HKDSE · thinka-original Practice Paper

2024 HKDSE Economics Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka 2024 HKDSE-Style Mock — Economics

165 marks210 mins2024
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the 2024 HKDSE Economics paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from HKDSE.

Paper 1 (Multiple Choice)

Answer all 45 questions. All questions carry equal marks. No marks will be deducted for wrong answers.
45 Question · 45 marks
Question 1 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Miss Lee owns a retail shop space in Mong Kok. She can operate a boutique herself with an estimated monthly accounting profit of $40 000, or lease it out for a monthly rental income of $50 000. If the market rental rate rises to $65 000 per month while her estimated monthly accounting profit from running the boutique remains unchanged, which of the following statements is correct?
  1. A.The opportunity cost of running the boutique decreases.
  2. B.The opportunity cost of leasing out the retail shop space increases.
  3. C.The opportunity cost of running the boutique increases.
  4. D.The opportunity cost of leasing out the retail shop space decreases.
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Worked solution

Opportunity cost is the highest-valued option forgone. The opportunity cost of running the boutique is the rental income forgone ($50 000 initially, rising to $65 000). Thus, the opportunity cost of operating the boutique increases by $15 000. Conversely, the opportunity cost of leasing out the shop space is the boutique profit forgone ($40 000), which remains unchanged.

Marking scheme

C (1 mark)
- Identification of the highest-valued option forgone when operating the boutique versus leasing it out.
Question 2 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following is a necessary feature of an oligopolistic market?
  1. A.Firms produce strictly homogeneous products.
  2. B.Each firm's pricing policy is highly interdependent with those of its rivals.
  3. C.There is complete freedom of entry and exit.
  4. D.Firms act as price-takers in the market.
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Worked solution

In an oligopolistic market, there are a few dominant sellers, leading to high mutual interdependence among firms in their pricing and output decisions. Homogeneous products are not strictly required (they can sell differentiated products), freedom of entry is absent due to significant barriers to entry, and price-taking behaviour applies to perfect competition.

Marking scheme

B (1 mark)
- High mutual interdependence among firms is a defining characteristic of oligopoly.
Question 3 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Suppose the demand for Good X is price elastic. If the government provides a per-unit subsidy to the producers of Good X, which of the following will occur?

(1) The equilibrium market price will decrease.
(2) Total expenditure by consumers on Good X will increase.
(3) Total revenue received by sellers (including the subsidy) will increase.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
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Worked solution

A per-unit subsidy shifts the supply curve rightwards/downwards, lowering the equilibrium price and increasing the equilibrium quantity transacted. Since demand is elastic, the percentage increase in quantity demanded is greater than the percentage decrease in price paid by buyers, so consumer total expenditure increases. Furthermore, total revenue received by sellers per unit equals the price paid by consumers plus subsidy, and transacted quantity rises, meaning total revenue inclusive of subsidy must also increase. Thus, (1), (2), and (3) are all correct.

Marking scheme

D (1 mark)
- Correct application of supply shift due to subsidy and the relationship between price elasticity of demand and total expenditure.
Question 4 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A chemical factory discharges untreated industrial waste into a nearby river used by local fisheries, without providing any compensation. In the absence of government intervention, which of the following statements is correct regarding this situation?

(1) Marginal social cost is greater than marginal private cost at the market equilibrium output level.
(2) The market equilibrium output level of the chemical factory is higher than the socially efficient output level.
(3) A deadweight loss exists in this market.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
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Worked solution

The uncompensated discharge creates a negative production externality (external cost). Therefore, Marginal Social Cost (MSC) = Marginal Private Cost (MPC) + Marginal External Cost (MEC) > MPC, which validates (1). Because the private firm sets MPC = MPB (where MPB = MSB), the market output is greater than the optimal output where MSC = MSB, which validates (2). This overproduction creates an inefficiency and thus a deadweight loss, validating (3).

Marking scheme

D (1 mark)
- Application of negative production externality concepts: MSC > MPC, over-production, and deadweight loss.
Question 5 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The following table shows the balance sheet of a banking system:

\begin{array}{|lr|lr|}
\hline
\textbf{Assets} & ($\text{ million}) & \textbf{Liabilities} & ($\text{ million}) \\
\hline
\text{Reserves} & 500 & \text{Deposits} & 2\,000 \\
\text{Loans} & 1\,500 & & \\
\hline
\end{array}

Suppose the required reserve ratio is 20% and the public does not hold cash. If customers deposit $100 million in cash into the banking system and banks lend out all excess reserves, the maximum total change in deposits will be
  1. A.+$500 million.
  2. B.+$1 000 million.
  3. C.+$1 500 million.
  4. D.+$2 500 million.
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Worked solution

Initially, total reserves = $500M and required reserves = $2000M \times 20\% = $400M, so excess reserves = $100M. When an additional $100M cash is deposited, new total reserves = $500M + $100M = $600M. The maximum potential deposits the entire banking system can support with $600M in reserves is $600M / 0.20 = $3 000M. The initial deposit level is $2 000M. Therefore, the maximum total change in deposits is $3 000M - $2 000M = +$1 000 million (or (initial excess reserves $100M + new cash $100M) / 0.20 = $200M / 0.20 = $1 000 million).

Marking scheme

B (1 mark)
- Calculation: New total reserves = $600M. Max deposits = $600M / 0.20 = $3 000M. Change = $3 000M - $2 000M = +$1 000M.
Question 6 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Suppose an economy initially operates at its long-run macroeconomic equilibrium. If there is a substantial depreciation of the domestic currency against major trading partners' currencies, how will the price level and aggregate output change in the short run?
  1. A.Price level increases; Aggregate output is indeterminate.
  2. B.Price level increases; Aggregate output increases.
  3. C.Price level is indeterminate; Aggregate output decreases.
  4. D.Price level decreases; Aggregate output is indeterminate.
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Worked solution

