Edexcel IAS-Level · Thinka-original Practice Paper

2023 Edexcel IAS-Level Biology (XBI11) Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Oct 2023 Cambridge International A Level-Style Mock — Biology (XBI11)

210 marks260 mins2023
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Oct 2023 Cambridge International A Level Biology (XBI11) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

Section Unit 1: Molecules, Diet, Transport and Health

Answer all questions. Show all your working out in calculations and include units where appropriate.
28 Question · 77 marks
Question 1 · multiple choice
1 marks
Lactose is a disaccharide found in milk. Which of the following correctly identifies the monosaccharide units that form lactose and the type of reaction that breaks lactose down into these monosaccharides?
  1. A.glucose and fructose; condensation reaction
  2. B.glucose and galactose; hydrolysis reaction
  3. C.galactose and fructose; hydrolysis reaction
  4. D.glucose and galactose; condensation reaction
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Lactose is a disaccharide composed of the monosaccharides glucose and galactose joined by a glycosidic bond. The reaction that breaks down a disaccharide into its constituent monosaccharide monomers by the addition of water is a hydrolysis reaction.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer B (glucose and galactose; hydrolysis reaction).
Question 2 · multiple choice
1 marks
Which of the following correctly describes the structural features of an artery compared to a vein?
  1. A.Arteries have a wider lumen, more elastic fibres, and valves.
  2. B.Arteries have a narrower lumen, more elastic fibres, and no valves along their length.
  3. C.Arteries have a narrower lumen, less collagen, and valves.
  4. D.Arteries have a wider lumen, more smooth muscle, and no valves along their length.
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Worked solution

Arteries have a narrower lumen than veins to help maintain high blood pressure. They have a thicker wall with a larger amount of elastic fibres and smooth muscle to withstand and recoil to maintain high blood pressure, and they do not have valves along their length (except for the semilunar valves at the exit of the heart).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer B.
Question 3 · multiple choice
1 marks
During the process of blood clotting, a cascade of events occurs. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the blood clotting cascade?
  1. A.Platelets release thromboplastin \(\rightarrow\) prothrombin is converted to thrombin \(\rightarrow\) soluble fibrinogen is converted to insoluble fibrin
  2. B.Platelets release thrombin \(\rightarrow\) thromboplastin is converted to prothrombin \(\rightarrow\) soluble fibrinogen is converted to insoluble fibrin
  3. C.Platelets release fibrinogen \(\rightarrow\) thrombin is converted to prothrombin \(\rightarrow\) insoluble fibrin is converted to soluble fibrinogen
  4. D.Platelets release thromboplastin \(\rightarrow\) soluble fibrinogen is converted to insoluble fibrin \(\rightarrow\) prothrombin is converted to thrombin
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

When a blood vessel wall is damaged, platelets release the clotting factor thromboplastin. In the presence of calcium ions, thromboplastin catalyses the conversion of the inactive plasma protein prothrombin into the active enzyme thrombin. Thrombin then catalyses the conversion of the soluble plasma protein fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin fibres, which form a mesh to trap blood cells and form a clot.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer A.
Question 4 · multiple choice
1 marks
An experiment investigated the rate of uptake of a solute into animal cells. It was observed that the rate of uptake increased as the external solute concentration increased, up to a maximum rate where it leveled off (plateaued). The addition of a metabolic inhibitor, which stops ATP production, did not affect the rate of uptake. Which transport mechanism is responsible for the uptake of this solute?
  1. A.Simple diffusion
  2. B.Active transport
  3. C.Facilitated diffusion
  4. D.Endocytosis
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Worked solution

The leveling off of the rate of uptake at higher concentrations indicates that transport is mediated by membrane proteins (carriers or channels) which have become saturated. Because the metabolic inhibitor (which blocks ATP synthesis) does not affect the rate of uptake, the process must be passive and does not require ATP. Therefore, the mechanism of transport is facilitated diffusion.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer C.
Question 5 · multiple choice
1 marks
Which of the following statements about triglycerides is correct?
  1. A.They are formed by the condensation of three fatty acids and one glycerol molecule, releasing three water molecules.
  2. B.They are polar molecules that dissolve easily in water due to the formation of hydrogen bonds.
  3. C.Saturated fatty acids in triglycerides contain one or more carbon-to-carbon double bonds (\(\text{C}=\text{C}\)).
  4. D.They are formed by the hydrolysis of three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid.
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Worked solution

Triglycerides are formed by a condensation reaction between one glycerol molecule and three fatty acid molecules. Each fatty acid binds to glycerol via an ester bond, releasing a total of three molecules of water. They are non-polar hydrophobic molecules that are insoluble in water, and saturated fatty acids contain no carbon-to-carbon double bonds.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer A.
Question 6 · short_answer
3 marks
Describe the role of thrombin in the blood clotting process.
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Worked solution

Thrombin is an active protease enzyme that plays a critical role in the coagulation cascade. It is converted from its inactive precursor prothrombin by thromboplastin and calcium ions. Once active, thrombin catalyses the conversion of the soluble plasma protein fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin fibers. These fibrin fibers polymerise and form a structural mesh that traps platelets and red blood cells, sealing the damaged blood vessel and forming a stable blood clot.

Marking scheme

1. Reference to thrombin acting as an enzyme or catalysing a reaction (1 mark); 2. Catalyses the conversion of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin (1 mark); 3. Reference to fibrin forming a mesh or network that traps platelets or red blood cells to form a clot (1 mark).
Question 7 · short_answer
3 marks
Lactose is a disaccharide found in milk. Explain how the structure of a lactose molecule relates to its component monosaccharides and the bond that joins them.
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Worked solution

Lactose is a disaccharide carbohydrate. It is formed from a condensation reaction between two hexose monosaccharides: glucose and galactose. During this reaction, a molecule of water is eliminated, and a covalent bond called a 1,4-glycosidic bond is established between carbon-1 of the galactose molecule and carbon-4 of the glucose molecule.

Marking scheme

1. Identifies the constituent monosaccharides as glucose and galactose (1 mark); 2. States that the monosaccharides are joined by a 1,4-glycosidic bond (1 mark); 3. Identifies the reaction type as a condensation reaction / involves the removal of a water molecule (1 mark).
Question 8 · short_answer
3 marks
Explain how the structure of a carrier protein allows it to participate in active transport but not simple diffusion.
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Worked solution

Carrier proteins span the cell membrane and possess highly specific binding sites that are complementary to a particular molecule or ion. Unlike simple diffusion, which is passive and occurs down a concentration gradient through the lipid bilayer, active transport requires energy. The binding of ATP to the carrier protein causes it to change its tertiary shape (conformation), thereby carrying the solute across the membrane against its concentration gradient.

Marking scheme

1. Reference to carrier protein having a specific binding site for a molecule or ion (1 mark); 2. ATP is required to provide energy for a conformational / shape change in the protein (1 mark); 3. This allows transport against the concentration gradient, whereas simple diffusion is passive / down a concentration gradient (1 mark).
Question 9 · short_answer
3 marks
Explain how the structure of the wall of an artery relates to its function in maintaining high blood pressure.
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Worked solution

The artery wall has a thick layer of elastic fibres (elastin) in the tunica media. These fibres stretch when high-pressure blood is pumped out of the heart during systole, and then recoil during diastole, which maintains a high and continuous blood pressure. Additionally, the smooth muscle layer can contract to constrict the lumen and increase pressure, while a thick layer of collagen provides structural strength to prevent the artery from bursting under high pressure.

Marking scheme

1. Elastic fibres stretch and recoil to maintain blood pressure or smooth out blood flow (1 mark); 2. Smooth muscle contracts to constrict the lumen, increasing resistance and pressure (1 mark); 3. Collagen fibres provide high tensile strength to withstand high blood pressure and prevent bursting (1 mark).
Question 10 · short_answer
3 marks
Explain how an increase in blood cholesterol level, specifically Low-Density Lipoproteins (LDLs), can lead to the development of atherosclerosis.
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Worked solution

High levels of circulating Low-Density Lipoproteins (LDLs) transport cholesterol in the blood. If there is damage to the endothelial lining of an artery (e.g., due to high blood pressure), LDL cholesterol accumulates within the artery wall. These LDLs undergo oxidation, triggering an inflammatory response where white blood cells (macrophages) engulf the lipids to become foam cells. The accumulation of these foam cells and cholesterol leads to the formation of a fatty deposit or plaque (atheroma) beneath the endothelium.

Marking scheme

1. High LDL level leads to accumulation of cholesterol/LDL in the damaged endothelial lining of the artery (1 mark); 2. LDL is oxidized and engulfed by macrophages/white blood cells to form foam cells (1 mark); 3. Accumulation of foam cells and lipid deposits forms an atheroma / fatty plaque (1 mark).
Question 11 · short_answer
3 marks
Explain why a change in the primary structure of an enzyme can lead to a complete loss of its catalytic activity.
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Worked solution

The primary structure of an enzyme is the specific linear sequence of amino acids in its polypeptide chain. This sequence determines the types and positions of the R-groups. If the primary structure is altered, different chemical bonds (such as hydrogen, ionic, or disulfide bonds) will form, leading to a change in the tertiary folding of the protein. Consequently, the specific 3D shape of the active site is altered, meaning the substrate can no longer fit or bind to it, preventing the formation of enzyme-substrate complexes.

