HKDSE · Answers & Marking Scheme

2023 HKDSE Biology Answers & Marking Scheme

Thinka 2023 DSE-Style Mock — Biology

160 marks210 mins2023
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of that year's HKDSE paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from the HKEAA.

Paper 1 Section A

Answer all 36 multiple-choice questions. All questions carry equal marks.
36 Question · 36 marks
Question 1 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which of the following processes in a flowering plant directly requires the expenditure of metabolic energy (ATP)?

I. Transport of sucrose into sieve tubes.
II. Movement of water across the root cortex.
III. Uptake of mineral ions by root hair cells from a dilute soil solution.
  1. A.I and II only
  2. B.I and III only
  3. C.II and III only
  4. D.I, II and III

Answer

B

Worked solution

Active transport of sucrose into sieve tubes (phloem loading) and the uptake of mineral ions against their concentration gradient from a dilute soil solution both require ATP. The movement of water across the root cortex occurs passively by osmosis down a water potential gradient.

Marking scheme

1 mark for selecting B. Correctly identifies active and passive processes in plants.
Question 2 · multiple_choice
1 marks
In an experiment, a plant is supplied with water containing \(^{18}\text{O}\) and carbon dioxide containing \(^{16}\text{O}\). Which of the following substances will contain \(^{18}\text{O}\) after a period of active photosynthesis?
  1. A.Glucose produced in photosynthesis
  2. B.Oxygen gas released during photosynthesis
  3. C.Carbon dioxide released during respiration
  4. D.RuBP in the Calvin cycle

Answer

B

Worked solution

During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, photolysis of water splits water molecules into hydrogen ions, electrons, and oxygen gas. Therefore, all oxygen gas released during photosynthesis originates from water, meaning the oxygen gas will contain \(^{18}\text{O}\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for B. Demonstrates understanding that the oxygen released in photosynthesis comes entirely from water.
Question 3 · multiple_choice
1 marks
During the opening of stomata in daylight, which of the following events occur in the guard cells?

I. Active transport of potassium ions (\(\text{K}^+\)) into the guard cells.
II. An increase in the water potential of the guard cells.
III. Water enters the guard cells by osmosis, causing them to become turgid.
  1. A.I and II only
  2. B.I and III only
  3. C.II and III only
  4. D.I, II and III

Answer

B

Worked solution

In daylight, potassium ions (\(\text{K}^+\)) are actively transported into guard cells, which lowers (not increases) their water potential. Water then enters the guard cells by osmosis down the water potential gradient, causing them to become turgid and bow outward, opening the pore.

Marking scheme

1 mark for B. Correctly identifies the ionic and osmotic changes during stomatal opening.
Question 4 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which of the following statements about ecological pyramids is/are correct?

I. A pyramid of energy can never be inverted.
II. A pyramid of numbers must always be upright.
III. A pyramid of biomass can be inverted in marine ecosystems where producers have a very high turnover rate.
  1. A.I and II only
  2. B.I and III only
  3. C.II and III only
  4. D.I, II and III

Answer

B

Worked solution

Statement I is correct because energy is lost at each trophic level as heat and during transfer, making energy pyramids always upright. Statement II is incorrect because a single large producer (e.g., a tree) can support many primary consumers, creating an inverted or spindle-shaped pyramid of numbers. Statement III is correct because rapid turnover rates of phytoplankton in oceans can result in a smaller standing crop biomass than that of the zooplankton feeding on them.

Marking scheme

1 mark for B. Correctly identifies the properties and exceptions of various ecological pyramids.
Question 5 · multiple_choice
1 marks
In waterlogged and poorly aerated soil, which of the following processes in the nitrogen cycle is promoted, leading to a reduction in soil fertility?
  1. A.Nitrogen fixation by nitrogen-fixing bacteria
  2. B.Nitrification by nitrifying bacteria
  3. C.Denitrification by denitrifying bacteria
  4. D.Decomposition by decomposers

Answer

C

Worked solution

Waterlogged soils lack oxygen, creating anaerobic conditions. Denitrifying bacteria thrive in anaerobic conditions and convert soil nitrates into gaseous nitrogen (\(\text{N}_2\)), which escapes into the atmosphere. This process reduces the level of nitrates available to plants, lowering soil fertility.

Marking scheme

1 mark for C. Understands the anaerobic nature of denitrifying bacteria and its ecological impact.
Question 6 · multiple_choice
1 marks
In a certain species of mice, yellow coat color is dominant to grey coat color. When two yellow mice are crossed, they always produce yellow and grey offspring in a \(2:1\) ratio. When a yellow mouse is crossed with a grey mouse, they produce yellow and grey offspring in a \(1:1\) ratio. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
  1. A.The allele for yellow coat is codominant with the grey allele.
  2. B.The grey allele is lethal in homozygous condition.
  3. C.The yellow allele is lethal in homozygous condition.
  4. D.The coat color is controlled by multiple alleles.

Answer

C

Worked solution

Let the yellow allele be \(Y\) and the grey allele be \(y\). Since yellow is dominant, yellow mice must carry at least one \(Y\) allele. In a cross between two yellow mice (\(Yy \times Yy\)), the expected genetic ratio is \(1 YY : 2 Yy : 1 yy\). If the homozygous dominant condition (\(YY\)) is lethal, the embryo dies before birth, resulting in a phenotypic ratio of 2 yellow (\(Yy\)) to 1 grey (\(yy\)).

Marking scheme

1 mark for C. Correctly interprets the lethal allele hypothesis based on the 2:1 inheritance ratio.
Question 7 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A plant with genotype \(AaBb\) is test-crossed with a plant of genotype \(aabb\). The offspring exhibit the following numbers for each phenotype:
- Phenotype AB: 42
- Phenotype Ab: 8
- Phenotype aB: 12
- Phenotype ab: 38

Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these results?
  1. A.The two genes are located on different chromosomes and assort independently.
  2. B.The two genes are linked on the same chromosome with crossing over.
  3. C.The two genes show codominance.
  4. D.One of the genes is sex-linked.

Answer

B

Worked solution

In independent assortment, a test cross of \(AaBb \times aabb\) should yield approximately equal proportions (1:1:1:1) of the four phenotypes. The significant deviation, with high numbers of parental phenotypes (AB and ab) and lower numbers of recombinant phenotypes (Ab and aB), indicates that the genes \(A\) and \(B\) are linked on the same chromosome, and the recombinant types arose from crossing over during meiosis.

Marking scheme

1 mark for B. Correctly identifies gene linkage and crossing over based on phenotypic ratios.
Question 8 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which of the following combinations correctly matches the digestive secretion, its site of production, and its digestive function?
  1. A.Secretion: Bile | Site of production: Gall bladder | Function: Emulsification of lipids
  2. B.Secretion: Amylase | Site of production: Pancreas | Function: Hydrolysis of starch to glucose
  3. C.Secretion: Protease (pepsin) | Site of production: Stomach | Function: Hydrolysis of proteins to polypeptides
  4. D.Secretion: Lipase | Site of production: Small intestine | Function: Emulsification of lipids

Answer

C

Worked solution

Pepsin is a protease produced by gastric glands in the stomach wall, and it functions in the stomach to hydrolyze proteins into polypeptides. Bile is produced in the liver (only stored in the gall bladder). Pancreatic amylase hydrolyzes starch to maltose (not glucose). Lipase hydrolyzes lipids into fatty acids and glycerol, whereas bile emulsifies lipids.

Marking scheme

1 mark for C. Correctly identifies the production site and specific function of human digestive enzymes.
Question 9 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Most carbon dioxide is transported in the human blood in the form of hydrogencarbonate ions (\(\text{HCO}_3^-\)). Which of the following events occur inside red blood cells to facilitate this transport?

I. Carbon dioxide reacts with water to form carbonic acid, catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase.
II. Hydrogencarbonate ions diffuse out of the red blood cells into the plasma.
III. Chloride ions diffuse into the red blood cells to maintain electrical neutrality.
  1. A.I and II only
  2. B.I and III only
  3. C.II and III only
  4. D.I, II and III

Answer

D

Worked solution

In red blood cells, carbon dioxide is converted to carbonic acid by carbonic anhydrase (I), which dissociates into hydrogen ions and hydrogencarbonate ions (\(\text{HCO}_3^-\)). \(\text{HCO}_3^-\)) diffuses out into the plasma down its concentration gradient (II). To balance this loss of negative charge, chloride ions (\(\text{Cl}^-\)) diffuse into the red blood cells (III), a phenomenon known as the 'chloride shift'.

Marking scheme

1 mark for D. Demonstrates complete understanding of carbon dioxide transport mechanisms and the chloride shift.
Question 10 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which of the following is a key difference between blood plasma and tissue fluid in a healthy human?
  1. A.Tissue fluid contains a higher concentration of glucose than blood plasma.
  2. B.Blood plasma contains a much higher concentration of plasma proteins than tissue fluid.
  3. C.Tissue fluid contains red blood cells, whereas blood plasma does not.
  4. D.Blood plasma has a lower hydrostatic pressure than tissue fluid at the arteriole end of capillary beds.

