/environment, surface area/volume of beetroot cylinders, volume of ethanol solution, and immersion time. Part (c): Betalain is a red pigment, which means it reflects red light and absorbs its complementary colour, green light. Using a green filter ensures maximum light absorption by the pigment, resulting in high sensitivity and accuracy in the colorimeter readings. Part (d): High concentrations of ethanol disrupt the cell membrane and tonoplast. Ethanol is an organic solvent that dissolves the phospholipid bilayer. It also denatures membrane proteins (carrier and channel proteins) by disrupting hydrophobic interactions. This increases membrane permeability, allowing betalain molecules to diffuse out of the vacuole and cell into the external solution, increasing the absorbance.
Marking scheme
Part (a) [3 marks]: 1. Cutting damages cells/tonoplast/membranes releasing pigment (1 mark); 2. Washing removes this surface-bound pigment (1 mark); 3. Ensures that any pigment measured is due only to the experimental treatment/ethanol concentration (1 mark). Part (b) [4 marks]: 1. Independent variable: ethanol concentration (1 mark); 2. Manipulation: dilution of standard ethanol stock solution with distilled water (1 mark); 3. Control variable 1: volume of ethanol solution / size or surface area of beetroot cylinders / immersion time (1 mark); 4. Control variable 2: constant temperature using a water bath (1 mark). Part (c) [3 marks]: 1. Betalain is a red pigment which reflects red light (1 mark); 2. Betalain absorbs complementary green light (1 mark); 3. Using green light ensures maximum absorption/sensitivity of the colorimeter to changes in concentration (1 mark). Part (d) [6.6 marks]: 1. Ethanol is an organic solvent (1 mark); 2. Ethanol dissolves phospholipids / phospholipid bilayer (1 mark); 3. Ethanol denatures membrane proteins (1 mark); 4. Loss of membrane structure/integrity leads to increased permeability (1 mark); 5. Betalain escapes by diffusion out of the vacuole and cytoplasm (1 mark); 6. High absorbance is directly proportional to increased betalain concentration in solution (1.6 marks).
Question 2 · practical
16.6 marks
A student wanted to compare the tensile strength of plant fibres extracted from Manila hemp (Musa textilis) and Sisal (Agave sisalana). Tensile strength is the maximum stress a material can withstand before breaking. Part (a): Describe a safe method to extract intact vascular bundle fibres from plant stems before testing. [3 marks] Part (b): Outline a laboratory procedure to measure and compare the tensile strength of the extracted fibres, including safety precautions. [7 marks] Part (c): State three variables that must be controlled to ensure a fair and valid comparison between the two species, and how they are controlled. [3.6 marks] Part (d): Explain how the cross-sectional area of the fibres could be estimated to allow the calculation of tensile strength. [3 marks]
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Part (a): Stems are left to soak in water for several days/weeks (a process called retting) to allow microbes to decompose the surrounding soft tissues, or boiled in alkali. The tough, lignified sclerenchyma/vascular fibres are then scraped or peeled away carefully and washed/dried. Part (b): Secure a single fibre of a fixed length between two clamps or retort stands. Add standard masses (e.g., 10g or 50g) systematically to the end of the fibre one at a time. Record the mass at which the fibre breaks. Multiply the breaking mass by 9.81 (or use mass) to find the force (tension). Wear safety goggles to protect eyes from snapping fibres, and place a soft cushion/box under the weights to catch them when they fall. Repeat for multiple replicates and calculate the mean breaking force. Part (c): Fibre length (measured with a ruler to ensure uniformity), temperature of the room (kept constant), relative humidity (kept constant), and rate of adding mass (added at steady intervals without dropping). Part (d): Cut a thin cross-section of the fibre and observe under a light microscope calibrated with an eyepiece graticule and stage micrometer. Measure the diameter of the fibre in several directions, calculate the mean radius (r), and calculate the cross-sectional area using the formula: Area = pi * r^2.
Marking scheme
Part (a) [3 marks]: 1. Retting/soaking in water or boiling in sodium hydroxide/alkali to soften tissues (1 mark); 2. Scraping/peeling soft tissues away to leave vascular bundles (1 mark); 3. Washing with water and drying the fibres (1 mark). Part (b) [7 marks]: 1. Suspend a fibre between two clamps/stands (1 mark); 2. Add standard masses (e.g. 10g/50g) sequentially until the fibre snaps (1 mark); 3. Record the mass required to break the fibre (1 mark); 4. Replicates: repeat with at least 5 different fibres from each species to calculate a mean (1 mark); 5. Safety: wear safety glasses to protect eyes from whipping fibres (1 mark); 6. Safety: place a padded box/sand tray underneath the weights to catch falling masses (1 mark); 7. Calculate force using Force = mass x acceleration due to gravity (1 mark). Part (c) [3.6 marks]: 1. Control variable 1: Length of fibre - measure and cut to a standard length (e.g., 10 cm) (1.2 marks); 2. Control variable 2: Age/dryness of plant material - select fibres from plants of the same developmental age and dry them for the same duration (1.2 marks); 3. Control variable 3: Mass increment rate - add weights gently/slowly to avoid impact-induced snapping (1.2 marks). Part (d) [3 marks]: 1. Use a calibrated light microscope with an eyepiece graticule (1 mark); 2. Measure the diameter of the fibre at multiple points along its length or in different orientations and calculate the mean diameter (1 mark); 3. Use Area = pi * r^2 (where r = diameter / 2) (1 mark).
Question 3 · practical
16.6 marks
A student determined the concentration of Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) in fresh and pasteurised orange juice using a titration method with DCPIP (dichlorophenolindophenol) dye. Part (a): Describe how to prepare a calibration curve using a standard solution of Vitamin C. [5 marks] Part (b): Explain the chemical basis of the reaction between Vitamin C and DCPIP, including the colour change observed. [3 marks] Part (c): In a titration, 1.0 cm3 of 1% DCPIP required 2.5 cm3 of a standard 1.0 mg/cm3 Vitamin C solution to be decolourised. The same volume of DCPIP required 1.8 cm3 of fresh orange juice and 4.5 cm3 of pasteurised orange juice. Calculate the concentrations of Vitamin C in both juices (in mg/cm3). Show your working. [4.6 marks] Part (d): Identify two sources of experimental error in this titration and suggest how to minimise each error. [4 marks]
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Part (a): Prepare a series of known Vitamin C concentrations (e.g., 0.2, 0.4, 0.6, 0.8, 1.0 mg/cm3) by serial dilution of a stock solution. Titrate a fixed volume (e.g., 1 cm3) of DCPIP with each concentration, recording the volume of Vitamin C solution needed to decolourise the DCPIP. Plot a graph of Vitamin C concentration on the x-axis against the volume needed on the y-axis, or vice versa. Part (b): Vitamin C is an antioxidant/reducing agent. When added to blue DCPIP, it reduces DCPIP. This reduction reaction causes the blue DCPIP dye to become colourless. Part (c): 1.0 cm3 of 1% DCPIP corresponds to 2.5 cm3 of 1.0 mg/cm3 Vitamin C, which equals 2.5 mg of Vitamin C. Thus, the mass of Vitamin C required to decolourise 1 cm3 of DCPIP is 2.5 mg. For fresh juice: 1.8 cm3 contains 2.5 mg of Vitamin C. Concentration = 2.5 mg / 1.8 cm3 = 1.39 mg/cm3. For pasteurised juice: 4.5 cm3 contains 2.5 mg of Vitamin C. Concentration = 2.5 mg / 4.5 cm3 = 0.56 mg/cm3. Part (d): Error 1: Difficulty in identifying the exact end point (colour change from blue to colourless/pinkish), especially with coloured juices. Minimisation: Use a white background, perform the titration dropwise with constant swirling, or use a colorimeter. Error 2: Loss of Vitamin C due to oxidation by exposure to air/oxygen. Minimisation: Keep juices covered and test immediately after extraction.
