Edexcel IGCSE · Thinka-original Practice Paper

2025 Edexcel IGCSE Geography Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Jun 2025 (V2) Cambridge International A Level-Style Mock — Geography

175 marks175 mins2025
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2025 (V2) Cambridge International A Level Geography paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

Paper 1 Section A (Physical Choices)

In Section A, answer two questions from Questions 1, 2 and 3.
17 Question · 49 marks
Question 1 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which of the following processes of river transportation involves pebbles and small stones bouncing along the river bed in a leap-frog motion?
  1. A.Traction
  2. B.Saltation
  3. C.Suspension
  4. D.Solution
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Saltation is the process of transportation where small pebbles and stones are bounced along the river bed by the force of the water. Traction involves larger rocks being rolled along the bed, suspension involves fine sediment carried in the water column, and solution is the transport of dissolved minerals.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer (B). No marks for incorrect options.
Question 2 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which of the following sequences correctly shows the stages in the formation of a wave-cut platform?
  1. A.Wave-cut notch formation \(\rightarrow\) cliff collapse \(\rightarrow\) cliff retreat \(\rightarrow\) wave-cut platform
  2. B.Cliff retreat \(\rightarrow\) wave-cut platform \(\rightarrow\) wave-cut notch formation \(\rightarrow\) cliff collapse
  3. C.Wave-cut platform \(\rightarrow\) wave-cut notch formation \(\rightarrow\) cliff collapse \(\rightarrow\) cliff retreat
  4. D.Cliff collapse \(\rightarrow\) wave-cut notch formation \(\rightarrow\) wave-cut platform \(\rightarrow\) cliff retreat
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A wave-cut platform is formed when waves erode the base of a cliff through abrasion and hydraulic action, creating a wave-cut notch. As the notch deepens, the overhanging cliff becomes unstable and collapses. This process repeats, causing the cliff to retreat inland and leaving behind a flat or gently sloping rocky platform known as a wave-cut platform.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer (A). All other options represent incorrect geological sequences.
Question 3 · multiple_choice
1 marks
At which type of plate boundary does subduction occur, leading to the formation of deep ocean trenches and explosive volcanic eruptions?
  1. A.Conservative (transform) plate boundary
  2. B.Constructive (divergent) plate boundary
  3. C.Destructive (convergent) plate boundary
  4. D.Collision plate boundary
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

At a destructive (convergent) plate boundary, an oceanic plate meets a continental plate (or another oceanic plate). The denser oceanic plate is forced downwards into the mantle in a process called subduction, creating a deep ocean trench and generating intense heat and pressure that results in explosive volcanic eruptions.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer (C). Other options do not feature subduction of an oceanic plate.
Question 4 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which of the following sets of environmental conditions is required for the healthy growth and development of coral reefs?
  1. A.Deep water (above 100m), low oxygen levels, high turbidity, and temperatures below 15\(^\circ\)C
  2. B.Shallow water (less than 50m deep), high light levels, clean/clear water, and temperatures between 23\(^\circ\)C and 29\(^\circ\)C
  3. C.Cold temperatures (below 10\(^\circ\)C), high sediment load, brackish water, and low light levels
  4. D.Estuary environments with high mud deposition, high salinity, and temperatures above 40\(^\circ\)C
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Coral reefs require specific conditions to grow: shallow water (usually less than 50 metres deep so sunlight can reach the symbiotic zooxanthellae algae), high light levels, clean and clear water (low turbidity to prevent sediment from smothering the coral), and warm sea temperatures (typically between 23\(^\circ\)C and 29\(^\circ\)C).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer (B). Other options describe conditions that would prevent coral survival.
Question 5 · short_answer
1 marks
State the term used to describe the downslope movement of soil and rock under the influence of gravity along river valley slopes.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Mass movement describes the downward movement of material under gravity, which is a key process widening river valleys.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for mass movement. Also accept specific types such as soil creep, slumping, or landslide.
Question 6 · short_answer
1 marks
State the term for a coastal depositional landform that consists of an elongated ridge of sand or shingle extending out from the coast into the sea, typically with a hooked end.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A spit is a depositional landform formed by longshore drift, extending from the coast, often ending in a recurved hook due to secondary winds or waves.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for spit (accept sand spit).
Question 7 · short_answer
1 marks
Identify the term for the circular area of light winds and fair weather found at the centre of a severe tropical cyclone.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The eye is the calm, low-pressure region at the core of a tropical cyclone, surrounded by the eyewall.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for eye (accept eye of the storm).
Question 8 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain one way in which rock type (geology) affects the rate of river erosion.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Rock type, or geology, plays a major role in the rate of river erosion. Harder, more resistant rocks (such as granite or basalt) are highly cohesive and less easily broken down by the hydraulic action of water or the abrasive force of the river's load. In contrast, softer, less resistant rocks (such as clay or sandstone) are more easily worn away, leading to higher rates of lateral and vertical erosion in those sections of the river channel.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a way/effect, and a further 1 mark for explanation/development. For example: Harder rocks are more resistant to erosion (1), which means they erode much slower than softer, less resistant rocks (1). Alternatively, softer rocks like clay are easily dissolved or broken down by abrasion or hydraulic action (1), leading to faster rates of channel erosion (1).
Question 9 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain one way in which longshore drift transports sediment along a coastline.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Longshore drift is the movement of material along a coast. This happens because waves approach the beach at an angle, driven by the prevailing wind. The swash carries sediment up the beach at this angle. The backwash then carries the sediment straight down the beach under the influence of gravity, at a 90-degree angle to the shoreline. Over time, this repeated zigzag motion transports sediment along the coastline.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a stage of the process (such as the angle of swash or direction of backwash), and a further 1 mark for explaining how this leads to transport along the beach. For example: Waves approach the beach at an angle carrying sediment up (swash) (1), while gravity pulls water straight down the beach (backwash), causing a zigzag movement along the coast (1).
Question 10 · short_answer
3 marks
Explain the formation of a wave-cut platform.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Wave erosion, such as hydraulic action and abrasion, is concentrated at the high-tide level, eroding the base of the cliff to create a wave-cut notch. 2. As the notch deepens over time, the cliff face above becomes unstable and unsupported, eventually collapsing under gravity. 3. This process of notch development and cliff collapse repeats, causing the cliff to retreat inland. The flat or gently sloping rocky area left behind at the base of the retreating cliff is the wave-cut platform.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying that wave erosion (e.g. hydraulic action/abrasion) creates a wave-cut notch at the base of the cliff (1). Award 1 mark for explaining that the cliff above becomes unsupported and collapses (1). Award 1 mark for explaining that repeated cliff retreat leaves behind a flat or gently sloping rocky platform (1).
Question 11 · short_answer
3 marks
Explain how urbanisation can increase the risk of river flooding.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Urbanisation involves building houses, roads, and infrastructure, which replaces natural vegetation and permeable soils with impermeable surfaces like tarmac and concrete. 2. This prevents rainwater from infiltrating the ground, leading to a massive increase in surface runoff (overland flow). 3. Additionally, artificial drainage systems (such as gutters and storm drains) transport this water rapidly into nearby river channels, shortening the lag time and causing a rapid spike in river discharge that can exceed the channel's capacity.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for explaining that urbanisation replaces permeable ground with impermeable surfaces (or concrete/tarmac) which reduces infiltration (1). Award 1 mark for explaining that this reduction in infiltration increases surface runoff / overland flow (1). Award 1 mark for linking this to rapid water delivery to the river channel, shortening lag time or increasing discharge beyond channel capacity (1).
Question 12 · Medium Answer
4 marks
Explain two ways in which afforestation can reduce the risk of river flooding.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Award 1 mark for identifying each valid way (up to 2) and a further 1 mark for each explanation/development (up to 2). Way 1: Tree canopies intercept falling precipitation (1 mark), which delays the rate at which water reaches the ground and increases the lag time (1 mark). Way 2: Tree root networks create pathways in the soil that increase infiltration (1 mark), which reduces the volume of surface runoff entering the river channel (1 mark).