Answer

B

Worked solution

In capillaries, the capillary wall is permeable to small solutes like water, ions, and glucose, but impermeable to large plasma proteins and blood cells. Therefore, blood plasma contains a significantly higher concentration of proteins than tissue fluid. Red blood cells stay inside capillaries and are not found in tissue fluid. Hydrostatic pressure of blood plasma is higher than that of tissue fluid at the arteriole end, causing filtration.

Marking scheme

1 mark for B. Correctly identifies differences in composition and pressure between blood plasma and tissue fluid.
Question 11 · MC
1 marks
A leafy shoot is attached to a bubble potometer to study the rate of transpiration under identical environmental conditions. The following results were obtained: (1) Untreated shoot: rate of bubble movement = 10 mm/min; (2) Upper epidermis of all leaves coated with vaseline: rate = 8 mm/min; (3) Lower epidermis of all leaves coated with vaseline: rate = 3 mm/min; (4) Both upper and lower epidermis coated with vaseline: rate = 1 mm/min. What is the ratio of stomatal transpiration from the upper epidermis to that from the lower epidermis?
  1. A.1:4
  2. B.2:7
  3. C.3:8
  4. D.7:2

Answer

B

Worked solution

Let U be the stomatal transpiration from the upper epidermis, L be that from the lower epidermis, and C be the cuticular transpiration. From treatment (4), the cuticular transpiration C = 1 mm/min. From treatment (2), upper coated leaving lower and cuticle: L + C = 8, so L = 8 - 1 = 7 mm/min. From treatment (3), lower coated leaving upper and cuticle: U + C = 3, so U = 3 - 1 = 2 mm/min. Therefore, the ratio of stomatal transpiration of upper to lower epidermis is U : L = 2:7.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option B. Correct analysis shows that upper stomatal transpiration is 2 mm/min and lower stomatal transpiration is 7 mm/min.
Question 12 · MC
1 marks
A plant is grown in a well-aerated nutrient solution. Which of the following treatments would significantly decrease the rate of uptake of phosphate ions by the root hair cells? (1) Bubbling nitrogen gas instead of air into the solution; (2) Adding a respiratory inhibitor to the solution; (3) Increasing the light intensity on the leaves.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

A

Worked solution

Phosphate ions are absorbed by root hair cells via active transport, which requires ATP from aerobic respiration. (1) Bubbling nitrogen gas deprives the root cells of oxygen, inhibiting aerobic respiration. (2) A respiratory inhibitor directly blocks ATP synthesis. Both will significantly decrease active transport. (3) Increasing light intensity increases transpiration and photosynthesis but does not decrease active transport of ions. Thus, only (1) and (2) are correct.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for option A. Statements (1) and (2) describe conditions that limit ATP production, which is necessary for active transport of ions.
Question 13 · MC
1 marks
A ring-barking (girdling) experiment is conducted on the stem of a woody plant, removing a ring of tissues external to the xylem. After several weeks, which of the following is most likely to be observed?
  1. A.The tissue below the ring swells due to the accumulation of organic nutrients.
  2. B.The water potential of the cortical cells above the ring increases.
  3. C.The uptake of mineral ions by the roots decreases due to a lack of energy.
  4. D.The rate of transpiration of the leaves increases significantly.

Answer

C

Worked solution

Ring-barking removes the phloem, blocking the translocation of organic nutrients (sugars) from the leaves to the roots. Since roots cannot photosynthesize, they rely on translocated sugars for cellular respiration to produce ATP. Over several weeks, the lack of sugars inhibits respiration, leading to a shortage of ATP, which reduces the active transport of mineral ions by the roots. Option A is incorrect because swelling occurs above the ring. Option B is incorrect because accumulation of sugars decreases water potential. Option D is incorrect as root damage eventually reduces water uptake and transpiration.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for option C. Ring-barking blocks translocation to the roots, starving them of respiratory substrates, reducing active transport.
Question 14 · MC
1 marks
In some marine ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass is inverted (i.e., the biomass of primary consumers is larger than that of primary producers), while the pyramid of energy remains upright. Which of the following best explains this observation?
  1. A.Phytoplankton have a very high rate of reproduction and turnover.
  2. B.Zooplankton consume only a small fraction of the phytoplankton.
  3. C.The energy transfer efficiency from phytoplankton to zooplankton is nearly 100%.
  4. D.The biomass of phytoplankton is measured during winter when they do not reproduce.

Answer

A

Worked solution

Phytoplankton (primary producers) have a very high rate of reproduction and turnover. Although their standing crop biomass at any single moment is small, they produce biomass rapidly enough to support a larger biomass of zooplankton (primary consumers). The pyramid of energy must always be upright because energy is lost as heat and through waste at each trophic level.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for option A. The high turnover rate of producers allows a small standing crop to support a larger consumer biomass.
Question 15 · MC
1 marks
The diagram below outlines part of the nitrogen cycle in an ecosystem: Atmospheric nitrogen -> Process W -> Ammonium ions -> Process X -> Nitrate ions -> Process Y -> Atmospheric nitrogen. Which of the following statements about these processes is correct?
  1. A.Process W can only be carried out by free-living bacteria in the soil.
  2. B.Process X is favored in waterlogged soils with low oxygen content.
  3. C.Process Y is carried out by anaerobic bacteria.
  4. D.Process X and Process Y are both carried out by the same species of bacteria.

Answer

C

Worked solution

Process W is nitrogen fixation, which can be done by free-living or symbiotic bacteria, or lightning. Process X is nitrification, which is carried out by aerobic nitrifying bacteria and is inhibited in waterlogged soils. Process Y is denitrification, which is performed by anaerobic denitrifying bacteria in anaerobic environments (like waterlogged soils). Thus, option C is correct.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for option C. Denitrification (Process Y) is an anaerobic process carried out by denitrifying bacteria.
Question 16 · MC
1 marks
During primary ecological succession on bare rock, which of the following trends is typically observed as the community progresses towards a climax community?
  1. A.Soil depth decreases, and species diversity decreases.
  2. B.Soil depth increases, and community stability increases.
  3. C.Organic matter in the soil decreases, and biomass increases.
  4. D.Soil water retention decreases, and food web complexity increases.

Answer

B

Worked solution

During primary succession, pioneer species weather the rock and die, adding organic matter. Over time, soil depth increases, which allows larger plants to grow, leading to an increase in species diversity and biomass. This increases food web complexity and community stability. Thus, option B is correct.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for option B. Succession leads to increased soil depth, species richness, biomass, and community stability.
Question 17 · MC
1 marks
In humans, a rare genetic disorder is controlled by a single gene with two alleles. An unaffected couple has three children: an affected daughter, an unaffected son, and an affected son. Based on this pedigree information, which of the following is correct?
  1. A.The disease-causing allele is dominant and located on an autosome.
  2. B.The disease-causing allele is recessive and located on an autosome.
  3. C.The disease-causing allele is recessive and located on the X chromosome.
  4. D.The disease-causing allele is dominant and located on the X chromosome.

Answer

B

Worked solution

Since unaffected parents have affected children, the disease-causing allele must be recessive. If the allele were X-linked recessive, the affected daughter must inherit one recessive allele from her father, which means her father would also carry the recessive allele and express the disease. However, the father is unaffected. Therefore, the allele cannot be on the X chromosome and must be autosomal recessive.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for option B. An affected daughter from unaffected parents rules out both dominant inheritance and X-linked recessive inheritance.
Question 18 · MC
1 marks
In a plant species, seed shape is controlled by gene A (A: round, a: wrinkled) and seed color is controlled by gene B (B: yellow, b: green). A plant with the genotype AaBb is self-crossed. Assuming the two genes assort independently, what is the probability that an offspring will have the same phenotype as the parent plant?
  1. A.\frac{1}{16}
  2. B.\frac{3}{16}
  3. C.\frac{9}{16}
  4. D.\frac{3}{4}

Answer

C

Worked solution

The parent plant has the genotype AaBb, which exhibits the dominant phenotypes (round and yellow seeds). For the offspring to have the same phenotype, it must have at least one dominant allele for both genes (genotype A_B_). Since the genes assort independently: (1) Probability of expressing the dominant phenotype for shape (A_) = \frac{3}{4}; (2) Probability of expressing the dominant phenotype for color (B_) = \frac{3}{4}. Therefore, the probability of having both dominant phenotypes is \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{3}{4} = \frac{9}{16}.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for option C. Calculation: \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{3}{4} = \frac{9}{16}.
Question 19 · MC
1 marks
Which of the following substances absorbed in the human small intestine is transported into the villus epithelial cells primarily by simple diffusion?
  1. A.Glucose
  2. B.Amino acids
  3. C.Fatty acids
  4. D.Sodium ions

Answer

C

Worked solution

Fatty acids and glycerol are lipid-soluble products of lipid digestion. They can easily dissolve in and diffuse across the phospholipid bilayer of the microvilli membrane by passive simple diffusion. Glucose, amino acids, and sodium ions are polar or charged, and require specific transport proteins, often involving active transport or facilitated diffusion.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for option C. Lipid-soluble molecules like fatty acids diffuse directly across the cell membrane without requiring ATP.
Question 20 · MC
1 marks
Two hours after a human consumed a meal rich in carbohydrates, blood samples were collected from the hepatic portal vein and the hepatic vein. Which of the following statements correctly compares the blood in these two vessels?
  1. A.Blood in the hepatic portal vein has a lower glucose concentration than that in the hepatic vein.
  2. B.Blood in the hepatic portal vein has a higher glucose concentration than that in the hepatic vein.
  3. C.Blood in the hepatic portal vein has a higher urea concentration than that in the hepatic vein.
  4. D.Blood in the hepatic portal vein has a higher oxygen concentration than that in the hepatic vein.