Marking scheme

1. Change in primary structure / amino acid sequence changes the position/type of R-groups (1 mark); 2. This alters the tertiary structure / 3D folding due to different hydrogen/ionic/disulfide bonds forming (1 mark); 3. This deforms the active site, so it is no longer complementary to the substrate / enzyme-substrate complexes cannot form (1 mark).
Question 12 · short_answer
3 marks
Describe how the mammalian lung is adapted for rapid gas exchange, with reference to Fick's Law of Diffusion.
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Worked solution

Fick's Law states that the rate of diffusion is proportional to (surface area x difference in concentration) / thickness of exchange surface. The mammalian lung is highly adapted to maximize this rate: 1) It has millions of alveoli which provide a very large surface area. 2) The alveolar and capillary walls are both only one cell thick, consisting of flat squamous epithelial cells, which minimizes the thickness of the diffusion pathway. 3) Ventilation (breathing) and continuous capillary blood flow maintain a steep concentration gradient for oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Marking scheme

1. Large surface area provided by many/millions of alveoli (1 mark); 2. Extremely short diffusion distance because alveolar and capillary walls are only one cell thick (1 mark); 3. Steep concentration gradient maintained by continuous ventilation and/or blood flow (1 mark).
Question 13 · short_answer
3 marks
Describe the role of DNA polymerase in semi-conservative DNA replication.
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Worked solution

During semi-conservative DNA replication, DNA polymerase plays a crucial role. First, it aligns free activated mononucleotides with their complementary bases on the exposed single-stranded DNA template (A with T, C with G). Second, it catalyses condensation reactions to form covalent phosphodiester bonds between the 5' phosphate group of an incoming nucleotide and the 3' hydroxyl group of the existing nucleotide chain, thus synthesizing the new complementary DNA strand in a 5' to 3' direction.

Marking scheme

1. Aligns free/activated nucleotides with complementary bases on the template strand (1 mark); 2. Catalyses the formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides (1 mark); 3. Synthesizes the new DNA strand / sugar-phosphate backbone in a 5' to 3' direction (1 mark).
Question 14 · short_answer
3 marks
Explain how the structure of glycogen relates to its function as an energy storage molecule in animal cells.
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Worked solution

1. Glycogen is composed of \(\alpha\)-glucose monomers linked by 1,4-glycosidic bonds, forming a compact shape that allows large amounts of energy to be stored in a small volume. 2. It contains frequent 1,6-glycosidic bonds which create a highly branched structure. This provides many terminal ends, allowing rapid hydrolysis by glycogen phosphorylase to release glucose when energy demand is high. 3. It is a large, insoluble molecule, meaning it does not dissolve in the cytoplasm and has no osmotic effect on the cell (preventing water from entering by osmosis).

Marking scheme

1. Identifies glycogen as a polymer of \(\alpha\)-glucose with 1,4-glycosidic bonds making it compact (1 mark).
2. Explains that the highly branched structure (due to 1,6-glycosidic bonds) provides many terminal ends for rapid hydrolysis to release glucose (1 mark).
3. Explains that glycogen is insoluble, meaning it has no osmotic effect on the cell (1 mark).
Question 15 · short_answer
3 marks
Explain how a diet high in salt can increase the risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD).
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Worked solution

1. High dietary salt intake increases the concentration of solutes in the blood, causing more water to be retained in the circulatory system by osmosis. This increases blood volume and leads to high blood pressure (hypertension). 2. Persistent high blood pressure exerts physical stress on the arterial walls, causing microscopic inflammatory damage to the delicate endothelial lining. 3. This endothelial damage initiates an inflammatory response, leading to the accumulation of white blood cells, lipids, and cholesterol to form an atheroma (plaque), which narrows the lumen and restricts blood flow.

Marking scheme

1. Explains that a high-salt diet increases blood volume, leading to high blood pressure / hypertension (1 mark).
2. Mentions that high blood pressure causes physical / inflammatory damage to the endothelium / endothelial lining of arteries (1 mark).
3. Links endothelial damage to subsequent plaque / atheroma formation, narrowing the arterial lumen (1 mark).
Question 16 · short_answer
3 marks
Explain why the maximum pressure reached in the left ventricle during the cardiac cycle is significantly higher than that in the left atrium.
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Worked solution

1. The muscular wall of the left ventricle is much thicker and contains significantly more cardiac muscle tissue compared to the thin wall of the left atrium. 2. When the ventricle contracts (ventricular systole), it generates a much more powerful contraction, resulting in a higher peak pressure. 3. This high pressure is necessary to overcome the high resistance of the systemic circulation and pump blood all around the body, whereas the left atrium only needs to generate enough pressure to pump blood a short distance into the left ventricle.

Marking scheme

1. States that the left ventricle has a much thicker muscular wall / more cardiac muscle than the left atrium (1 mark).
2. Explains that ventricular contraction is much more forceful / generates higher pressure than atrial contraction (1 mark).
3. Explains that the left ventricle must pump blood against high resistance all around the body (systemic circulation), whereas the left atrium only pumps blood a short distance into the ventricle (1 mark).
Question 17 · short_answer
3 marks
Platelets play a vital role in blood clotting at the site of a damaged blood vessel. Describe the roles of thrombin and fibrinogen in this process.
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Worked solution

1. During the clotting cascade, the release of thromboplastin triggers the conversion of inactive prothrombin into the active enzyme thrombin. 2. Thrombin then acts as a protease, catalysing the conversion of the soluble plasma protein fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin fibres. 3. These insoluble fibrin fibres polymerise to form a sticky meshwork over the damaged area, trapping red blood cells and platelets to form a stable blood clot.

Marking scheme

1. Identifies thrombin as an active enzyme / protease (1 mark).
2. Explains that thrombin catalyses the conversion of the soluble protein fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin (1 mark).
3. Explains that insoluble fibrin forms a mesh / network that traps red blood cells / platelets to form a clot (1 mark).
Question 18 · short_answer
3 marks
Compare and contrast the processes of facilitated diffusion and active transport across cell membranes.
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Worked solution

1. Similarity: Both processes require specific transmembrane proteins (carrier proteins) to transport large, polar, or charged molecules across the selectively permeable membrane. 2. Difference: Facilitated diffusion is a passive process that does not require metabolic energy (ATP) and moves substances down their concentration gradient (from high to low concentration). 3. Difference: Active transport requires active metabolic energy in the form of ATP to pump substances against their concentration gradient (from low to high concentration), and only utilises carrier proteins, whereas facilitated diffusion can use both channel and carrier proteins.

Marking scheme

1. Similarity: Both require specific membrane proteins / transport proteins to move substances across the membrane (1 mark).
2. Difference: Facilitated diffusion is passive / does not require ATP, whereas active transport requires energy in the form of ATP (1 mark).
3. Difference: Facilitated diffusion moves substances down a concentration gradient, whereas active transport moves substances against a concentration gradient (1 mark).
[Accept as alternative difference: Facilitated diffusion can use channel or carrier proteins, whereas active transport only uses carrier proteins.]
Question 19 · short_answer
3 marks
Explain how a mutation in a gene can result in an enzyme that is no longer able to catalyse its reaction.
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Worked solution

1. A gene mutation alters the sequence of DNA bases. This changes the mRNA codon sequence during transcription, which alters the specific sequence of amino acids (primary structure) translationally. 2. A change in the primary structure changes the positions of the R-groups, meaning different ionic, hydrogen, and disulfide bonds form during folding. This alters the overall 3D tertiary structure of the protein. 3. Consequently, the shape of the active site is changed, meaning the substrate is no longer complementary in shape, cannot bind to the active site, and no enzyme-substrate complexes can form.

Marking scheme

1. Explains that a mutation changes the DNA base sequence, altering the sequence of amino acids / primary structure of the protein (1 mark).
2. Explains that this alters the positions of R-groups, changing the bonds (e.g. hydrogen, ionic, disulfide) and changing the 3D tertiary structure (1 mark).
3. Explains that this changes the shape of the active site, so the substrate is no longer complementary / cannot bind to form enzyme-substrate complexes (1 mark).
Question 20 · short_answer
3 marks
Describe the role of DNA polymerase in semi-conservative DNA replication.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. During semi-conservative DNA replication, DNA polymerase matches free activated mononucleotides to their complementary bases on the exposed template strand (A with T, and C with G). 2. It catalyses condensation reactions that form covalent phosphodiester bonds between the sugar and phosphate groups of adjacent nucleotides. 3. This builds the new sugar-phosphate backbone, synthesising the complementary strand in a strict \(5'\) to \(3'\) direction.