Currency depreciation makes exports cheaper in foreign currency and imports more expensive in domestic currency. Consequently, net exports (NX) increase, shifting the Aggregate Demand (AD) curve to the right. Concurrently, the rising cost of imported raw materials and energy increases production costs, shifting the Short-Run Aggregate Supply (SRAS) curve to the left. Both shifts unambiguously raise the price level, while the effect on aggregate output is indeterminate depending on the relative magnitudes of the AD and SRAS shifts.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark)
- Rightward shift in AD and leftward shift in SRAS lead to an increase in price level and an indeterminate change in aggregate output.
Question 7 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The table below shows the economic data of an economy in a certain year:

\begin{array}{|l|c|}
\hline
\textbf{Component} & \textbf{$ million} \\
\hline
\text{Private consumption expenditure} & 620 \\
\text{Gross domestic fixed capital formation} & 180 \\
\text{Changes in inventories} & -20 \\
\text{Government consumption expenditure} & 150 \\
\text{Exports of goods} & 400 \\
\text{Imports of goods} & 450 \\
\text{Exports of services} & 120 \\
\text{Imports of services} & 90 \\
\text{Net factor income from abroad} & 30 \\
\hline
\end{array}

The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at market prices of the economy is
  1. A.$880 million.
  2. B.$900 million.
  3. C.$910 million.
  4. D.$940 million.
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Worked solution

Using the expenditure approach:
GDP = C + I + G + (X - M)
where:
C = $620M
I = Gross domestic fixed capital formation + Changes in inventories = $180M + (-$20M) = $160M
G = $150M
X = Exports of goods + Exports of services = $400M + $120M = $520M
M = Imports of goods + Imports of services = $450M + $90M = $540M
NX = X - M = $520M - $540M = -$20M
GDP = 620 + 160 + 150 - 20 = $910 million.
(Net factor income from abroad is used for calculating GNP/GNI, not GDP).

Marking scheme

C (1 mark)
- Expenditure approach: GDP = C + I + G + X - M = 620 + 160 + 150 + 520 - 540 = 910.
Question 8 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The table below shows the maximum amounts of smartphones or watches that Country A and Country B can produce by employing all of their respective resources completely:

\begin{array}{|l|c|c|c|}
\hline
& \textbf{Smartphones (units)} & & \textbf{Watches (units)} \\
\hline
\text{Country A} & 120 & \text{OR} & 60 \\
\hline
\text{Country B} & 80 & \text{OR} & 80 \\
\hline
\end{array}

Which of the following terms of trade can lead to mutually beneficial trade between both countries?
  1. A.1 unit of smartphone = 0.4 units of watches
  2. B.1 unit of smartphone = 0.75 units of watches
  3. C.1 unit of smartphone = 1.2 units of watches
  4. D.1 unit of smartphone = 1.5 units of watches
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Worked solution

Opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of smartphone:
- Country A: 60 / 120 = 0.5 units of watches.
- Country B: 80 / 80 = 1.0 unit of watches.
Country A has a comparative advantage in producing smartphones (lower opportunity cost: 0.5 < 1.0).
Mutually beneficial terms of trade for 1 unit of smartphone must lie strictly between the opportunity costs of both countries:
0.5 units of watches < 1 unit of smartphone < 1.0 unit of watches.
Among the options, 1 unit of smartphone = 0.75 units of watches falls within this range.

Marking scheme

B (1 mark)
- Mutually beneficial terms of trade must satisfy: 0.5 watches < 1 smartphone < 1.0 watch.
Question 9 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Mr. Lee owns a commercial property in Mong Kok. He can use it to operate a boutique himself, lease it to a bakery for $40 000 per month, or sell it for $10 000 000 and deposit the money into a fixed deposit account earning an interest rate of 4% per year.

Based on the above information, which of the following statements are correct?

(1) If the bank deposit interest rate rises to 6% per annum, the opportunity cost of operating the boutique will increase.
(2) If the monthly rent offered by the bakery drops to $30 000, the opportunity cost of operating the boutique will become $33 333 per month.
(3) If the market selling price of the property drops to $8 000 000 while the rent offered by the bakery remains unchanged, the opportunity cost of operating the boutique will decrease.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
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Worked solution

Monthly interest from deposit at 4% = \(\$10\,000\,000 \times 4\% \div 12 = \$33\,333.33\).
The best alternative forgone initially is leasing the shop for $40 000 per month.
(1) is correct: If the deposit interest rate rises to 6%, monthly interest = \(\$10\,000\,000 \times 6\% \div 12 = \$50\,000\), which exceeds $40 000. Thus, the opportunity cost increases from $40 000 to $50 000 per month.
(2) is correct: If rental drops to $30 000, the highest-valued alternative becomes the interest income of $33 333.33 per month, so opportunity cost decreases to $33 333 per month.
(3) is incorrect: If property price falls, interest income becomes even lower than $33 333.33, while the best alternative (renting at $40 000) remains unchanged, so the opportunity cost remains at $40 000 per month.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark) - Candidates identify that statements (1) and (2) are correct while (3) is incorrect.
Question 10 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
When the government imposes a per-unit tax of $5 on Good Y, the market price of Good Y increases by $3, and the total expenditure of consumers on Good Y decreases.

Which of the following statements about Good Y must be correct?
  1. A.The price elasticity of demand is greater than 1.
  2. B.The price elasticity of supply is equal to 0.
  3. C.Sellers bear the entire tax burden.
  4. D.The demand for Good Y is perfectly inelastic.
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Worked solution

When the market price of Good Y increases and total expenditure on Good Y decreases, demand for Good Y must be price elastic (elasticity of demand > 1). Since the price rises by $3 (less than the $5 tax), the tax burden is shared between buyers ($3) and sellers ($2), so supply and demand are neither perfectly elastic nor perfectly inelastic.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark) - Candidates recognize that an increase in price accompanied by a decrease in total revenue/expenditure implies price elastic demand.
Question 11 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The table below shows the cost schedule of a price-taking firm.

$$\begin{array}{|c|c|}
\hline
\text{Total output (units)} & \text{Total cost (\$)} \\
\hline
1 & 25 \\
\hline
2 & 45 \\
\hline
3 & 70 \\
\hline
4 & 100 \\
\hline
5 & 135 \\
\hline
\end{array}$$

Suppose the fixed cost of the firm is $10 and the market price of the good is $28. What is the firm's maximum producer surplus?
  1. A.$14
  2. B.$24
  3. C.$34
  4. D.$44
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Worked solution

First calculate marginal cost (MC):
- \(\text{MC}(1) = 25 - 10 = 15\)
- \(\text{MC}(2) = 45 - 25 = 20\)
- \(\text{MC}(3) = 70 - 45 = 25\)
- \(\text{MC}(4) = 100 - 70 = 30\)
- \(\text{MC}(5) = 135 - 100 = 35\)

For a price taker with \(P = \$28\), the profit-maximising output is \(Q = 3\) where \(P \ge \text{MC}\).
At \(Q = 3\):
\(\text{Total Revenue (TR)} = 3 \times 28 = \$84\).
\(\text{Total Variable Cost (TVC)} = \text{TC} - \text{TFC} = 70 - 10 = \$60\).
\(\text{Producer Surplus} = \text{TR} - \text{TVC} = 84 - 60 = \$24\).