Marking scheme

For each of the two ways: 1 mark for identifying a valid way (e.g., interception, root absorption/infiltration, transpiration). 1 mark for explaining how this reduction of water transfer decreases flood risk (e.g., increasing lag time, reducing overland flow). Max 4 marks.
Question 13 · Medium Answer
4 marks
Explain the formation of a wave-cut platform.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Award up to 4 marks for a logical, sequential explanation of the formation. 1 mark: Marine erosion (such as hydraulic action or abrasion) concentrates at the base of the cliff between high and low tide marks. 1 mark: This erosion undercuts the cliff, forming a wave-cut notch. 1 mark: As the notch deepens, the weight of the overhanging cliff makes it unstable, leading to its eventual collapse. 1 mark: Repeated undercutting and collapse causes the cliff to retreat inland, leaving behind a flat or gently sloping rocky wave-cut platform at its base.

Marking scheme

Points-based marking up to 4 marks: 1 mark for identifying erosion processes at the cliff base. 1 mark for describing the creation of a wave-cut notch. 1 mark for explaining the undercutting, instability, and collapse of the cliff. 1 mark for explaining how repeated retreat leaves behind the flat rocky platform.
Question 14 · Medium Answer
4 marks
Explain two reasons why some people choose to live in areas at risk from volcanic eruptions.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Award 1 mark for identifying each valid reason (up to 2) and a further 1 mark for each explanation/development (up to 2). Reason 1: Fertile volcanic soils (1 mark), which are rich in minerals and nutrients from weathered volcanic material, allowing farmers to grow high crop yields and make a living (1 mark). Reason 2: Availability of geothermal energy (1 mark), where tectonic heat can be harnessed to generate cheap, clean electricity and hot water for local communities (1 mark).

Marking scheme

For each of the two reasons: 1 mark for identifying a valid reason (e.g., fertile soils, tourism, geothermal energy, mineral extraction, social/economic constraints). 1 mark for explaining how or why this encourages people to stay despite the hazard risk. Max 4 marks.
Question 15 · Medium Answer
4 marks
Explain how the process of abrasion contributes to the erosion of a river channel.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Award 1 mark for identifying the basic mechanism and up to 3 further marks for explaining its contribution. 1 mark: The river transports a load of sediment (pebbles, rocks, sand) along its channel. 1 mark: These sediments scrape, rub, or impact against the channel bed and banks. 1 mark: This physical contact acts like sandpaper, mechanically wearing down and removing rock particles from the channel surfaces. 1 mark: This contributes to the deepening of the river bed (vertical erosion) and the widening of the channel banks (lateral erosion).

Marking scheme

Points-based marking up to 4 marks: 1 mark for stating that sediment/load is transported and rubs against the bed/banks. 1 mark for describing the mechanical scraping/sandpapering action. 1 mark for linking the process to the wearing away of channel material. 1 mark for explaining the outcome (e.g., vertical deepening or lateral widening).
Question 16 · extended_writing
8 marks
Evaluate the success of hard engineering strategies in managing coastal erosion. You should refer to a named coastal area in your answer.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A case study of the Holderness Coast in Yorkshire can be used. At Mappleton, two rock groynes and a rock revetment were built in 1991 at a cost of 2 million GBP to protect the village and the B1242 cliff-top road. This was successful in stopping erosion at Mappleton by trapping sediment and building a wider beach. However, this strategy starved areas further south of sediment (such as Great Cowden), leading to accelerated cliff erosion rates from 1.7 to nearly 4 meters per year. This demonstrates that while hard engineering can successfully protect localized high-value assets, it often disrupts natural coastal processes and causes negative knock-on consequences elsewhere along the sediment cell, making it unsustainable in the long term.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1-3 marks): Demonstrates isolated elements of knowledge about hard engineering (e.g. lists sea walls or groynes). Gives a basic description of how they work with little or no evaluation. Level 2 (4-6 marks): Demonstrates good geographical knowledge of hard engineering strategies, with some reference to a named coastal area. Developed arguments showing some success and failure, but may be unbalanced. Level 3 (7-8 marks): Demonstrates accurate and detailed geographical knowledge of a specific named coastal area. Offers a balanced and well-structured evaluation of the success of hard engineering, concluding with a clear, supported judgment.
Question 17 · extended_writing
8 marks
Assess the relative importance of human activities compared to physical factors in causing river flooding.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Physical factors are often the primary driver of river flooding. Intense, prolonged rainfall saturates the soil, reducing infiltration and increasing rapid surface runoff into rivers. Steep relief in mountainous catchments accelerates water travel times, while impermeable rock geology (e.g., granite) prevents percolation. However, human activities significantly exacerbate these natural processes. Urbanization replaces permeable soils with impermeable concrete and tarmac, while drainage systems channel water rapidly into rivers, reducing lag time. Deforestation removes the vegetation canopy that intercepts rain, increasing runoff. Therefore, while physical events provide the volume of water, human activities often determine the severity of the flooding by altering the land use and drainage dynamics of the catchment.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1-3 marks): Identifies basic human and physical causes of flooding (e.g., rain, concrete) with little explanation of how they cause floods. No clear assessment of relative importance. Level 2 (4-6 marks): Explains both physical (e.g., relief, geology) and human (e.g., deforestation, urbanization) factors using appropriate geographical terms. Offers a basic assessment of which factor is more important. Level 3 (7-8 marks): Detailed, balanced assessment of both sets of factors. Demonstrates a clear understanding of hydrological processes (e.g., lag time, infiltration). Reaches a logical, well-supported conclusion regarding their relative importance.