Marking scheme

1. States that DNA polymerase aligns free nucleotides along the template strand via complementary base pairing (1 mark).
2. Explains that it catalyses the formation of phosphodiester bonds / condensation reactions between adjacent nucleotides to form the sugar-phosphate backbone (1 mark).
3. Mentions that synthesis occurs specifically in a \(5'\) to \(3'\) direction (1 mark).
Question 21 · short_answer
3 marks
Explain why individuals with cystic fibrosis experience difficulty in gas exchange in their lungs.
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Worked solution

1. A mutation in the CFTR gene results in a non-functional or absent CFTR membrane protein, preventing the active transport of chloride ions out of the epithelial cells into the mucus. 2. As chloride ions remain inside the cells, water does not move out of the cells by osmosis to dilute the mucus, leaving the mucus abnormally thick and sticky. 3. This thick mucus blocks the narrow bronchioles and covers the alveoli. This reduces ventilation (air flow), decreases the surface area available for gas exchange, and increases the diffusion distance for oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Marking scheme

1. Explains that a mutation in the CFTR gene leads to non-functional / absent chloride channels, so chloride ions cannot be transported out of epithelial cells (1 mark).
2. Explains that water does not move out of the cells by osmosis, resulting in the production of thick, sticky mucus (1 mark).
3. Explains that this mucus blocks airways / covers alveoli, reducing ventilation, increasing diffusion distance, and reducing the surface area available for gas exchange (1 mark).
Question 22 · short_answer
3 marks
Explain the role of thrombin in the blood clotting process.
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Worked solution

During the blood clotting cascade, prothrombin is converted into the active enzyme thrombin. Thrombin then acts as a catalyst to convert the soluble plasma protein fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin fibers. These fibrin fibers entangle platelets and red blood cells, forming a meshwork that seals the damaged blood vessel and prevents further blood loss and entry of pathogens.

Marking scheme

1. Thrombin catalyses the conversion of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin (1 mark). 2. Fibrin forms a mesh/network of fibers (1 mark). 3. This mesh traps platelets and red blood cells to form a clot (1 mark).
Question 23 · short_answer
3 marks
Explain how the structure of amylopectin makes it suitable as an energy storage molecule in plants.
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Worked solution

Amylopectin is a polysaccharide made of alpha-glucose molecules. It contains 1,4-glycosidic bonds and frequent 1,6-glycosidic bonds, which create a highly branched structure. This branching provides many terminal ends, allowing rapid hydrolysis by enzymes to release glucose when energy is needed. Furthermore, because it is a very large molecule, it is insoluble in water, ensuring it does not alter the water potential of the plant cell, while its compact shape allows efficient storage.

Marking scheme

1. Branched structure (due to 1,6-glycosidic bonds) allows rapid hydrolysis or release of glucose (1 mark). 2. Large and insoluble, so it does not affect the water potential or osmotic balance of the cell (1 mark). 3. Compact structure allows a high density of glucose or energy to be stored in a small space (1 mark).
Question 24 · short_answer
3 marks
Compare the structures of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids and explain how this affects their melting points.
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Worked solution

Saturated fatty acids have hydrocarbon chains with only single covalent bonds between carbon atoms (\(\text{C}-\text{C}\)), allowing the chains to be straight. Unsaturated fatty acids contain at least one double bond (\(\text{C}=\text{C}\)), which introduces a kink in the hydrocarbon chain. This kink prevents the unsaturated fatty acid molecules from packing closely together. Consequently, the intermolecular forces (van der Waals forces) between unsaturated molecules are weaker, requiring less thermal energy to break, resulting in a lower melting point (often liquid at room temperature) compared to saturated fatty acids (often solid).

Marking scheme

1. Saturated fatty acids have only single \(\text{C}-\text{C}\) bonds, whereas unsaturated fatty acids contain at least one \(\text{C}=\text{C}\) double bond (1 mark). 2. Double bonds cause kinks in the chain, preventing close packing of molecules (1 mark). 3. This reduces intermolecular forces, resulting in a lower melting point for unsaturated fatty acids (1 mark).
Question 25 · short_answer
3 marks
During the cardiac cycle, the pressure in the left ventricle rises significantly higher than the pressure in the left atrium. Explain why this difference in pressure is necessary for the function of the heart.
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Worked solution

The left ventricle has a much thicker muscular wall than the left atrium. When it contracts, it generates high pressure to force blood out of the heart, through the aorta, and around the entire body (systemic circulation), which has high resistance. The left atrium only needs to pump blood a very short distance into the left ventricle, requiring much less force. Additionally, the high pressure in the ventricle relative to the atrium forces the atrioventricular (bicuspid) valve to close tightly, preventing backflow of blood into the atrium.

Marking scheme

1. High ventricular pressure is needed to pump blood against high resistance through the systemic circulation or to the rest of the body (1 mark). 2. Left atrium only pumps blood a short distance into the ventricle, requiring low pressure (1 mark). 3. The pressure gradient forces the atrioventricular valve to close to prevent backflow (1 mark).
Question 26 · short_answer
3 marks
Explain how the dipolar nature of water molecules enables them to act as an effective solvent for transporting inorganic ions.
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Worked solution

Water is a polar molecule due to the unequal sharing of electrons between oxygen and hydrogen. Oxygen is more electronegative, gaining a slight negative charge (\(\delta^-\)), while the hydrogen atoms have a slight positive charge (\(\delta^+\)). When ionic compounds (like inorganic salts) enter water, the negative oxygen ends of water molecules are attracted to positive ions (cations), and the positive hydrogen ends are attracted to negative ions (anions). This causes water molecules to cluster around the ions, separating and dissolving them, which allows them to be transported in the blood or cytoplasm.

Marking scheme

1. Water is dipole/polar, with \(\delta^-\)\ oxygen and \(\delta^+\)\ hydrogen atoms (1 mark). 2. Oppositely charged parts of water molecules attract and surround positive/negative ions (1 mark). 3. This separates/dissolves the ions, allowing them to be transported in aqueous media (1 mark).
Question 27 · short_answer
3 marks
An individual has a diet high in saturated fats and salt. Explain how this diet increases their risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD).
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Worked solution

A diet rich in saturated fats increases the concentration of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in the blood, which transport cholesterol to arteries, leading to lipid deposition and plaque (atheroma) formation. Meanwhile, high salt intake increases the osmotic pressure of blood, leading to increased water retention and high blood pressure (hypertension). Hypertension puts physical stress on the arterial endothelium, causing damage that triggers an inflammatory response. This inflammation promotes further atheroma development, narrowing the lumen of coronary arteries and increasing the risk of myocardial infarction or stroke.

Marking scheme

1. High saturated fat increases LDL cholesterol, leading to atheroma or plaque formation in arteries (1 mark). 2. High salt intake increases blood pressure or hypertension (1 mark). 3. High blood pressure damages endothelial lining, accelerating inflammatory response and plaque formation (1 mark).
Question 28 · extended response
6 marks
Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is an important dietary antioxidant. Exposure to high temperatures is known to degrade vitamin C. Describe how you would design an investigation to compare the concentration of vitamin C in fresh orange juice with orange juice that has been boiled for 10 minutes. Your description should include details on how to ensure the results are reliable and valid.
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Worked solution

To compare the vitamin C concentration, use a titration method with the redox indicator DCPIP (dichlorophenolindophenol). 1. Standardisation: Pipette a fixed volume (e.g., 1.0 cm³) of 1% DCPIP solution into a test tube. Fill a syringe or micro-burette with a standard 0.1% vitamin C solution. Add the standard solution drop by drop to the DCPIP, shaking gently, until the blue colour of the DCPIP just disappears (decolourises). Record the volume of standard solution used. 2. Testing the juices: Repeat this exact process using fresh orange juice, and then with the boiled orange juice (which must be cooled to room temperature first). Record the volume of each juice required to decolourise the DCPIP. 3. Variables to control for validity: Keep the volume and concentration of DCPIP constant. Ensure both juices are at the same temperature when tested. Use orange juice from the same carton/source to control for initial concentration. 4. Reliability: Repeat the titration at least three times for each type of juice to obtain concordant results (within 0.1 cm³ of each other) and calculate a mean volume. 5. Analysis: Calculate the concentration of vitamin C in each sample using the relationship: Concentration of juice = (Volume of standard vitamin C / Volume of juice) * Concentration of standard.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1-2 marks): Describes a simple titration method where juice is added to DCPIP. Mentions a colour change but lacks detail on precise measurement or control of variables. Level 2 (3-4 marks): Explains how to determine the endpoint (blue to colourless). Identifies at least two key control variables (e.g., same volume of DCPIP, same temperature of juices). Mentions the need to repeat the experiment to calculate a mean. Level 3 (5-6 marks): Provides a fully valid and reliable method. Includes a standardisation step using a known concentration of vitamin C to allow quantitative calculation of concentrations. Explicitly describes how to ensure validity (e.g., cooling boiled juice, same batch of juice, identical mixing technique) and reliability (at least three repeats to identify anomalies and calculate a mean).