Marking scheme

B (1 mark) - Candidates correctly find the profit-maximising output level where P >= MC and calculate producer surplus as TR - TVC.
Question 12 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Suppose an effective price ceiling is currently imposed in the market for rental housing. Which of the following changes will DEFINITELY lead to a reduction in the deadweight loss in this market?
  1. A.An increase in household income, assuming rental housing is a normal good.
  2. B.An increase in the price of private home purchases, which is a substitute for rental housing.
  3. C.A decrease in the maintenance and property management costs incurred by landlords.
  4. D.An increase in the legal price ceiling towards the market equilibrium price.
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Worked solution

An effective price ceiling sets the price below the equilibrium level, restricting the quantity supplied and transacted to less than the socially efficient quantity, generating a deadweight loss. Raising the price ceiling towards the market equilibrium price increases the quantity supplied and transacted, bringing output closer to the efficient level and unambiguously reducing the deadweight loss.

Marking scheme

D (1 mark) - Candidates correctly analyze the effect of adjusting an effective price ceiling on deadweight loss.
Question 13 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Refer to the following national income statistics of an economy:

$$\begin{array}{|l|c|}
\hline
\text{Components} & \text{\$ million} \\
\hline
\text{Private consumption expenditure} & 500 \\
\hline
\text{Gross domestic fixed capital formation} & 160 \\
\hline
\text{Depreciation} & 30 \\
\hline
\text{Government consumption expenditure} & 120 \\
\hline
\text{Change in inventories} & 10 \\
\hline
\text{Domestic exports of goods} & 200 \\
\hline
\text{Re-exports of goods} & 80 \\
\hline
\text{Total imports of goods} & 250 \\
\hline
\text{Net export of services} & 40 \\
\hline
\text{Net factor income from abroad} & -15 \\
\hline
\end{array}$$

The gross domestic product (GDP) at market price is $
  1. A.830 million.
  2. B.845 million.
  3. C.860 million.
  4. D.890 million.
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Worked solution

Using the expenditure approach:
\(\text{GDP} = C + I + G + (X - M)\)
- \(C = 500\)
- \(I = \text{Gross domestic fixed capital formation} + \text{Change in inventories} = 160 + 10 = 170\)
- \(G = 120\)
- \(\text{Total exports of goods} = 200 + 80 = 280\)
- \(\text{Net export of goods} = 280 - 250 = 30\)
- \(\text{Net export of services} = 40\)
- Total \((X - M) = 30 + 40 = 70\)

\(\text{GDP} = 500 + 170 + 120 + 70 = 860\) million.

Marking scheme

C (1 mark) - Candidates correctly calculate GDP using C + I + G + (X - M).
Question 14 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The table below shows the balance sheet of the banking system in an economy:

$$\begin{array}{|lr|lr|}
\hline
\multicolumn{2}{|c|}{\text{Assets (\$ million)}} & \multicolumn{2}{c|}{\text{Liabilities (\$ million)}} \\
\hline
\text{Reserves} & 300 & \text{Deposits} & 1\,000 \\
\text{Loans} & 700 & & \\
\hline
\end{array}$$

Suppose the required reserve ratio is 20% and the public initially holds no cash. If the public now withdraws $100 million of cash from the banking system and holds it permanently in cash, what will be the total money supply in the economy after the banking system fully completes its credit adjustment process, assuming banks do not hold excess reserves?
  1. A.$1 000 million
  2. B.$1 100 million
  3. C.$1 200 million
  4. D.$1 500 million
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Worked solution

1. After withdrawing $100 million in cash, bank reserves drop to \(\$300 - \$100 = \$200\text{ million}\).
2. With no excess reserves and a required reserve ratio of 20%, the maximum total deposits supported by $200 million in reserves is:
\(\text{Deposits} = \frac{\$200\text{ million}}{0.20} = \$1\,000\text{ million}\).
3. Total money supply = \(\text{Cash held by the public} + \text{Total deposits} = \$100\text{ million} + \$1\,000\text{ million} = \$1\,100\text{ million}\).

Marking scheme

B (1 mark) - Candidates apply the reserve ratio to remaining reserves to find total deposits and add public cash holdings.
Question 15 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Suppose an economy experiences a rapid expansion in its major export destination markets. Concurrently, a substantial worldwide decline in international crude oil prices occurs.

In the short run, how will the aggregate output and general price level of this economy change?
  1. A.Aggregate output will increase while the price level is indeterminate.
  2. B.Aggregate output will increase while the price level will increase.
  3. C.Aggregate output is indeterminate while the price level will decrease.
  4. D.Aggregate output is indeterminate while the price level will increase.
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Worked solution

Economic expansion in export markets increases export demand, shifting the aggregate demand (AD) curve to the right.
A decline in crude oil prices lowers production and transportation costs, shifting the short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve to the right.
When both AD and SRAS shift to the right:
- Aggregate output definitely increases.
- The price level may increase, decrease, or remain unchanged depending on the relative magnitudes of the shifts (i.e. indeterminate).

Marking scheme

A (1 mark) - Candidates identify simultaneous rightward shifts in AD and SRAS, deducing output increases and price level is indeterminate.
Question 16 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The table below shows the amount of outputs Country A and Country B can produce with one unit of resources:

$$\begin{array}{|l|c|c|}
\hline
& \text{Computers (units)} & \text{Wheat (units)} \\
\hline
\text{Country A} & 20 & 40 \\
\hline
\text{Country B} & 15 & 45 \\
\hline
\end{array}$$

Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) Country A has a comparative advantage in producing computers.
(2) The mutually beneficial terms of trade are 1 unit of computer for between 2 and 3 units of wheat.
(3) If 1 unit of computer is exchanged for 2.5 units of wheat, both countries gain 0.5 units of wheat for each unit of computer traded.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
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Worked solution

Opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of computer:
- In Country A: \(40 \div 20 = 2\) units of wheat.
- In Country B: \(45 \div 15 = 3\) units of wheat.

