Question 1 · multiple_choice
1 marksWhich of the following processes in a flowering plant directly requires the expenditure of metabolic energy (ATP)?
I. Transport of sucrose into sieve tubes.
II. Movement of water across the root cortex.
III. Uptake of mineral ions by root hair cells from a dilute soil solution.
- A.I and II only
- B.I and III only
- C.II and III only
- D.I, II and III
Worked solution
Active transport of sucrose into sieve tubes (phloem loading) and the uptake of mineral ions against their concentration gradient from a dilute soil solution both require ATP. The movement of water across the root cortex occurs passively by osmosis down a water potential gradient.
Marking scheme
1 mark for selecting B. Correctly identifies active and passive processes in plants.
Question 2 · multiple_choice
1 marksIn an experiment, a plant is supplied with water containing \(^{18}\text{O}\) and carbon dioxide containing \(^{16}\text{O}\). Which of the following substances will contain \(^{18}\text{O}\) after a period of active photosynthesis?
- A.Glucose produced in photosynthesis
- B.Oxygen gas released during photosynthesis
- C.Carbon dioxide released during respiration
- D.RuBP in the Calvin cycle
Worked solution
During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, photolysis of water splits water molecules into hydrogen ions, electrons, and oxygen gas. Therefore, all oxygen gas released during photosynthesis originates from water, meaning the oxygen gas will contain \(^{18}\text{O}\).
Marking scheme
1 mark for B. Demonstrates understanding that the oxygen released in photosynthesis comes entirely from water.
Question 3 · multiple_choice
1 marksDuring the opening of stomata in daylight, which of the following events occur in the guard cells?
I. Active transport of potassium ions (\(\text{K}^+\)) into the guard cells.
II. An increase in the water potential of the guard cells.
III. Water enters the guard cells by osmosis, causing them to become turgid.
- A.I and II only
- B.I and III only
- C.II and III only
- D.I, II and III
Worked solution
In daylight, potassium ions (\(\text{K}^+\)) are actively transported into guard cells, which lowers (not increases) their water potential. Water then enters the guard cells by osmosis down the water potential gradient, causing them to become turgid and bow outward, opening the pore.
Marking scheme
1 mark for B. Correctly identifies the ionic and osmotic changes during stomatal opening.
Question 4 · multiple_choice
1 marksWhich of the following statements about ecological pyramids is/are correct?
I. A pyramid of energy can never be inverted.
II. A pyramid of numbers must always be upright.
III. A pyramid of biomass can be inverted in marine ecosystems where producers have a very high turnover rate.
- A.I and II only
- B.I and III only
- C.II and III only
- D.I, II and III
Worked solution
Statement I is correct because energy is lost at each trophic level as heat and during transfer, making energy pyramids always upright. Statement II is incorrect because a single large producer (e.g., a tree) can support many primary consumers, creating an inverted or spindle-shaped pyramid of numbers. Statement III is correct because rapid turnover rates of phytoplankton in oceans can result in a smaller standing crop biomass than that of the zooplankton feeding on them.
Marking scheme
1 mark for B. Correctly identifies the properties and exceptions of various ecological pyramids.
Question 5 · multiple_choice
1 marksIn waterlogged and poorly aerated soil, which of the following processes in the nitrogen cycle is promoted, leading to a reduction in soil fertility?
- A.Nitrogen fixation by nitrogen-fixing bacteria
- B.Nitrification by nitrifying bacteria
- C.Denitrification by denitrifying bacteria
- D.Decomposition by decomposers
Worked solution
Waterlogged soils lack oxygen, creating anaerobic conditions. Denitrifying bacteria thrive in anaerobic conditions and convert soil nitrates into gaseous nitrogen (\(\text{N}_2\)), which escapes into the atmosphere. This process reduces the level of nitrates available to plants, lowering soil fertility.
Marking scheme
1 mark for C. Understands the anaerobic nature of denitrifying bacteria and its ecological impact.
Question 6 · multiple_choice
1 marksIn a certain species of mice, yellow coat color is dominant to grey coat color. When two yellow mice are crossed, they always produce yellow and grey offspring in a \(2:1\) ratio. When a yellow mouse is crossed with a grey mouse, they produce yellow and grey offspring in a \(1:1\) ratio. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
- A.The allele for yellow coat is codominant with the grey allele.
- B.The grey allele is lethal in homozygous condition.
- C.The yellow allele is lethal in homozygous condition.