Answer

B

Worked solution

Two hours after a carbohydrate-rich meal, a large amount of glucose is absorbed from the small intestine into the hepatic portal vein, resulting in a high glucose concentration. As this blood passes through the liver, insulin stimulates liver cells to convert excess glucose into glycogen for storage. Therefore, the blood leaving the liver via the hepatic vein has a lower, regulated glucose concentration. Urea is produced in the liver, so the hepatic vein has a higher urea concentration than the hepatic portal vein.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for option B. After a meal, the liver removes glucose from the hepatic portal blood, making hepatic vein glucose lower.
Question 21 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following statements about the symplastic pathway of water transport in plant roots is correct?
  1. A.Water moves through cell walls and intercellular spaces without crossing any cell membrane.
  2. B.Water movement is blocked by the Casparian strip at the endodermis.
  3. C.Water moves from cell to cell through plasmodesmata.
  4. D.Water movement is driven primarily by active transport of water molecules.

Answer

C

Worked solution

The symplastic pathway involves the movement of water from cell to cell via the cytoplasm and plasmodesmata. The apoplastic pathway involves water movement through cell walls and intercellular spaces. The Casparian strip blocks the apoplastic pathway, forcing water to enter the symplast. Water movement is passive.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying that symplastic transport involves plasmodesmata (C is correct). Reject options associated with apoplastic pathway (A, B) or active transport of water (D).
Question 22 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following statements about pyramids of biomass and pyramids of energy is correct?
  1. A.A pyramid of energy can sometimes be inverted in marine ecosystems.
  2. B.A pyramid of biomass for a marine ecosystem can be inverted because phytoplankton have a very high turnover rate.
  3. C.Pyramids of biomass always have the same shape as pyramids of numbers for any given ecosystem.
  4. D.Pyramids of energy show the standing crop of organic matter at each trophic level.

Answer

B

Worked solution

In marine ecosystems, the primary producers (phytoplankton) are highly productive but have a very small standing crop (biomass) at any one time because they are consumed rapidly by zooplankton. This results in an inverted pyramid of biomass. Pyramids of energy can never be inverted because energy is lost at each trophic level.

Marking scheme

1 mark for selecting B. Option A is incorrect because energy pyramids are never inverted. Option C is incorrect because biomass and number pyramids often differ. Option D is incorrect as energy is lost as heat.
Question 23 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A healthy couple has a daughter who suffers from a genetic disorder controlled by a single gene. Which of the following modes of inheritance is/are definitely ruled out? (1) Autosomal dominant, (2) X-linked dominant, (3) X-linked recessive
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(1) and (2) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

D

Worked solution

If a healthy couple has an affected daughter: (1) and (2) are ruled out because dominant disorders require at least one parent to be affected. (3) is also ruled out because an affected female (XaXa) must inherit one recessive allele from her father, which would make the father affected (XaY). Since her father is healthy, X-linked recessive is ruled out.

Marking scheme

1 mark for D. (1), (2), and (3) are all logically impossible for healthy parents with an affected daughter.
Question 24 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A student set up four test tubes to study the digestion of lipids. Tube 1: 2 mL lipid emulsion + 1 mL pancreatic juice + 1 mL bile salt solution at 37 °C; Tube 2: 2 mL lipid emulsion + 1 mL boiled pancreatic juice + 1 mL bile salt solution at 37 °C; Tube 3: 2 mL lipid emulsion + 1 mL pancreatic juice + 1 mL distilled water at 37 °C; Tube 4: 2 mL lipid emulsion + 1 mL pancreatic juice + 1 mL bile salt solution at 0 °C. In which tube will the pH decrease at the fastest rate?
  1. A.Tube 1
  2. B.Tube 2
  3. C.Tube 3
  4. D.Tube 4

Answer

A

Worked solution

Pancreatic lipase breaks down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol. The production of fatty acids increases the concentration of hydrogen ions, lowering the pH. Lipase works best at its optimal temperature of 37 °C and in the presence of bile salts, which emulsify lipids to increase the surface area for enzyme action. Therefore, Tube 1 has the fastest rate of reaction and the fastest decrease in pH.

Marking scheme

1 mark for A. Tube 2 has denatured enzyme, Tube 3 lacks bile salts, and Tube 4 is at a temperature that deactivates enzyme kinetics, so they all have slower or no pH change.
Question 25 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A healthy volunteer drank 1 liter of pure water within 10 minutes. Which of the following changes would occur in the volunteer's body over the next hour?
  1. A.Increase in blood osmotic pressure, leading to an increase in ADH secretion.
  2. B.Decrease in blood osmotic pressure, leading to a decrease in permeability of collecting ducts to water.
  3. C.Increase in the active transport of water out of the loop of Henle.
  4. D.Decrease in glomerular filtration rate to conserve body fluids.

Answer

B

Worked solution

Drinking a large volume of water dilutes the blood, lowering the blood osmotic pressure. The osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect this change and stimulate the pituitary gland to secrete less ADH. With lower ADH concentration in the blood, the cells of the collecting ducts become less permeable to water, reducing water reabsorption and resulting in a large volume of dilute urine.

Marking scheme

1 mark for B. Correctly matching the decrease in blood osmotic pressure to decreased ADH and reduced permeability of collecting ducts. Reject A (incorrect physiological response), C (water moves passively), and D (GFR is stable).
Question 26 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, water molecules are split. Which of the following correctly describes the products of this photolysis and their primary destination or role in the light-independent reactions?
  1. A.Oxygen is used directly as the final electron acceptor in the Calvin cycle.
  2. B.Hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) and electrons are used to reduce \(\text{NADP}^+\) to \(\text{NADPH}\).
  3. C.Carbon dioxide is fixed by the electrons released from water photolysis.
  4. D.Oxygen is combined with hydrogen ions to form water, releasing ATP.

Answer

B

Worked solution

Photolysis of water splits water molecules into oxygen, protons (\(\text{H}^+\)), and electrons. These electrons and protons are accepted by \(\text{NADP}^+\) to form \(\text{NADPH}\), which is then used in the light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle) to reduce 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA) to triose phosphate.

Marking scheme

1 mark for B. Oxygen is not used as an electron acceptor in the Calvin cycle (A). Carbon dioxide fixation is mediated by RuBP, not free electrons (C). Respiration, not photosynthesis, forms water from oxygen and protons (D).
Question 27 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A cell from an organism with a diploid chromosome number of \(2n = 8\) undergoes meiosis. At metaphase II, how many chromosomes and DNA molecules are present in a single cell?
  1. A.4 chromosomes, 4 DNA molecules
  2. B.4 chromosomes, 8 DNA molecules
  3. C.8 chromosomes, 8 DNA molecules
  4. D.8 chromosomes, 16 DNA molecules

Answer

B

Worked solution

The diploid number is \(2n = 8\). During meiosis I, homologous chromosomes separate, so each daughter cell gets \(n = 4\) chromosomes. At metaphase II, these 4 chromosomes align at the equator. Since the sister chromatids have not yet separated, each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids. Therefore, there are 4 chromosomes and \(4 \times 2 = 8\) DNA molecules in a single cell at metaphase II.

Marking scheme

1 mark for B. Option A describes the state after anaphase II / telophase II. Options C and D contain incorrect chromosome counts for haploid metaphase II.
Question 28 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A child accidentally steps on a rusty nail and is given an injection of anti-tetanus immunoglobulins (antibodies) at the hospital. Two weeks later, the child is exposed to the same tetanus toxin again. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the child's immunity?
  1. A.The child will have a rapid secondary immune response because memory cells were formed during the injection.
  2. B.The injection provided passive immunity, which offers immediate but temporary protection.
  3. C.The injection stimulated the child's own B lymphocytes to produce more antibodies.
  4. D.The child has developed active artificial immunity against tetanus.