Since Country A has a lower opportunity cost in producing computers (\(2 < 3\)), Country A has a comparative advantage in producing computers. (1) is correct.

The mutually beneficial terms of trade for 1 computer must lie strictly between the two domestic opportunity costs: \(2\text{ wheat} < 1\text{ computer} < 3\text{ wheat}\). (2) is correct.

If the terms of trade are 1 computer = 2.5 wheat:
- Country A exports 1 computer (costing 2 wheat) and receives 2.5 wheat, gaining \(2.5 - 2 = 0.5\) units of wheat.
- Country B imports 1 computer for 2.5 wheat instead of producing it domestically at 3 wheat, saving/gaining \(3 - 2.5 = 0.5\) units of wheat. (3) is correct.

Marking scheme

D (1 mark) - Candidates correctly calculate opportunity costs, determine comparative advantage, terms of trade range, and gains from trade.
Question 17 · MCQ
1 marks
Kelvin has three job offers:
First option: Work as a software engineer at a monthly salary of $30 000.
Second option: Work as a data analyst at a monthly salary of $26 000.
Third option: Work as a high school teacher at a monthly salary of $24 000.

Kelvin's order of preference is the first option, followed by the second option, and then the third option. If the monthly salary of the third option is raised to $25 000 while other conditions remain unchanged, the opportunity cost for Kelvin to choose the first option will
  1. A.remain unchanged.
  2. B.increase by $1 000.
  3. C.decrease by $1 000.
  4. D.increase by $2 000.
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Worked solution

Opportunity cost is the highest-valued option forgone. For Kelvin, when he chooses the first option (software engineer), his highest-valued alternative is the second option (data analyst at $26 000). Since the salary increase for the third option ($25 000) does not exceed the value of the second option ($26 000), the second option remains his highest-valued alternative forgone. Therefore, the opportunity cost of choosing the first option remains unchanged.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark): Correct application of opportunity cost as the highest-valued option forgone. Full credit for option A.
Question 18 · MCQ
1 marks
When the market supply of portable power banks increases, the equilibrium price drops by 15% and the total sales revenue of sellers decreases. This indicates that over this price range, the demand for portable power banks is
  1. A.elastic.
  2. B.inelastic.
  3. C.unit elastic.
  4. D.perfectly elastic.
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Worked solution

When supply increases, price falls and quantity demanded increases. Total revenue (TR = P × Q) decreases when price falls if and only if the percentage increase in quantity demanded is smaller than the percentage decrease in price, meaning the price elasticity of demand is inelastic (smaller than 1).

Marking scheme

B (1 mark): Correct identification that a decrease in total revenue following a price drop implies inelastic demand.
Question 19 · MCQ
1 marks
Suppose the government levies a specific per-unit sales tax on suppliers of a good. Under which of the following conditions will the buyers bear the full burden of the tax?
  1. A.The supply of the good is perfectly inelastic.
  2. B.The demand for the good is unit elastic.
  3. C.The demand for the good is perfectly inelastic.
  4. D.The supply of the good is unit elastic.
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Worked solution

The tax incidence depends on the relative elasticities of demand and supply. Buyers bear the entire tax burden when the demand for the good is perfectly inelastic (buyers are completely insensitive to price changes, so the market price rises by the exact amount of the per-unit tax) or when the supply is perfectly elastic.

Marking scheme

C (1 mark): Identification of perfectly inelastic demand as the condition where buyers bear 100% of the per-unit tax.
Question 20 · MCQ
1 marks
The following table shows national income statistics of an economy:

\begin{array}{|l|c|} \hline \text{Components} & \text{$ million} \\ \hline \text{Private consumption expenditure} & 500 \\ \text{Gross domestic fixed capital formation} & 120 \\ \text{Change in inventories} & -10 \\ \text{Government consumption expenditure} & 150 \\ \text{Domestic exports of goods} & 80 \\ \text{Re-exports of goods} & 140 \\ \text{Imports of goods} & 200 \\ \text{Exports of services} & 60 \\ \text{Imports of services} & 40 \\ \text{Depreciation} & 25 \\ \hline \end{array}

The gross domestic product (GDP) at market prices of this economy is $
  1. A.775 million.
  2. B.800 million.
  3. C.820 million.
  4. D.825 million.
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Worked solution

Using the expenditure approach:
GDP = C + I + G + (X - M)
C = $500 million
Gross investment (I) = Gross domestic fixed capital formation + Change in inventories = 120 + (-10) = $110 million
G = $150 million
Total Exports (X) = Domestic exports (80) + Re-exports (140) + Exports of services (60) = $280 million
Total Imports (M) = Imports of goods (200) + Imports of services (40) = $240 million
Net exports (X - M) = 280 - 240 = $40 million
GDP = 500 + 110 + 150 + 40 = $800 million.

Marking scheme

B (1 mark): Correct summation using the expenditure approach: C (500) + I (110) + G (150) + (X - M) (40) = 800.
Question 21 · MCQ
1 marks
The banking system of an economy holds $120 million in total reserves and $400 million in customer deposits. The legal minimum reserve ratio is 20%. The public always holds a fixed amount of $60 million in cash. If banks decide to lend out all excess reserves and there is no cash leakage, what will be the maximum total money supply in the economy?
  1. A.$460 million
  2. B.$600 million
  3. C.$620 million
  4. D.$660 million
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Worked solution

The total reserves held in the banking system are $120 million. When banks lend out all excess reserves, total reserves remain $120 million in the banking system because the public's cash holding is fixed. With a minimum reserve ratio of 20% (0.2), the maximum deposits that can be supported are:
Maximum Deposits = Total Reserves / Required Reserve Ratio = $120 million / 0.20 = $600 million.
Total money supply = Cash held by the public + Maximum deposits = $60 million + $600 million = $660 million.