- D.The coat color is controlled by multiple alleles.
Worked solution
Let the yellow allele be \(Y\) and the grey allele be \(y\). Since yellow is dominant, yellow mice must carry at least one \(Y\) allele. In a cross between two yellow mice (\(Yy \times Yy\)), the expected genetic ratio is \(1 YY : 2 Yy : 1 yy\). If the homozygous dominant condition (\(YY\)) is lethal, the embryo dies before birth, resulting in a phenotypic ratio of 2 yellow (\(Yy\)) to 1 grey (\(yy\)).
Marking scheme
1 mark for C. Correctly interprets the lethal allele hypothesis based on the 2:1 inheritance ratio.
Question 7 · multiple_choice
1 marksA plant with genotype \(AaBb\) is test-crossed with a plant of genotype \(aabb\). The offspring exhibit the following numbers for each phenotype:
- Phenotype AB: 42
- Phenotype Ab: 8
- Phenotype aB: 12
- Phenotype ab: 38
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these results?
- A.The two genes are located on different chromosomes and assort independently.
- B.The two genes are linked on the same chromosome with crossing over.
- C.The two genes show codominance.
- D.One of the genes is sex-linked.
Worked solution
In independent assortment, a test cross of \(AaBb \times aabb\) should yield approximately equal proportions (1:1:1:1) of the four phenotypes. The significant deviation, with high numbers of parental phenotypes (AB and ab) and lower numbers of recombinant phenotypes (Ab and aB), indicates that the genes \(A\) and \(B\) are linked on the same chromosome, and the recombinant types arose from crossing over during meiosis.
Marking scheme
1 mark for B. Correctly identifies gene linkage and crossing over based on phenotypic ratios.
Question 8 · multiple_choice
1 marksWhich of the following combinations correctly matches the digestive secretion, its site of production, and its digestive function?
- A.Secretion: Bile | Site of production: Gall bladder | Function: Emulsification of lipids
- B.Secretion: Amylase | Site of production: Pancreas | Function: Hydrolysis of starch to glucose
- C.Secretion: Protease (pepsin) | Site of production: Stomach | Function: Hydrolysis of proteins to polypeptides
- D.Secretion: Lipase | Site of production: Small intestine | Function: Emulsification of lipids
Worked solution
Pepsin is a protease produced by gastric glands in the stomach wall, and it functions in the stomach to hydrolyze proteins into polypeptides. Bile is produced in the liver (only stored in the gall bladder). Pancreatic amylase hydrolyzes starch to maltose (not glucose). Lipase hydrolyzes lipids into fatty acids and glycerol, whereas bile emulsifies lipids.
Marking scheme
1 mark for C. Correctly identifies the production site and specific function of human digestive enzymes.
Question 9 · multiple_choice
1 marksMost carbon dioxide is transported in the human blood in the form of hydrogencarbonate ions (\(\text{HCO}_3^-\)). Which of the following events occur inside red blood cells to facilitate this transport?
I. Carbon dioxide reacts with water to form carbonic acid, catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase.
II. Hydrogencarbonate ions diffuse out of the red blood cells into the plasma.
III. Chloride ions diffuse into the red blood cells to maintain electrical neutrality.
- A.I and II only
- B.I and III only
- C.II and III only
- D.I, II and III
Worked solution
In red blood cells, carbon dioxide is converted to carbonic acid by carbonic anhydrase (I), which dissociates into hydrogen ions and hydrogencarbonate ions (\(\text{HCO}_3^-\)). \(\text{HCO}_3^-\)) diffuses out into the plasma down its concentration gradient (II). To balance this loss of negative charge, chloride ions (\(\text{Cl}^-\)) diffuse into the red blood cells (III), a phenomenon known as the 'chloride shift'.
Marking scheme
1 mark for D. Demonstrates complete understanding of carbon dioxide transport mechanisms and the chloride shift.
Question 10 · multiple_choice
1 marksWhich of the following is a key difference between blood plasma and tissue fluid in a healthy human?
- A.Tissue fluid contains a higher concentration of glucose than blood plasma.
- B.Blood plasma contains a much higher concentration of plasma proteins than tissue fluid.
- C.Tissue fluid contains red blood cells, whereas blood plasma does not.
- D.Blood plasma has a lower hydrostatic pressure than tissue fluid at the arteriole end of capillary beds.