Answer

B

Worked solution

An injection of ready-made antibodies (immunoglobulins) provides passive artificial immunity. This type of immunity provides immediate protection because the antibodies are already present to neutralize the toxin, but it is temporary because the injected antibodies break down over time and no memory cells are produced. Therefore, a subsequent exposure will not trigger a rapid secondary response.

Marking scheme

1 mark for B. Active immunity is incorrect because no host immune response or memory cells are generated (reject A, C, D).
Question 29 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A single base deletion occurs early in the coding sequence of a gene. What is the most likely consequence of this mutation on the resulting protein?
  1. A.Only one amino acid in the polypeptide will be changed.
  2. B.The translation will stop immediately at the site of deletion without forming any peptide bonds.
  3. C.The reading frame will shift, altering all subsequent amino acids and potentially changing the position of the stop codon.
  4. D.The polypeptide will be transcribed but cannot be translated.

Answer

C

Worked solution

A single base deletion results in a frameshift mutation. From the point of deletion onwards, the triplet reading frame of the mRNA is shifted by one base. This changes all subsequent codons, leading to a completely different sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide and potentially altering the position of the stop codon.

Marking scheme

1 mark for C. Frame-shift mutations alter all downstream codons, not just one (reject A). Translation continues until a stop codon is met (reject B). Transcription and translation can still occur, but the product is altered (reject D).
Question 30 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Under which of the following environmental conditions would a terrestrial herbaceous plant show the highest rate of transpiration?
  1. A.High humidity, high wind speed, high light intensity.
  2. B.Low humidity, low wind speed, low temperature.
  3. C.Low humidity, high wind speed, high temperature.
  4. D.High humidity, low wind speed, low temperature.

Answer

C

Worked solution

Transpiration is driven by the water vapor concentration gradient between the air spaces inside the leaf and the external air. Low relative humidity of external air decreases its water vapor potential, increasing the gradient. High wind speed sweeps away the water vapor boundary layer around the leaves, keeping the external humidity near the stomata low. High temperature increases the rate of evaporation of water from the mesophyll cell walls. Thus, low humidity, high wind speed, and high temperature maximize transpiration.

Marking scheme

1 mark for C. High humidity reduces the concentration gradient (reject A, D). Low wind speed and low temperature reduce evaporation and diffusion rates (reject B).
Question 31 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A leafy shoot is connected to a potometer to measure water uptake. The setup is placed in a room with stable temperature and light intensity. Which of the following operations would lead to a decrease in the rate of movement of the air bubble? (1) Smearing vaseline on the lower surface of all leaves. (2) Enclosing the shoot in a clear plastic bag containing a small amount of water. (3) Turning on a fan directed towards the shoot.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

A

Worked solution

(1) is correct because most stomata of dicotyledonous plants are located on the lower epidermis; smearing vaseline on the lower surface blocks the stomata, significantly reducing transpiration and thus water uptake. (2) is correct because enclosing the shoot in a bag with water increases relative humidity, reducing the water vapor concentration gradient between the leaf interior and the air, which decreases transpiration and water uptake. (3) is incorrect because wind increases the rate of transpiration by removing water vapor from around the leaves, which would speed up the movement of the air bubble.

Marking scheme

1 mark for option A.
Question 32 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A potted plant is supplied with carbon dioxide labeled with carbon-14 (\(^{14}\text{C}\)) under light. Which of the following represents the correct pathway of the \(^{14}\text{C}\) from the atmosphere to the storage site in the root?
  1. A.Air space in leaf \(\rightarrow\) Mesophyll cell \(\rightarrow\) Sieve tube \(\rightarrow\) Root cortical cell
  2. B.Epidermal cell \(\rightarrow\) Mesophyll cell \(\rightarrow\) Xylem vessel \(\rightarrow\) Root cortical cell
  3. C.Air space in leaf \(\rightarrow\) Mesophyll cell \(\rightarrow\) Xylem vessel \(\rightarrow\) Root epidermal cell
  4. D.Epidermal cell \(\rightarrow\) Bundle sheath cell \(\rightarrow\) Sieve tube \(\rightarrow\) Root epidermal cell

Answer

A

Worked solution

\(^{14}\text{CO}_2\) from the atmosphere enters the leaf through stomata into the air spaces, then diffuses into mesophyll cells where photosynthesis occurs to synthesize radioactive sugars. These organic nutrients are loaded into the phloem sieve tubes and translocated downwards to the roots. In the roots, the sugars are stored as starch in the cortical cells of the cortex.

Marking scheme

1 mark for option A.
Question 33 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The diagram below shows part of the nitrogen cycle in a forest soil: Organic nitrogen \(\xrightarrow{\text{Process 1}}\) Ammonium compounds \(\xrightarrow{\text{Process 2}}\) Nitrates \(\xrightarrow{\text{Process 3}}\) Nitrogen gas. Which of the following descriptions of the bacteria involved in these processes is correct?
  1. A.Process 1 is carried out by denitrifying bacteria under anaerobic conditions.
  2. B.Process 2 is carried out by nitrifying bacteria which require oxygen.
  3. C.Process 3 is carried out by nitrogen-fixing bacteria under aerobic conditions.
  4. D.All the processes 1, 2, and 3 are inhibited in well-aerated soils.

Answer

B

Worked solution

Process 2 is nitrification, converting ammonium compounds into nitrates. This aerobic process is carried out by nitrifying bacteria which require oxygen. Process 1 is decomposition/ammonification by decomposers. Process 3 is denitrification carried out by denitrifying bacteria under anaerobic conditions.

Marking scheme

1 mark for option B.
Question 34 · multiple-choice
1 marks
In a family pedigree investigating a genetic disorder: Couple A (both normal) has an affected daughter. This affected daughter marries a normal man, and they have an affected son and a normal daughter. Based on this pedigree, which of the following statements must be correct? (1) The allele causing the disorder is recessive. (2) The disorder is autosomal. (3) The normal husband must be heterozygous.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

D

Worked solution

(1) is correct: Normal parents having an affected offspring indicates the disease allele is recessive. (2) is correct: If the disease were X-linked recessive, the affected daughter must have an affected father, but her father is normal, hence it must be autosomal. (3) is correct: Since the affected daughter is homozygous recessive (aa) and she has an affected son (aa), the son must inherit one recessive allele from his mother and the other from his normal father, making the normal father heterozygous (Aa).

Marking scheme

1 mark for option D.
Question 35 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following combinations correctly matches the nutrient, its main absorption site, and its transport route from the small intestine to the heart?
  1. A.Glucose; Ileum (lacteal) \(\rightarrow\) Lymphatic vessel \(\rightarrow\) Subclavian vein \(\rightarrow\) Heart
  2. B.Amino acids; Ileum (capillaries) \(\rightarrow\) Hepatic portal vein \(\rightarrow\) Liver \(\rightarrow\) Hepatic vein \(\rightarrow\) Heart
  3. C.Fatty acids; Ileum (capillaries) \(\rightarrow\) Hepatic portal vein \(\rightarrow\) Liver \(\rightarrow\) Hepatic vein \(\rightarrow\) Heart
  4. D.Glycerol; Ileum (lacteal) \(\rightarrow\) Hepatic portal vein \(\rightarrow\) Liver \(\rightarrow\) Hepatic vein \(\rightarrow\) Heart

Answer

B

Worked solution

Amino acids are hydrophilic and absorbed into the blood capillaries of villi in the ileum. They travel through the hepatic portal vein to the liver, and then via the hepatic vein to the inferior vena cava and into the heart. Glucose follows this same capillary-blood pathway, not the lacteal pathway. Fatty acids and glycerol are absorbed into the lacteals and transported via the lymphatic system to the subclavian vein.

Marking scheme

1 mark for option B.
Question 36 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An unknown liquid sample is subjected to various food tests. The results are as follows: Test 1: Adding iodine solution \(\rightarrow\) Yellow-brown; Test 2: Heating with Benedict's reagent \(\rightarrow\) Blue; Test 3: Biuret test \(\rightarrow\) Purple; Test 4: Heating with Benedict's reagent after acid hydrolysis and neutralization \(\rightarrow\) Brick-red precipitate. Which of the following nutrients are present in the sample?
  1. A.Starch and protein
  2. B.Reducing sugar and protein
  3. C.Non-reducing sugar and protein
  4. D.Reducing sugar and non-reducing sugar

Answer

C

Worked solution

The yellow-brown result in Test 1 indicates starch is absent. The blue result in Test 2 indicates reducing sugars are absent. The purple color in Test 3 indicates proteins are present. The brick-red precipitate in Test 4 indicates non-reducing sugars (e.g., sucrose) are present because acid hydrolysis breaks them down into reducing sugars, which then react with Benedict's reagent. Therefore, the sample contains non-reducing sugar and protein.