Marking scheme

D (1 mark): Calculation of maximum deposits = $120M / 0.20 = $600M, and total money supply = $600M + $60M = $660M.
Question 22 · MCQ
1 marks
Suppose an economy is initially in long-run macroeconomic equilibrium. If the government significantly cuts corporate profit taxes while at the same time widespread adoption of automated technology boosts overall labor productivity, in the short run,
  1. A.both the price level and aggregate output will increase.
  2. B.the price level will decrease while aggregate output will increase.
  3. C.aggregate output will increase while the change in the price level is indeterminate.
  4. D.the price level will increase while the change in aggregate output is indeterminate.
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Worked solution

A cut in corporate profit taxes raises the expected return on investment, leading to higher investment expenditure and shifting the Aggregate Demand (AD) curve to the right. An increase in labor productivity reduces production costs per unit of output, shifting the Short-Run Aggregate Supply (SRAS) curve to the right. When both AD and SRAS shift to the right, the equilibrium real aggregate output definitely increases, whereas the change in the equilibrium price level depends on the relative magnitudes of the two shifts and is therefore indeterminate.

Marking scheme

C (1 mark): AD shifts right, SRAS shifts right; output must rise while price level change is uncertain.
Question 23 · MCQ
1 marks
The table below shows the amount of wheat and cloth that Country A and Country B can produce with one unit of resources:

\begin{array}{|l|c|c|} \hline & \text{Wheat (units)} & \text{Cloth (units)} \\ \hline \text{Country A} & 20 & 10 \\ \text{Country B} & 15 & 15 \\ \hline \end{array}

Which of the following terms of trade will be mutually beneficial to both Country A and Country B?
  1. A.1 unit of cloth = 0.8 units of wheat
  2. B.1 unit of cloth = 1.5 units of wheat
  3. C.1 unit of cloth = 2.2 units of wheat
  4. D.1 unit of cloth = 2.5 units of wheat
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Calculate the opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of Cloth:
Country A: 10 Cloth = 20 Wheat $\Rightarrow$ 1 Cloth = 2 Wheat.
Country B: 15 Cloth = 15 Wheat $\Rightarrow$ 1 Cloth = 1 Wheat.
Country B has a lower opportunity cost in producing Cloth, so Country B specializes in and exports Cloth, while Country A specializes in and exports Wheat.
For mutual benefit, the terms of trade for 1 unit of Cloth must lie between the two countries' domestic opportunity costs: 1 Wheat < 1 Cloth < 2 Wheat.
1 Cloth = 1.5 units of Wheat falls within this range (1 < 1.5 < 2).

Marking scheme

B (1 mark): Correct derivation of domestic opportunity costs (1 Cloth = 2 Wheat for A, 1 Cloth = 1 Wheat for B) and choosing the terms of trade within (1 Wheat, 2 Wheat).
Question 24 · MCQ
1 marks
Kelvin borrowed $200 000 from a bank on a one-year loan at a fixed nominal interest rate of 7% per annum. At the time the loan agreement was signed, both Kelvin and the bank expected the annual inflation rate to be 3%. If the actual inflation rate over the loan period turned out to be 5%, which of the following statements is correct?
  1. A.Kelvin gains and the bank loses.
  2. B.The bank gains and Kelvin loses.
  3. C.The actual real interest rate of the loan is 4%.
  4. D.The real value of the repayment made by Kelvin is higher than expected.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Expected real interest rate = Nominal interest rate - Expected inflation rate = 7% - 3% = 4%.
Actual real interest rate = Nominal interest rate - Actual inflation rate = 7% - 5% = 2%.
Since the actual inflation rate (5%) was higher than expected (3%), the actual real interest rate (2%) is lower than the expected real interest rate (4%). Consequently, the borrower (Kelvin) gains in real purchasing power terms, while the lender (the bank) loses.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark): Unanticipated inflation lowers the actual real interest rate below the expected real interest rate, benefiting borrowers at the expense of lenders.
Question 25 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Mr. Wong owns a commercial property which is currently vacant. He is considering the following three mutually exclusive options for the coming year:

Option 1: Open an art gallery himself, expecting an accounting profit of $350 000 (without deducting implicit rental cost).
Option 2: Lease the property to a coffee shop chain for $300 000 per year.
Option 3: Sell the property and deposit the proceeds in a bank to earn $280 000 in interest per year.

Suppose the bank raises its deposit interest rate such that the annual interest earned under Option 3 rises to $320 000, while the returns of the other two options remain unchanged. Which of the following statements is correct?
  1. A.The opportunity cost of choosing Option 1 remains unchanged.
  2. B.The opportunity cost of choosing Option 1 increases.
  3. C.The opportunity cost of choosing Option 2 increases.
  4. D.Mr. Wong will change his decision to choose Option 3.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Opportunity cost is the highest-valued option forgone. Initially, for Option 1 (opening the art gallery), the next best alternative is Option 2 (leasing for $300 000), so the opportunity cost of choosing Option 1 is $300 000. When the interest earned under Option 3 increases to $320 000, Option 3 replaces Option 2 as the highest-valued forgone alternative to Option 1. Therefore, the opportunity cost of choosing Option 1 increases to $320 000.

Marking scheme

B (1 mark)
- Option B correctly identifies that the opportunity cost of opening the gallery increases because the highest-valued alternative forgone rises from $300 000 to $320 000.
- Options A, C, and D are incorrect based on the economic definition of opportunity cost.
Question 26 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A bus company reduces its bus fares by 10%. As a result, its total revenue from passenger fares increases by 8%. Which of the following statements must be correct?

(1) The price elasticity of demand for the bus service is greater than 1.
(2) The percentage increase in the quantity demanded of bus trips is greater than 10%.
(3) The bus service is a normal good.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Total Revenue (TR) equals Price (P) multiplied by Quantity (Q). When price falls by 10% and total revenue increases, the percentage increase in quantity demanded must be strictly greater than the percentage decrease in price (i.e., %ΔQ > 10%). Therefore, the price elasticity of demand in absolute value is greater than 1 (|%ΔQ / %ΔP| > 1), making (1) and (2) correct. Statement (3) concerns income elasticity of demand, which cannot be determined from changes in price.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark)
- (1) is correct: elastic demand means price cut increases total revenue.
- (2) is correct: %ΔQ must exceed 10% to offset the 10% fall in price and raise total revenue.
- (3) is incorrect: price elasticity data gives no information about income elasticity.
Question 27 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
In a competitive market without externalities, which of the following government policies will lead to a deadweight loss (efficiency loss)?