Worked solution
In capillaries, the capillary wall is permeable to small solutes like water, ions, and glucose, but impermeable to large plasma proteins and blood cells. Therefore, blood plasma contains a significantly higher concentration of proteins than tissue fluid. Red blood cells stay inside capillaries and are not found in tissue fluid. Hydrostatic pressure of blood plasma is higher than that of tissue fluid at the arteriole end, causing filtration.
Marking scheme
1 mark for B. Correctly identifies differences in composition and pressure between blood plasma and tissue fluid.
A leafy shoot is attached to a bubble potometer to study the rate of transpiration under identical environmental conditions. The following results were obtained: (1) Untreated shoot: rate of bubble movement = 10 mm/min; (2) Upper epidermis of all leaves coated with vaseline: rate = 8 mm/min; (3) Lower epidermis of all leaves coated with vaseline: rate = 3 mm/min; (4) Both upper and lower epidermis coated with vaseline: rate = 1 mm/min. What is the ratio of stomatal transpiration from the upper epidermis to that from the lower epidermis?
- A.1:4
- B.2:7
- C.3:8
- D.7:2
Worked solution
Let U be the stomatal transpiration from the upper epidermis, L be that from the lower epidermis, and C be the cuticular transpiration. From treatment (4), the cuticular transpiration C = 1 mm/min. From treatment (2), upper coated leaving lower and cuticle: L + C = 8, so L = 8 - 1 = 7 mm/min. From treatment (3), lower coated leaving upper and cuticle: U + C = 3, so U = 3 - 1 = 2 mm/min. Therefore, the ratio of stomatal transpiration of upper to lower epidermis is U : L = 2:7.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct option B. Correct analysis shows that upper stomatal transpiration is 2 mm/min and lower stomatal transpiration is 7 mm/min.
A plant is grown in a well-aerated nutrient solution. Which of the following treatments would significantly decrease the rate of uptake of phosphate ions by the root hair cells? (1) Bubbling nitrogen gas instead of air into the solution; (2) Adding a respiratory inhibitor to the solution; (3) Increasing the light intensity on the leaves.
- A.(1) and (2) only
- B.(1) and (3) only
- C.(2) and (3) only
- D.(1), (2) and (3)
Worked solution
Phosphate ions are absorbed by root hair cells via active transport, which requires ATP from aerobic respiration. (1) Bubbling nitrogen gas deprives the root cells of oxygen, inhibiting aerobic respiration. (2) A respiratory inhibitor directly blocks ATP synthesis. Both will significantly decrease active transport. (3) Increasing light intensity increases transpiration and photosynthesis but does not decrease active transport of ions. Thus, only (1) and (2) are correct.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for option A. Statements (1) and (2) describe conditions that limit ATP production, which is necessary for active transport of ions.
A ring-barking (girdling) experiment is conducted on the stem of a woody plant, removing a ring of tissues external to the xylem. After several weeks, which of the following is most likely to be observed?
- A.The tissue below the ring swells due to the accumulation of organic nutrients.
- B.The water potential of the cortical cells above the ring increases.
- C.The uptake of mineral ions by the roots decreases due to a lack of energy.
- D.The rate of transpiration of the leaves increases significantly.
Worked solution
Ring-barking removes the phloem, blocking the translocation of organic nutrients (sugars) from the leaves to the roots. Since roots cannot photosynthesize, they rely on translocated sugars for cellular respiration to produce ATP. Over several weeks, the lack of sugars inhibits respiration, leading to a shortage of ATP, which reduces the active transport of mineral ions by the roots. Option A is incorrect because swelling occurs above the ring. Option B is incorrect because accumulation of sugars decreases water potential. Option D is incorrect as root damage eventually reduces water uptake and transpiration.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for option C. Ring-barking blocks translocation to the roots, starving them of respiratory substrates, reducing active transport.
In some marine ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass is inverted (i.e., the biomass of primary consumers is larger than that of primary producers), while the pyramid of energy remains upright. Which of the following best explains this observation?
- A.Phytoplankton have a very high rate of reproduction and turnover.
- B.Zooplankton consume only a small fraction of the phytoplankton.
- C.The energy transfer efficiency from phytoplankton to zooplankton is nearly 100%.
- D.The biomass of phytoplankton is measured during winter when they do not reproduce.
Worked solution
Phytoplankton (primary producers) have a very high rate of reproduction and turnover. Although their standing crop biomass at any single moment is small, they produce biomass rapidly enough to support a larger biomass of zooplankton (primary consumers). The pyramid of energy must always be upright because energy is lost as heat and through waste at each trophic level.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for option A. The high turnover rate of producers allows a small standing crop to support a larger consumer biomass.