Section Unit 2: Cells, Development, Biodiversity and Conservation

Answer all questions. Write your answers in the spaces provided.
32 Question · 85 marks
Question 1 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following organelles contains high concentrations of RNA and is responsible for the assembly of ribosomal subunits?
  1. A.Nucleus
  2. B.Nucleolus
  3. C.Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  4. D.Golgi apparatus
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The nucleolus is a dense structure located within the eukaryotic nucleus. It is the site of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) transcription and the assembly of ribosomal subunits from rRNA and proteins.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option B. Reject options A, C, and D as they do not specifically perform the synthesis and assembly of ribosomal subunits.
Question 2 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Both xylem vessels and sclerenchyma fibres provide structural support in plant stems. Which of the following features is found in xylem vessels but not in sclerenchyma fibres?
  1. A.Cell walls containing lignin
  2. B.Absence of living cytoplasm at maturity
  3. C.Open ends forming continuous tubes
  4. D.Secondary cell wall thickening
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Xylem vessels form continuous, hollow tubes because their end walls break down entirely during maturation to allow efficient water transport. In contrast, sclerenchyma fibres have closed, tapered ends and function solely for mechanical support rather than transport.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option C. Reject A, B, and D because both cell types are dead at maturity, undergo secondary thickening, and contain lignin in their cell walls.
Question 3 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A student calculated the mitotic index of a plant root tip. They counted a total of 250 cells, of which 15 were in prophase, 8 in metaphase, 5 in anaphase, and 12 in telophase. What is the mitotic index of this tissue?
  1. A.0.048
  2. B.0.160
  3. C.0.080
  4. D.0.120
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Worked solution

To calculate the mitotic index, divide the total number of cells in mitosis by the total number of cells counted. Cells in mitosis = \(15 + 8 + 5 + 12 = 40\). Mitotic index = \(40 / 250 = 0.160\).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option B. Option A is incorrect as it divides only telophase cells by total. Options C and D are incorrect calculations.
Question 4 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A population of wild flowers was analyzed for genetic diversity at a single gene locus with two alleles. Out of 500 individuals sampled, 120 were found to be heterozygous. What is the heterozygosity index for this locus?
  1. A.0.12
  2. B.0.24
  3. C.0.48
  4. D.0.76
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The heterozygosity index is calculated as the number of heterozygotes divided by the total population size: \(120 / 500 = 0.24\).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option B. Reject A, C, and D which represent incorrect calculations of the heterozygosity index.
Question 5 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following describes a characteristic of pluripotent stem cells?
  1. A.They can differentiate into any cell type, including extraembryonic tissues like the placenta.
  2. B.They can differentiate into most cell types, but not extraembryonic tissues.
  3. C.They can only differentiate into a limited range of specialized cells of a specific tissue.
  4. D.They are fully differentiated cells that can be programmed to divide indefinitely.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Pluripotent stem cells can differentiate into almost any cell type representing the three embryonic germ layers, but they cannot differentiate into extraembryonic tissues, such as the placenta.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option B. Option A describes totipotent cells. Option C describes multipotent cells. Option D is incorrect because stem cells are undifferentiated.
Question 6 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A plant is grown in a nutrient-deficient solution. It shows stunted growth and yellowing of the leaves (chlorosis), particularly between the veins of the older leaves. Which mineral ion is most likely deficient in this solution?
  1. A.Calcium ions
  2. B.Magnesium ions
  3. C.Phosphate ions
  4. D.Sodium ions
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Worked solution

Magnesium ions (\(Mg^{2+}\)) are a core component of chlorophyll. A deficiency prevents chlorophyll synthesis, leading to chlorosis, starting in the older leaves because magnesium is mobile and is remobilized to younger leaves.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option B. Calcium deficiency typically affects growing tips first. Nitrate deficiency leads to overall stunting and pale green color. Sodium is not an essential major nutrient.
Question 7 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During fertilisation in mammals, the acrosome reaction is a crucial step. Which of the following describes the correct sequence of events during the acrosome reaction?
  1. A.Sperm contacts the zona pellucida -> calcium ions enter the sperm -> acrosome membrane fuses with sperm cell membrane -> release of hydrolytic enzymes
  2. B.Sperm contacts the jelly coat -> cortical granules release enzymes -> zona pellucida hardens -> influx of sodium ions
  3. C.Fusion of sperm and egg membranes -> release of calcium ions from endoplasmic reticulum -> exocytosis of lysosomes -> digestion of follicular cells
  4. D.Sperm binds to follicle cells -> release of acrosin -> meiosis II completes in the oocyte -> polar body is extruded
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Worked solution

The acrosome reaction begins when the sperm contacts the zona pellucida of the oocyte. This stimulates an influx of calcium ions into the sperm head, triggering fusion of the outer acrosomal membrane with the sperm's cell surface membrane, leading to exocytosis of hydrolytic enzymes.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option A. Option B describes the cortical reaction. Options C and D describe incorrect order of physiological processes.
Question 8 · Short/Medium Structural Explanations
3 marks
During fertilisation in mammals, the sperm must penetrate the extracellular matrix of the egg cell. Explain how the acrosome reaction enables the sperm cell to penetrate the zona pellucida.
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Worked solution

The acrosome reaction is initiated when receptors on the sperm head bind to glycoproteins in the zona pellucida of the oocyte. This binding triggers the fusion of the acrosomal membrane with the sperm cell surface membrane, releasing hydrolytic enzymes (such as acrosin) via exocytosis into the surrounding area. These enzymes digest a pathway through the glycoprotein matrix of the zona pellucida, enabling the sperm cell to move forward and fuse with the oocyte cell membrane.

Marking scheme

1. Reference to sperm receptors binding to glycoproteins on the oocyte's zona pellucida. 2. Fusion of the acrosomal membrane with the sperm cell surface membrane to release hydrolytic enzymes (e.g. acrosin) via exocytosis. 3. Digestion of the glycoprotein matrix / zona pellucida to allow the sperm to reach and fuse with the oocyte membrane.
Question 9 · Short/Medium Structural Explanations
3 marks
Meiosis is a key process in sexual reproduction that generates genetic variation. Explain how independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis results in genetically diverse gametes.
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Worked solution

Independent assortment occurs during metaphase I of meiosis, where homologous chromosomes align randomly along the equator of the spindle. The alignment and orientation of one homologous pair is entirely independent of any other pair. When the homologous chromosomes are separated in anaphase I, they are distributed into daughter cells in random combinations. This results in \(2^n\) possible maternal and paternal chromosome combinations in the gametes (where n is the haploid number).

Marking scheme

1. Homologous chromosome pairs align randomly at the spindle equator during metaphase I. 2. The alignment / orientation of one homologous pair is independent of all other homologous pairs. 3. Separation of these chromosomes in anaphase I distributes maternal and paternal chromosomes randomly into gametes, creating new allele combinations.
Question 10 · Short/Medium Structural Explanations
3 marks
Xylem vessels are specialized tissues responsible for the transport of water and mineral ions in plants. Explain how the structure of xylem vessels is adapted to transport water under tension.
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Worked solution

The transport of water through xylem vessels occurs under high tension due to transpiration. To prevent the vessels from collapsing inward under this negative pressure, the cell walls of xylem are heavily thickened and reinforced with a tough, waterproof polymer called lignin. Additionally, the cells are dead and completely empty, lacking cytoplasm and end walls to form hollow, continuous tubes, which minimizes resistance to the upward flow of the water column. Unlignified areas called pits allow water to move laterally between adjacent vessels.

Marking scheme

1. Cell walls are thickened / reinforced with lignin to resist tension and prevent the vessels collapsing inward. 2. Vessels are hollow tubes with no cytoplasm or end walls to allow a continuous, uninterrupted column of water. 3. Pits are present in the walls to allow lateral movement of water between adjacent vessels.
Question 11 · Short/Medium Structural Explanations
3 marks
Stem cells play a vital role in development and tissue repair. Explain the difference in potency between embryonic stem cells and tissue (adult) stem cells.
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Worked solution

Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, meaning they retain the ability to differentiate into almost any cell type of the adult organism (all specialized body cells derived from the three germ layers, excluding extra-embryonic tissues). In contrast, tissue (adult) stem cells are multipotent, meaning they are partially specialized and can only differentiate into a limited, specific range of cell types related to their tissue of origin (for example, bone marrow stem cells can only form blood cells). This is because embryonic stem cells have more of their genome active and fewer genes permanently silenced than tissue stem cells.

Marking scheme

1. Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent and can differentiate into almost any specialized cell type in the organism. 2. Tissue (adult) stem cells are multipotent and can only differentiate into a limited range of cell types associated with that tissue. 3. Embryonic stem cells have more active genes / fewer permanently silenced genes than tissue stem cells.
Question 12 · Short/Medium Structural Explanations
3 marks
Cellulose is the primary structural component of plant cell walls. Explain how the molecular structure of cellulose relates to its function in providing strength to plant cell walls.
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Worked solution

Cellulose is a polysaccharide composed of long, straight, unbranched chains of \(\beta\)-glucose monomers linked by \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds. To allow these bonds to form, alternate \(\beta\)-glucose molecules must be inverted by 180 degrees. Many of these parallel straight chains form hydrogen bonds between the hydroxyl groups of adjacent chains. This extensive cross-linking groups the chains into tough bundles called microfibrils, which possess high tensile strength to prevent the plant cell from bursting under high turgor pressure.