Marking scheme
Part (a) [5 marks]: 1. Carry out serial dilutions of stock Vitamin C solution to prepare at least 5 known concentrations (1 mark); 2. Titrate a fixed volume/concentration of DCPIP with each solution (1 mark); 3. Record the volume of each standard solution needed to decolourise DCPIP (1 mark); 4. Replicate and calculate a mean volume for each concentration (1 mark); 5. Plot a graph of Vitamin C concentration against volume of solution needed (1 mark). Part (b) [3 marks]: 1. Vitamin C acts as a reducing agent / antioxidant (1 mark); 2. DCPIP is an electron acceptor / becomes reduced (1 mark); 3. Colour change is from blue to colourless (or slightly pink if juice is acidic) (1 mark). Part (c) [4.6 marks]: 1. Recognises that the amount of Vitamin C to decolourise the DCPIP is constant (2.5 mg) (1 mark); 2. Correct calculation for fresh juice: 2.5 / 1.8 = 1.39 mg/cm3 (1.3 marks); 3. Correct calculation for pasteurised juice: 2.5 / 4.5 = 0.56 mg/cm3 (1.3 marks); 4. Show clear working and correct units (mg/cm3) (1 mark). Part (d) [4 marks]: 1. Error 1: Identifying endpoint because orange juice is yellow/orange (1 mark); 2. Minimise 1: Titrate against a white tile / compare with a control tube of juice without DCPIP / use a colorimeter (1 mark); 3. Error 2: Oxidation of Vitamin C by air exposure (1 mark); 4. Minimise 2: Prepare juice freshly and keep in sealed containers/tubes until titration (1 mark).
Section Unit 4: Energy, Environment, Microbiology and Immunity
Answer ALL questions. Focuses on advanced biochemistry, forensic biology, and immunizations.
A forensic team discovers a body wrapped in thick, air-tight plastic film in a shallow grave. (a) Explain why wrapping a body in plastic film affects the rate of temperature decrease after death. (3 marks) (b) Describe how wrapping affects the succession of insects on the body and how this influences the estimation of the post-mortem interval (PMI). (4 marks) (c) Suggest how forensic scientists could use DNA profiling of insect gut contents to provide evidence about the crime scene. (3 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Wrapping acts as an insulator, trapping a layer of air around the body. This reduces heat loss by radiation, conduction, and convection, slowing the rate of body cooling (algor mortis). Additionally, it prevents water loss and evaporative cooling. (b) The plastic film acts as a physical barrier that prevents pioneer insects, such as blowflies, from gaining immediate access to the body to lay eggs. This delays colonization, disrupting the predictable chronological succession of species. If standard outdoor colonization curves are applied without correction, the PMI would be significantly underestimated. (c) Forensic scientists can extract human DNA from the digestive tracts of insects feeding on the body. Using PCR and gel electrophoresis, they can construct a DNA profile to confirm the identity of the victim, or potentially identify a suspect if blood-feeding insects fed on a perpetrator at the scene.
Marking scheme
(a) 1. Plastic wraps act as thermal insulation or trap a layer of air; 2. This reduces heat loss via radiation, conduction, or convection; 3. Inhibits evaporation of water which would normally accelerate cooling. (b) 1. Plastic provides a physical barrier preventing blowflies or other pioneer insects from accessing the corpse; 2. Delaying oviposition / egg-laying on the remains; 3. Disrupts the predictable pattern of insect succession; 4. Results in an underestimation of PMI if standard calibration curves are used. (c) 1. Extract DNA from the gut contents of insects collected from the corpse; 2. Amplify hypervariable STR regions using PCR; 3. Compare the generated profile with the victim or suspects to establish identity or presence.
An immunization study compares the efficacy of an mRNA vaccine and a subunit protein vaccine against a viral pathogen. (a) Explain the difference between active immunity produced by these vaccines and passive immunity acquired via monoclonal antibody therapy. (3 marks) (b) Analyze why the primary response to the first dose of the subunit vaccine results in a lower IgG concentration compared to the secondary response after a booster. (4 marks) (c) The mRNA vaccine encodes a viral spike protein. Suggest how antigen-presenting cells (APCs) process and present this protein to initiate a helper T cell response. (3 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Active immunity involves the host immune system actively producing its own antibodies and generating memory cells, providing long-term protection. Passive immunity involves administering pre-formed monoclonal antibodies, which provides immediate but temporary protection because no memory cells are formed. (b) The primary response has a lag phase where naive B cells undergo clonal selection, expansion, and differentiation into plasma cells. The secondary response utilizes pre-existing memory B cells that recognize the antigen immediately, undergoing rapid clonal expansion to produce a much higher concentration of IgG antibodies with greater affinity. (c) APCs (such as dendritic cells) take up the expressed viral spike protein and digest it into short peptide fragments using intracellular enzymes. These peptide fragments are then bound to MHC class II molecules and transported to the cell surface membrane, where they are presented to naive helper T cells with complementary T-cell receptors.
Marking scheme
(a) 1. Active immunity stimulates antibody and memory cell production (long-term); 2. Passive immunity delivers ready-made antibodies, offering immediate but short-term protection; 3. Active immunity requires exposure to the antigen, whereas passive does not. (b) 1. Primary response has a lag period for clonal selection of naive B cells; 2. Fewer plasma cells are active during the primary response; 3. Secondary response is triggered by existing memory cells; 4. Memory cells undergo faster, larger-scale clonal expansion to release vast quantities of IgG. (c) 1. APCs engulf or express the spike protein and degrade it into peptides; 2. Antigen fragments are loaded onto MHC Class II molecules; 3. The MHC-antigen complex is displayed on the cell surface membrane to helper T cells.
The effect of elevated environmental temperature on the light-independent stage of photosynthesis was studied in C3 crop plants. (a) Describe the roles of ATP and reduced NADP in the light-independent stage of photosynthesis. (3 marks) (b) High temperature increases the rate of photorespiration because Rubisco has a higher affinity for oxygen at elevated temperatures. Explain the impact of this on the net primary productivity (NPP) of a C3 plant. (4 marks) (c) Suggest how genetic engineering could be used to modify Rubisco to increase crop yield in warming climates. (3 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) ATP provides energy for the reduction of glycerate 3-phosphate (GP) to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (GALP), and also provides phosphate and energy for the regeneration of ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) from GALP. Reduced NADP provides the hydrogen atoms and electrons required to reduce GP to GALP. (b) When Rubisco binds oxygen instead of carbon dioxide, photorespiration occurs. This decreases the rate of carbon fixation, which reduces the production of GP and GALP. Consequently, the rate of photosynthesis, or Gross Primary Productivity (GPP), decreases. Since NPP = GPP - R (where R is respiration), a decrease in GPP, coupled with unchanged or increased respiration at high temperatures, significantly lowers NPP, reducing plant biomass. (c) Scientists can isolate genes encoding Rubisco subunits from organisms (like certain red algae) that exhibit high carboxylation specificity even at high temperatures. These genes can be inserted into a plasmid vector, introduced into plant cells via Agrobacterium or a gene gun, and regenerated into transgenic crops that express more efficient Rubisco enzymes.
Marking scheme
(a) 1. ATP provides energy for GP to GALP conversion; 2. ATP provides phosphate for RuBP regeneration; 3. Reduced NADP provides hydrogen/electrons for the reduction of GP. (b) 1. Oxygen binds to Rubisco's active site instead of carbon dioxide; 2. Less carbon dioxide is fixed, reducing GP and GALP synthesis; 3. Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) is significantly reduced; 4. Since NPP = GPP - R, a reduction in GPP leads to a lower Net Primary Productivity (NPP). (c) 1. Identify and isolate genes for Rubisco with high carbon dioxide specificity; 2. Vector usage (e.g., plasmid) to transfer the gene into plant cells; 3. Expression of modified Rubisco results in reduced photorespiration / higher biomass.
A novel extract from a marine actinobacterium shows potent antimicrobial activity. (a) Distinguish between the mechanisms of action of bactericidal and bacteriostatic antibiotics. (3 marks) (b) Describe how a disc diffusion assay should be carried out and standardized to reliably compare the efficacy of this novel extract with streptomycin. (4 marks) (c) Explain how MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) can rapidly develop resistance to new antibiotics through natural selection. (3 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria directly, often by targeting cell wall synthesis (causing cell lysis) or cell membrane integrity. Bacteriostatic antibiotics prevent the reproduction and growth of bacteria, typically by inhibiting protein synthesis or DNA replication, allowing the host's immune system to destroy the stagnant population. (b) Prepare a uniform lawn of bacteria on nutrient agar plates using aseptic techniques. Apply identical sterile paper discs soaked in equal volumes and concentrations of the novel extract, streptomycin (positive control), and the pure solvent (negative control). Incubate the plates at a safe temperature (e.g., 25-30 degrees C) for 24-48 hours. Measure the diameter of the zones of inhibition for comparison. (c) A random mutation in the bacterial genome may encode a mechanism to bypass or degrade the new antibiotic. When exposed to the antibiotic (selection pressure), non-resistant strains are killed, while the resistant mutant survives. The survivor reproduces rapidly by binary fission, passing the resistance allele to all offspring, increasing the allele frequency in the population.