The diagram below outlines part of the nitrogen cycle in an ecosystem: Atmospheric nitrogen -> Process W -> Ammonium ions -> Process X -> Nitrate ions -> Process Y -> Atmospheric nitrogen. Which of the following statements about these processes is correct?
- A.Process W can only be carried out by free-living bacteria in the soil.
- B.Process X is favored in waterlogged soils with low oxygen content.
- C.Process Y is carried out by anaerobic bacteria.
- D.Process X and Process Y are both carried out by the same species of bacteria.
Worked solution
Process W is nitrogen fixation, which can be done by free-living or symbiotic bacteria, or lightning. Process X is nitrification, which is carried out by aerobic nitrifying bacteria and is inhibited in waterlogged soils. Process Y is denitrification, which is performed by anaerobic denitrifying bacteria in anaerobic environments (like waterlogged soils). Thus, option C is correct.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for option C. Denitrification (Process Y) is an anaerobic process carried out by denitrifying bacteria.
During primary ecological succession on bare rock, which of the following trends is typically observed as the community progresses towards a climax community?
- A.Soil depth decreases, and species diversity decreases.
- B.Soil depth increases, and community stability increases.
- C.Organic matter in the soil decreases, and biomass increases.
- D.Soil water retention decreases, and food web complexity increases.
Worked solution
During primary succession, pioneer species weather the rock and die, adding organic matter. Over time, soil depth increases, which allows larger plants to grow, leading to an increase in species diversity and biomass. This increases food web complexity and community stability. Thus, option B is correct.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for option B. Succession leads to increased soil depth, species richness, biomass, and community stability.
In humans, a rare genetic disorder is controlled by a single gene with two alleles. An unaffected couple has three children: an affected daughter, an unaffected son, and an affected son. Based on this pedigree information, which of the following is correct?
- A.The disease-causing allele is dominant and located on an autosome.
- B.The disease-causing allele is recessive and located on an autosome.
- C.The disease-causing allele is recessive and located on the X chromosome.
- D.The disease-causing allele is dominant and located on the X chromosome.
Worked solution
Since unaffected parents have affected children, the disease-causing allele must be recessive. If the allele were X-linked recessive, the affected daughter must inherit one recessive allele from her father, which means her father would also carry the recessive allele and express the disease. However, the father is unaffected. Therefore, the allele cannot be on the X chromosome and must be autosomal recessive.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for option B. An affected daughter from unaffected parents rules out both dominant inheritance and X-linked recessive inheritance.
In a plant species, seed shape is controlled by gene A (A: round, a: wrinkled) and seed color is controlled by gene B (B: yellow, b: green). A plant with the genotype AaBb is self-crossed. Assuming the two genes assort independently, what is the probability that an offspring will have the same phenotype as the parent plant?
- A.\frac{1}{16}
- B.\frac{3}{16}
- C.\frac{9}{16}
- D.\frac{3}{4}
Worked solution
The parent plant has the genotype AaBb, which exhibits the dominant phenotypes (round and yellow seeds). For the offspring to have the same phenotype, it must have at least one dominant allele for both genes (genotype A_B_). Since the genes assort independently: (1) Probability of expressing the dominant phenotype for shape (A_) = \frac{3}{4}; (2) Probability of expressing the dominant phenotype for color (B_) = \frac{3}{4}. Therefore, the probability of having both dominant phenotypes is \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{3}{4} = \frac{9}{16}.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for option C. Calculation: \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{3}{4} = \frac{9}{16}.
Which of the following substances absorbed in the human small intestine is transported into the villus epithelial cells primarily by simple diffusion?
- A.Glucose
- B.Amino acids
- C.Fatty acids
- D.Sodium ions
Worked solution
Fatty acids and glycerol are lipid-soluble products of lipid digestion. They can easily dissolve in and diffuse across the phospholipid bilayer of the microvilli membrane by passive simple diffusion. Glucose, amino acids, and sodium ions are polar or charged, and require specific transport proteins, often involving active transport or facilitated diffusion.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for option C. Lipid-soluble molecules like fatty acids diffuse directly across the cell membrane without requiring ATP.
Two hours after a human consumed a meal rich in carbohydrates, blood samples were collected from the hepatic portal vein and the hepatic vein. Which of the following statements correctly compares the blood in these two vessels?