Paper 1 Section B (Physical Enquiry)

In Section B, answer one question from Questions 4, 5 and 6.
6 Question · 22 marks
Question 1 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain one reason why a student might choose to use systematic sampling when selecting sites to investigate downstream changes in a river.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Systematic sampling involves selecting study sites at regular, pre-determined intervals (for example, every 500 metres along the river channel). This is highly suitable for a river investigation because it ensures even coverage across the entire length of the study area, preventing the clustering of sample points. By maintaining a fixed interval, the student can accurately map and analyze how variables such as velocity, width, and bedload size change progressively from upstream to downstream, while also eliminating subjectivity/bias in site selection.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a valid benefit of systematic sampling, and a further 1 mark for explaining how this benefits the river investigation. E.g. It ensures sample sites are spaced at regular intervals along the river course (1) so that progressive downstream changes can be clearly identified (1); OR It avoids researcher bias when selecting sample locations (1) which increases the reliability of the collected data (1); OR It ensures even coverage of the river profile (1) meaning no major sections of the river are under-represented (1).
Question 2 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain one reason why a student might choose to use systematic sampling when selecting sites to investigate downstream changes in a river.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Systematic sampling involves selecting study sites at regular, pre-determined intervals (for example, every 500 metres along the river channel). This is highly suitable for a river investigation because it ensures even coverage across the entire length of the study area, preventing the clustering of sample points. By maintaining a fixed interval, the student can accurately map and analyze how variables such as velocity, width, and bedload size change progressively from upstream to downstream, while also eliminating subjectivity/bias in site selection.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a valid benefit of systematic sampling, and a further 1 mark for explaining how this benefits the river investigation. E.g. It ensures sample sites are spaced at regular intervals along the river course (1) so that progressive downstream changes can be clearly identified (1); OR It avoids researcher bias when selecting sample locations (1) which increases the reliability of the collected data (1); OR It ensures even coverage of the river profile (1) meaning no major sections of the river are under-represented (1).
Question 3 · Short Answer
3 marks
Explain one benefit of using systematic sampling to select investigation sites along a river channel.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Systematic sampling involves choosing sites at regular intervals (e.g., every 500 meters). This provides a representative coverage of the river profile, avoids bias in choosing accessible locations, and ensures that gradual downstream changes can be accurately plotted and analyzed.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a benefit (e.g., regular intervals / representative coverage / reduced bias) and a further 2 marks for explanation/development:
- Systematic sampling means selecting sites at regular, equal intervals (1).
- This ensures that the whole length of the river is covered and no key areas are missed, allowing downstream trends to be identified (1).
- It reduces subjectivity or bias because sites are chosen mathematically rather than because they are easy to reach (1).
Question 4 · Short Answer
3 marks
Explain how students can use a clinometer and ranging poles to measure a beach profile.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Ranging poles are placed at key intervals along a transect perpendicular to the shoreline. The observer stands at the first pole, aligning the clinometer with a marked point (usually eye level) on the second pole. The angle of slope is read from the dial and recorded, and the process is repeated for each segment.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each step in the explanation, up to a maximum of 3 marks:
- Place ranging poles at points where the slope changes (or at fixed distance intervals) along the transect (1).
- Hold the clinometer at a designated height on one pole and sight a matching height line/point on the next pole (1).
- Read and record the angle of slope in degrees from the clinometer (1).
Question 5 · Medium Answer
4 marks
As part of a river channel enquiry, students used a digital impeller flow meter to measure river velocity. Explain one strength and one weakness of using this method to collect river velocity data.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Strength (up to 2 marks):
- The digital impeller flow meter provides a precise numerical reading (1), which reduces human subjectivity and timing errors that occur when using manual float-and-stopwatch methods (1).
- It can be positioned at a specific, standardized depth (e.g., 0.6 of the total depth from the surface) (1), ensuring that the velocity data collected is highly representative of the average velocity at that point in the river channel (1).

Weakness (up to 2 marks):
- The moving impeller can easily become clogged or obstructed by river debris, algae, or suspended silt (1), which slows down or stops the blade rotation and leads under-recorded or inaccurate velocity measurements (1).
- It requires a minimum depth of water to submerge the impeller head (1), meaning it cannot easily be used in very shallow headwater sections or riffles, leading to gaps in the longitudinal dataset (1).

Marking scheme

Award up to 2 marks for the explanation of one strength:
- 1 mark for identifying a valid strength (e.g., increased precision, standardized depth).
- 1 mark for explaining/developing how this improves the data quality or collection process.

Award up to 2 marks for the explanation of one weakness:
- 1 mark for identifying a valid weakness (e.g., clogging by weeds, minimum depth requirement, equipment cost/fragility).
- 1 mark for explaining/developing how this impacts the accuracy, reliability, or feasibility of data collection.
Question 6 · extended_writing
8 marks
For a physical geographical enquiry you have carried out, evaluate the effectiveness of your primary data collection methods in providing reliable data to investigate your chosen hypothesis.

In your answer, you should:
- State the hypothesis of your physical geographical enquiry.
- Evaluate the strengths and limitations of the primary data collection methods used (such as sampling strategies, equipment, and technique accuracy).
- Suggest how these methods could be improved to increase the overall reliability of your findings.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

### Example Response (River Channel Enquiry)

**Hypothesis:** *River bedload size decreases and sphericity increases with distance downstream along the course of the River Ouse.*

**Evaluation of Primary Data Collection Methods:**

* **Bedload Sampling (Systematic Sampling):** To measure bedload size (long axis) and roundness (using Powers' Scale of Roundness), we selected 10 pebbles at 5 distinct sites along the river's course.
* *Strengths:* Using a systematic approach (e.g., picking the pebble nearest to the toe of our boot at pre-measured intervals across a transect) reduced subjective selector bias, ensuring a more representative sample of the river bed.
* *Limitations:* In practice, at downstream sites with deep or fast-flowing water, it was dangerous or difficult to reach the river bed safely. This led to opportunistic sampling near the banks, where flow is slower and smaller sediments accumulate. This likely skewed the data, showing an artificially low average bedload size at those sites.
* *Improvement:* Future enquiries could use a grab sampler or wading rods in deeper sections, or perform the enquiry during a drier season when water levels and velocities are lower, ensuring safer access to the entire cross-section.

* **Channel Cross-Sectional Area (Using Tape Measure and Ranging Poles):**
* *Strengths:* Measuring the width with a taut tape measure and depth at regular 50 cm intervals across the channel provided highly detailed, high-resolution cross-sectional profiles.
* *Limitations:* The tape measure often sagged in the wind or due to the river current, leading to an overestimation of the channel width. Additionally, the ruler used for depth was prone to sinking into soft silt on the riverbed, falsely inflating depth readings.
* *Improvement:* To improve reliability, we should ensure the tape measure is pulled completely taut or use an electronic rangefinder for width, and attach a wider base plate to the bottom of the depth measuring rod to prevent it from sinking into soft mud.

**Conclusion on Reliability:**
Overall, while our primary methods were structurally sound and followed a clear systematic framework, environmental constraints (water depth, soft mud) compromised the reliability of downstream measurements. Implementing the suggested equipment adjustments would significantly increase the accuracy of the data and reinforce the validity of our conclusions regarding downstream changes.