Marking scheme
(a) 1. Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria (e.g., cell wall disruption); 2. Bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit bacterial reproduction/growth (e.g., translation inhibitors); 3. Bacteriostatic action requires host immune response to clear infection. (b) 1. Inoculate agar plate with a uniform bacterial lawn using aseptic technique; 2. Use identical discs containing equal volume and concentration of extract and controls; 3. Include a negative/solvent control; 4. Incubate at a controlled, safe temperature (below 37°C) and measure the zone of inhibition diameter. (c) 1. Random mutation produces a novel resistance allele; 2. Exposure to the antibiotic acts as a strong selection pressure; 3. Resistant individuals survive and reproduce, passing the resistance allele via vertical (or horizontal) gene transfer.
Peat bogs are major global carbon sinks that are currently threatened by global warming. (a) Explain why decomposition is highly retarded in waterlogged, anaerobic conditions of peat bogs. (3 marks) (b) Discuss the positive feedback loop between global warming, decomposition rates in thawing permafrost, and the greenhouse effect. (4 marks) (c) Distinguish between gross primary productivity (GPP) and net primary productivity (NPP) in the context of a bog ecosystem. (3 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Waterlogging displaces air from the soil, causing anaerobic conditions. Decomposers (bacteria and fungi) cannot perform aerobic respiration, which is highly efficient. Anaerobic respiration occurs slowly, producing organic acids that lower the pH. This acidic environment denatures the hydrolytic enzymes of decomposers, severely retarding the breakdown of organic matter. (b) Increasing global temperatures cause permafrost to thaw, exposing ancient stored organic matter to decomposers. As decomposers break down this organic material under newly warmed conditions, they release large amounts of carbon dioxide (via aerobic respiration) and methane (via anaerobic respiration). These greenhouse gases accumulate in the atmosphere and trap outgoing infrared radiation, accelerating global warming and thawing more permafrost. (c) GPP is the total rate at which chemical energy is incorporated into organic matter by the bog's producers through photosynthesis. NPP is the remaining chemical energy stored in plant biomass after subtracting the energy lost due to the producers' own respiration (R). The relationship is expressed as NPP = GPP - R.
Marking scheme
(a) 1. Waterlogging prevents oxygen diffusion, leading to anaerobic conditions; 2. Decomposers cannot carry out aerobic respiration, slowing growth and metabolic rates; 3. Low pH/acidic conditions denature decomposer enzymes, halting decay. (b) 1. Rising global temperature thaws frozen permafrost; 2. Organic matter becomes accessible to decomposers, which respire; 3. Respiration releases CO2 and methane (greenhouse gases); 4. These gases trap heat in the atmosphere, increasing global temperatures further. (c) 1. GPP is the total chemical energy fixed by photosynthesis; 2. NPP is GPP minus respiratory losses (R); 3. Equation: NPP = GPP - R.
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) targets specific immune cells during infection. (a) Explain how HIV infects helper T cells, referencing specific glycoproteins and host cell receptors. (4 marks) (b) Describe the consequences of the destruction of helper T cells on both the humoral and cell-mediated immune responses. (4 marks) (c) Suggest why individuals with a homozygous CCR5-delta-32 mutation are highly resistant to HIV-1 infection. (2 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) The viral surface glycoprotein gp120 binds specifically to the CD4 receptor on the helper T cell. This binding causes a conformational change allowing gp120 to bind to the host co-receptor, CCR5. The viral glycoprotein gp41 then undergoes a structural transition that mediates the fusion of the viral envelope with the host cell membrane, releasing the viral capsid into the host cytoplasm. (b) Helper T cells produce cytokines (such as interleukins) that are essential for activating other immune cells. Without helper T cells, the humoral response is crippled because B cells are not stimulated to proliferate and differentiate into antibody-producing plasma cells. The cell-mediated response is also lost because cytotoxic T cells cannot be fully activated to divide and destroy host cells infected by intracellular pathogens. (c) The CCR5-delta-32 mutation is a deletion that results in a non-functional, truncated CCR5 co-receptor protein that is not expressed on the cell surface. Since the co-receptor is absent or deformed, gp120 cannot bind to it, preventing the fusion of the viral envelope with the cell membrane and making the individual immune to infection.
Marking scheme
(a) 1. gp120 binds to CD4 receptor on host cell; 2. gp120 binds to co-receptor CCR5; 3. gp41 undergoes conformational change; 4. Fusion of viral envelope with helper T cell membrane occurs. (b) 1. Lack of cytokines / interleukins; 2. No activation of B cells / failure of B cells to clonal expand/differentiate; 3. Lack of plasma cells results in no antibody production; 4. Cytotoxic T cells are not activated to kill infected host cells. (c) 1. Mutation results in non-functional / absent CCR5 co-receptor; 2. HIV gp120 cannot bind to complete cell entry.
A biological sample from a crime scene is analyzed using forensic DNA techniques. (a) Describe how the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to amplify DNA from a minute biological sample, highlighting the role of temperature changes. (4 marks) (b) Explain the principles of gel electrophoresis that allow amplified STR fragments to be separated and visualized. (3 marks) (c) Discuss why matching 10 distinct STR loci provides a much higher probability of correct identification than matching only 3 loci. (3 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) The reaction mixture is heated to 90-95 degrees C to break hydrogen bonds, denaturing the double-stranded DNA. The temperature is then lowered to 50-55 degrees C, allowing primers to anneal to complementary target sequences. Finally, the mixture is heated to 70-75 degrees C, the optimum temperature for Taq polymerase, which synthesizes a new strand by adding free nucleotides starting from the primers. This cycle is repeated to exponentially double the target DNA. (b) DNA fragments carry a negative charge due to their phosphate groups. When placed in an agarose gel and exposed to an electric field, they migrate towards the positive electrode (anode). The gel acts as a molecular sieve; smaller STR fragments travel faster and further than larger fragments. A fluorescent stain or dye is added to visualize the resulting bands under UV light. (c) STR loci are located on different chromosomes and are inherited independently. According to the product rule of probability, the likelihood of two unrelated individuals sharing the same profile is determined by multiplying the frequency of each individual locus. As the number of loci increases from 3 to 10, the total probability of a random match decreases exponentially, making correct identification nearly certain.
Marking scheme
(a) 1. Denaturation: heat to 90-95°C to separate double-stranded DNA; 2. Annealing: cool to 50-55°C to allow primers to bind; 3. Extension: heat to 70-75°C for Taq polymerase to extend the new strand; 4. Repetition: cycle is repeated to yield exponential amplification. (b) 1. DNA has negative charge and moves toward the positive anode; 2. Smaller fragments move faster/further through the agarose matrix (molecular sieving); 3. Bands visualized using fluorescent dye/UV light. (c) 1. STR loci are independent (assort independently); 2. Individual probabilities are multiplied to calculate overall matching probability (product rule); 3. Increasing loci from 3 to 10 exponentially reduces the probability of a random match.
Plants protect themselves from pathogens using non-specific physical and chemical defenses. (a) Describe how physical and chemical barriers in plants prevent the entry and spread of bacterial pathogens. (4 marks) (b) Explain the role of salicylic acid as a signaling molecule in systemic acquired resistance (SAR). (3 marks) (c) Compare plant chemical defenses with the human non-specific inflammatory response to infection. (3 marks)
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Physical barriers include a thick waxy cuticle and rigid cellulose cell walls that block bacterial entry. Stomata can close rapidly upon pathogen detection to block invasion. If bacteria enter, the plant deposits callose between the cell wall and membrane to block plasmodesmata, sealing off infected cells. Chemical barriers include phytoalexins (antimicrobial compounds) and tannins that disrupt bacterial membranes or inhibit bacterial enzymes. (b) When a pathogen is detected locally, salicylic acid is synthesized at the infection site. It acts as a mobile signaling molecule, traveling through the phloem to distant, uninfected tissues. In these tissues, salicylic acid triggers the transcription of pathogenesis-related (PR) genes, which encode enzymes like chitinases and glucanases, preparing the whole plant to resist secondary attacks. (c) Both systems utilize chemical signaling molecules (e.g., salicylic acid in plants, histamines/cytokines in humans) to coordinate defenses. However, plants do not have mobile immune cells (such as neutrophils or macrophages) nor do they have a pumping circulatory system; instead, they rely on localized cell deaths (hypersensitive response) or slow vascular transport of signaling chemicals. Human inflammation involves vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and active cell migration, which do not occur in plants.