- A.Blood in the hepatic portal vein has a lower glucose concentration than that in the hepatic vein.
- B.Blood in the hepatic portal vein has a higher glucose concentration than that in the hepatic vein.
- C.Blood in the hepatic portal vein has a higher urea concentration than that in the hepatic vein.
- D.Blood in the hepatic portal vein has a higher oxygen concentration than that in the hepatic vein.
Worked solution
Two hours after a carbohydrate-rich meal, a large amount of glucose is absorbed from the small intestine into the hepatic portal vein, resulting in a high glucose concentration. As this blood passes through the liver, insulin stimulates liver cells to convert excess glucose into glycogen for storage. Therefore, the blood leaving the liver via the hepatic vein has a lower, regulated glucose concentration. Urea is produced in the liver, so the hepatic vein has a higher urea concentration than the hepatic portal vein.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for option B. After a meal, the liver removes glucose from the hepatic portal blood, making hepatic vein glucose lower.
Question 21 · Multiple Choice
1 marksWhich of the following statements about the symplastic pathway of water transport in plant roots is correct?
- A.Water moves through cell walls and intercellular spaces without crossing any cell membrane.
- B.Water movement is blocked by the Casparian strip at the endodermis.
- C.Water moves from cell to cell through plasmodesmata.
- D.Water movement is driven primarily by active transport of water molecules.
Worked solution
The symplastic pathway involves the movement of water from cell to cell via the cytoplasm and plasmodesmata. The apoplastic pathway involves water movement through cell walls and intercellular spaces. The Casparian strip blocks the apoplastic pathway, forcing water to enter the symplast. Water movement is passive.
Marking scheme
1 mark for identifying that symplastic transport involves plasmodesmata (C is correct). Reject options associated with apoplastic pathway (A, B) or active transport of water (D).
Question 22 · Multiple Choice
1 marksWhich of the following statements about pyramids of biomass and pyramids of energy is correct?
- A.A pyramid of energy can sometimes be inverted in marine ecosystems.
- B.A pyramid of biomass for a marine ecosystem can be inverted because phytoplankton have a very high turnover rate.
- C.Pyramids of biomass always have the same shape as pyramids of numbers for any given ecosystem.
- D.Pyramids of energy show the standing crop of organic matter at each trophic level.
Worked solution
In marine ecosystems, the primary producers (phytoplankton) are highly productive but have a very small standing crop (biomass) at any one time because they are consumed rapidly by zooplankton. This results in an inverted pyramid of biomass. Pyramids of energy can never be inverted because energy is lost at each trophic level.
Marking scheme
1 mark for selecting B. Option A is incorrect because energy pyramids are never inverted. Option C is incorrect because biomass and number pyramids often differ. Option D is incorrect as energy is lost as heat.
Question 23 · Multiple Choice
1 marksA healthy couple has a daughter who suffers from a genetic disorder controlled by a single gene. Which of the following modes of inheritance is/are definitely ruled out? (1) Autosomal dominant, (2) X-linked dominant, (3) X-linked recessive
- A.(1) only
- B.(1) and (2) only
- C.(2) and (3) only
- D.(1), (2) and (3)
Worked solution
If a healthy couple has an affected daughter: (1) and (2) are ruled out because dominant disorders require at least one parent to be affected. (3) is also ruled out because an affected female (XaXa) must inherit one recessive allele from her father, which would make the father affected (XaY). Since her father is healthy, X-linked recessive is ruled out.
Marking scheme
1 mark for D. (1), (2), and (3) are all logically impossible for healthy parents with an affected daughter.
Question 24 · Multiple Choice
1 marksA student set up four test tubes to study the digestion of lipids. Tube 1: 2 mL lipid emulsion + 1 mL pancreatic juice + 1 mL bile salt solution at 37 °C; Tube 2: 2 mL lipid emulsion + 1 mL boiled pancreatic juice + 1 mL bile salt solution at 37 °C; Tube 3: 2 mL lipid emulsion + 1 mL pancreatic juice + 1 mL distilled water at 37 °C; Tube 4: 2 mL lipid emulsion + 1 mL pancreatic juice + 1 mL bile salt solution at 0 °C. In which tube will the pH decrease at the fastest rate?