Marking scheme

1. Consists of \(\beta\)-glucose monomers joined by \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds, where alternate glucose molecules are rotated 180 degrees to form straight, unbranched chains. 2. Many hydrogen bonds form between parallel adjacent cellulose chains. 3. This cross-linking groups the chains together into microfibrils, providing high tensile strength to resist turgor pressure.
Question 13 · Short/Medium Structural Explanations
3 marks
In animal cells, digestive enzymes such as amylase are synthesized and secreted. Explain the roles of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (rER) and the Golgi apparatus in the production and secretion of these enzymes.
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Worked solution

The synthesis of digestive enzymes (which are proteins) begins on ribosomes bound to the rough endoplasmic reticulum (rER). The synthesized polypeptide chain enters the lumen of the rER, where it is folded into its specific 3D tertiary structure. The folded proteins are then packaged into transport vesicles that bud off the rER and fuse with the Golgi apparatus. Inside the Golgi apparatus, the proteins are chemically modified (such as by adding carbohydrate chains to form glycoproteins) and sorted. Finally, they are packaged into secretory vesicles that move to and fuse with the cell surface membrane, releasing the enzymes by exocytosis.

Marking scheme

1. Ribosomes on the rER synthesize proteins which enter the rER lumen to be folded into their tertiary structure. 2. Transport vesicles transport the folded proteins from the rER to the Golgi apparatus. 3. Golgi apparatus modifies proteins (e.g., adding carbohydrate groups) and packages them into secretory vesicles for release via exocytosis.
Question 14 · Short/Medium Structural Explanations
3 marks
Seed banks play a critical role in conserving plant biodiversity. Explain why seeds are dried and kept at low temperatures during storage in a seed bank.
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Worked solution

To preserve plant genetic diversity for long periods, seeds are dried to remove moisture and stored at low temperatures (typically around -20 degrees Celsius). These conditions significantly reduce the rate of enzyme activity and respiration within the seed. This slows down metabolic processes, prevents premature germination, and conserves the seed's stored nutrient reserves, thereby extending its viability and lifespan. Furthermore, the lack of moisture and low temperatures prevent the growth of fungal and bacterial decomposers, which would otherwise rot the seeds.

Marking scheme

1. Low moisture and low temperature reduce the rate of enzyme activity and respiration in seeds. 2. This prevents germination and conserves stored nutrient reserves to extend seed viability. 3. These conditions inhibit the growth of decomposers (bacteria and fungi) that could cause decay.
Question 15 · Short/Medium Structural Explanations
3 marks
Epigenetic modifications play a crucial role in regulating gene expression during development. Explain how DNA methylation can silence a gene.
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Worked solution

DNA methylation involves the covalent addition of methyl groups \(-\text{CH}_3\) to cytosine bases within CpG islands, which are typically located in the promoter regions of genes. The physical presence of these methyl groups prevents the binding of transcription factors and RNA polymerase to the promoter, preventing the initiation of transcription. Additionally, DNA methylation can recruit proteins such as methyl-CpG-binding domain proteins, which recruit histone deacetylases. This causes chromatin to condense tightly into heterochromatin, further preventing transcription machinery from accessing the gene.

Marking scheme

1. Methyl groups are added to cytosine bases at CpG islands in the promoter region of the gene. 2. This prevents the binding of transcription factors / RNA polymerase to the promoter. 3. It triggers chromatin condensation into tightly packed heterochromatin, making the gene inaccessible for transcription.
Question 16 · short-answer
3 marks
Explain the role of the Golgi apparatus in the processing and secretion of enzymes such as amylase.
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Worked solution

1. Proteins synthesized by the rER are transported to the Golgi apparatus where they are chemically modified (e.g., folded, or carbohydrate chains are added to form glycoproteins).
2. The modified proteins are then sorted and packaged into secretory vesicles.
3. These vesicles move towards and fuse with the cell surface membrane, releasing the enzyme (amylase) out of the cell via exocytosis.

Marking scheme

- Mark 1: Reference to the chemical modification of proteins / folding / addition of carbohydrate chains (to form glycoproteins) (1)
- Mark 2: Reference to packaging the modified proteins into (secretory) vesicles (1)
- Mark 3: Reference to transport of vesicles to, and fusion with, the cell surface membrane / secretion via exocytosis (1)
[Do not accept: simple transport of protein without mention of vesicle packaging or exocytosis.]
Question 17 · short-answer
3 marks
Describe the structural differences between cellulose and starch (amylose) that make cellulose suitable for forming plant cell walls.
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Worked solution

1. Cellulose is a polymer of \(\beta\)-glucose monomers, whereas starch (amylose) is a polymer of \(\alpha\)-glucose monomers.
2. In cellulose, alternate glucose molecules are rotated \(180^\circ\), resulting in straight, unbranched chains, whereas amylose forms a coiled, helical structure.
3. Straight cellulose chains lie parallel to each other, allowing hydrogen bonds to cross-link adjacent chains to form strong microfibrils, which provide high tensile strength to the cell wall.

Marking scheme

- Mark 1: Cellulose consists of \(\beta\)-glucose (and 1,4-glycosidic bonds) whereas amylose consists of \(\alpha\)-glucose (1)
- Mark 2: Cellulose forms straight, unbranched chains whereas amylose forms coiled/helical chains (1)
- Mark 3: Many hydrogen bonds form between parallel cellulose chains to produce microfibrils (providing strength) (1)
[Accept: reference to inverted glucose monomers for cellulose. Reject: 1,6-glycosidic bonds in cellulose or amylose.]
Question 18 · short-answer
3 marks
Distinguish between totipotent and pluripotent stem cells, giving an example of where pluripotent stem cells can be found in human development.
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Worked solution

1. Totipotent stem cells have the potential to differentiate into all specialized cell types, including extraembryonic cells/placenta, whereas pluripotent stem cells can differentiate into all body cell types but not extraembryonic tissues.
2. Totipotent cells are only present for a limited time in the early embryo (zygote up to the 8-cell stage).
3. Pluripotent stem cells can be obtained from the inner cell mass of the blastocyst (early embryo).

Marking scheme

- Mark 1: Totipotent cells can give rise to all body cell types AND extraembryonic tissues / placenta (1)
- Mark 2: Pluripotent cells can give rise to all cell types of the embryo / cannot give rise to extraembryonic tissues (1)
- Mark 3: Pluripotent stem cells are found in the inner cell mass / blastocyst (1)
[Accept: blastula for blastocyst. Reject: adult stem cells as an example of pluripotent cells (as they are multipotent).]
Question 19 · short-answer
3 marks
Explain how seed banks manage and preserve the genetic diversity of endangered plant species during long-term storage.
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Worked solution

1. Seeds are collected from many different plants and geographically diverse populations to maximize the size and variety of the gene pool (capturing different alleles).
2. Seeds are dehydrated and stored at sub-zero temperatures (around \(-20^\circ\text{C}\)) to slow down metabolic activity, preventing decay and maintaining long-term viability.
3. Samples are periodically germinated to test viability; if viability drops below a threshold, the seeds are grown into plants to harvest fresh, genetically identical seeds for restocking.

Marking scheme

- Mark 1: Seeds are collected from multiple individuals / different populations to maximize the range of alleles / gene pool (1)
- Mark 2: Stored in cold and dry conditions to reduce enzyme activity / prevent germination / prevent decay (1)
- Mark 3: Periodic germination tests are carried out to check viability, and seeds are grown to replenish stock if viability decreases (1)
[Accept: reference to maintaining genetic variation / reducing genetic drift.]
Question 20 · short-answer
3 marks
Describe the role of spindle fibres during mitosis.
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Worked solution

1. During prophase/metaphase, spindle fibres attach to the centromeres of the chromosomes.
2. The contraction and alignment of these fibres position the chromosomes along the equator (metaphase plate) of the cell.
3. During anaphase, the spindle fibres contract and shorten, pulling the sister chromatids apart to opposite poles of the cell, ensuring each new nucleus receives an identical set of chromosomes.

Marking scheme

- Mark 1: Attachment of spindle fibres to centromeres (of chromosomes / chromatids) (1)
- Mark 2: Alignment of chromosomes along the equator / metaphase plate (1)
- Mark 3: Contraction / shortening of fibres to pull sister chromatids to opposite poles (during anaphase) (1)
[Accept: separation of chromatids. Reject: separation of homologous chromosomes (this is meiosis).]
Question 21 · short-answer
3 marks
Explain how histone acetylation can regulate gene expression.
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Worked solution

1. Acetyl groups are added to the positively charged lysine residues on histone tails, neutralizing their charge.
2. This weakens the attraction between histones and the negatively charged DNA backbone, causing the chromatin to decondense (become looser/euchromatin).
3. The relaxed chromatin structure allows transcription factors and RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter region of the DNA, leading to gene transcription.

Marking scheme

- Mark 1: Addition of acetyl groups neutralizes positive charges on histones / reduces binding between histones and DNA (1)
- Mark 2: Chromatin becomes less condensed / open / forms euchromatin (1)
- Mark 3: Allows RNA polymerase / transcription factors access to bind to DNA / promoter, initiating transcription / gene expression (1)
[Reject: reference to DNA methylation instead of acetylation.]
Question 22 · short-answer
3 marks
Explain why a deficiency in magnesium ions results in reduced plant growth.
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Worked solution

1. Magnesium is a vital component of the chlorophyll molecule.
2. A deficiency in magnesium ions prevents chlorophyll synthesis, causing the leaves to become yellow (chlorosis).
3. This leads to a decrease in light absorption, which reduces the rate of photosynthesis, meaning fewer organic molecules (such as glucose/sucrose) are produced for respiration, cell division, and growth.