Marking scheme

1 mark for option C.

Paper 1 Section B

Answer all 11 conventional structured questions in the spaces provided.
12 Question · 95 marks
Question 1 · Short Conventional
4 marks
A herbaceous plant was treated with a chemical that selectively inhibits active transport in the root hair cells. Predict and explain the effect of this chemical on the rate of water uptake by the plant.

Answer

The rate of water uptake will decrease because the root hair cells cannot actively accumulate mineral ions, which reduces the water potential gradient between the soil and the roots, thereby reducing water absorption by osmosis.

Worked solution

Prediction: The rate of water uptake decreases. Explanation: Active transport is responsible for absorbing mineral ions against their concentration gradient into the root hair cells. With active transport inhibited, the accumulation of mineral ions in the root cells decreases, leading to a higher water potential (less negative) inside the root cells. Consequently, the water potential gradient between the soil solution and the root cells is reduced, leading to a slower rate of water entry into the root cells by osmosis.

Marking scheme

- Prediction: Rate of water uptake decreases / drops. [1 mark] - Explanation: Without active transport, root hair cells cannot absorb mineral ions against the concentration gradient / accumulate mineral ions. [1 mark]; This results in a decrease in the solute concentration inside the root hair cells / an increase in water potential inside the root cells. [1 mark]; The water potential gradient between the soil and the root cells decreases, resulting in less water being absorbed by osmosis. [1 mark]
Question 2 · Short Conventional
4 marks
In an agricultural ecosystem, farmers practice intercropping by planting legumes alongside corn. Explain how this practice benefits both the nitrogen content of the soil and the growth of the corn plants without the use of synthetic nitrogen fertilizers.

Answer

Legumes form a mutualistic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria (Rhizobium) in their root nodules, which convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium. When these plant parts decay, nitrogen is released into the soil, increasing its nitrogen content. Corn plants then absorb these nitrates to synthesize proteins and chlorophyll, promoting their growth.

Worked solution

1. Mutualistic relationship: Legumes have root nodules containing nitrogen-fixing bacteria (e.g., Rhizobium). 2. Nitrogen fixation: These bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen gas into nitrogenous compounds (such as ammonium ions). 3. Enrichment of soil: When legumes shed leaves or their roots die and decompose, these nitrogen compounds are released into the soil, increasing soil nitrogen content. 4. Corn growth: Corn plants absorb the released nitrogen (as nitrates) from the soil and use it to synthesize essential molecules like proteins and chlorophyll, enhancing their growth.

Marking scheme

- Legumes contain nitrogen-fixing bacteria / Rhizobium in their root nodules. [1 mark] - These bacteria convert/fix atmospheric nitrogen gas into nitrogenous compounds (e.g. ammonium / ammonia). [1 mark] - Decomposed parts of legumes release these nitrogenous compounds into the soil, increasing soil nitrogen content / nitrates. [1 mark] - Corn plants absorb these nitrogenous nutrients (nitrates) to synthesize proteins / nucleic acids / chlorophyll for growth. [1 mark]
Question 3 · Short Conventional
4 marks
A couple, Mr. and Mrs. Chan, both have normal vision. They have a daughter with normal vision and a son who has red-green color blindness (a sex-linked recessive trait). (a) With reference to the genotypes of the parents, explain why they can have a color-blind son. (3 marks) (b) State the probability that their next daughter will be a carrier of the color-blindness allele. (1 mark)

Answer

(a) Let \(X^B\) be the normal allele and \(X^b\) be the color-blindness allele. Since Mr. Chan is normal, his genotype is \(X^B Y\). Mrs. Chan must be a carrier with genotype \(X^B X^b\) to pass the \(X^b\) allele to her son (\(X^b Y\)) who inherits the Y chromosome from his father. (b) The probability that their next daughter is a carrier is 0.5 (or 50%).

Worked solution

(a) Let \(X^B\) represent the dominant allele for normal vision and \(X^b\) represent the recessive allele for red-green color blindness. The father (Mr. Chan) has normal vision, so his genotype must be \(X^B Y\). He passes his Y chromosome to his son. The mother (Mrs. Chan) has normal vision but must carry the recessive allele to pass it to her son. Thus, her genotype is \(X^B X^b\). The son inherits the Y chromosome from the father and the \(X^b\) chromosome from the mother, resulting in genotype \(X^b Y\), which phenotypically presents as color blindness. (b) For daughters, they must receive the \(X^B\) chromosome from the father (genotype \(X^B Y\)). From the mother (genotype \(X^B X^b\)), a daughter has a 50% chance of receiving \(X^B\) (genotype \(X^B X^B\), non-carrier) and a 50% chance of receiving \(X^b\) (genotype \(X^B X^b\), carrier). Thus, the probability that the next daughter is a carrier is 0.5 (or 50%).

Marking scheme

(a) - Define alleles: Let \(X^B\) be the allele for normal vision and \(X^b\) be the allele for red-green color blindness. [1 mark] - State genotypes: Mr. Chan's genotype is \(X^B Y\) and Mrs. Chan's genotype is \(X^B X^b\). [1 mark] - Explain inheritance: The son inherits the Y chromosome from the father and the \(X^b\) allele from the mother, resulting in genotype \(X^b Y\) (color-blind). [1 mark] (b) - 0.5 / 50% / 1/2. [1 mark] (Note: Reject 25% because the question specifies 'their next daughter', meaning the pool of offspring is restricted to females).
Question 4 · Structured Conventional
9 marks
An experiment is set up using a potometer to measure the rate of water uptake of a leafy shoot. The shoot is exposed to different wind speeds (0 m/s and 3 m/s) at two different relative humidities (40% and 80%).

(a) Describe how the potometer should be set up to ensure accurate measurement of water uptake. (3 marks)

(b) Explain the effect of increasing wind speed from 0 m/s to 3 m/s on the rate of water uptake under low relative humidity (40%). (3 marks)

(c) Predict and explain how the effect of wind speed on water uptake would change if the experiment is repeated at high relative humidity (80%). (3 marks)

Answer

See solution for details.

Worked solution

(a) Cut the leafy shoot under water to prevent air bubbles from entering the xylem. Assemble the potometer completely under water to ensure no air leaks. Apply petroleum jelly to all joints to make the apparatus completely airtight.

(b) Wind sweeps away the accumulated water vapor around the stomata. This maintains a steep concentration gradient of water vapor between the intercellular spaces and the surrounding air, increasing the rate of transpiration and thus water uptake.

(c) The effect of wind speed on water uptake would be less pronounced. At 80% relative humidity, the surrounding air already has a very high water vapor concentration. Even if the boundary layer is removed, the concentration gradient remains narrow, limiting transpiration.

Marking scheme

(a) Cut stem under water [1]; Assemble apparatus under water [1]; Apply petroleum jelly to joints to ensure airtightness [1].
(b) Wind removes water vapor around leaves [1]; Steepens concentration gradient of water vapor between leaf interior and air [1]; Increases transpiration rate, which increases water uptake [1].
(c) Less pronounced increase [1]; High humidity means surrounding air already has high water vapor concentration [1]; Concentration gradient remains narrow even with wind [1].
Question 5 · Structured Conventional
9 marks
A student compared the stomatal density and distribution of two plant species: Lilium (a terrestrial plant) and Nymphaea (an aquatic floating plant with leaves resting on the water surface).

(a) Explain why the Nymphaea leaf has almost all of its stomata located on the upper epidermis, whereas the Lilium leaf has most of its stomata on the lower epidermis. (4 marks)

(b) If the Nymphaea plant is completely submerged under water due to flooding, describe how this would affect its rate of photosynthesis, and explain your answer in terms of carbon dioxide availability. (3 marks)

(c) Suggest one structural adaptation, other than stomatal distribution, that is typical of floating aquatic leaves to facilitate gas exchange. (2 marks)

Answer

See solution for details.

Worked solution

(a) Nymphaea leaves float on water, meaning the lower epidermis is in direct contact with water, where gas diffusion is extremely slow. Stomata on the upper epidermis allow direct contact with air for efficient gas exchange. For Lilium, having stomata on the lower epidermis shields them from direct sunlight, reducing water loss through transpiration while still allowing gas exchange.

(b) The rate of photosynthesis would decrease significantly. Carbon dioxide diffuses much slower in water than in air. Under submerged conditions, the availability of dissolved carbon dioxide becomes extremely low, acting as a limiting factor.

(c) Floating aquatic leaves typically have large intercellular air spaces or aerenchyma in the spongy mesophyll to facilitate rapid gas diffusion within the leaf and provide buoyancy.