- A.Tube 1
- B.Tube 2
- C.Tube 3
- D.Tube 4
Worked solution
Pancreatic lipase breaks down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol. The production of fatty acids increases the concentration of hydrogen ions, lowering the pH. Lipase works best at its optimal temperature of 37 °C and in the presence of bile salts, which emulsify lipids to increase the surface area for enzyme action. Therefore, Tube 1 has the fastest rate of reaction and the fastest decrease in pH.
Marking scheme
1 mark for A. Tube 2 has denatured enzyme, Tube 3 lacks bile salts, and Tube 4 is at a temperature that deactivates enzyme kinetics, so they all have slower or no pH change.
Question 25 · Multiple Choice
1 marksA healthy volunteer drank 1 liter of pure water within 10 minutes. Which of the following changes would occur in the volunteer's body over the next hour?
- A.Increase in blood osmotic pressure, leading to an increase in ADH secretion.
- B.Decrease in blood osmotic pressure, leading to a decrease in permeability of collecting ducts to water.
- C.Increase in the active transport of water out of the loop of Henle.
- D.Decrease in glomerular filtration rate to conserve body fluids.
Worked solution
Drinking a large volume of water dilutes the blood, lowering the blood osmotic pressure. The osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect this change and stimulate the pituitary gland to secrete less ADH. With lower ADH concentration in the blood, the cells of the collecting ducts become less permeable to water, reducing water reabsorption and resulting in a large volume of dilute urine.
Marking scheme
1 mark for B. Correctly matching the decrease in blood osmotic pressure to decreased ADH and reduced permeability of collecting ducts. Reject A (incorrect physiological response), C (water moves passively), and D (GFR is stable).
Question 26 · Multiple Choice
1 marksDuring the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, water molecules are split. Which of the following correctly describes the products of this photolysis and their primary destination or role in the light-independent reactions?
- A.Oxygen is used directly as the final electron acceptor in the Calvin cycle.
- B.Hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) and electrons are used to reduce \(\text{NADP}^+\) to \(\text{NADPH}\).
- C.Carbon dioxide is fixed by the electrons released from water photolysis.
- D.Oxygen is combined with hydrogen ions to form water, releasing ATP.
Worked solution
Photolysis of water splits water molecules into oxygen, protons (\(\text{H}^+\)), and electrons. These electrons and protons are accepted by \(\text{NADP}^+\) to form \(\text{NADPH}\), which is then used in the light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle) to reduce 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA) to triose phosphate.
Marking scheme
1 mark for B. Oxygen is not used as an electron acceptor in the Calvin cycle (A). Carbon dioxide fixation is mediated by RuBP, not free electrons (C). Respiration, not photosynthesis, forms water from oxygen and protons (D).
Question 27 · Multiple Choice
1 marksA cell from an organism with a diploid chromosome number of \(2n = 8\) undergoes meiosis. At metaphase II, how many chromosomes and DNA molecules are present in a single cell?
- A.4 chromosomes, 4 DNA molecules
- B.4 chromosomes, 8 DNA molecules
- C.8 chromosomes, 8 DNA molecules
- D.8 chromosomes, 16 DNA molecules
Worked solution
The diploid number is \(2n = 8\). During meiosis I, homologous chromosomes separate, so each daughter cell gets \(n = 4\) chromosomes. At metaphase II, these 4 chromosomes align at the equator. Since the sister chromatids have not yet separated, each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids. Therefore, there are 4 chromosomes and \(4 \times 2 = 8\) DNA molecules in a single cell at metaphase II.
Marking scheme
1 mark for B. Option A describes the state after anaphase II / telophase II. Options C and D contain incorrect chromosome counts for haploid metaphase II.
Question 28 · Multiple Choice
1 marksA child accidentally steps on a rusty nail and is given an injection of anti-tetanus immunoglobulins (antibodies) at the hospital. Two weeks later, the child is exposed to the same tetanus toxin again. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the child's immunity?
- A.The child will have a rapid secondary immune response because memory cells were formed during the injection.
- B.The injection provided passive immunity, which offers immediate but temporary protection.
- C.The injection stimulated the child's own B lymphocytes to produce more antibodies.
- D.The child has developed active artificial immunity against tetanus.
Worked solution
An injection of ready-made antibodies (immunoglobulins) provides passive artificial immunity. This type of immunity provides immediate protection because the antibodies are already present to neutralize the toxin, but it is temporary because the injected antibodies break down over time and no memory cells are produced. Therefore, a subsequent exposure will not trigger a rapid secondary response.