Marking scheme

- Mark 1: Magnesium is needed for the synthesis / production of chlorophyll (1)
- Mark 2: Deficiency causes chlorosis / yellowing of leaves (1)
- Mark 3: Less photosynthesis occurs, resulting in fewer organic compounds / sugars for respiration / cell division / cell wall synthesis / growth (1)
[Accept: less glucose/sucrose produced for energy/growth. Reject: magnesium is part of the cell wall (this is calcium).]
Question 23 · short-answer
3 marks
Describe how the acrosome reaction enables a sperm cell to reach the cell surface membrane of an ovum.
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Worked solution

1. Upon contact with the receptors of the zona pellucida (jelly layer), the acrosome membrane fuses with the cell surface membrane of the sperm.
2. This triggers the release of hydrolytic/digestive enzymes (such as acrosin) from the acrosome via exocytosis.
3. These enzymes digest a pathway through the follicular cells and the zona pellucida, allowing the sperm head to reach and fuse with the egg cell surface membrane.

Marking scheme

- Mark 1: Contact with the zona pellucida triggers fusion of the acrosome membrane with the sperm cell membrane (1)
- Mark 2: Release of hydrolytic / digestive enzymes (e.g., acrosin) by exocytosis (1)
- Mark 3: Digestion / breakdown of the zona pellucida to allow passage of the sperm to the egg cell membrane (1)
[Accept: digestion of follicle cells / jelly layer. Reject: reference to the cortical reaction (which prevents polyspermy, rather than helping the sperm reach the membrane).]
Question 24 · Short Answer
3 marks
During fertilization in humans, the sperm cell undergoes the acrosome reaction. Explain how the acrosome reaction enables the sperm cell to penetrate the outer layers of the egg cell.
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Worked solution

The acrosome reaction is triggered when the sperm contacts the jelly-like layer of the egg. The outer membrane of the acrosome fuses with the plasma membrane of the sperm, releasing stored hydrolytic enzymes such as acrosin. These enzymes digest the proteins in the zona pellucida, clearing a path so the sperm can pass through and fuse with the egg cell membrane.

Marking scheme

1. Fusion of the acrosome membrane with the sperm cell surface membrane (1 mark). 2. Release of hydrolytic enzymes / acrosin / digest enzymes by exocytosis (1 mark). 3. Digestion of the zona pellucida / follicle cell layer to allow penetration (1 mark).
Question 25 · Short Answer
3 marks
Sclerenchyma fibres provide structural support in plant stems. Explain how the structure of sclerenchyma fibres is adapted to this function.
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Worked solution

Sclerenchyma fibres have cell walls heavily thickened with lignin, which provides high compressive strength and rigidity. The cells are dead and lose their cytoplasm, forming hollow, strong tubes. Additionally, the cellulose microfibrils in their walls are laid down in a criss-cross pattern, which increases tensile strength and prevents buckling.

Marking scheme

1. Cell walls are thickened with lignin to provide rigidity / compressive strength (1 mark). 2. Cells are dead / hollow to form rigid structural columns (1 mark). 3. Cellulose microfibrils are arranged in a criss-cross pattern to resist tensile forces (1 mark).
Question 26 · Short Answer
3 marks
During embryonic development, undifferentiated stem cells become specialised. Explain how DNA methylation results in the differentiation of a stem cell.
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Worked solution

DNA methylation involves the attachment of methyl groups to CpG sites on the DNA molecule. This modification prevents transcription factors and RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter regions of specific genes, effectively silencing them. As a result, certain proteins are not produced, while other active genes are transcribed and translated, determining the unique structure and function of the differentiated cell.

Marking scheme

1. Addition of methyl groups to CpG sites / cytosine bases of DNA (1 mark). 2. Prevents binding of transcription factors / RNA polymerase, switching genes off (1 mark). 3. Only specific genes are transcribed into mRNA / translated into proteins, changing cell structure/function (1 mark).
Question 27 · Short Answer
3 marks
Explain how the rough endoplasmic reticulum (rER) and the Golgi apparatus work together to produce and release a glycoprotein from a cell.
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Worked solution

Proteins are synthesised by ribosomes bound to the outer surface of the rER, then pass into the rER lumen where they fold. These proteins are packaged into transport vesicles that bud off the rER and travel to, and fuse with, the membranes of the Golgi apparatus. Inside the Golgi apparatus, the proteins are modified by the addition of carbohydrate groups to form glycoproteins, which are then packaged into secretory vesicles that move to the cell surface membrane for release via exocytosis.

Marking scheme

1. Ribosomes on the rER synthesise proteins which enter the rER lumen to fold (1 mark). 2. Transport vesicles bud off the rER and transport the proteins to the Golgi apparatus (1 mark). 3. The Golgi apparatus modifies the proteins by adding carbohydrates / packaging them into secretory vesicles for exocytosis (1 mark).
Question 28 · Short Answer
3 marks
In a seed bank, seeds are dried and stored at temperatures of approximately \(-20^\circ\text{C}\). Explain why these storage conditions are used to preserve seeds.
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Worked solution

Drying and storing seeds at very low temperatures dramatically decreases water potential and kinetic energy, which reduces metabolic rate and respiration to a near-zero level. This prevents the seeds from prematurely germinating during storage. Additionally, these extreme conditions prevent the growth and reproduction of decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi, which would otherwise decay and destroy the seeds.

Marking scheme

1. Reduces enzyme activity / rate of respiration / metabolic rate in the seeds (1 mark). 2. Prevents the seeds from germinating during storage (1 mark). 3. Inhibits the growth of decay-causing microorganisms / bacteria / fungi, extending viability (1 mark).
Question 29 · Short Answer
3 marks
Meiosis is a division that produces genetically non-identical gametes. Explain how crossing over during prophase I increases genetic variation in gametes.
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Worked solution

During prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair up to form bivalents. Non-sister chromatids can cross over, breaking and rejoining at sites called chiasmata. This process exchanges segments of DNA between maternal and paternal chromosomes, resulting in new combinations of alleles on the recombinant chromatids, which increases genetic diversity in the resulting gametes.

Marking scheme

1. Homologous chromosomes pair up / form bivalents during prophase I (1 mark). 2. Non-sister chromatids break and rejoin at chiasmata (1 mark). 3. This leads to exchange of alleles / genetic material, producing recombinant chromatids / new combinations of alleles (1 mark).
Question 30 · Short Answer
3 marks
Zoos use captive breeding programmes to conserve endangered animal species. Explain the role of studbooks in these programmes.
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Worked solution

Studbooks act as a comprehensive database containing the pedigree, parental history, and location of every individual of an endangered species kept in captivity. Conservationists use this data to carefully select breeding pairs that are as unrelated as possible. This prevents inbreeding depression and ensures that genetic diversity is maximised within the captive population, maintaining its long-term viability.

Marking scheme

1. Studbooks maintain a record of the pedigree / ancestry / genetic relationships of all captive individuals (1 mark). 2. Used to select mating pairs that are unrelated to prevent inbreeding / inbreeding depression (1 mark). 3. Helps to maintain high genetic diversity / prevent genetic drift within the captive population (1 mark).
Question 31 · Short Answer
3 marks
The cell walls of adjacent plant cells are held together by a region called the middle lamella. Explain how the chemical composition of the middle lamella contributes to its function.
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Worked solution

The middle lamella is the outermost layer of the plant cell wall and is primarily made of the polysaccharide pectin. Pectin binds with calcium ions to form a stable gel-like compound called calcium pectate. This calcium pectate acts as a strong glue or cement that adheres the primary cell walls of neighbouring cells together, providing stability and strength to the overall plant tissue.

Marking scheme

1. Middle lamella is composed of pectin (1 mark). 2. Pectin interacts/binds with calcium ions to form calcium pectate (1 mark). 3. Calcium pectate acts as an adhesive / cement to hold adjacent cell walls together, providing tissue stability (1 mark).
Question 32 · essay
6 marks
Compare and contrast the structure of a mature sieve tube element with the structure of a mature xylem vessel element.
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Worked solution

A detailed structural comparison of a mature sieve tube element and a mature xylem vessel element highlights several key similarities and differences:

**Similarities:**
1. **Tubular arrangement:** Both consist of cells joined end-to-end to form long, continuous columns adapted for transport.
2. **Lack of nucleus:** Both cell types lack a nucleus at maturity to facilitate the efficient flow of substances (sap or water) with minimal resistance.
3. **Cellulose present:** Both structures have cell walls containing cellulose.

**Differences:**
1. **Viability and cytoplasm:** Sieve tube elements are living cells containing a thin layer of cytoplasm and a cell membrane, whereas xylem vessels are dead cells completely devoid of cytoplasm, organelles, and membranes.
2. **End walls:** Sieve tube elements have perforated end walls called sieve plates, whereas xylem vessels have no end walls, forming completely open tubes.
3. **Lignification:** Xylem vessel walls are thickened with lignin, which provides structural reinforcement, whereas sieve tube walls are non-lignified.
4. **Associated cells:** Sieve tube elements are closely associated with companion cells via plasmodesmata, whereas xylem vessel elements do not have companion cells.
5. **Pits:** Xylem vessel walls contain pits (areas of unlignified, thin cellulose wall) to allow lateral water movement, which are absent in sieve tubes.