Marking scheme
(a) 1. Waxy cuticle or cellulose cell wall acts as a barrier to block entry; 2. Active closure of stomata restricts bacterial access; 3. Callose deposition seals plasmodesmata to limit spread; 4. Phytoalexins / tannins act as chemical toxins against bacteria. (b) 1. Salicylic acid is produced locally in response to infection; 2. Transported through the phloem to distant, uninfected tissues; 3. Induces transcription of PR (pathogenesis-related) genes / establishes systemic acquired resistance (SAR). (c) 1. Similarity: Both use systemic/local chemical signaling to coordinate defense; 2. Difference: Plants lack mobile phagocytic cells; 3. Difference: Human inflammation involves vascular changes (increased blood flow/permeability) which are absent in plants.
Question 9 · Structured
10 marks
Researchers conducted a clinical trial to evaluate two immunization strategies against a novel viral pathogen, VP-24.
- Group A received a subunit vaccine containing recombinant VP-24 surface glycoproteins combined with an adjuvant on Day 0, followed by a booster dose on Day 28. - Group B received a single intravenous infusion of monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) specific to the VP-24 glycoprotein on Day 0.
The concentration of anti-VP-24 antibodies in the blood plasma of individuals from both groups was monitored over a 56-day period.
(a) Describe and explain the differences in the plasma antibody concentrations between Group A and Group B from Day 0 to Day 27 (before the booster). [4]
(b) Explain how the subunit vaccine administered to Group A leads to the production of memory cells and a subsequent rapid, high-titre secondary immune response. [4]
(c) A third group of volunteers, Group C, had an immunodeficiency that resulted in non-functional T helper (T_H) cells. Evaluate the effect of this immunodeficiency on Group C's ability to produce a protective secondary immune response following vaccination with the subunit vaccine. [2]
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
Part (a) - Group B (Passive Immunity): Shows an immediate spike in antibody concentration on Day 1 because pre-synthesized monoclonal antibodies are introduced directly into the bloodstream. This concentration steadily declines over the 27 days because these foreign proteins are gradually broken down/metabolized and cleared from circulation, without any host synthesis of new antibodies. - Group A (Active Immunity): Shows a lag phase (typically 5-10 days) with no detectable antibodies because it takes time for antigen presentation, clonal selection, and clonal expansion of specific B cells to occur. Once active plasma cells are generated, antibody concentration rises to a peak around Day 14-21.
Part (b) - Antigen Presentation: Recombinant VP-24 glycoproteins (antigens) are engulfed by professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs), such as macrophages or dendritic cells, via phagocytosis. The antigens are processed and presented on the cell surface bound to Class II MHC molecules. - T-Helper Cell Activation: Naive T helper cells with complementary T-cell receptors (TCRs) bind to the antigen-MHC II complex. This interaction, along with co-stimulatory signals, activates the T helper cells, causing them to secrete cytokines (such as interleukins). - B-Cell Stimulation & Differentiation: Specific B cells that have bound the VP-24 antigen via their membrane-bound immunoglobulins internalize and present it to activated T helper cells. Cytokines released by the T helper cells stimulate these B cells to undergo clonal expansion (mitosis) and differentiate into both antibody-secreting plasma cells and long-lived memory B cells. - Secondary Response: Memory cells persist in lymphoid tissue. Upon re-exposure (such as the booster on Day 28), these memory cells rapidly recognize the antigen, undergo rapid division, and differentiate into plasma cells, secreting a much larger quantity of IgG antibodies with higher affinity in a significantly shorter time.
Part (c) - Failure of B-cell Activation: Without functional T helper cells, there is a lack of critical cytokines (e.g., IL-4, IL-21) needed to stimulate B cell proliferation, affinity maturation, and class switching (from IgM to IgG). - Lack of Memory Cells: Consequently, B cells fail to differentiate into memory B cells, meaning Group C cannot mount a secondary immune response and will not achieve long-term active immunity from the subunit vaccine.
Marking scheme
Part (a) [Max 4 marks] - MP1: Group B has an immediate high concentration of antibodies because it is passive immunity / pre-made antibodies are injected directly. (1) - MP2: Group B antibody concentration declines because antibodies are proteins that are degraded/cleared from the body over time (and no new ones are produced). (1) - MP3: Group A has a lag phase/delayed response because it is active immunity / time is required for antigen presentation, clonal selection, and clonal expansion of B/T cells. (1) - MP4: Group A antibody concentration increases to a peak as plasma cells mature and actively synthesize/secrete antibodies. (1)
Part (b) [Max 4 marks] - MP1: Glycoproteins (antigens) are phagocytosed by antigen-presenting cells (APCs) / macrophages and presented on MHC Class II molecules. (1) - MP2: T helper cells with complementary receptors bind to the APC and release cytokines (interleukins). (1) - MP3: Cytokines stimulate specific B cells (which have bound the antigen) to undergo clonal expansion / mitosis and differentiate into plasma cells and memory B cells. (1) - MP4: Memory cells persist in circulation/lymph nodes and, upon booster/re-exposure, rapidly differentiate into plasma cells to produce a rapid, high-titre antibody response. (1)
Part (c) [Max 2 marks] - MP1: Without T helper cells, there is no cytokine release to stimulate B cell proliferation / clonal expansion / class-switching. (1) - MP2: Therefore, no memory B cells are produced, preventing a rapid, high-titre secondary immune response. (1)
Section Unit 5: Respiration, Internal Environment, Coordination and Gene Technology
Answer ALL questions. Includes questions on pre-released scientific article.
8 Question · 90 marks
Question 1 · Structured
11.25 marks
Mitochondrial myopathies are a group of neuromuscular diseases caused by damage to or mutations within mitochondria. One such condition involves a loss-of-function mutation in Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase) of the electron transport chain (ETC).
(a) Explain why a patient with this mutation experiences a dramatic increase in blood lactate concentration even during moderate exercise. [5 marks]
(b) Under normal aerobic conditions, the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose yields a maximum of 30 to 32 ATP molecules. Calculate the maximum theoretical yield of ATP produced per molecule of glucose in a patient with a completely non-functional Complex I. Assume that: only FADH2 can feed electrons into the ETC, each NADH normally yields 2.5 ATP, each FADH2 yields 1.5 ATP, and substrate-level phosphorylation is unaffected. Show your working. [4.25 marks]
(c) Suggest how dietary supplementation with Coenzyme Q10 (ubiquinone) might help alleviate muscle fatigue in some patients with other ETC defects. [2 marks]
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Complex I is responsible for oxidizing NADH to NAD+ and transferring electrons to the electron transport chain. If Complex I is non-functional, NADH cannot be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation. To allow glycolysis to continue producing ATP, NAD+ must be regenerated. This is achieved by reducing pyruvate to lactate using the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase, which oxidizes NADH to NAD+. Consequently, anaerobic respiration becomes the primary pathway even during moderate exercise, leading to an accumulation of lactate in the blood.
(b) Working: - Glycolysis: produces 2 ATP directly via substrate-level phosphorylation, and 2 NADH. Since Complex I is non-functional, these 2 NADH yield 0 ATP via the ETC. - Link Reaction: produces 2 NADH (0 ATP via ETC). - Krebs Cycle: produces 2 ATP (or GTP) directly via substrate-level phosphorylation, 6 NADH (0 ATP via ETC), and 2 FADH2. - The 2 FADH2 enter the ETC at Complex II (bypassing Complex I) and are oxidized. Each FADH2 yields 1.5 ATP: 2 * 1.5 = 3 ATP. - Total ATP yield = 2 (Glycolysis SLP) + 2 (Krebs SLP) + 3 (FADH2 oxidative phosphorylation) = 7 ATP molecules.