Marking scheme
1 mark for B. Active immunity is incorrect because no host immune response or memory cells are generated (reject A, C, D).
Question 29 · Multiple Choice
1 marksA single base deletion occurs early in the coding sequence of a gene. What is the most likely consequence of this mutation on the resulting protein?
- A.Only one amino acid in the polypeptide will be changed.
- B.The translation will stop immediately at the site of deletion without forming any peptide bonds.
- C.The reading frame will shift, altering all subsequent amino acids and potentially changing the position of the stop codon.
- D.The polypeptide will be transcribed but cannot be translated.
Worked solution
A single base deletion results in a frameshift mutation. From the point of deletion onwards, the triplet reading frame of the mRNA is shifted by one base. This changes all subsequent codons, leading to a completely different sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide and potentially altering the position of the stop codon.
Marking scheme
1 mark for C. Frame-shift mutations alter all downstream codons, not just one (reject A). Translation continues until a stop codon is met (reject B). Transcription and translation can still occur, but the product is altered (reject D).
Question 30 · Multiple Choice
1 marksUnder which of the following environmental conditions would a terrestrial herbaceous plant show the highest rate of transpiration?
- A.High humidity, high wind speed, high light intensity.
- B.Low humidity, low wind speed, low temperature.
- C.Low humidity, high wind speed, high temperature.
- D.High humidity, low wind speed, low temperature.
Worked solution
Transpiration is driven by the water vapor concentration gradient between the air spaces inside the leaf and the external air. Low relative humidity of external air decreases its water vapor potential, increasing the gradient. High wind speed sweeps away the water vapor boundary layer around the leaves, keeping the external humidity near the stomata low. High temperature increases the rate of evaporation of water from the mesophyll cell walls. Thus, low humidity, high wind speed, and high temperature maximize transpiration.
Marking scheme
1 mark for C. High humidity reduces the concentration gradient (reject A, D). Low wind speed and low temperature reduce evaporation and diffusion rates (reject B).
Question 31 · multiple-choice
1 marksA leafy shoot is connected to a potometer to measure water uptake. The setup is placed in a room with stable temperature and light intensity. Which of the following operations would lead to a decrease in the rate of movement of the air bubble? (1) Smearing vaseline on the lower surface of all leaves. (2) Enclosing the shoot in a clear plastic bag containing a small amount of water. (3) Turning on a fan directed towards the shoot.
- A.(1) and (2) only
- B.(1) and (3) only
- C.(2) and (3) only
- D.(1), (2) and (3)
Worked solution
(1) is correct because most stomata of dicotyledonous plants are located on the lower epidermis; smearing vaseline on the lower surface blocks the stomata, significantly reducing transpiration and thus water uptake. (2) is correct because enclosing the shoot in a bag with water increases relative humidity, reducing the water vapor concentration gradient between the leaf interior and the air, which decreases transpiration and water uptake. (3) is incorrect because wind increases the rate of transpiration by removing water vapor from around the leaves, which would speed up the movement of the air bubble.
Marking scheme
1 mark for option A.
Question 32 · multiple-choice
1 marksA potted plant is supplied with carbon dioxide labeled with carbon-14 (\(^{14}\text{C}\)) under light. Which of the following represents the correct pathway of the \(^{14}\text{C}\) from the atmosphere to the storage site in the root?
- A.Air space in leaf \(\rightarrow\) Mesophyll cell \(\rightarrow\) Sieve tube \(\rightarrow\) Root cortical cell
- B.Epidermal cell \(\rightarrow\) Mesophyll cell \(\rightarrow\) Xylem vessel \(\rightarrow\) Root cortical cell
- C.Air space in leaf \(\rightarrow\) Mesophyll cell \(\rightarrow\) Xylem vessel \(\rightarrow\) Root epidermal cell
- D.Epidermal cell \(\rightarrow\) Bundle sheath cell \(\rightarrow\) Sieve tube \(\rightarrow\) Root epidermal cell
Worked solution
\(^{14}\text{CO}_2\) from the atmosphere enters the leaf through stomata into the air spaces, then diffuses into mesophyll cells where photosynthesis occurs to synthesize radioactive sugars. These organic nutrients are loaded into the phloem sieve tubes and translocated downwards to the roots. In the roots, the sugars are stored as starch in the cortical cells of the cortex.
Marking scheme
1 mark for option A.