Marking scheme

**Marking Scheme (6 Marks Maximum):**

*Award 1 mark per correct comparative point, up to a maximum of 6 marks. To achieve full marks, the answer must include at least one similarity and at least one difference.*

**Similarities (Max 3 marks):**
- **S1:** Both are composed of cells joined end-to-end to form a long / tubular / column-like structure.
- **S2:** Both lack a nucleus / lack most organelles (such as ribosomes or vacuoles) at maturity.
- **S3:** Both have cell walls containing cellulose.

**Differences (Max 5 marks - must be comparative):**
- **D1:** Sieve tube elements are living / have cytoplasm / have a cell membrane whereas xylem vessels are dead / hollow / lack cytoplasm / lack cell membranes.
- **D2:** Sieve tube elements have end walls containing pores / sieve plates whereas xylem vessels have no end walls (open ends).
- **D3:** Xylem vessel walls are lignified / contain lignin whereas sieve tube walls are non-lignified.
- **D4:** Sieve tube elements are associated with companion cells (connected by plasmodesmata) whereas xylem vessels are not associated with companion cells.
- **D5:** Xylem vessels have pits in their walls (for lateral transport) whereas sieve tubes do not have pits.

Section Unit 3: Practical Skills in Biology I

Answer all questions. Use a scientific calculator, ruler, and HB pencil for drawings.
15 Question · 49.94999999999998 marks
Question 1 · Practical Procedures, Drawings & Calculations
3.33 marks
During a practical investigation to determine the mitotic index of an onion (Allium cepa) root tip, a student observed a total of 240 cells under a light microscope. Out of these, 18 cells were in prophase, 12 in metaphase, 6 in anaphase, and 9 in telophase. Calculate the mitotic index of the root tip cells. Show your working and give your final answer to two decimal places.
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Worked solution

Total number of cells in mitosis = 18 (prophase) + 12 (metaphase) + 6 (anaphase) + 9 (telophase) = 45 cells. Total number of cells counted = 240. Mitotic Index = (Number of cells in mitosis / Total number of cells) * 100 = (45 / 240) * 100 = 18.75%.

Marking scheme

1 mark: Correctly calculating the total number of dividing cells as 45. 1 mark: Correct formula or substitution showing 45 divided by 240. 1 mark: Final correct answer of 18.75% (accept 18.75 without the percentage sign).
Question 2 · Practical Procedures, Drawings & Calculations
3.33 marks
A student used a stage micrometer to calibrate an eyepiece graticule. They then measured the diameter of a sclerenchyma fibre in a stem cross-section. The image of the fibre drawn by the student had a diameter of 36 mm. If the drawing had a magnification of \(\times 450\), calculate the actual diameter of the sclerenchyma fibre in micrometres (\(\mu\text{m}\)).
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Worked solution

Magnification = Image size / Actual size. Therefore, Actual size = Image size / Magnification. Image size = 36 mm = 36,000 \(\mu\text{m}\). Actual size = 36,000 / 450 = 80 \(\mu\text{m}\). Alternatively, 36 mm / 450 = 0.08 mm; 0.08 mm * 1000 = 80 \(\mu\text{m}\).

Marking scheme

1 mark: Correct conversion of mm to micrometres (36 mm = 36,000 \(\mu\text{m}\)) or equivalent in mm. 1 mark: Correct arrangement of the magnification formula showing division of image size by magnification. 1 mark: Correct final calculation of 80 \(\mu\text{m}\) (accept 80).
Question 3 · Practical Procedures, Drawings & Calculations
3.33 marks
In an investigation to compare the tensile strength of plant fibres extracted from stinging nettles (Urtica dioica) and flax (Linum usitatissimum), describe three variables that must be controlled to ensure a valid comparison.
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Worked solution

To ensure a valid comparison of tensile strength between different plant species, variables affecting fiber breaking point must be controlled: 1. Length of the fibre (as longer fibres may have more weak points), 2. Diameter/thickness of the fibre (thicker fibres can withstand more force), 3. Temperature or humidity of the testing environment, or the rate at which mass/force is added to the fibre.

Marking scheme

1 mark: Same/constant length of the fibre. 1 mark: Same/constant diameter or thickness of the fibre (accept cross-sectional area). 1 mark: Same environmental temperature/humidity OR same rate of loading (adding masses).
Question 4 · Practical Procedures, Drawings & Calculations
3.33 marks
A student calibrated a DCPIP solution using a standard 0.1% vitamin C solution (which corresponds to 1.0 mg cm\(^{-3}\)). It required 2.0 cm\(^{3}\) of this standard solution to completely decolourise 1.0 cm\(^{3}\) of 1% DCPIP. The student then titrated a fresh sample of grapefruit juice, which required 1.6 cm\(^{3}\) to decolourise the same volume of DCPIP. Calculate the concentration of vitamin C in the grapefruit juice sample. Give your answer to two decimal places and include units.
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Worked solution

Mass of vitamin C required to decolourise 1.0 cm\(^{3}\) of DCPIP = Volume of standard * Concentration of standard = 2.0 cm\(^{3}\) * 1.0 mg cm\(^{-3}\) = 2.0 mg. This same mass of vitamin C (2.0 mg) is present in the 1.6 cm\(^{3}\) of grapefruit juice. Therefore, Concentration of grapefruit juice = Mass / Volume = 2.0 mg / 1.6 cm\(^{3}\) = 1.25 mg cm\(^{-3}\).

Marking scheme

1 mark: Correctly calculating the mass of vitamin C in the standard titration as 2.0 mg. 1 mark: Setting up the correct ratio showing concentration of juice = 2.0 mg / 1.6 cm\(^{3}\). 1 mark: Final correct answer of 1.25 mg cm\(^{-3}\) (accept 1.25).
Question 5 · Practical Procedures, Drawings & Calculations
3.33 marks
Describe how a colorimeter should be set up and used to quantitatively measure the leakage of betalain pigment from beetroot disc membranes at different temperatures.
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Worked solution

1. Calibrate the colorimeter using a reference cuvette containing distilled water to set the absorbance to 0 (or transmission to 100%). 2. Select a green filter (around 520-550 nm) as betalain is a red pigment and absorbs green light most strongly. 3. Ensure the outside of each cuvette is dry and free of fingerprints before placing it in the colorimeter.

Marking scheme

1 mark: Calibrating the colorimeter using a blank / cuvette of distilled water (to 0 absorbance / 100% transmission). 1 mark: Selection of a green/blue-green filter (500 to 550 nm range). 1 mark: Wiping the cuvette clean/dry before reading to prevent scattering of light.
Question 6 · Practical Procedures, Drawings & Calculations
3.33 marks
A student investigated the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of oxygen production by catalase. At a hydrogen peroxide concentration of 1.0%, 12.0 cm\(^{3}\) of oxygen was collected in 30 seconds. At a concentration of 2.0%, 21.0 cm\(^{3}\) of oxygen was collected in 30 seconds. Calculate the percentage increase in the initial rate of reaction when the substrate concentration is doubled.
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Worked solution

Rate at 1.0% = 12.0 cm\(^{3}\) / 30 s = 0.40 cm\(^{3}\) s\(^{-1}\). Rate at 2.0% = 21.0 cm\(^{3}\) / 30 s = 0.70 cm\(^{3}\) s\(^{-1}\). Percentage increase in rate = ((Rate at 2.0% - Rate at 1.0%) / Rate at 1.0%) * 100 = ((0.70 - 0.40) / 0.40) * 100 = (0.30 / 0.40) * 100 = 75.0%.

Marking scheme

1 mark: Correct calculation of the rates at both concentrations (0.40 and 0.70 cm\(^{3}\) s\(^{-1}\)). 1 mark: Correct formula for percentage change showing ((0.70 - 0.40) / 0.40) or ((21 - 12) / 12). 1 mark: Correct calculation of 75% or 75.0%.
Question 7 · Practical Procedures, Drawings & Calculations
3.33 marks
Explain the difference between a low-power tissue plan diagram and a high-power detail drawing of a plant stem, and state two key biological drawing rules that apply specifically to low-power tissue plan diagrams.
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Worked solution

A low-power tissue plan diagram shows the outline of the different tissues (e.g., epidermis, cortex, vascular bundles) but does not show individual cells, whereas a high-power drawing shows individual cell walls and cellular detail. Two rules for plan diagrams: 1. Draw only tissue boundaries (no individual cells). 2. Do not use shading or hatching to represent different layers.