Marking scheme

**Marking Scheme (8 Marks):**

* **AO3 (4 marks):** Apply understanding to evaluate geographical enquiry methodology.
* **AO4 (4 marks):** Demonstrate geographical enquiry skills by evaluating data collection methods.

| Level | Marks | Descriptor |
|---|---|---|
| **Level 0** | 0 | No rewardable material. |
| **Level 1** | 1–3 | • Simple, descriptive statements about the methods used without clear evaluation. (AO4)
• Focus is largely on what was done rather than how effective it was. (AO3)
• May fail to state a clear hypothesis or link methods to the hypothesis. |
| **Level 2** | 4–6 | • Explains both strengths and weaknesses of primary data collection methods. (AO4)
• Some evaluation of how these affected the reliability of findings is present, though it may be unbalanced. (AO3)
• Suggests some realistic improvements, showing a logical structure. |
| **Level 3** | 7–8 | • Balanced, detailed evaluation of the effectiveness of the primary data collection methods in relation to the stated hypothesis. (AO4)
• Sophisticated critique of sampling strategies, equipment, and human/instrument errors and their direct impact on data reliability. (AO3)
• Formulates precise, realistic improvements to the methods to enhance future accuracy. |

Paper 2 Section A (Human Choices)

In Section A, answer two questions from Questions 1, 2 and 3.
18 Question · 50 marks
Question 1 · multiple-choice
1 marks
According to the Clark-Fisher model, which of the following is the main reason why the proportion of people employed in the primary sector declines as a country developments?
  1. A.Increased mechanisation in agriculture reduces the demand for manual labour
  2. B.A rapid depletion of all natural resources forces workers into the tertiary sector
  3. C.Governments introduce laws banning primary sector employment to reduce pollution
  4. D.An increase in international aid makes primary food production unnecessary
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

As a country develops, agricultural and extraction activities become increasingly mechanised (e.g. through the use of tractors and automated machinery). This reduces the demand for manual labour, causing a decline in the proportion of the workforce employed in the primary sector.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer (a). Award 0 marks for any other option.
Question 2 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following processes is best described as the outward spread of an urban area, often leading to the low-density development of surrounding rural-urban fringe land?
  1. A.Counter-urbanisation
  2. B.Suburbanisation
  3. C.Urbanisation
  4. D.Re-urbanisation
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Suburbanisation refers to the outward growth of urban areas, where people and businesses move from inner-city areas to lower-density housing estates and commercial developments located at the edge of the city or in the rural-urban fringe.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying the correct process (b). No marks are awarded for incorrect options.
Question 3 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following describes a key advantage of using nuclear power as an energy source compared to fossil fuels?
  1. A.It produces zero radioactive waste products during its entire lifecycle
  2. B.It has very low capital costs to construct and decommission power stations
  3. C.It does not emit greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide during electricity generation
  4. D.It relies on an infinitely renewable fuel source that does not require mining
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

During electricity generation, nuclear reactors do not emit carbon dioxide, which is a major greenhouse gas responsible for global climate change. This makes it a lower-carbon option compared to burning coal, oil, or natural gas.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct environmental advantage (c). Other options are incorrect characteristics of nuclear energy.
Question 4 · multiple-choice
1 marks
What is a major advantage of developing brownfield sites rather than greenfield sites for urban housing projects?
  1. A.Brownfield sites always have clean, uncontaminated soil requiring no pre-treatment
  2. B.Building on brownfield sites reduces the pressure of urban sprawl and preserves rural areas
  3. C.Brownfield sites are always cheaper and faster to develop because they have no existing structures
  4. D.Brownfield sites are typically located far away from pre-existing urban infrastructure
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Developing brownfield sites (previously developed land in urban areas) helps limit urban sprawl by utilizing existing vacant or neglected sites, thereby preserving greenfield land and natural habitats in the countryside.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct advantage (b). All other options represent common misconceptions or disadvantages of brownfield sites.
Question 5 · Short Answer
1 marks
Identify one example of a renewable energy source.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Wind is a renewable energy source because it is naturally replenished on a human timescale and does not deplete with use. Other examples include solar, hydroelectric, geothermal, tidal, wave, and biomass.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for a valid example of a renewable energy source. Acceptable answers include: wind power, solar power, geothermal energy, hydroelectric power (HEP), tidal power, wave power, or biomass. Reject fossil fuels (coal, oil, natural gas) and nuclear power.
Question 6 · Short Answer
1 marks
State one characteristic of the informal sector of employment in urban areas of developing countries.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The informal sector of employment is characterized by a lack of government regulation and monitoring. This means workers often have untaxed earnings, no written employment contracts, irregular hours, and no access to legal protections or benefits.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for a valid characteristic of the informal sector of employment. Acceptable responses include: untaxed income or earnings, lack of official contracts, low or irregular pay, lack of employee benefits (such as sick leave or pensions), unsafe working conditions, or being self-employed (such as street vending). Reject answers describing formal sector characteristics or general urban living conditions.
Question 7 · Short Answer
1 marks
Define the term 'rural-urban migration'.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Rural-urban migration is the movement of people from rural areas (such as villages and farming communities) to urban areas (such as towns and cities) to reside and find work.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for a clear definition that includes both the origin (rural or countryside) and the destination (urban or towns or cities) of the movement. Reject definitions that only mention moving without specifying rural to urban.
Question 8 · Short Answer
1 marks
Define the term 'primary economic activity'.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Primary economic activity refers to any industry that is involved in the direct extraction or harvesting of natural resources and raw materials from the Earth, such as agriculture, fishing, forestry, or mining.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for a definition that refers to the extraction, collection, or harvesting of raw materials or natural resources from the earth. Accept appropriate examples (such as farming, mining, forestry, or fishing) if they are clearly linked to the process of extraction. Reject definitions of manufacturing (secondary) or services (tertiary).
Question 9 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain one reason why global demand for energy is increasing.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

One reason for the increasing global demand for energy is rapid industrialisation in emerging economies. As countries develop, they build more factories and manufacturing plants, which require large amounts of electricity and fuel to run machinery, leading to higher overall energy consumption.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a valid reason, and 1 mark for development/explanation up to a maximum of 2 marks. Valid points include: Industrialisation/economic growth (1) leading to more energy-intensive manufacturing (1); Population growth (1) leading to more individual consumers of electricity and fuel (1); Rising living standards (1) resulting in increased ownership of electronic appliances and vehicles (1).
Question 10 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain one environmental challenge caused by rapid urbanisation in developing countries.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