Question 33 · multiple-choice
1 marksThe diagram below shows part of the nitrogen cycle in a forest soil: Organic nitrogen \(\xrightarrow{\text{Process 1}}\) Ammonium compounds \(\xrightarrow{\text{Process 2}}\) Nitrates \(\xrightarrow{\text{Process 3}}\) Nitrogen gas. Which of the following descriptions of the bacteria involved in these processes is correct?
- A.Process 1 is carried out by denitrifying bacteria under anaerobic conditions.
- B.Process 2 is carried out by nitrifying bacteria which require oxygen.
- C.Process 3 is carried out by nitrogen-fixing bacteria under aerobic conditions.
- D.All the processes 1, 2, and 3 are inhibited in well-aerated soils.
Worked solution
Process 2 is nitrification, converting ammonium compounds into nitrates. This aerobic process is carried out by nitrifying bacteria which require oxygen. Process 1 is decomposition/ammonification by decomposers. Process 3 is denitrification carried out by denitrifying bacteria under anaerobic conditions.
Marking scheme
1 mark for option B.
Question 34 · multiple-choice
1 marksIn a family pedigree investigating a genetic disorder: Couple A (both normal) has an affected daughter. This affected daughter marries a normal man, and they have an affected son and a normal daughter. Based on this pedigree, which of the following statements must be correct? (1) The allele causing the disorder is recessive. (2) The disorder is autosomal. (3) The normal husband must be heterozygous.
- A.(1) and (2) only
- B.(1) and (3) only
- C.(2) and (3) only
- D.(1), (2) and (3)
Worked solution
(1) is correct: Normal parents having an affected offspring indicates the disease allele is recessive. (2) is correct: If the disease were X-linked recessive, the affected daughter must have an affected father, but her father is normal, hence it must be autosomal. (3) is correct: Since the affected daughter is homozygous recessive (aa) and she has an affected son (aa), the son must inherit one recessive allele from his mother and the other from his normal father, making the normal father heterozygous (Aa).
Marking scheme
1 mark for option D.
Question 35 · multiple-choice
1 marksWhich of the following combinations correctly matches the nutrient, its main absorption site, and its transport route from the small intestine to the heart?
- A.Glucose; Ileum (lacteal) \(\rightarrow\) Lymphatic vessel \(\rightarrow\) Subclavian vein \(\rightarrow\) Heart
- B.Amino acids; Ileum (capillaries) \(\rightarrow\) Hepatic portal vein \(\rightarrow\) Liver \(\rightarrow\) Hepatic vein \(\rightarrow\) Heart
- C.Fatty acids; Ileum (capillaries) \(\rightarrow\) Hepatic portal vein \(\rightarrow\) Liver \(\rightarrow\) Hepatic vein \(\rightarrow\) Heart
- D.Glycerol; Ileum (lacteal) \(\rightarrow\) Hepatic portal vein \(\rightarrow\) Liver \(\rightarrow\) Hepatic vein \(\rightarrow\) Heart
Worked solution
Amino acids are hydrophilic and absorbed into the blood capillaries of villi in the ileum. They travel through the hepatic portal vein to the liver, and then via the hepatic vein to the inferior vena cava and into the heart. Glucose follows this same capillary-blood pathway, not the lacteal pathway. Fatty acids and glycerol are absorbed into the lacteals and transported via the lymphatic system to the subclavian vein.
Marking scheme
1 mark for option B.
Question 36 · multiple-choice
1 marksAn unknown liquid sample is subjected to various food tests. The results are as follows: Test 1: Adding iodine solution \(\rightarrow\) Yellow-brown; Test 2: Heating with Benedict's reagent \(\rightarrow\) Blue; Test 3: Biuret test \(\rightarrow\) Purple; Test 4: Heating with Benedict's reagent after acid hydrolysis and neutralization \(\rightarrow\) Brick-red precipitate. Which of the following nutrients are present in the sample?
- A.Starch and protein
- B.Reducing sugar and protein
- C.Non-reducing sugar and protein
- D.Reducing sugar and non-reducing sugar
Worked solution
The yellow-brown result in Test 1 indicates starch is absent. The blue result in Test 2 indicates reducing sugars are absent. The purple color in Test 3 indicates proteins are present. The brick-red precipitate in Test 4 indicates non-reducing sugars (e.g., sucrose) are present because acid hydrolysis breaks them down into reducing sugars, which then react with Benedict's reagent. Therefore, the sample contains non-reducing sugar and protein.
Marking scheme
1 mark for option C.