Marking scheme

(a) Nymphaea lower epidermis in contact with water [1]; Gas diffusion in water is slow, so stomata must be on upper epidermis for air exposure [1]; Lilium lower epidermis is shaded from direct sunlight [1]; Reduces transpiration water loss while permitting gas exchange [1].
(b) Photosynthesis rate decreases significantly [1]; Carbon dioxide diffuses much slower in water than in air [1]; Dissolved carbon dioxide becomes a limiting factor [1].
(c) Large intercellular air spaces / aerenchyma [1]; Facilitates gas diffusion / transport within the leaf [1].
Question 6 · Structured Conventional
9 marks
Two areas, Area A (covered in solidified lava after a volcanic eruption) and Area B (abandoned agricultural land after a forest fire), undergo ecological succession.

(a) Identify the type of ecological succession occurring in Area A and Area B respectively, and explain the key difference between these two types in terms of the initial conditions of the soil. (3 marks)

(b) Lichens and mosses are typically the pioneer species in Area A. Explain how these pioneer species modify the environment to allow subsequent colonization by herbaceous plants. (3 marks)

(c) State three characteristics of a climax community that are different from those of the early stages of succession. (3 marks)

Answer

See solution for details.

Worked solution

(a) Area A undergoes primary succession, while Area B undergoes secondary succession. The key difference is that primary succession begins in an environment completely devoid of soil and organic matter, whereas secondary succession occurs in an area where soil and organic matter are already present.

(b) Lichens and mosses secrete organic acids that chemically weather the bare rock into smaller mineral particles. When these pioneer organisms die and decompose, their organic remains (humus) mix with the mineral particles to form simple soil, increasing its water-holding capacity and nutrient availability for herbaceous plants.

(c) A climax community has higher species diversity, more complex food webs (which provide higher ecological stability), and a much larger total biomass dominated by long-lived, shade-tolerant trees compared to the early stages.

Marking scheme

(a) Area A: Primary succession AND Area B: Secondary succession [1]; Primary succession starts on bare rock/lava with no soil [1]; Secondary succession starts where soil is already present [1].
(b) Pioneer species secrete acids to weather rock into minerals [1]; Decomposed pioneer organic matter (humus) mixes with minerals to form soil [1]; Soil increases water retention / nutrient levels, allowing larger plants to grow [1].
(c) High species richness / biodiversity [1]; Complex food webs / higher ecological stability [1]; Large biomass dominated by climax species (e.g., trees) [1].
Question 7 · Structured Conventional
8 marks
An ecological study of a grassland ecosystem was conducted. The energy contents at three trophic levels were measured: Primary Producers (\(8.4 \times 10^5\text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\)), Primary Consumers (\(7.2 \times 10^4\text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\)), and Secondary Consumers (\(5.4 \times 10^3\text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\)).

(a) Calculate the ecological efficiency (transfer efficiency) from primary producers to primary consumers. Show your working. (2 marks)

(b) Explain why a large proportion of energy is lost as it flows from primary consumers to secondary consumers. Give three reasons. (3 marks)

(c) In some aquatic ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass at any one moment can be inverted (i.e., the biomass of primary consumers is larger than that of primary producers). Explain how this is possible despite the laws of thermodynamics. (3 marks)

Answer

See solution for details.

Worked solution

(a) Ecological efficiency = (Energy in primary consumers / Energy in primary producers) * 100% = (7.2 * 10^4 / 8.4 * 10^5) * 100% = 8.57% (or 8.6%).

(b) Energy is lost because: 1. Some parts of the primary consumers are not eaten by secondary consumers (e.g., bones, fur). 2. Some consumed biomass is indigestible and lost as feces (egestion). 3. Much of the energy is lost as heat during cellular respiration for life processes like movement and metabolic maintenance.

(c) The primary producers in aquatic systems (phytoplankton) have a very high rate of reproduction and turnover (short life span). They produce biomass at a rapid rate (high productivity) which quickly supports the primary consumers, even though their standing crop (biomass at any one instant) is small.

Marking scheme

(a) Correct calculation setup: (7.2 * 10^4) / (8.4 * 10^5) * 100% [1]; Correct answer (8.57% or 8.6%) [1].
(b) Any three of: Uneaten parts (e.g., bones, teeth) [1]; Egested feces / undigested food [1]; Heat loss during respiration for metabolic processes [1]; Excretory products (e.g., urea) [1].
(c) Phytoplankton have high reproduction and turnover rate / short lifespan [1]; High productivity allows rapid replenishment of biomass [1]; Can support larger consumer standing crop despite small producer standing crop [1].
Question 8 · Structured Conventional
9 marks
The pedigree chart below shows the inheritance of a genetic disorder in a family:

- Generation I: I-1 (unaffected male) and I-2 (affected female).
- Generation II: They have three children: II-1 (affected female), II-2 (unaffected male), and II-3 (affected male). II-1 marries II-4 (affected male).
- Generation III: II-1 and II-4 have two children: III-1 (unaffected female) and III-2 (affected male).

(a) Based on the pedigree, deduce whether the allele for this disorder is dominant or recessive. Explain your deduction with reference to specific individuals. (4 marks)

(b) Deduce whether the gene is sex-linked or autosomal. Explain your answer with reference to specific individuals. (3 marks)

(c) If individual II-3 marries an unaffected woman, what is the probability that their first child will inherit the disorder? Explain your reasoning. (2 marks)

Answer

See solution for details.

Worked solution

(a) The disorder is dominant. II-1 and II-4 are both affected, but they have an unaffected daughter, III-1. If the allele were recessive, both affected parents would be homozygous recessive and could only have affected offspring. Therefore, II-1 and II-4 must be heterozygous, and the unaffected III-1 inherited the recessive normal allele from both parents.

(b) The gene is autosomal. II-4 is an affected male who has an unaffected daughter, III-1. If the disorder were X-linked dominant, the affected father would pass his X chromosome carrying the dominant allele to all his daughters, making them all affected. Since III-1 is unaffected, the gene cannot be X-linked.

(c) Since II-3's father (I-1) is unaffected (homozygous recessive, aa), II-3 must have inherited a recessive allele from his father. Thus, II-3's genotype must be heterozygous (Aa). If he marries an unaffected woman (aa), the cross is Aa x aa. The probability of their first child inheriting the disorder (Aa) is 50% (or 0.5).

Marking scheme

(a) Dominant allele [1]; Affected parents II-1 and II-4 produce unaffected daughter III-1 [1]; If recessive, both parents would be homozygous and could only produce affected offspring [1]; Parents must be heterozygous and passed normal recessive alleles to III-1 [1].
(b) Autosomal [1]; Affected father II-4 has unaffected daughter III-1 [1]; If X-linked dominant, affected father must pass dominant allele to all daughters, making III-1 affected [1].
(c) Genotype of II-3 is heterozygous (Aa) because father I-1 is unaffected (aa) [1]; Probability of affected child (Aa) is 0.5 (or 50%) [1].
Question 9 · Structured Conventional
8 marks
In tomato plants, the allele for tall stem (\(T\)) is dominant over dwarf stem (\(t\)), and the allele for red fruit (\(R\)) is dominant over yellow fruit (\(r\)). A homozygous tall, yellow-fruited tomato plant is crossed with a homozygous dwarf, red-fruited tomato plant to produce the F1 generation.

(a) State the phenotype and genotype of the F1 generation. (2 marks)

(b) An F1 plant is backcrossed with the dwarf, yellow-fruited parent (a test cross).

(i) Predict the phenotypic ratio of the offspring from this cross if the two genes assort independently. (2 marks)

(ii) If the actual cross resulted in a very high proportion of parental phenotypes (tall, yellow-fruited and dwarf, red-fruited) and a very low proportion of recombinant phenotypes (tall, red-fruited and dwarf, yellow-fruited), explain the genetic basis of this observation. (3 marks)

(c) State the biological process during meiosis that is responsible for producing the low proportion of recombinant phenotypes in (b)(ii). (1 mark)

Answer

See solution for details.

Worked solution

(a) Genotype of F1: TtRr. Phenotype of F1: Tall stem, red fruit.

(b) (i) The phenotypic ratio would be 1 tall, yellow fruit : 1 tall, red fruit : 1 dwarf, yellow fruit : 1 dwarf, red fruit.

(ii) The two genes are linked (located on the same chromosome). Specifically, T and r are linked on one chromosome, and t and R are linked on the homologous chromosome, tending to be inherited together. Recombinant phenotypes only arise when crossing over occurs between these two gene loci, which happens at a low frequency.

(c) Crossing over (during prophase I of meiosis).

Marking scheme

(a) Phenotype: Tall stem, red fruit [1]; Genotype: TtRr [1].
(b) (i) 1 tall, yellow : 1 tall, red : 1 dwarf, yellow : 1 dwarf, red [2] (Deduct 1 mark if phenotypes are omitted or incorrect).
(ii) The two genes are linked / on the same chromosome [1]; T is linked with r, and t is linked with R [1]; Recombinants only form due to crossing over, which occurs at low frequency [1].
(c) Crossing over [1].
Question 10 · Structured Conventional
9 marks
A patient underwent a partial gastrectomy (removal of a portion of the stomach) and also has a blocked bile duct due to gallstones.