One environmental challenge caused by rapid urbanisation is water pollution. Because the urban population grows faster than local authorities can build infrastructure, untreated domestic sewage and industrial waste are often discharged directly into nearby rivers and streams.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying an environmental challenge, and 1 mark for development/explanation up to a maximum of 2 marks. Valid points include: Water pollution (1) because sewage and sanitation infrastructure cannot cope with the population influx (1); Air pollution (1) due to a higher concentration of poorly regulated vehicles and industrial emissions (1); Loss of natural habitats/biodiversity (1) as natural land is cleared to make space for informal settlements (1).
Question 11 · Short Answer
3 marks
Explain one reason why energy consumption per person is rising in emerging and developing countries.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Economic growth in emerging and developing countries leads to rising disposable incomes and a growing middle class. This enables citizens to purchase more energy-intensive consumer goods, such as refrigerators, air conditioning units, television sets, and personal vehicles. Consequently, the average household electricity and fuel consumption per person increases significantly.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a valid reason, and up to 2 further marks for development/explanation:
- Rising household incomes / growth of the middle class (1 mark).
- Leads to increased purchase and ownership of domestic electrical appliances or cars (1 mark).
- This results in higher individual electricity consumption or fuel usage (1 mark).
Accept other valid lines of reasoning, such as industrial development or rural electrification schemes.
Question 12 · Short Answer
3 marks
Explain how urban planning schemes can reduce traffic congestion in megacities.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Urban planners can design and implement integrated public transport systems, such as Bus Rapid Transit (BRT) lanes or metro networks. By providing a cheaper, faster, and more reliable alternative to driving, these schemes encourage a modal shift away from private vehicle use. This reduces the overall number of cars on the road, thereby decreasing traffic congestion.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a relevant urban planning strategy, and up to 2 further marks for explaining how it reduces traffic congestion:
- Implementation of high-capacity public transport networks like BRT or subways, or vehicle restrictions like congestion charging (1 mark).
- This makes public transit more attractive/makes driving more expensive, encouraging commuters to switch transport modes (1 mark).
- This leads to fewer private vehicles on the roads during peak hours, alleviating bottlenecks and congestion (1 mark).
Question 13 · Medium Answer
4 marks
Explain two reasons why employment in the secondary sector has declined in many developed countries.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Reason 1: Deindustrialisation and globalisation have led companies to relocate manufacturing operations to emerging or developing countries. This is because these countries offer lower labour costs and fewer regulations, making production cheaper. Reason 2: Technological advancement and automation have increased. The introduction of industrial robots and computer-aided manufacturing has replaced manual labour, meaning fewer workers are required to produce the same volume of goods.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a reason and 1 further mark for explanation up to a maximum of 2 marks per reason. Reason 1: Globalisation / outsourcing (1 mark), as companies seek lower labour and operational costs in developing nations (1 mark). Reason 2: Mechanisation / automation (1 mark), which replaces manual assembly-line workers with high-efficiency machinery and robots (1 mark).
Question 14 · Medium Answer
4 marks
Explain two environmental challenges caused by rapid urbanisation in Low-Income Countries (LICs).
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Challenge 1: Severe water pollution often occurs in urban areas. This happens because the rapid growth of informal settlements outpaces the construction of municipal sewage systems, resulting in raw sewage and industrial waste discharging directly into local water bodies. Challenge 2: Air pollution increases significantly. The influx of older, poorly maintained vehicles combined with dense traffic and unregulated factory emissions releases high volumes of particulates and toxic gases into the atmosphere.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying an environmental challenge and 1 further mark for explanation up to a maximum of 2 marks per challenge. Challenge 1: Water pollution (1 mark), due to the lack of infrastructure to process sewage from rapidly expanding informal settlements (1 mark). Challenge 2: Air pollution (1 mark), driven by congested roads with older vehicles and unregulated industrial factories (1 mark).
Question 15 · Medium Answer
4 marks
Explain two ways in which farm diversification can help to sustain rural incomes.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Way 1: Farmers can convert redundant farm buildings, such as barns, into holiday cottages or tourist accommodation. This provides a steady, alternative source of revenue that is not dependent on weather conditions or crop yields. Way 2: Farmers can establish on-site farm shops or cafes to sell their produce directly to consumers. This allows them to bypass wholesalers, thereby securing higher profit margins on their agricultural goods.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a method of diversification and 1 further mark for explaining how it sustains or increases income, up to a maximum of 2 marks per way. Way 1: Tourism/accommodation (1 mark), which creates a reliable, non-agricultural revenue stream unaffected by farming market fluctuations (1 mark). Way 2: Farm shops/direct selling (1 mark), which increases profit margins by cutting out external distributors and retail middle-men (1 mark).
Question 16 · Medium Answer
4 marks
Explain two reasons why many countries are shifting their energy mix towards renewable energy sources.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Reason 1: Countries are trying to meet international climate agreements, such as the Paris Agreement, to reduce global warming. Transitioning to renewable sources like solar and wind power reduces greenhouse gas emissions because these technologies generate electricity without burning fossil fuels. Reason 2: Renewable energy enhances energy security. Generating power domestically from wind, water, or sun reduces a nation's vulnerability to geopolitical conflicts and price fluctuations associated with importing foreign fossil fuels.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a reason and 1 further mark for explanation up to a maximum of 2 marks per reason. Reason 1: Climate change commitments (1 mark), because renewable energy generation does not release greenhouse gases that contribute to global warming (1 mark). Reason 2: Energy security (1 mark), as domestic power generation reduces dependence on expensive and politically volatile foreign oil and gas imports (1 mark).
Question 17 · extended_writing
8 marks
Assess the relative importance of different factors influencing the location of high-tech (quaternary) industries.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

An excellent response should cover several key locational factors and assess their relative importance, ideally using a case study or specific examples (such as the M4 Corridor in the UK or Silicon Valley in the USA).

Key factors to discuss:
1. **Proximity to Universities and Research Institutions**: Provides a highly skilled, specialized graduate workforce and opportunities for collaborative research and development (R&D). (e.g., Cambridge Science Park close to Cambridge University).
2. **Transport Infrastructure**: Highly accessible locations near major motorways (e.g., M4) and international airports (e.g., Heathrow) are vital for the movement of global business travelers, high-value components, and ideas.
3. **Government Incentives and Planning Policies**: Enterprise zones, tax breaks, and local planning decisions that designate science parks can attract start-ups and multinational firms.
4. **Agglomeration and Clustering**: Locating near other high-tech firms enables the sharing of knowledge, services, and supply chains, creating positive feedback loops.
5. **High-quality Environment and Amenities**: High-tech workers are highly mobile and demand high-quality residential areas, green spaces, and good schools, making attractive rural-urban fringe environments highly desirable.

**Assessment / Evaluation**:
- While transport links and attractive environments are highly desirable, they are secondary because they cannot make up for a lack of skilled human capital.
- The absolute prerequisite for quaternary industry is knowledge, making access to elite universities and existing tech clusters the most critical (primary) factors. Without these, infrastructure and government subsidies are rarely enough to spark a self-sustaining high-tech hub.

Marking scheme

**Level 1 (1–3 marks): Isolated elements of knowledge**
- Demonstrates limited or general knowledge of high-tech industry locations (e.g., mentioning they need computers or are near roads).
- Lacks structure; points are listed without development.
- Little or no geographical terminology.

**Level 2 (4–6 marks): Demonstrates geographical understanding with some analysis**
- Explains at least two locational factors in some detail (e.g., universities providing skilled labour, motorways for transport).
- Structure is mostly clear, with some attempt to compare or assess which factors are more important.
- Some geographical terminology used correctly. May refer to a generic or specific example.

**Level 3 (7–8 marks): Detailed geographical understanding with a balanced assessment**
- Comprehensive explanation of multiple locational factors, using specific case study details (e.g., Silicon Valley, M4 Corridor, or Cambridge Science Park).
- Clear, well-structured, and logical assessment of the 'relative importance' of these factors, concluding which factors are primary (e.g., skilled labour/universities) and which are secondary/supporting (e.g., pleasant environment).
- Frequent and accurate use of geographical terminology throughout.
Question 18 · extended_writing
8 marks
Assess the effectiveness of strategies used to manage the challenges of rapid urbanisation in a named megacity.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The response must focus on a specific, named megacity (e.g., Mumbai, Rio de Janeiro, Lagos, or Sao Paulo) and evaluate strategies aimed at managing urbanisation challenges (such as squatter settlements/favelas, traffic congestion, or waste management).