(c) Coenzyme Q10 acts as an electron carrier that accepts electrons from Complex I and Complex II and transfers them to Complex III. Supplementation can increase the efficiency of electron transfer from the functioning complexes (like Complex II) to downstream complexes, partially restoring proton pumping and ATP synthesis.
Marking scheme
(a) 1 mark for stating that NADH cannot be oxidized at the ETC; 1 mark for stating that NAD+ must be regenerated for glycolysis to continue; 1 mark for stating that pyruvate is reduced to lactate; 1 mark for identifying the role of lactate dehydrogenase; 1 mark for concluding that anaerobic respiration is upregulated even under moderate exercise.
(b) 1 mark for identifying 2 ATP from glycolysis via substrate-level phosphorylation; 1 mark for identifying 2 ATP from the Krebs cycle via substrate-level phosphorylation; 1 mark for showing that NADH yields 0 ATP; 1 mark for calculating 3 ATP from 2 FADH2 (2 * 1.5); 0.25 marks for the correct final answer of 7 ATP molecules.
(c) 1 mark for identifying Coenzyme Q10 as a mobile electron carrier; 1 mark for explaining that it bypasses/compensates for upstream defects by carrying electrons from functional complexes (e.g. Complex II) to Complex III, maintaining some ATP production.
Question 2 · Structured
11.25 marks
A mountaineer is trapped in a blizzard, and their core body temperature begins to drop below the normal physiological range.
(a) Describe how thermoreceptors in the skin and hypothalamus detect a decrease in core body temperature, and explain the nerve pathways involved in initiating a homeostatic response. [4 marks]
(b) Explain how the nervous system coordinates shivering and vasoconstriction, and how these responses help to raise or maintain core body temperature. [5 marks]
(c) If core temperature falls below 30 degrees Celsius, positive feedback may occur, leading to a rapid decline in cardiac output. Explain why positive feedback occurs in this situation and its effect on cardiac muscle activity. [2.25 marks]
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Peripheral thermoreceptors in the skin detect changes in environmental temperature and send nerve impulses along sensory neurones to the hypothalamus. Central thermoreceptors in the hypothalamus itself monitor the temperature of the blood flowing through the brain. The hypothalamus acts as the coordinating centre, comparing input to a set point, and sends motor impulses via the autonomic nervous system and somatic nervous system to effectors.
(b) Shivering: The hypothalamus sends impulses down the spinal cord to somatic motor neurones, triggering rapid, involuntary contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscles. This muscle activity increases respiration rates, releasing heat energy as a waste product. Vasoconstriction: Sympathetic nerves stimulate the smooth muscle in the walls of arterioles supplying the skin capillaries to contract. This narrows the lumen of the arterioles, reducing blood flow to the skin surface and redirecting blood to core organs, thereby reducing heat loss by radiation and convection.
(c) At very low temperatures, metabolic enzymes in cardiac muscle cells slow down dramatically, reducing aerobic respiration and ATP production. This weakens cardiac muscle contraction, lowering blood pressure and cardiac output. Reduced blood flow further impairs the body's ability to distribute heat and maintain metabolic activity, leading to a self-reinforcing downward spiral (positive feedback).
Marking scheme
(a) 1 mark for peripheral receptors in skin and central receptors in hypothalamus; 1 mark for sensory neurones carrying impulses to hypothalamus; 1 mark for hypothalamus acting as the integrator/coordinating centre; 1 mark for autonomic/somatic motor pathways to effectors.
(b) 1 mark for shivering being triggered by somatic motor neurones causing involuntary skeletal muscle contraction; 1 mark for explaining that muscle respiration releases heat; 1 mark for vasoconstriction involving sympathetic stimulation of arteriole smooth muscle; 1 mark for explaining that narrowing arteriole lumens reduces blood flow to skin capillaries; 1 mark for explaining this reduces heat loss via radiation/convection to the environment.
(c) 1 mark for explaining that low temperature decreases enzyme activity/respiration/ATP in cardiac muscle; 1 mark for explaining that this weakens cardiac contraction/reduces cardiac output; 0.25 marks for linking this to a self-reinforcing process where reduced circulation further lowers core temperature.
Question 3 · Structured
11.25 marks
Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects neuromuscular transmission.
(a) Describe the sequence of events that occurs at a normal neuromuscular junction, starting from the arrival of an action potential at the presynaptic membrane up to the depolarization of the sarcolemma. [5 marks]
(b) In patients with myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies target and destroy nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) receptors on the post-synaptic membrane. Explain why this causes muscle weakness and rapid muscle fatigue. [4 marks]
(c) Suggest how a drug that inhibits the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE) can act as an effective treatment to improve muscle strength in these patients. [2.25 marks]
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) 1. The action potential depolarizes the presynaptic membrane, opening voltage-gated calcium channels. 2. Calcium ions diffuse into the synaptic knob. 3. This causes synaptic vesicles containing acetylcholine (ACh) to fuse with the presynaptic membrane, releasing ACh into the synaptic cleft by exocytosis. 4. ACh diffuses across the cleft and binds to specific receptor proteins on the sarcolemma (postsynaptic membrane). 5. This opens ligand-gated sodium channels, allowing sodium ions to enter the muscle fiber, depolarizing the sarcolemma and generating an end-plate potential.
(b) With fewer functional ACh receptors, less sodium enters the postsynaptic muscle cell when ACh is released. The depolarization (end-plate potential) is often insufficient to reach the threshold required to trigger an action potential along the sarcolemma. Consequently, muscle fibers fail to contract. During repetitive stimulation, neurotransmitter depletion occurs, and since so few receptors are available, transmission fails completely, resulting in rapid muscle fatigue.
(c) Acetylcholinesterase normally hydrolyzes ACh in the synaptic cleft to terminate transmission. Inhibiting AChE prevents the breakdown of ACh, allowing it to accumulate and persist in the synaptic cleft. This increased concentration of ACh increases the likelihood of binding to the remaining undamaged receptors, facilitating depolarization to the threshold.
Marking scheme
(a) 1 mark for calcium entry through voltage-gated channels; 1 mark for exocytosis of acetylcholine; 1 mark for diffusion of ACh across the synaptic cleft; 1 mark for binding to receptors on the sarcolemma; 1 mark for opening of sodium channels leading to depolarization/end-plate potential.
(b) 1 mark for stating that fewer receptors mean less sodium ion influx; 1 mark for explaining that depolarization does not reach threshold; 1 mark for stating that fewer action potentials are generated along the sarcolemma; 1 mark for linking neurotransmitter depletion/repetitive stimulation to progressive failure of contraction (fatigue).
(c) 1 mark for stating that AChE inhibition stops the breakdown of ACh; 1 mark for explaining that ACh remains in the cleft longer/reaches higher concentrations; 0.25 marks for explaining this increases binding to remaining receptors to trigger depolarization.
Question 4 · Structured
11.25 marks
Leber Congenital Amaurosis (LCA) is an inherited retinal degenerative disorder that causes severe visual impairment from infancy. Recent clinical trials have used CRISPR-Cas9 delivered by an adeno-associated virus (AAV) vector to edit mutations in the CEP290 gene directly within photoreceptor cells.
(a) Describe the roles of the guide RNA (gRNA) and the Cas9 enzyme in the gene-editing process inside a target cell. [4 marks]
(b) Explain two advantages of using an adeno-associated virus (AAV) as a vector to deliver the CRISPR-Cas9 system to photoreceptor cells in the retina. [4 marks]
(c) Distinguish between somatic gene therapy and germline gene therapy, and state one ethical implication of performing germline genetic modifications. [3.25 marks]
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) The guide RNA (gRNA) is designed with a specific nucleotide sequence complementary to the target sequence within the CEP290 gene. The gRNA guides the Cas9 protein to the precise genomic location by complementary base pairing. Once bound, the Cas9 endonuclease enzyme acts as 'molecular scissors', creating a double-strand break (DSB) at the target site, allowing for gene disruption or repair.
(b) 1. AAV has low immunogenicity, meaning it does not trigger a severe immune or inflammatory response in the eye. 2. AAV can transduce non-dividing cells, which is crucial because photoreceptor cells are terminally differentiated and do not divide. 3. The eye is an immunologically privileged site, and local delivery of AAV is highly targeted, reducing systemic side effects.