Marking scheme

1 mark: Explanation that low-power plan shows only tissue boundaries/regions while high-power shows individual cells. 1 mark: Rule 1: No individual cells should be drawn in the plan. 1 mark: Rule 2: No shading/colouring/hatching is allowed.
Question 8 · Practical Procedures, Drawings & Calculations
3.33 marks
A student wants to prepare a series of standard glucose solutions to construct a calibration curve. Describe how they would use serial dilution to prepare 10 cm\(^{3}\) each of 5.0%, 2.5%, and 1.25% glucose solutions, starting with a 10.0% stock solution of glucose and distilled water.
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Worked solution

To perform a two-fold serial dilution: 1. Mix 10 cm\(^{3}\) of the 10.0% stock solution with 10 cm\(^{3}\) of distilled water to create 20 cm\(^{3}\) of a 5.0% solution. 2. Take 10 cm\(^{3}\) of this 5.0% solution and mix it with 10 cm\(^{3}\) of distilled water to produce 20 cm\(^{3}\) of a 2.5% solution. 3. Take 10 cm\(^{3}\) of this 2.5% solution and mix it with 10 cm\(^{3}\) of distilled water to produce 20 cm\(^{3}\) of a 1.25% solution. This leaves exactly 10 cm\(^{3}\) of each solution for the test (except the final one, which can be discarded down to 10 cm\(^{3}\)).

Marking scheme

1 mark: Correct dilution ratio (1:1 ratio / equal volumes of solution and water, i.e., 10 cm\(^{3}\) of each). 1 mark: Describes transferring the newly made dilution to the next tube of water (serial transfer). 1 mark: Specifying that solutions must be thoroughly mixed at each step before the next dilution.
Question 9 · Practical Procedures, Drawings & Calculations
3.33 marks
A student uses a stage micrometer to calibrate an eyepiece graticule. At 400x magnification, 40 eyepiece units align with 2 divisions on the stage micrometer, where each stage micrometer division equals 0.1 mm. The student then measures a palisade mesophyll cell and finds its length is 18 eyepiece units. Calculate the actual length of the cell in micrometres (\(\mu\text{m}\)). State only the final numerical value.
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Worked solution

1. Calculate distance of stage micrometer divisions: 2 divisions = 2 * 0.1 mm = 0.2 mm = 200 \(\mu\text{m}\). 2. Calibrate eyepiece graticule: 40 eyepiece units = 200 \(\mu\text{m}\), so 1 eyepiece unit = 200 / 40 = 5 \(\mu\text{m}\). 3. Calculate actual length of cell: 18 eyepiece units * 5 \(\mu\text{m}\) per unit = 90 \(\mu\text{m}\).

Marking scheme

[1 mark] Calculating the equivalent of 1 eyepiece unit to be 5 \(\mu\text{m}\) (or stage micrometer distance of 200 \(\mu\text{m}\)). [1 mark] Multiplying measured units (18) by calibration factor (5). [1.33 marks] Correct final answer of 90.
Question 10 · Practical Procedures, Drawings & Calculations
3.33 marks
In an investigation into the effect of ethanol concentration on the membrane permeability of beetroot cells, a student uses a colorimeter to measure the absorbance of the bathing solution. State three variables that must be controlled to ensure the validity of this investigation, and explain how one of these variables is controlled.
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Worked solution

Controlled variables are critical to ensure that any change in absorbance is only due to the independent variable (ethanol concentration). Controlled variables include: 1. Volume of ethanol (e.g., 10 \(\text{cm}^3\) in each tube). 2. Temperature (all tubes kept in a water bath at 25 degrees Celsius). 3. Surface area/dimensions of beetroot pieces (using a cork borer to get same diameter and cutting to same length with a scalpel and ruler). 4. Washing time/process to remove excess pigment from cut surfaces. 5. Source/variety of beetroot. Controlling temperature ensures that thermal damage to cell membranes does not confound the results.

Marking scheme

[1.5 marks] 0.5 marks for each valid controlled variable stated (up to three). [1 mark] Explaining how one chosen variable is controlled. [0.83 marks] Explaining why controlling this variable ensures validity (e.g., prevents thermal damage to membranes from confounding results).
Question 11 · Practical Procedures, Drawings & Calculations
3.33 marks
A student investigated the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of hydrogen peroxide decomposition by catalase. At 1.0% substrate concentration, 18.0 \(\text{cm}^3\) of oxygen gas was collected in 2 minutes and 15 seconds. Calculate the initial rate of reaction in \(\text{cm}^3 \text{ s}^{-1}\). Give your answer to 3 significant figures.
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Worked solution

1. Convert the time to seconds: 2 minutes and 15 seconds = (2 * 60) + 15 = 135 seconds. 2. Calculate rate: Rate = Volume of oxygen collected / time in seconds = 18.0 \(\text{cm}^3\) / 135 s = 0.13333... \(\text{cm}^3 \text{ s}^{-1}\). 3. Round to 3 significant figures: 0.133 \(\text{cm}^3 \text{ s}^{-1}\).

Marking scheme

[1 mark] Conversion of time to seconds (135 s). [1 mark] Correct formula application (volume divided by time). [1.33 marks] Correct calculation of rate to 3 significant figures (0.133).
Question 12 · Practical Procedures, Drawings & Calculations
3.33 marks
A student prepared a root tip squash of onion (Allium cepa) to observe the stages of mitosis. In a single field of view, they counted 24 cells in prophase, 8 in metaphase, 6 in anaphase, 12 in telophase, and 150 in interphase. Calculate the mitotic index of this sample as a percentage. Give your answer to 3 significant figures.
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Worked solution

1. Sum the number of cells undergoing mitosis (active stages): 24 (prophase) + 8 (metaphase) + 6 (anaphase) + 12 (telophase) = 50 cells. 2. Calculate the total number of cells: 50 + 150 (interphase) = 200 cells. 3. Calculate mitotic index: Mitotic Index = (Number of cells in mitosis / Total number of cells) * 100 = (50 / 200) * 100 = 25%. 4. Express to 3 significant figures: 25.0%.

Marking scheme

[1 mark] Calculating total number of dividing cells (50) or total cells (200). [1 mark] Setting up the correct ratio: (50 / 200). [1.33 marks] Correct final percentage value to 3 significant figures (25.0).
Question 13 · Practical Procedures, Drawings & Calculations
3.33 marks
A student titrated a standard 1.0% vitamin C solution against 1.0 \(\text{cm}^3\) of 0.1% DCPIP, requiring an average volume of 0.85 \(\text{cm}^3\) to decolourise the DCPIP. A sample of fresh orange juice required an average volume of 2.15 \(\text{cm}^3\) to decolourise the same volume of DCPIP. Calculate the concentration of vitamin C in the orange juice in \(\text{mg cm}^{-3}\). Note: 1.0% vitamin C solution contains 10.0 \(\text{mg cm}^{-3}\) of vitamin C. Give your answer to 2 decimal places.
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Worked solution

1. Use the titration relationship: Concentration of Sample = (Volume of Standard / Volume of Sample) * Concentration of Standard. 2. Substitute values: Concentration of orange juice = (0.85 / 2.15) * 10.0 \(\text{mg cm}^{-3}\). 3. Calculate: Concentration = 0.3953488... * 10.0 = 3.953488... \(\text{mg cm}^{-3}\). 4. Express to 2 decimal places: 3.95 \(\text{mg cm}^{-3}\).

Marking scheme

[1 mark] Correctly stating or using the inverse relationship between volume required and concentration. [1 mark] Calculation setup (0.85 / 2.15) * 10. [1.33 marks] Final concentration calculated to 2 decimal places (3.95).
Question 14 · Practical Procedures, Drawings & Calculations
3.33 marks
Potato cylinders were placed in different concentrations of sucrose solution. A cylinder with an initial mass of 3.42 g had a final mass of 2.87 g after incubation for 2 hours in a 0.6 \(\text{mol dm}^{-3}\) sucrose solution. Calculate the percentage change in mass of this potato cylinder. Give your answer to one decimal place, ensuring you indicate whether the change is a loss or a gain using a plus (+) or minus (-) sign.
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Worked solution

1. Find the change in mass: Final Mass - Initial Mass = 2.87 g - 3.42 g = -0.55 g (a loss of 0.55 g). 2. Calculate percentage change: (Change in Mass / Initial Mass) * 100 = (-0.55 / 3.42) * 100 = -16.08187...%. 3. Round to one decimal place: -16.1%.

Marking scheme

[1 mark] Correct calculation of change in mass (-0.55 g). [1 mark] Correct division by initial mass (3.42 g) rather than final mass. [1.33 marks] Correct percentage change to one decimal place including the correct sign (-16.1).
Question 15 · Practical Procedures, Drawings & Calculations
3.33 marks
A student makes a high-power drawing of three adjacent parenchyma cells from a stem cross-section. The actual diameter of one cell is 65 \(\mu\text{m}\). In the student's drawing, the diameter of this same cell measures 5.2 cm. Calculate the magnification of the drawing. Give your answer to the nearest whole number.
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Worked solution

1. Convert both measurements to the same unit. Convert drawing size to micrometres: 5.2 cm = 52 mm = 52,000 \(\mu\text{m}\). 2. Use the magnification formula: Magnification = Drawing Size / Actual Size. 3. Calculate magnification: Magnification = 52,000 / 65 = 800. Therefore, the magnification of the drawing is x800.

Marking scheme

[1 mark] Convert drawing size to micrometres (52,000 \(\mu\text{m}\)) or actual size to centimetres (0.0065 cm). [1 mark] Setting up the correct equation (Drawing Size / Actual Size). [1.33 marks] Correct final magnification of 800 (accept x800).

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