**Example Case Study: Rio de Janeiro (Brazil)**

**Challenges**: Growth of informal settlements (favelas) like Rochina, poor sanitation, and high traffic congestion.

**Strategies Evaluated**:
1. **Favela-Bairro Project (Site and Service / Slum Upgrading)**:
- *Details*: The government provides materials, paved roads, water supply, and electricity while residents upgrade their own homes.
- *Successes*: Directly improves living standards for thousands, keeps the social fabric of communities intact, and is far cheaper than building new apartment blocks.
- *Limitations*: Funding is easily exhausted, not all favelas can be reached, and maintenance of the new infrastructure has been poor in some areas.
2. **Cable Car / Urban Transport Infrastructure (Teleférico in Complexo do Alemão)**:
- *Details*: Built to connect isolated hilltop favelas to the main transport network.
- *Successes*: Drastically cut commute times and provided access to jobs in the city centre.
- *Limitations*: High construction and maintenance costs; the system has occasionally fallen into disrepair due to lack of local municipal funding and rising security issues.

**Overall Assessment/Evaluation**:
- Bottom-up and localized top-down hybrid schemes (like Favela-Bairro) are generally more successful at addressing social exclusion than massive clearance and resettlement schemes, which often isolate poor residents on the urban periphery. However, without sustained government funding and economic growth to provide formal employment, urban management strategies can only mitigate, rather than solve, the challenges of rapid urbanisation.

Marking scheme

**Level 1 (1–3 marks): Isolated elements of knowledge**
- Describes generic problems of big cities (e.g., too many cars, poor houses) with little or no reference to specific strategies.
- Simple descriptive statements with no evaluation of success or failure.
- No specific megacity named, or the named city is not used in the response.

**Level 2 (4–6 marks): Demonstrates geographical understanding with some evaluation**
- Identifies a named megacity and describes at least two strategies used to manage urban issues (e.g., building roads, upgrading slums).
- Offers some balanced points about what worked well and what did not (effectiveness).
- Structure is logical, showing an understanding of how strategies attempt to solve specific challenges.

**Level 3 (7–8 marks): Detailed geographical understanding with a well-developed, balanced assessment**
- Focused on a clearly named and appropriate megacity, using detailed, place-specific knowledge.
- Thoroughly assesses the effectiveness (pros and cons, successes and limitations) of multiple strategies.
- Reaches a clear, supported conclusion evaluating whether the strategies have successfully managed the pressures of rapid urbanisation overall.
- Excellent structure with precise geographical vocabulary.

Paper 2 Section B (Human Enquiry)

In Section B, answer one question from Questions 4, 5 and 6.
8 Question · 20 marks
Question 1 · Short Answer
1 marks
State one reason why a pilot study is useful before carrying out a human geography enquiry, such as a questionnaire on local tourism impacts.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A pilot study acts as a trial run. It allows the researcher to identify and reword any ambiguous or confusing questions, test how long the questionnaire takes to complete, and ensure that the sampling method is practical before the actual field data collection begins.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for any valid reason why a pilot study is useful, such as:
- To identify and reword any confusing or ambiguous questions (1)
- To test if the questionnaire takes too long to complete (1)
- To practice the data collection methodology / improve student confidence (1)
- To check if the sampling location is safe and suitable (1)
Do not accept vague answers like 'to make it better'.
Question 2 · Short Answer
1 marks
State one advantage of using a stratified sampling method when selecting residents to interview for a human geography investigation into the impacts of urban regeneration.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Stratified sampling divides the target population into key subgroups (strata), such as different age cohorts, and then samples from each group proportionally. This ensures that the final sample represents the demographic structure of the area, reducing bias.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for a valid advantage of stratified sampling in this context:
- Ensures all key demographic groups/subgroups are represented proportionally (1)
- Reduces sampling bias compared to convenience or random sampling (1)
- Allows for direct, balanced comparisons to be made between different subgroups (1)
Question 3 · Short Answer
1 marks
Identify one secondary source of data that could be used when planning a human geography enquiry into urban land-use change.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Secondary sources are sources of data that already exist and were compiled by someone else. For an enquiry into urban land-use change, comparing historical maps (such as older Ordnance Survey maps) with modern ones is a highly effective secondary data method to trace changes over time.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for any valid secondary source suitable for an urban land-use enquiry:
- Historical maps / old aerial photographs (1)
- Census data / population statistics (1)
- Local planning documents / council reports (1)
- GIS databases / Google Earth historical timeline imagery (1)
Do not accept primary methods (e.g. land-use mapping done by the students themselves).
Question 4 · Short Answer
2 marks
State two advantages of using systematic sampling when selecting locations for an environmental quality survey in an urban area.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Systematic sampling involves choosing sample points at regular, pre-defined intervals (for example, every 50 metres). This provides two main benefits: it ensures that the entire urban area is evenly represented, preventing clustering of data points, and it removes personal bias from the selection process, making the data more objective and reliable.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid advantage identified, up to a maximum of 2 marks. Examples: Removes/reduces researcher bias (1 mark). Ensures even/regular coverage across the study area (1 mark). Quick and easy to plan/set up (1 mark).
Question 5 · Short Answer
2 marks
State two primary data collection techniques, other than a questionnaire, that could be used to investigate the economic impacts of a new shopping centre.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

To investigate the economic impact of a shopping centre, primary data collection is essential. Students can conduct pedestrian flow counts to measure the volume of footfall generated by the development, and carry out land-use mapping of nearby streets to assess whether local shops have closed down or changed their function as a result of competition.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each appropriate primary data collection technique, up to a maximum of 2 marks. Acceptable answers include: Pedestrian flow count / footfall survey (1 mark); Land-use mapping / survey (1 mark); Traffic volume survey (1 mark); Environmental quality survey of the high street (1 mark); Decibel/noise survey (1 mark). Do not accept: Questionnaire (as excluded by the question) or secondary research methods (e.g., reading newspaper articles).
Question 6 · Short Answer
2 marks
Explain one reason why a scatter graph is an appropriate method to present data showing the relationship between distance from an urban centre and environmental quality.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A scatter graph is highly appropriate because both distance (metres/kilometres) and environmental quality (numerical score) are continuous variables. By plotting these as coordinates on an X and Y axis, the researcher can easily draw a line of best fit to determine the strength and direction of any correlation, as well as identify any anomalies.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a valid reason for using a scatter graph, and a second mark for explaining/expanding this in the context of the variables. For example: It allows the plotting of two continuous/numerical variables (1 mark) which helps to easily identify if there is a positive or negative correlation between the two (1 mark). Or: It visualises the relationship between distance and quality (1 mark), making it easy to identify any anomalies that do not fit the general pattern (1 mark).
Question 7 · Short Answer
3 marks
Explain one advantage of using systematic sampling when conducting an enquiry into how environmental quality changes from a city centre to the suburbs.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

One advantage of using systematic sampling along a transect is that it provides a highly structured and even coverage of the entire study area (1). For example, by collecting data at fixed, pre-determined intervals (such as every 150 metres) from the city centre outwards, the researcher completely avoids subjective bias in selecting sample sites (1). This ensures that the environmental quality measurements are fully representative of the actual gradual changes across the urban transition zone, making the final analysis and conclusions more reliable (1).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a valid advantage of systematic sampling, and a further 2 marks for explanation/development of this advantage in the context of the urban transition enquiry (1+1+1):