(a) Explain how a blocked bile duct would specifically affect the digestion of lipids in the small intestine. (3 marks)

(b) Patients with a blocked bile duct often produce feces that are pale in color and greasy/foul-smelling (steatorrhea). Explain the biological reasons for these two characteristics. (3 marks)

(c) State three structural adaptations of the ileum that maximize the rate of absorption of digested food substances. (3 marks)

Answer

See solution for details.

Worked solution

(a) Bile salts in bile normally emulsify large lipid droplets into smaller droplets, increasing the surface area-to-volume ratio for lipase to act on. With a blocked bile duct, bile cannot enter the duodenum, leading to poor emulsification and a significantly slower rate of lipid digestion.

(b) Pale feces occur because bile contains bile pigments (bilirubin) which are converted by intestinal bacteria into the brown compounds that color normal feces; without bile, these pigments are absent. Greasy and foul-smelling feces occur because undigested lipids cannot be absorbed and are excreted in the feces, where they are decomposed by gut bacteria.

(c) Structural adaptations of the ileum include: 1. It is very long, providing ample surface area and time for absorption. 2. Its inner wall is folded with numerous villi and microvilli, greatly increasing the surface area. 3. The epithelium of the villi is only one cell thick, reducing diffusion distance. 4. Villi contain a rich network of blood capillaries and a central lacteal to carry away nutrients rapidly, maintaining a steep concentration gradient.

Marking scheme

(a) Bile contains bile salts which emulsify lipids into smaller droplets [1]; Increases surface area-to-volume ratio for lipase action [1]; Blocked duct prevents bile entry, decreasing lipid digestion rate [1].
(b) Pale color: Absence of bile pigments (bilirubin) which normally color feces brown [1.5]; Greasy/smelly: Undigested/unabsorbed lipids excreted in feces and decomposed by bacteria [1.5].
(c) Any three of: Very long (increases time/area) [1]; Inner wall folded with villi and microvilli (increases surface area) [1]; Epithelium is one-cell thick (shortens diffusion distance) [1]; Rich capillary network and lacteal (maintains steep concentration gradient) [1].
Question 11 · Essay
11 marks
Describe how the structural features of the stem and leaves of a terrestrial woody plant facilitate the transport of water and adaptation to survive in hot and dry environments. (11 marks)

Answer

Content: Xylem vessel adaptations (no end walls, lignified walls, pits), leaf vein distribution, waxy cuticle, stomatal distribution on the lower epidermis, guard cell regulation of stomatal closure under water stress, waterproof bark/cork layer, and lenticels. Communication skills: logical flow and biological terminology.

Worked solution

The essay should be divided into two main parts: water transport and water conservation under hot and dry conditions.\n\n1. Water Transport (4 marks):\n- Xylem vessels are continuous, hollow tubes with no protoplasts or end walls, reducing resistance to water flow.\n- Vessel walls are thickened with lignin, preventing collapse under the tension created by transpiration pull.\n- Pits allow lateral water transport to adjacent cells.\n- Highly branched leaf veins distribute water to all mesophyll cells.\n\n2. Water Conservation / Adaptation (5 marks):\n- A thick, waterproof waxy cuticle on leaves minimizes water loss via non-stomatal evaporation.\n- Stomata are located primarily on the lower epidermis, reducing exposure to direct sunlight and wind.\n- Guard cells close stomata under dry conditions (water stress) to limit further water loss.\n- The stem is covered by a waterproof bark/cork layer to prevent desiccation of inner tissues.\n- Lenticels restrict gas exchange and water loss to small, localized areas.\n\n3. Communication (2 marks):\n- Awarded for clear, logical structure and accurate biological terminology.

Marking scheme

Content (max 9 marks):\n- Xylem vessels as continuous hollow tubes / no end walls, reducing resistance to water flow (1 mark)\n- Lignified vessel walls provide support / prevent collapse under high tension (1 mark)\n- Pits allow lateral transport of water (1 mark)\n- Leaf veins branch extensively to distribute water to mesophyll cells (1 mark)\n- Waxy cuticle on leaf epidermis reduces non-stomatal evaporation (1 mark)\n- Stomata on lower epidermis are shaded, reducing transpiration rate (1 mark)\n- Guard cells close stomata under water stress to prevent further water loss (1 mark)\n- Waterproof bark/cork layer on stem prevents desiccation of inner tissues (1 mark)\n- Lenticels restrict gas exchange / water loss to localized areas compared to bare stem (1 mark)\n\nCommunication Skills (max 2 marks):\n- 2 marks: Clear, systematic exposition showing logical flow; appropriate terminology used; no major spelling/grammatical errors.\n- 1 mark: Structured answer but with minor logical gaps or minor misuse of terminology.\n- 0 marks: Highly disorganized or irrelevant answer.
Question 12 · Essay
11 marks
Describe how the structural features of the stem and leaves of a terrestrial woody plant facilitate the transport of water and adaptation to survive in hot and dry environments. (11 marks)

Answer

Content: Xylem vessel adaptations, leaf vein distribution, waxy cuticle, stomatal distribution, guard cell regulation, bark/cork layer, and lenticels. Communication skills: logical flow and terminology.

Worked solution

1. Water Transport (4 marks): Xylem vessels are continuous, hollow tubes with no protoplasts or end walls, reducing resistance to water flow. Vessel walls are thickened with lignin, preventing collapse under the tension created by transpiration pull. Pits allow lateral water transport to adjacent cells. Highly branched leaf veins distribute water to all mesophyll cells.\n\n2. Water Conservation / Adaptation (5 marks): A thick, waterproof waxy cuticle on leaves minimizes water loss via non-stomatal evaporation. Stomata are located primarily on the lower epidermis, reducing exposure to direct sunlight and wind. Guard cells close stomata under dry conditions to limit further water loss. The stem is covered by a waterproof bark/cork layer to prevent desiccation. Lenticels restrict gas exchange and water loss to small, localized areas.\n\n3. Communication (2 marks): Awarded for clear, logical structure and accurate biological terminology.

Marking scheme

Content (max 9 marks):\n- Xylem vessels as continuous hollow tubes / no end walls, reducing resistance to water flow (1 mark)\n- Lignified vessel walls provide support / prevent collapse under high tension (1 mark)\n- Pits allow lateral transport of water (1 mark)\n- Leaf veins branch extensively to distribute water to mesophyll cells (1 mark)\n- Waxy cuticle on leaf epidermis reduces non-stomatal evaporation (1 mark)\n- Stomata on lower epidermis are shaded, reducing transpiration rate (1 mark)\n- Guard cells close stomata under water stress to prevent further water loss (1 mark)\n- Waterproof bark/cork layer on stem prevents desiccation of inner tissues (1 mark)\n- Lenticels restrict gas exchange / water loss to localized areas compared to bare stem (1 mark)\n\nCommunication Skills (max 2 marks):\n- 2 marks: Clear, systematic exposition showing logical flow; appropriate terminology used; no major spelling/grammatical errors.\n- 1 mark: Structured answer but with minor logical gaps or minor misuse of terminology.\n- 0 marks: Highly disorganized or irrelevant answer.

Paper 2 Electives

Choose any TWO sections out of the four electives (A, B, C, or D). Answer all questions in the chosen sections.
2 Question · 40 marks
Question 1 · structured
20 marks
A group of healthy volunteers participated in an exercise trial. They ran on a treadmill at a constant speed for 60 minutes under two different environmental conditions:\n\nCondition X: Hot and dry (\(35^\circ\text{C}\), relative humidity 20%)\nCondition Y: Hot and humid (\(35^\circ\text{C}\), relative humidity 85%)\n\n(a) Explain why the core body temperature of the volunteers rose faster in Condition Y than in Condition X, despite the air temperature being the same. (4 marks)\n\n(b) Explain why prolonged sweating leads to an increase in blood osmolarity and describe how the endocrine and urinary systems respond to restore blood osmolarity. (8 marks)\n\n(c) After the exercise in Condition X, the volunteers lost \(1.5\text{ kg}\) of body mass (mainly due to water loss).\n(i) If they only drink \(1.5\text{ L}\) of pure water immediately after the exercise, their urine production increases rapidly, and they fail to fully restore their body fluid volume. Explain this observation. (5 marks)\n(ii) Suggest why drinking an isotonic sports drink containing sodium ions is more effective in restoring fluid balance. (3 marks)

Answer

Refer to the solution and marking scheme.