(1) Imposing an effective price floor
(2) Granting a per-unit production subsidy to producers
(3) Imposing an effective import quota on the good
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In a competitive market without market failure, market equilibrium achieves allocative efficiency (Marginal Social Benefit = Marginal Social Cost).
(1) An effective price floor sets price above equilibrium, causing underproduction (MSB > MSC) and a deadweight loss.
(2) A per-unit subsidy lowers marginal private cost, encouraging overproduction where MSC > MSB at the margin, generating a deadweight loss.
(3) An effective import quota restricts output below the socially optimal free-trade level, causing a deadweight loss due to underconsumption and production inefficiency. Hence, all three create deadweight loss.

Marking scheme

D (1 mark)
- (1), (2), and (3) all create divergences between marginal social benefit and marginal social cost, thereby creating a deadweight loss in a market without initial distortions.
Question 28 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following items is included in the calculation of Hong Kong's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) using the expenditure approach?
  1. A.A local resident buys a five-year-old second-hand private car from a neighbour.
  2. B.The government pays monthly Old Age Living Allowances to eligible senior citizens.
  3. C.A local manufacturer accumulates unsold new clothing manufactured locally during the current year.
  4. D.An overseas investor purchases shares of a company listed on the Hong Kong Stock Exchange.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Under the expenditure approach, GDP = C + I + G + (X - M).
- A is an existing asset / second-hand good produced in a previous year, so its sale value is excluded (only current services/commissions would count).
- B is a government transfer payment, which involves no production of current goods or services.
- C represents an increase in inventory investment (I) of newly produced goods in the current period, which is included in GDP.
- D represents a financial transaction / transfer of ownership of existing paper assets, which does not involve current production.

Marking scheme

C (1 mark)
- Option C is included under Gross Domestic Capital Formation / inventory investment.
- A, B, and D are excluded from GDP compilation.
Question 29 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The following table shows the balance sheet of a banking system:

$$\begin{array}{|lr|lr|}
\hline
\textbf{Assets} & (\$\text{ million}) & \textbf{Liabilities} & (\$\text{ million}) \\
\hline
\text{Reserves} & 400 & \text{Deposits} & 1\,600 \\
\text{Loans} & 1\,200 & & \\
\hline
\end{array}$$

Suppose the legal required reserve ratio is 20% and banks do not hold excess reserves. If depositors withdraw $80 million in cash from the banking system and hold it entirely as cash in hand, what is the maximum change in the total money supply in the economy after the entire process of deposit contraction?
  1. A.A decrease of $320 million
  2. B.An increase of $80 million
  3. C.A decrease of $400 million
  4. D.No change
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Initial reserves = $400 million, initial deposits = $1 600 million.
Initial cash withdrawal = $80 million, so remaining bank reserves = $400 - $80 = $320 million.
With a required reserve ratio of $r = 20\%$, the maximum deposits that can be supported by $320 million of reserves is:
$$\text{Maximum Deposits} = \frac{\$320\text{ million}}{0.20} = \$1\,600\text{ million}.$$
Thus, total deposits remain unchanged at $1 600 million (change in deposits = $0).
Money Supply ($M$) = Currency in circulation + Deposits.
Since currency held by the public increases by $80 million and deposits remain at $1 600 million, the maximum change in the total money supply is:
$$\Delta M = +\$80\text{ million} + \$0 = +\$80\text{ million}.$$

Marking scheme

B (1 mark)
- Initial excess reserves = $400M - (0.20 × $1600M) = $400M - $320M = $80M.
- The $80M cash outflow absorbs all excess reserves, so required reserves needed for the existing $1600M deposits ($320M) are exactly met. Deposit change = $0.
- Total money supply change = +$80M (currency) + $0 (deposits) = +$80 million.
Question 30 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Suppose there is a widespread adoption of artificial intelligence tools that significantly lowers the cost of production across all business sectors in an economy. In the short run, according to the Aggregate Demand - Aggregate Supply (AD-AS) model, the price level will ________ and the aggregate output will ________.
  1. A.increase ...... increase
  2. B.increase ...... decrease
  3. C.decrease ...... increase
  4. D.decrease ...... decrease
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A reduction in unit production costs shifts the Short-Run Aggregate Supply (SRAS) curve rightward/downward. Along a downward-sloping Aggregate Demand (AD) curve, this rightward shift in SRAS results in a lower equilibrium aggregate price level and a higher equilibrium real output.

Marking scheme

C (1 mark)
- SRAS shifts rightward due to lower production costs.
- Equilibrium price level decreases and real output increases.
Question 31 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following policy actions by a central bank will lead to a contraction in the money supply?

(1) Selling government bonds in the open market
(2) Raising the required reserve ratio for commercial banks
(3) Increasing the discount rate charged on short-term loans to commercial banks
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

All three are contractionary monetary policy measures:
(1) Selling bonds withdraws monetary base (reserves) from the banking system, contracting the money supply.
(2) Raising the required reserve ratio decreases the banking multiplier, leading to a multiple contraction of bank deposits and money supply.
(3) Raising the discount rate increases the cost of borrowing reserves for commercial banks, discouraging banks from borrowing reserves and lending, thereby contracting money supply.

Marking scheme

D (1 mark)
- (1), (2), and (3) are all standard contractionary open market operations and monetary policy instruments that reduce the money supply.
Question 32 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The table below shows the maximum output of solar panels or bicycles that Country P and Country Q can produce with 1 unit of resources:

$$\begin{array}{|l|c|c|}
\hline
& \textbf{Solar Panels (units)} & \textbf{Bicycles (units)} \\
\hline
\textbf{Country P} & 20 & 40 \\
\hline
\textbf{Country Q} & 15 & 45 \\
\hline
\end{array}$$

Which of the following terms of trade will be mutually beneficial to both countries if they specialise completely according to their comparative advantage?
  1. A.1 unit of solar panels = 1.8 units of bicycles
  2. B.1 unit of solar panels = 2.4 units of bicycles
  3. C.1 unit of solar panels = 3.2 units of bicycles
  4. D.1 unit of solar panels = 3.5 units of bicycles
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Calculate the opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of Solar Panels (S):
- In Country P: 20 S = 40 B $\implies$ 1 S = 2 B.
- In Country Q: 15 S = 45 B $\implies$ 1 S = 3 B.