- It ensures regular and even spatial coverage along the transect (1), avoiding the risk of clustering sample points in specific areas (1), which makes the transition data more representative of the entire urban-to-suburban gradient (1).
- It minimizes researcher bias in selecting sample locations (1), as the sampling interval is pre-determined (e.g. every 100m) (1), increasing the objectivity and reliability of the environmental quality data (1).
- It is easy and efficient to plan and carry out on the day of fieldwork (1), as researchers only need to measure out a fixed distance between points (1), which saves valuable time during data collection (1).
Question 8 · extended-writing
8 marks
You have undertaken a geographical enquiry in a human environment (either Urban environments, Economic activity and energy, or Globalisation and migration). Evaluate the effectiveness of your primary data collection method(s).
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Model Response (Context: Urban Environmental Quality Enquiry). Enquiry Focus: Investigating how environmental quality changes along a transect from the Central Business District (CBD) to the suburbs of a city. Primary Methods Evaluated: Environmental Quality Surveys (EQS) and Pedestrian Counts. Evaluation of EQS: Strengths: The EQS allowed us to generate quantitative data across 8 different categories (such as litter, noise, green space) scored from -3 to +3. This made it very easy to compare different sites along our transect and plot a line graph to identify trends. Weaknesses: However, the EQS was highly subjective. What one student scored as a +2 for litter another student might have scored as 0. This reduced the reliability of our data. Furthermore, we only took measurements at one specific time of day (10:00 AM on a Wednesday), which did not capture how environmental quality changed during rush hour or at night. Evaluation of Pedestrian Counts: Strengths: We conducted 5-minute pedestrian counts at each of our 10 transect sites. This was a highly objective method that gave us precise numerical data to correlate with our environmental quality scores, helping us test our hypothesis that areas with higher pedestrian density have lower environmental quality. Weaknesses: The 5-minute duration was too short to get a representative sample of pedestrian flow. Additionally, some students counted people walking in both directions while others only counted one direction, introducing systematic errors into our dataset. Conclusion and Overall Assessment: Overall, the primary data collection methods were moderately effective in answering our enquiry question. They provided a clear quantitative overview that supported our hypothesis. However, to improve reliability, we should have standardized our scoring criteria beforehand (for example, using photographic guides for the EQS) and repeated the data collection at different times of the week to ensure the results were representative.

Marking scheme

Marking Criteria. Level 1 (1 to 3 marks): Attempts to describe one or more primary data collection methods. Mentions simple strengths or weaknesses, but lacks detail or a clear evaluation. Limited geographical vocabulary and structure. Level 2 (4 to 6 marks): Explains both strengths and weaknesses or limitations of the chosen primary data collection method(s). Clearly relates the methods back to the enquiry's aim or hypothesis. Uses geographical terminology and presents a balanced, structured response, but the final judgment or conclusion may be weak or missing. Level 3 (7 to 8 marks): Offers a well-structured, detailed, and balanced evaluation of the primary data collection methods. Explicitly links the effectiveness of the methods to the reliability and validity of the overall conclusions. Suggests realistic improvements or modifications to the methods. Reaches a clear, logical, and substantiated conclusion or judgment.

Paper 2 Section C (Global Issues)

In Section C, answer one question from Questions 7, 8 and 9.
11 Question · 35 marks
Question 1 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following is an example of an appropriate technology used to manage the impacts of desertification in the Sahel region of Africa?
  1. A.Building large-scale concrete dams to divert major rivers for commercial farming.
  2. B.Installing stone lines (magic stones) along the contours of farmland to reduce soil erosion and retain moisture.
  3. C.Applying high-chemical NPK fertilisers to rapidly restore nutrients in depleted sandy soils.
  4. D.Implementing center-pivot sprinkler systems drawing from deep fossil aquifers.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Stone lines (often referred to as 'magic stones' or bunds) are a low-cost, sustainable, and community-led appropriate technology. By placing stones along the natural contours of the land, farmers slow down surface runoff during heavy rainstorms. This reduces soil erosion and gives the water enough time to infiltrate the parched soil, improving crop yields and restoring degraded land.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying the correct option (B).

- Reject A: Concrete dams are high-cost, high-technology interventions that can cause downstream conflicts and are not considered local 'appropriate technology'.
- Reject C: Chemical fertilisers are expensive, can lead to eutrophication, and do not sustainably restore soil structure.
- Reject D: Center-pivot irrigation drawing from fossil aquifers is highly expensive, unsustainable, and leads to salinisation.
Question 2 · multiple-choice
1 marks
What is the primary way containerisation has accelerated the process of globalisation since the mid-20th century?
  1. A.By decreasing the physical weight of manufactured goods so they can be transported by air.
  2. B.By eliminating the need for customs inspections and tariffs at international borders.
  3. C.By standardising cargo units, drastically reducing loading times and transportation costs.
  4. D.By shifting the global production of raw materials exclusively to high-income countries (HICs).
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Containerisation revolutionised global trade by standardising cargo units (using standard 20-foot or 40-foot containers). This standardisation meant that goods could be rapidly transferred between container ships, trains, and trucks without being unpacked. It dramatically reduced the manual labour needed at ports, cut down ship turnaround times, and slashed global transport costs, making the global supply chain highly efficient.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying the correct option (C).

- Reject A: Containerisation is primarily associated with maritime and overland freight, not decreasing the weight of goods for air travel.
- Reject B: Containerisation does not affect international trade policies, tariffs, or the legal requirement for customs inspections.
- Reject D: Raw material extraction has not shifted exclusively to high-income countries (HICs); in fact, globalisation has expanded resource extraction and manufacturing in low- and middle-income countries.
Question 3 · Short Answer
1 marks
Define the term foreign direct investment (FDI).
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Foreign direct investment (FDI) occurs when a company or individual from one country invests in assets, infrastructure, or businesses located in another country. A typical example is a transnational corporation (TNC) building a factory or office in a foreign nation.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for a clear definition of foreign direct investment (FDI). Acceptable definitions: Investment made by a company or individual in one country into business interests located in another country (1 mark) or when a foreign company sets up factories, offices or operations in another country (1 mark). Do not accept vague answers like 'investing money abroad' without reference to business, assets or corporate entities.
Question 4 · short_answer
2 marks
State two human activities that contribute to the enhanced greenhouse effect.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Human activities release greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, amplifying the natural greenhouse effect. Burning fossil fuels (for industry, transport, and electricity) releases large amounts of carbon dioxide. Deforestation reduces the number of trees available to absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, while also releasing stored carbon when trees are cleared or burned.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid human activity identified, up to a maximum of 2 marks. Acceptable answers include: burning fossil fuels (coal, oil, gas), deforestation (clearing forests), intensive farming / agriculture (cattle rearing releasing methane, rice cultivation), industrial manufacturing (e.g., cement production), landfill waste decomposition. Do not accept natural causes (such as volcanic eruptions or solar cycles).
Question 5 · short_answer
2 marks
Explain one reason why many Transnational Corporations (TNCs) locate their manufacturing factories in emerging countries.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