Worked solution

(a) In Condition Y, the high relative humidity (85%) reduces the water vapor pressure gradient between the skin and the surrounding air. Consequently, the rate of sweat evaporation is significantly lower. Since less heat is lost from the body as latent heat of vaporization, core body temperature rises faster.\n(b) Sweat is hypotonic compared to plasma, meaning it has a lower solute concentration than blood. Prolonged sweating thus removes more water than solutes from the blood, resulting in an increase in blood osmolarity. This increase in blood osmolarity is detected by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus, which stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete more antidiuretic hormone (ADH) into the blood. ADH travels to the kidneys and increases the water permeability of the cells in the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubules. As a result, more water is reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate back into the surrounding blood capillaries. The body produces a smaller volume of concentrated urine, conserving water and restoring blood osmolarity.\n(c)(i) Drinking a large volume of pure water rapidly dilutes the blood, causing a sharp drop in blood osmolarity. This change is detected by osmoreceptors, which inhibit the secretion of ADH from the pituitary gland. Without ADH, the permeability of the collecting ducts to water decreases dramatically, leading to less water reabsorption. Consequently, the excess water is rapidly excreted as a large volume of dilute urine, preventing the full restoration of body fluid volume.\n(c)(ii) Isotonic sports drinks contain sodium ions, which help maintain the osmolarity of the blood. Drinking them prevents a rapid drop in blood osmolarity, thereby avoiding the sudden inhibition of ADH secretion. This allows the kidneys to continue reabsorbing water, ensuring the ingested fluid is retained in the body to fully restore fluid balance.

Marking scheme

Part (a) (Max 4 marks):\n- Condition Y has higher relative humidity / smaller water vapor pressure gradient between skin and air (1)\n- Lower rate of sweat evaporation in Condition Y (1)\n- Less latent heat of vaporization is lost from the body surface (1)\n- Leads to faster accumulation of metabolic heat and rise in core temperature (1)\n\nPart (b) (Max 8 marks):\n- Sweat is hypotonic to blood / contains less solute per unit volume (1)\n- Sweating causes relatively more water loss than solute loss, increasing blood osmolarity (1)\n- Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect the increase in blood osmolarity (1)\n- Pituitary gland is stimulated to secrete more ADH into the circulation (1)\n- ADH increases the water permeability of collecting ducts / distal convoluted tubules (1)\n- More water is reabsorbed from renal filtrate into blood capillaries (1)\n- Smaller volume of concentrated urine is excreted (1)\n- Normal blood osmolarity is restored via negative feedback (1)\n\nPart (c)(i) (Max 5 marks):\n- Pure water absorption rapidly dilutes blood plasma / lowers blood osmolarity (1)\n- Detected by osmoreceptors, leading to inhibition of ADH secretion (1)\n- Decreased water permeability of collecting ducts (1)\n- Less water is reabsorbed, resulting in rapid excretion of a large volume of dilute urine (1)\n- Pure water is lost before it can be effectively integrated into body fluids (1)\n\nPart (c)(ii) (Max 3 marks):\n- Isotonic sports drinks contain sodium ions to maintain blood osmolarity / prevent rapid dilution (1)\n- ADH secretion is not abruptly shut down / remains at a level that allows water reabsorption (1)\n- Absorbed water is retained in the extracellular fluid, achieving effective rehydration (1)
Question 2 · structured
20 marks
An ecological survey was conducted in a coastal bay in Hong Kong to investigate the impact of coastal reclamation and plastic pollution on the marine ecosystem, specifically focusing on a population of the Chinese White Dolphin (Sousa chinensis) and their primary prey, the croaker fish.\n\n(a) Coastal reclamation leads to habitat loss and fragmentation.\n(i) Explain how habitat fragmentation can affect the genetic diversity of the Chinese White Dolphin population over generations. (4 marks)\n(ii) Besides habitat loss, explain one other physical impact of reclamation on the marine environment that can negatively affect marine organisms. (3 marks)\n\n(b) Microplastics (\(< 5\text{ mm}\)) are abundant in the bay. Samples of seawater, croaker fish (prey), and tissue samples from stranded dolphins were analyzed for the concentration of a persistent organic pollutant (POP) called PCB, which adsorbs onto microplastics. The average concentration of PCBs (in ppm) was:\n- Seawater: \(0.0002\text{ ppm}\)\n- Croaker fish: \(1.5\text{ ppm}\)\n- Chinese White Dolphin: \(45.0\text{ ppm}\)\n\n(i) Describe and explain the phenomenon illustrated by the data above. (4 marks)\n(ii) Explain why microplastics pose a greater threat of chemical toxicity to marine organisms than larger plastic debris. (3 marks)\n\n(c) To conserve the Chinese White Dolphins, the government established a Marine Park (a marine protected area).\n(i) Discuss how the establishment of a marine park can promote the recovery of the dolphin population. (4 marks)\n(ii) State two active management measures (other than law enforcement against illegal fishing) that can be implemented in the Marine Park to enhance biodiversity. (2 marks)

Answer

Refer to the solution and marking scheme.

Worked solution

(a)(i) Habitat fragmentation divides the dolphin population into smaller, isolated subpopulations. This isolation prevents gene flow between different groups. Over generations, the probability of inbreeding within each small subpopulation increases, which leads to a decrease in genetic variation and the accumulation of harmful recessive alleles, reducing their genetic diversity and adaptability to environmental changes.\n(a)(ii) Reclamation activities stir up sediment, causing high water turbidity. This blocks sunlight penetration, reducing the rate of photosynthesis in marine plants and phytoplankton. Additionally, suspended sediment can clog the gills of fish or filter-feeding marine organisms, leading to suffocation and death.\n(b)(i) The data illustrates biomagnification (or bioaccumulation). PCBs are persistent organic pollutants that are lipophilic and cannot be easily broken down or excreted. Croaker fish accumulate PCBs in their body tissues when they ingest contaminated seawater and plankton over time. Since Chinese White Dolphins are apex predators, they consume many croaker fish, transferring and highly concentrating PCBs at this higher trophic level, leading to a much higher concentration in dolphins than in their prey.\n(b)(ii) Microplastics have a much higher surface-area-to-volume ratio compared to larger plastic debris, allowing them to adsorb and concentrate higher amounts of toxic organic pollutants like PCBs from surrounding water. Furthermore, their small size makes them easily ingestible by low-trophic-level marine organisms, introducing these chemical toxins directly into the base of the marine food web.\n(c)(i) The Marine Park regulates human activities, such as restricting high-speed vessel traffic, which reduces physical injuries from collisions and minimizes acoustic noise pollution that disrupts dolphin communication and echolocation. It also bans or controls commercial fishing, which increases prey abundance (e.g., croaker fish) and protects breeding areas, supporting dolphin reproduction and population recovery.\n(c)(ii) 1. Deploying artificial reefs to create complex habitats and nurseries for marine organisms. 2. Conducting regular clean-ups of marine litter and ghost nets to prevent entanglement of marine life.

Marking scheme

Part (a)(i) (Max 4 marks):\n- Separation of dolphins into smaller, isolated subpopulations (1)\n- Prevents or restricts gene flow/migration between subpopulations (1)\n- Promotes inbreeding within the small subpopulations (1)\n- Leads to reduction in genetic variation / increased homozygosity / accumulation of harmful recessive traits over generations (1)\n\nPart (a)(ii) (Max 3 marks):\n- Stirring up of seabed sediment / high turbidity (1)\n- Reduced light penetration reduces photosynthesis in benthic plants / phytoplankton (1)\n- Clogging of gills of fish / respiratory organs of filter-feeders, leading to suffocation (1)\n[Accept alternative valid physical impacts, e.g., alterations in coastal water currents causing erosion or siltation of surrounding habitats (1)]\n\nPart (b)(i) (Max 4 marks):\n- Concept of biomagnification / bioaccumulation identified (1)\n- PCBs are chemically stable / non-biodegradable / lipophilic, meaning they cannot be excreted or broken down (1)\n- Level increases from seawater to croaker fish due to continuous intake and accumulation (1)\n- Dolphin, as the top predator, consumes large numbers of contaminated fish, further concentrating PCBs at the highest trophic level (1)\n\nPart (b)(ii) (Max 3 marks):\n- Microplastics have a higher surface-area-to-volume ratio than large plastics (1)\n- Adsorb and concentrate organic pollutants (PCBs) at a higher density (1)\n- Small size matches the prey size of primary consumers/plankton, facilitating entry into the food chain (1)\n\nPart (c)(i) (Max 4 marks):\n- Restriction of marine vessel traffic/speed decreases collision risk (1)\n- Reduces underwater acoustic noise, which interferes with dolphin echolocation/communication (1)\n- Ban/restrictions on commercial fishing increases food/prey availability for dolphins (1)\n- Protects crucial habitats (such as nursery and feeding grounds) from physical disturbance (1)\n\nPart (c)(ii) (Max 2 marks):\n- Deployment of artificial reefs (1)\n- Marine litter/ghost net clearance programs (1)\n- Species monitoring / ecological research (1)\n- Public educational tours/campaigns (1)\n(Any two, 1 mark each)