Country P has a lower opportunity cost in producing solar panels (2 B < 3 B), so Country P has a comparative advantage in solar panels and will export solar panels.
Country Q has a comparative advantage in bicycles (1 B = 1/3 S < 1/2 S) and will export bicycles.

Mutually beneficial terms of trade for 1 unit of solar panels must lie between the two countries' domestic opportunity costs:
$$2\text{ units of bicycles} < 1\text{ unit of solar panels} < 3\text{ units of bicycles}.$$
Option B gives: 1 unit of solar panels = 2.4 units of bicycles, which lies strictly between 2 and 3.

Marking scheme

B (1 mark)
- Opp. cost of 1 S: Country P = 2 B; Country Q = 3 B.
- Mutually beneficial terms of trade for 1 S must satisfy 2 B < 1 S < 3 B.
- 1 S = 2.4 B lies in this range.
Question 33 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A university graduate has three mutually exclusive career options:

Option 1: Work as a management trainee in Company A with a monthly salary of $22,000.
Option 2: Work as a research assistant in a university with a monthly salary of $20,000 and free accommodation worth $4,000.
Option 3: Join a family business with a monthly allowance of $18,000.

His first choice is Option 2 and his second choice is Option 1. Which of the following events will increase his opportunity cost of choosing Option 2?

(1) Company A raises its monthly salary to $25,000.
(2) The university cancels the free accommodation offer.
(3) The family business increases its monthly allowance to $23,000.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Opportunity cost is the value of the highest-valued option forgone. The graduate's first choice is Option 2, so the highest-valued option forgone is initially Option 1 ($22,000).
- In (1), Company A raises its salary to $25,000, so the value of Option 1 (the highest-valued option forgone) increases from $22,000 to $25,000. Opportunity cost increases.
- In (2), cancelling free accommodation reduces the value of the chosen option (Option 2), but does not change the value of the highest-valued option forgone. Opportunity cost remains unchanged.
- In (3), increasing the allowance to $23,000 makes Option 3 more valuable than Option 1 ($22,000). Thus, the highest-valued option forgone becomes Option 3 ($23,000), which is higher than the original $22,000. Opportunity cost increases.
Therefore, (1) and (3) only are correct.

Marking scheme

B (1 mark) - Both statements (1) and (3) increase the value of the best alternative forgone.
Question 34 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
When the price of Good X falls by 15%, the total expenditure of consumers on Good X increases. Which of the following statements about Good X must be correct?
  1. A.The price elasticity of demand for Good X is greater than 1.
  2. B.The price elasticity of supply for Good X is equal to 1.
  3. C.Good X is a luxury good.
  4. D.The quantity demanded of Good X increases by less than 15%.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Total expenditure equals price multiplied by quantity demanded (\(TE = P \times Q\)). When price falls and total expenditure increases, the percentage increase in quantity demanded must be greater than the percentage decrease in price (i.e., \(\%\Delta Q > 15\%\)). Therefore, the price elasticity of demand for Good X is elastic (in absolute value, \(|E_d| > 1\)).

Marking scheme

A (1 mark) - When price and total expenditure move in opposite directions, demand is price elastic.
Question 35 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Suppose the market of a good is initially in equilibrium. If the government imposes an effective price floor on the good and at the same time buys up all the surplus output at the floor price,

(1) there will be an excess supply in the market.
(2) the total revenue received by producers will increase.
(3) the consumer surplus will decrease.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

- (1) is correct: An effective price floor is set above the equilibrium price, leading quantity supplied to exceed quantity demanded, creating an excess supply (surplus).
- (2) is correct: At the higher floor price, producers produce and sell a larger quantity \(Q_s\) (since the government buys the entire surplus), so total revenue received by producers (\(P_{\text{floor}} \times Q_s\)) increases.
- (3) is correct: Consumers pay a higher price and consume a smaller quantity, so consumer surplus decreases.
Therefore, (1), (2) and (3) are all correct.

Marking scheme

D (1 mark) - All three statements are correct under a price floor with government purchasing the surplus.
Question 36 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following items is included in the calculation of Hong Kong's Gross National Income (GNI) for the current year?
  1. A.Dividends received by a Hong Kong resident from holding shares of an overseas company listed in New York
  2. B.Profits earned by an American fast-food chain branch operating in Hong Kong
  3. C.The government Old Age Allowance paid to permanent residents in Hong Kong
  4. D.The capital gain from selling a residential flat purchased five years ago
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Gross National Income (GNI) = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA).
- A is correct: Dividends received by a Hong Kong resident from holding shares of a US company represent factor income earned by a local resident from abroad, which is included in NFIA and thus GNI.
- B is incorrect: Profits earned by a foreign company operating locally are factor income paid to abroad, which is deducted from GDP when computing GNI.
- C is incorrect: The Old Age Allowance is a transfer payment, not payment for productive services, so it is excluded from both GDP and GNI.
- D is incorrect: Capital gains from selling second-hand assets do not involve current production of goods or services and are excluded from GDP and GNI.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark) - Factor income earned by local residents from abroad is included in GNI.
Question 37 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The following table shows the balance sheet of a banking system. Suppose the legal reserve ratio is 20% and banks do not hold excess reserves.

| Assets ($ million) | Liabilities ($ million) |
| :--- | :--- |
| Reserves: 200 | Deposits: 1,000 |
| Loans: 800 | |

Suppose a customer withdraws $40 million of cash from the banking system and holds it as cash in hand. What will be the maximum possible change in the total money supply if the public holds no other cash?
  1. A.decrease by $40 million
  2. B.decrease by $160 million
  3. C.decrease by $200 million
  4. D.decrease by $800 million
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Initial money supply \(M_1 = \text{Deposits}_0 + \text{Cash}_0 = \$1,000\text{M} + \$0\text{M} = \$1,000\text{M}\).
2. After withdrawing $40M cash, bank reserves drop to \(\$200\text{M} - \$40\text{M} = \$160\text{M}\).
3. With a required reserve ratio of 20% (0.2), maximum deposits supported by the remaining reserves are \(D_{\text{max}} = \frac{\$160\text{M}}{0.2} = \$800\text{M}\).
4. The public now holds \(\$40\text{M}\) in cash, so the new maximum money supply is \(M_2 = \$800\text{M} + \$40\text{M} = \$840\text{M}\).
5. Maximum possible change in money supply = \(\$840\text{M} - \$1,000\text{M} = -\$160\text{M}\) (a decrease of $160 million).