TNCs often relocate manufacturing to emerging economies because labor wages are much lower than in developed nations. This allows the corporation to substantially lower their overall production costs, making their products more competitive globally and maximizing corporate profits.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a valid reason, and 1 mark for further explanation of how this benefits the TNC. Examples: Lower labor costs (1) which reduces overall production expenses and increases profit margins (1). Cheaper land or factory rental costs (1) which lowers initial capital investment and operational overheads (1). Looser environmental regulations or labor laws (1) which reduces compliance costs and speeds up setting up facilities (1). Access to large growing domestic markets (1) which helps bypass import tariffs and increases sales potential (1).
Question 6 · short_answer
2 marks
Define the term 'Gross National Income (GNI) per capita'.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

GNI per capita measures the economic output and income of a nation on a per-person basis. It includes GDP (the value of goods and services produced domestically) plus income received from other countries (like interest, dividends, and aid), with the final total sum divided by the country's population.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for stating it is the total wealth/income generated by a country's residents and businesses, including overseas income (1). Award 1 mark for stating that this total is divided by the population / per person (1).
Question 7 · short_answer
2 marks
Explain one way in which desertification can impact the lives of people living in dryland areas.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

As desertification degrades productive topsoil, it becomes increasingly difficult for local farmers to grow crops or graze livestock. This reduction in agricultural productivity leads to severe food shortages, loss of household income, and can ultimately force families to abandon their lands and migrate to urban areas in search of survival.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a valid impact on people, and 1 mark for development of how this affects their lives. Examples: Soil degradation leading to crop failure (1) which causes food insecurity or famine (1). Loss of agricultural livelihoods and income (1) which forces rural-to-urban migration (1). Depletion of local water supplies/wells drying up (1) meaning people have to travel long distances to fetch clean water (1).
Question 8 · short_answer
2 marks
Suggest two economic pull factors that attract migrants to a host country.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Economic pull factors are positive economic aspects of a destination country that encourage people to move there. The most common economic pull factors are the prospect of higher wages, which allows migrants to send remittances back home, and a wider variety of jobs due to a strong and expanding economy.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid economic pull factor suggested, up to a maximum of 2 marks. Acceptable answers include: Higher wages / better pay, more job opportunities / lower unemployment rates, prospects for career advancement, better working conditions, stable national economy. Do not accept social pull factors (such as healthcare, education, safety) or push factors.
Question 9 · medium_answer
4 marks
Explain two human causes of desertification.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Award 1 mark for each valid human cause identified (up to 2), and a further 1 mark for each subsequent explanation demonstrating how this leads to desertification (up to 2). Example 1: Overgrazing (1 mark) means livestock eat too much protective vegetation, leaving the bare topsoil exposed to erosion by wind and water (1 mark). Example 2: Deforestation (1 mark) removes trees whose root networks bind the soil together, making it easy for wind to blow dry soil away (1 mark). Other acceptable answers include overcultivation (soil exhaustion) and poor irrigation practices (salinisation).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a valid human cause of desertification and 1 mark for its explanation, up to a maximum of 4 marks (2 x 2 marks). Do not credit natural factors such as natural droughts or global temperature increases.
Question 10 · medium_answer
6 marks
Explain how human activities contribute to the process of desertification.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Human activities accelerate the process of desertification through several key mechanisms: 1. Overgrazing: When farmers keep too many livestock on a limited area of land, the animals eat the vegetation down to the roots. The soil is left bare and exposed. Furthermore, the trampling of livestock compacts the soil, reducing its infiltration capacity, which increases surface runoff and soil erosion. 2. Overcultivation: Farming the land too intensively without leaving it fallow to recover depletes the soil of nutrients. The soil loses its structure, turns to dust, and is easily blown away by wind or washed away by intense rainstorms. 3. Deforestation: Cutting down trees for fuelwood, timber, or to clear land for farming removes the protective canopy and the root systems. Without roots to bind the soil and a canopy to intercept heavy rainfall, topsoil is rapidly eroded. 4. Poor Irrigation Practices: Over-irrigation in hot, dry climates can lead to salinisation, where high evaporation rates leave salt on the soil surface, which is toxic to plants and renders the land unproductive.

Marking scheme

Award up to 6 marks for explaining how human activities lead to desertification. Expect a range of points explaining at least three activities, or fewer in greater depth (e.g., 3 x 2 marks or 2 x 3 marks). Overgrazing (1-2 marks): Identify overgrazing (1 mark); explain how livestock remove vegetation cover or compact soil, leading to erosion (1 mark). Overcultivation (1-2 marks): Identify overcultivation/continuous cropping (1 mark); explain how it depletes nutrients or breaks down soil structure, making it vulnerable to wind/water erosion (1 mark). Deforestation (1-2 marks): Identify deforestation/cutting trees for wood (1 mark); explain how the loss of roots to bind soil or loss of canopy cover increases soil erosion (1 mark). Salinisation/Irrigation (1-2 marks): Identify poor irrigation (1 mark); explain how evaporation leaves salt behind, killing vegetation (1 mark). For full marks, candidates must clearly link the human activity to the physical process of land degradation/erosion that defines desertification.
Question 11 · extended_writing
12 marks
Assess the view that international agreements are more effective than national and local actions in managing the threat of global climate change.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

An excellent response should evaluate the relative effectiveness of climate change management strategies at international, national, and local scales. Arguments in favour of international agreements (such as the Paris Agreement 2015 or Kyoto Protocol) highlight that climate change is a global issue requiring global cooperation. These agreements establish shared emissions targets (e.g., limiting global warming to 1.5 degrees Celsius) and set up financial frameworks like the Green Climate Fund to assist developing nations. However, their effectiveness is often limited by a lack of binding enforcement mechanisms, political shifts (such as nations withdrawing), and slow progress. In contrast, national actions are highly effective because they translate international goals into domestic law. Examples include the UK's legally binding Net Zero by 2050 target, carbon taxation policies, and national subsidies for renewable energy. These have direct legal and economic power over industries and individuals. Furthermore, local actions are critical for both immediate mitigation and adaptation. Urban planning initiatives, such as Copenhagen's climate-resilient infrastructure or low-emission transport zones in major cities, directly reduce emissions and protect vulnerable communities. In conclusion, while international agreements are essential for setting the global direction and ensuring cooperative targets, they are entirely dependent on robust national legislation and active local implementation to achieve real-world success.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1-4 marks): Demonstrates isolated knowledge and understanding of responses to climate change. Offers simple, descriptive points about international agreements or local/national actions with little or no comparative evaluation. Level 2 (5-8 marks): Demonstrates good geographical knowledge and understanding of both international agreements and national/local scales of action. Evaluates their effectiveness, but the discussion may be unbalanced or lack specific real-world examples. Uses some geographical terminology. Level 3 (9-12 marks): Demonstrates detailed, wide-ranging geographical knowledge and understanding. Offers a balanced, well-structured, and critical assessment of how international, national, and local actions compare in effectiveness. Reaches a logical and fully supported judgment. Uses accurate geographical terminology throughout.

Wondering how well you actually know this?

Thinka is an AI practice app for DSE students — unlimited questions, instant auto-marking, and detailed step-by-step solutions. 100,000+ students use it to confirm they actually know it, not just think they do.

Want more questions like this? Practice unlimited on Thinka — instant answers included.

Start Practising Free