(c) Somatic gene therapy involves introducing genetic material into body (somatic) cells (e.g., retinal cells). These changes only affect the individual patient and are not passed on to offspring. Germline gene therapy targets gametes, zygotes, or early embryos, meaning the genetic changes are incorporated into all cells of the developing organism and will be inherited by future generations. Ethical implication: Lack of consent from future generations who inherit the modified genes, or potential unforeseen off-target effects that could be permanently introduced into the human gene pool.
Marking scheme
(a) 1 mark for gRNA containing a sequence complementary to target DNA; 1 mark for gRNA guiding Cas9 to the specific locus via base pairing; 1 mark for Cas9 acting as an endonuclease; 1 mark for creating double-strand breaks in the target gene.
(b) 2 marks for stating any two advantages from: target non-dividing cells (photoreceptors), low immunogenicity/does not cause severe immune response, localized delivery prevents systemic exposure, or high transduction efficiency in retinal tissues (1 mark per advantage with explanation; max 4 marks).
(c) 1 mark for somatic therapy affecting only the individual (non-inheritable); 1 mark for germline therapy affecting reproductive cells/embryos (inheritable); 1 mark for identifying an ethical issue (e.g., consent of future generations, safety risks passed down, or eugenics concerns); 0.25 marks for clear structural distinction between the two types.
Question 5 · Structured
11.25 marks
Skeletal muscle contraction depends on the interaction of actin and myosin filaments.
(a) Explain the roles of calcium ions (\(\text{Ca}^{2+}\)) and ATP in the contraction of a skeletal muscle myofibril according to the sliding filament theory. [6 marks]
(b) Following death, the body enters a state of muscular rigidity known as rigor mortis. Explain the physiological changes that occur after death that prevent muscles from relaxing, resulting in this rigid state. [5.25 marks]
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Calcium ions: 1. An action potential depolarizes the sarcolemma and travels down the T-tubules, causing the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. 2. Calcium ions bind to troponin, causing a conformational change. 3. This pulls tropomyosin away, exposing the myosin-binding sites on the actin filament. ATP: 4. ATP binds to the myosin head, causing it to detach from the actin filament. 5. Hydrolysis of ATP (to ADP and Pi) by myosin ATPase provides the energy to cock the myosin head into its high-energy state. 6. The myosin head binds to actin, and the release of ADP and Pi triggers the power stroke, pulling the actin filament towards the centre of the sarcomere.
(b) After death, aerobic and anaerobic respiration cease, leading to a complete depletion of ATP. Without ATP, active transport calcium pumps in the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane stop working, allowing calcium ions to leak out into the sarcoplasm. These calcium ions bind to troponin, exposing binding sites on actin, allowing cross-bridges to form. However, the detachment of myosin heads from actin requires the binding of a new ATP molecule. Because no ATP is available, the myosin heads remain permanently locked onto the actin filaments, maintaining the muscle in a contracted and rigid state.
Marking scheme
(a) 1 mark for calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum; 1 mark for calcium binding to troponin; 1 mark for tropomyosin moving to expose myosin-binding sites; 1 mark for ATP binding causing detachment of myosin head; 1 mark for ATP hydrolysis energizing/cocking the myosin head; 1 mark for the power stroke pulling actin over myosin.
(b) 1 mark for cessation of respiration leading to ATP depletion; 1 mark for failure of active transport calcium pumps; 1 mark for calcium leaking into sarcoplasm and binding to troponin; 1 mark for cross-bridges forming; 1 mark for explaining that ATP is required to detach myosin heads; 0.25 marks for concluding that the lack of ATP leaves the cross-bridges locked/muscles rigid.
Question 6 · Structured
11.25 marks
The retina contains specialized photoreceptor cells called rod cells that detect light stimulation.
(a) Describe the physiological and biochemical changes that occur in a rod cell when it absorbs light, leading to a change in neurotransmitter release. [6 marks]
(b) When a person walks from a bright, sunny outdoor environment into a dimly lit room, they are temporarily unable to see, but their vision gradually improves over several minutes. Explain the physiological basis of this dark adaptation. [5.25 marks]
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) In the dark, sodium channels in the outer segment of the rod cell are kept open by cyclic GMP (cGMP), depolarizing the membrane. When light strikes the rod cell: 1. Rhodopsin absorbs light energy and splits into retinal and opsin (bleaching). 2. Opsin activates a G-protein called transducin. 3. Transducin activates phosphodiesterase (PDE), an enzyme that hydrolyzes cGMP into GMP. 4. The decrease in cGMP concentration causes the non-specific cation (sodium) channels to close. 5. Sodium ions continue to be actively pumped out of the inner segment but can no longer re-enter the outer segment. 6. This hyperpolarizes the rod cell membrane, stopping the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitter (glutamate) at the synapse with bipolar cells.
(b) In bright light, the intensity of light is high enough to bleach almost all of the rhodopsin in the rod cells. This is called light adaptation, leaving the rod cells temporarily unresponsive to low light levels. When entering a dark room, there is insufficient light to stimulate the cone cells (which have low sensitivity), and the rod cells cannot function because their rhodopsin is bleached. Over several minutes, rhodopsin is slowly resynthesized (re-formed from retinal and opsin) in an energy-requiring process. As rhodopsin levels regenerate, the sensitivity of the rod cells increases, allowing vision in dim light to be restored.
Marking scheme
(a) 1 mark for rhodopsin absorbing light and splitting into retinal and opsin; 1 mark for opsin activating transducin/G-protein; 1 mark for activation of phosphodiesterase (PDE) which breaks down cGMP; 1 mark for closing of sodium/cation channels in the outer segment; 1 mark for hyperpolarization of the cell membrane; 1 mark for cessation of inhibitory neurotransmitter (glutamate) release.
(b) 1 mark for explaining that in bright light, rhodopsin is completely bleached; 1 mark for stating that cone cells are insensitive to low light levels; 1 mark for stating that rod cells are temporarily non-functional without intact rhodopsin; 1 mark for explaining that rhodopsin is slowly resynthesized in the dark; 1 mark for noting that this resynthesis requires ATP/energy; 0.25 marks for linking the regeneration of rhodopsin to the recovery of light sensitivity in dim conditions.
Question 7 · Structured
11.25 marks
Optogenetics is a biological technique that involves the use of light to control cells in living tissue, typically neurones, that have been genetically modified to express light-sensitive ion channels.
(a) Explain how optogenetics allows for the selective stimulation of specific neurones in the brain, and contrast this with traditional electrical deep brain stimulation (DBS). [4 marks]
(b) Channelrhodopsin-2 (ChR2) is a light-gated cation channel widely used in optogenetics. Explain how activation of ChR2 by blue light leads to the generation of an action potential in a target neurone. [4.25 marks]
(c) Suggest how optogenetics could be used as a research tool to investigate the neural pathways affected in Parkinson's disease. [3 marks]
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) Optogenetics uses genetic engineering to insert the gene for a light-sensitive opsin (such as channelrhodopsin) under the control of a cell-specific promoter. This ensures that only a specific type of neurone (e.g., dopaminergic neurones) expresses the channel. In contrast, electrical deep brain stimulation (DBS) uses electrodes that stimulate all cells, axons, and non-neuronal cells in the vicinity indiscriminately, lacking cellular specificity.
(b) When blue light strikes Channelrhodopsin-2 (ChR2), it undergoes a conformational change that opens the pore of the channel. Because of the electrochemical gradient, positively charged cations (mainly sodium ions, \(\text{Na}^+\)) diffuse rapidly into the cytoplasm of the neurone. This influx of positive charge depolarizes the cell membrane. If the depolarization reaches the threshold potential, voltage-gated sodium channels open, triggering an action potential along the axon.
(c) Researchers can use optogenetics to selectively activate or inhibit specific pathways within the basal ganglia (such as the direct or indirect pathways). By expressing channelrhodopsin (excitatory) or halorhodopsin (inhibitory) in specific sub-populations of neurones in animal models of Parkinson's disease, they can observe the effects on motor symptoms (such as tremors or rigidity) when these pathways are turned on or off with light, mapping the functional connectivity of the circuits.
Marking scheme
(a) 1 mark for use of cell-specific promoters to target gene expression to specific neurones; 1 mark for selective stimulation using light; 1 mark for explaining that electrical DBS stimulates all surrounding cells/axons indiscriminately; 1 mark for pointing out that optogenetics has high spatial/cellular resolution compared to DBS.
(b) 1 mark for stating blue light causes ChR2 to open; 1 mark for identifying the influx of sodium ions/cations; 1 mark for stating this causes depolarization of the membrane; 1 mark for linking depolarization to reaching threshold; 0.25 marks for the opening of voltage-gated channels causing an action potential.
(c) 1 mark for expressing excitatory/inhibitory opsins in specific circuits of the basal ganglia; 1 mark for using light to stimulate/inhibit these specific pathways in animal models; 1 mark for correlating the light stimulation with changes in motor symptoms/behavior to identify therapeutic targets.
Question 8 · Structured
11.25 marks
The kidney plays a vital role in osmoregulation and maintaining the water potential of the blood.
(a) Explain how the loop of Henle acts as a countercurrent multiplier to produce a high concentration of solutes in the medullary interstitial fluid. [6 marks]
(b) In a clinical scenario, a patient suffers from chronic renal hypoxia (deprived of oxygen). Explain why this condition leads to the production of a large volume of dilute urine. [5.25 marks]
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
(a) 1. In the thick ascending limb, sodium (\(\text{Na}^+\)) and chloride (\(\text{Cl}^-\)) ions are actively transported out of the filtrate into the interstitial fluid of the medulla. 2. The ascending limb is impermeable to water, so water cannot follow by osmosis. This creates a high solute concentration in the medullary interstitium. 3. The descending limb is highly permeable to water but impermeable to ions. 4. Due to the hypertonic interstitium, water moves out of the descending limb by osmosis into the interstitial fluid, where it is carried away by the vasa recta. 5. This concentrates the filtrate inside the descending limb as it approaches the hairpin turn. 6. The flow of filtrate in opposite directions (down the descending, up the ascending) multiplies the concentration gradient, creating a steep osmotic gradient from the cortex to the deep medulla.
(b) Active transport of sodium and chloride ions out of the thick ascending limb requires a continuous supply of ATP. Chronic hypoxia reduces oxygen delivery to the kidney cells, which dramatically decreases the rate of aerobic respiration and ATP production. Consequently, active transport of ions out of the ascending limb is reduced. This lowers the solute concentration (osmolarity) of the medullary interstitial fluid. As a result, the osmotic gradient between the collecting duct/descending limb and the medulla is diminished. Less water is reabsorbed by osmosis through aquaporins in the collecting duct, causing more water to remain in the filtrate, leading to the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine.
Marking scheme
(a) 1 mark for active transport of sodium/chloride ions out of the ascending limb; 1 mark for ascending limb being impermeable to water; 1 mark for creating a high solute concentration in the medulla; 1 mark for descending limb being permeable to water (and impermeable to ions); 1 mark for water moving out of descending limb by osmosis; 1 mark for countercurrent flow creating/multiplying the concentration gradient down the medulla.
(b) 1 mark for linking hypoxia to decreased aerobic respiration/ATP production; 1 mark for stating that active transport of sodium/chloride ions in the ascending limb is reduced; 1 mark for stating this decreases the osmotic/concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium; 1 mark for explaining that less water is reabsorbed from the collecting duct by osmosis; 1 mark for stating this results in high volume and low concentration (dilute) of urine; 0.25 marks for explaining that this occurs even in the presence of ADH.
Section Unit 6: Practical Skills in Biology II
Answer ALL questions. Planning and designing original biological trials.
4 Question · 50 marks
Question 1 · Experimental Planning
12.5 marks
Write a detailed experimental plan to investigate the effect of different glucose concentrations on the rate of anaerobic respiration in yeast. Your plan should describe the experimental setup, how variables are controlled, what measurements are taken to determine the rate, and how the reliability of the data is ensured.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. **Independent Variable**: Prepare a range of at least five glucose concentrations (e.g., 0% as a control, 2%, 4%, 6%, 8%, and 10%) using serial dilution of a stock glucose solution. 2. **Dependent Variable**: Measure the volume of carbon dioxide gas produced within a set time period (e.g., 10 minutes) using a gas syringe connected to the reaction vessel. 3. **Anaerobic Conditions**: Ensure anaerobic conditions by boiling the glucose solutions to expel dissolved oxygen, cooling them before adding yeast, and layering liquid paraffin on top of the yeast-glucose mixture to prevent oxygen entry. 4. **Control of Temperature**: Place the reaction vessels in a thermostatically controlled water bath set at \(35^\circ\text{C}\) and allow them to equilibrate before starting measurements. 5. **Control of Other Variables**: Use a constant volume (e.g., \(10\text{ cm}^3\)) and concentration (e.g., 5%) of active yeast suspension. Use a buffer solution (e.g., pH 6.0) to maintain a constant pH environment. 6. **Measurements**: Record the volume of gas in the syringe at regular intervals (e.g., every minute) for 10 minutes. Calculate the rate of respiration as \(\text{volume of gas produced (cm}^3\text{) / time (min)}\). 7. **Reliability**: Perform at least three replicates for each glucose concentration, calculate the mean rate, and determine the standard deviation to assess reliability and identify anomalies. 8. **Safety**: Wear safety goggles and lab coats. Yeast can cause respiratory irritation, so handle yeast powder carefully to avoid inhalation.
Marking scheme
- **Independent Variable (1 mark)**: Identifies 5 or more distinct glucose concentrations. - **Dependent Variable (1 mark)**: Measures volume of gas produced over a specified timeframe. - **Anaerobic Conditions (1.5 marks)**: Details a method to exclude oxygen (boiling/cooling glucose or layering liquid paraffin). - **Temperature Control (1 mark)**: Uses a water bath to maintain a constant temperature. - **Other Controls (2 marks)**: Controls both yeast concentration/volume (1 mark) and pH using a buffer (1 mark). - **Control Setup (1 mark)**: Describes a control experiment using distilled water instead of glucose. - **Rate Calculation (1 mark)**: Explains how to calculate the rate of respiration (volume divided by time). - **Replication (1.5 marks)**: Mentions repeating the procedure at least three times per concentration to calculate mean and identify anomalies. - **Safety Precautions (1.5 marks)**: Mentions suitable safety precautions (e.g., gloves, goggles, or avoiding inhalation of dry yeast).
Question 2 · Statistical Analysis
12.5 marks
A student investigated whether there is an association between the presence of stinging nettles (\(Urtica\ dioica\)) and cleavers (\(Galium\ aparine\)) in a local woodland. They recorded the presence or absence of both species in 100 randomly placed quadrats. The results were: both species present in 30 quadrats; nettles only in 20 quadrats; cleavers only in 20 quadrats; neither species in 30 quadrats. State a suitable null hypothesis, calculate the Chi-squared (\(\chi^2\)) value, and determine if there is a significant association between the two species at the 5% significance level. (Critical value of \(\chi^2\) at \(df = 1\) and \(p = 0.05\) is \(3.84\)). Show all working.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. **Null Hypothesis (\(H_0\))**: There is no significant association between the presence of stinging nettles (\(Urtica\ dioica\)) and cleavers (\(Galium\ aparine\)) in the woodland. 2. **Contingency Table (Observed Values, \(O\))**: - Nettle Present / Cleaver Present: \(30\) - Nettle Present / Cleaver Absent: \(20\) (Total Nettle Present = \(50\)) - Nettle Absent / Cleaver Present: \(20\) - Nettle Absent / Cleaver Absent: \(30\) (Total Nettle Absent = \(50\)) - Total Cleaver Present = \(50\); Total Cleaver Absent = \(50\); Grand Total = \(100\). 3. **Expected Values (\(E\))**: For each cell, \(E = \frac{\text{Row Total} \times \text{Column Total}}{\text{Grand Total}}\). - Since row totals are \(50\) and column totals are \(50\): \(E = \frac{50 \times 50}{100} = 25\) for all four cells. 4. **Chi-squared calculation**: \(\chi^2 = \sum \frac{(O-E)^2}{E}\) - Cell 1 (Both present): \(\frac{(30-25)^2}{25} = \frac{25}{25} = 1.0\) - Cell 2 (Nettle only): \(\frac{(20-25)^2}{25} = \frac{25}{25} = 1.0\) - Cell 3 (Cleaver only): \(\frac{(20-25)^2}{25} = \frac{25}{25} = 1.0\) - Cell 4 (Neither): \(\frac{(30-25)^2}{25} = \frac{25}{25} = 1.0\) - \(\chi^2 = 1.0 + 1.0 + 1.0 + 1.0 = 4.00\). 5. **Degrees of Freedom**: \(df = (r-1)(c-1) = (2-1)(2-1) = 1\). 6. **Comparison and Conclusion**: The calculated \(\chi^2\) value of \(4.00\) is greater than the critical value of \(3.84\) at the \(5\%\) significance level. Therefore, we reject the null hypothesis. There is a statistically significant association between the distribution of stinging nettles and cleavers.
Marking scheme
- **Null Hypothesis (1.5 marks)**: States clearly that there is no significant association between the presence of the two species. - **Expected Values (2 marks)**: Calculates expected values correctly showing formula (\(25\) for each cell; 0.5 marks per cell). - **Chi-squared Terms (2 marks)**: Shows working for \(\frac{(O-E)^2}{E}\) terms (0.5 marks per cell). - **Final Chi-squared Value (2 marks)**: Obtains the correct sum of \(4.00\) (accept \(4\)). - **Degrees of Freedom (1 mark)**: Correctly identifies \(df = 1\). - **Statistical Comparison (1 mark)**: Compares the calculated value (\(4.00\)) to the critical value (\(3.84\)) and notes that \(4.00 > 3.84\). - **Biological Conclusion (3 marks)**: Rejects the null hypothesis (1 mark); states there is a significant positive association (1 mark); notes the probability of this difference being due to chance is less than 0.05 (1 mark).
Question 3 · Experimental Planning
12.5 marks
Describe how you would plan and carry out a laboratory investigation to compare the antimicrobial properties of garlic extract and tea tree oil against the bacterium \(Escherichia\ coli\). Your response should focus on aseptic techniques, safe incubation, measuring the dependent variable, and ensuring a valid comparison.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. **Aseptic Technique**: Disinfect the bench workspace using \(70\%\) ethanol or Virkon. Work near a lit Bunsen burner to create an sterile updraft. Flame the neck of the liquid culture bottle containing \(E. coli\) before and after taking a sample. 2. **Inoculation**: Use a sterile syringe or pipette to transfer a set volume of \(E. coli\) culture onto nutrient agar. Use a sterile plastic spreader to evenly distribute the bacteria across the agar to create a uniform lawn. 3. **Application of Treatments**: Soak sterile paper discs of equal size in equal volumes of garlic extract, tea tree oil, and sterile water (as a negative control). Use sterile forceps (flamed in ethanol) to place the discs onto the agar plate. Space them evenly apart. 4. **Incubation**: Seal the plate lid with two pieces of adhesive tape (do not seal completely to prevent the growth of anaerobic pathogens). Invert the plates and incubate at \(20\text{--}25^\circ\text{C}\) for 24-48 hours. Do not incubate at \(37^\circ\text{C}\) as this encourages the growth of human pathogens. 5. **Measurement**: Measure the diameter of the clear zone of inhibition around each disc using a ruler or calipers in at least two different directions, and calculate the mean diameter (or calculate area as \(\pi r^2\)). 6. **Variables Controlled**: Keep the disc size constant, ensure equal concentrations of starting extracts, use the same volume of extract on each disc, and standardise incubation time and temperature. 7. **Analysis**: Repeat the experiment with at least 3 agar plates per treatment, calculate the mean zone of inhibition, and perform a Student's t-test to check if the difference is statistically significant.
Marking scheme
- **Aseptic Technique (2 marks)**: Mentions working near a Bunsen burner flame (1 mark) and flaming tools or disinfecting the workspace (1 mark). - **Bacterial Lawn Creation (1.5 marks)**: Mentions using a sterile pipette/syringe to transfer culture and a sterile spreader to distribute evenly. - **Treatments & Control (1.5 marks)**: Specifies soaking identical paper discs in garlic extract, tea tree oil, and a negative control (distilled water/solvent). - **Safe Incubation (2 marks)**: States incubation temperature between \(20\text{--}25^\circ\text{C}\) (1 mark) and sealing the plate partially to allow aerobic conditions (1 mark). - **Measuring Zone of Inhibition (2 marks)**: Measures the diameter of the clear zone of inhibition in mm (1 mark) and calculates the area using \(\pi r^2\) or takes a mean of two diameters (1 mark). - **Controlling Variables (1.5 marks)**: Controls disc size, volume of liquid on the disc, and incubation duration. - **Data Reliability & Statistics (2 marks)**: Repeats the experiment at least three times to calculate a mean and standard deviation (1 mark), and suggests using a Student's t-test to analyze the data (1 mark).
Question 4 · Statistical Analysis
12.5 marks
A student compared the tensile strength of plant fibers extracted from stinging nettle (\(Urtica\ dioica\)) and flax (\(Linum\ usitatissimum\)). They measured the breaking force (Newtons) for 8 fiber samples of each species. - Stinging Nettle: Mean breaking force (\(\bar{x}_1\)) = \(14.5\text{ N}\), Standard deviation (\(s_1\)) = \(2.1\text{ N}\), Sample size (\(n_1\)) = \(8\). - Flax: Mean breaking force (\(\bar{x}_2\)) = \(18.2\text{ N}\), Standard deviation (\(s_2\)) = \(2.8\text{ N}\), Sample size (\(n_2\)) = \(8\).
Calculate the \(t\)-value using the formula: \[ t = \frac{|\bar{x}_1 - \bar{x}_2|}{\sqrt{\frac{s_1^2}{n_1} + \frac{s_2^2}{n_2}}} \]
State the null hypothesis, calculate degrees of freedom, and use the critical values (at \(p=0.05\): \(df=14\) is \(2.14\); \(df=16\) is \(2.12\)) to state your conclusion.
Show answer & marking schemeHide answer & marking scheme
Worked solution
1. **Null Hypothesis (\(H_0\))**: There is no significant difference between the mean breaking force of stinging nettle fibers and flax fibers. 2. **Degrees of Freedom (\(df\))**: \(df = (n_1 - 1) + (n_2 - 1) = (8 - 1) + (8 - 1) = 7 + 7 = 14\). 3. **Calculation Steps**: - Difference in means: \(|\bar{x}_1 - \bar{x}_2| = |14.5 - 18.2| = 3.7\) - Variance terms: \(s_1^2 = 2.1^2 = 4.41\); \(s_2^2 = 2.8^2 = 7.84\) - Standard error terms: \(\frac{s_1^2}{n_1} = \frac{4.41}{8} = 0.55125\); \(\frac{s_2^2}{n_2} = \frac{7.84}{8} = 0.98\) - Sum of standard errors: \(0.55125 + 0.98 = 1.53125\) - Square root of sum (denominator): \(\sqrt{1.53125} \approx 1.2374\) - Calculate \(t\): \(t = \frac{3.7}{1.2374} \approx 2.99\) (accept values rounding to \(2.99\) or \(3.00\)). 4. **Comparison**: The calculated \(t\)-value of \(2.99\) is greater than the critical value of \(2.14\) at \(df = 14\) and \(p = 0.05\). 5. **Conclusion**: Reject the null hypothesis. There is a statistically significant difference between the mean tensile strength of stinging nettle and flax fibers. The probability that this difference occurred by chance is less than 5% (\(p < 0.05\)). Flax fibers have a significantly higher tensile strength.
Marking scheme
- **Null Hypothesis (1.5 marks)**: Correctly states that there is no significant difference between the mean breaking force/tensile strength of nettle and flax fibers. - **Degrees of Freedom (1 mark)**: Correctly calculates \(df = 14\). - **Intermediate Calculations (4 marks)**: Calculates \(s^2/n\) terms correctly (2 marks, 1 mark for each term) and obtains the correct denominator value of \(1.24\) (2 marks). - **t-value Calculation (2 marks)**: Obtains \(t = 2.99\) (or \(3.00\)) with working shown. - **Comparison (1 mark)**: States that the calculated \(t\)-value (\(2.99\)) is greater than the critical value (\(2.14\)). - **Conclusion (3 marks)**: Rejects the null hypothesis (1 mark); states the difference is statistically significant (1 mark); concludes that flax fibers have a significantly greater tensile strength than nettle fibers (1 mark).
Wondering how well you actually know this?
Thinka is an AI practice app for DSE students — unlimited questions, instant auto-marking, and detailed step-by-step solutions. 100,000+ students use it to confirm they actually know it, not just think they do.