Marking scheme

B (1 mark) - Money supply changes by -$160 million after accounting for both deposits contraction and the cash held by the public.
Question 38 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Suppose an economy experiences a technological breakthrough in production and at the same time the government increases the profit tax rate on corporations. In the short run,
  1. A.the aggregate output must increase.
  2. B.the aggregate output must decrease.
  3. C.the price level must decrease.
  4. D.the price level must increase.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

- A technological breakthrough improves production efficiency and lowers unit production costs, shifting the short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve to the right (putting downward pressure on the price level and upward pressure on aggregate output).
- An increase in the corporate profit tax rate lowers the expected return on investment, leading to a fall in private investment expenditure and shifting aggregate demand (AD) to the left (putting downward pressure on both the price level and aggregate output).
- With SRAS shifting right and AD shifting left, the price level definitely decreases, while the net effect on aggregate output is indeterminate.

Marking scheme

C (1 mark) - SRAS shifts right and AD shifts left, unambiguously reducing the price level.
Question 39 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The table below shows the amount of resources required by Country A and Country B to produce one unit of toys and one unit of clothing.

| | 1 unit of Toys | 1 unit of Clothing |
| :--- | :--- | :--- |
| Country A | 4 units of resources | 2 units of resources |
| Country B | 6 units of resources | 6 units of resources |

Which of the following statements is correct?
  1. A.Country A has an absolute advantage in producing clothing, but Country B has an absolute advantage in producing toys.
  2. B.Country A has a comparative advantage in producing toys.
  3. C.If the terms of trade are 1 unit of toys = 1.5 units of clothing, both countries can gain from trade.
  4. D.Country B should specialize in producing and exporting clothing.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Calculate the opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of toys:
- In Country A: 4 units of resources can produce \(4 / 2 = 2\) units of clothing. So, the opportunity cost of 1 Toy = 2 Clothing.
- In Country B: 6 units of resources can produce \(6 / 6 = 1\) unit of clothing. So, the opportunity cost of 1 Toy = 1 Clothing.

Comparative advantage:
- Country B has a lower opportunity cost in producing toys (1 Clothing < 2 Clothing), so Country B specializes in producing and exporting toys.
- Country A has a comparative advantage in clothing (0.5 Toys < 1 Toy) and will export clothing.

Mutually beneficial terms of trade for 1 unit of toys must lie strictly between the domestic opportunity costs of both countries: \(1\text{ unit of clothing} < 1\text{ unit of toys} < 2\text{ units of clothing}\).
Since 1.5 units of clothing falls within this range, both countries gain from trade at this terms of trade.

Marking scheme

C (1 mark) - Terms of trade 1 Toy = 1.5 Clothing falls between the two countries' domestic opportunity costs (1 Clothing and 2 Clothing).
Question 40 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Under the Linked Exchange Rate System of Hong Kong, the Hong Kong dollar (HKD) is pegged to the US dollar (USD). If the US dollar depreciates against the Japanese Yen (JPY),

(1) HKD will depreciate against JPY.
(2) the price of Japanese goods in terms of HKD will increase.
(3) the volume of Hong Kong's exports of goods to Japan will tend to decrease.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

- (1) is correct: Because HKD is pegged to USD, when USD depreciates against JPY, HKD depreciates against JPY by the same extent.
- (2) is correct: With HKD depreciating against JPY, it takes more HKD to buy 1 JPY, meaning the price of Japanese imported goods in terms of HKD will increase.
- (3) is incorrect: HK goods become cheaper in terms of JPY for Japanese buyers, so the volume of HK exports of goods to Japan will tend to increase, not decrease.
Therefore, (1) and (2) only are correct.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark) - Statements (1) and (2) correctly identify the exchange rate transmission and import price effects.
Question 41 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Clara bought a non-refundable and non-resellable concert ticket for $600. Her next best alternative use of that evening was tutoring a student for an income of $400. Just before the concert, a friend offers to buy her ticket for $500. If Clara decides to keep the ticket and attend the concert, what is her opportunity cost of attending the concert?
  1. A.$400
  2. B.$500
  3. C.$600
  4. D.$900
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Opportunity cost is the highest-valued option forgone. The original purchase price of $600 is a sunk cost. Since a friend now offers $500 for the ticket, if Clara chooses not to attend the concert, her best alternative is to sell the ticket for $500 AND spend the evening tutoring to earn $400, giving a total forgone value of $500 + $400 = $900.

Marking scheme

D (1 mark)
Award 1 mark for the correct option. No partial marks.
Question 42 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
When a local ferry company increases its fare per trip, its total revenue decreases. Which of the following statements must be correct?

(1) The price elasticity of demand for the ferry service is greater than 1.
(2) The percentage drop in quantity demanded is greater than the percentage rise in price.
(3) The price elasticity of supply for the ferry service is less than 1.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

When price and total revenue move in opposite directions (i.e. price rises while total revenue falls), demand is price elastic (elasticity of demand > 1). This implies that the percentage decrease in quantity demanded is greater than the percentage increase in price. Statement (3) is irrelevant because the change in total revenue resulting from a price change is determined by the price elasticity of demand, not supply.

Marking scheme

A (1 mark)
Award 1 mark for the correct option. No partial marks.
Question 43 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The following table shows the balance sheet of a banking system. Suppose the legal required reserve ratio is 20% and the banking system initially holds no excess reserves. The public always holds $200 million in cash.

$$\begin{array}{|lr|lr|}
\hline
\textbf{Assets} & \text{(\$ million)} & \textbf{Liabilities} & \text{(\$ million)} \\
\hline
\text{Reserves} & 400 & \text{Deposits} & 2\,000 \\
\text{Loans} & 1\,600 & & \\
\hline
\end{array}$$

If a customer withdraws $50 million of cash from the bank to hold as cash, what is the maximum amount of money supply in the economy after the banking system fully adjusts?
  1. A.$1 750 million
  2. B.$1 950 million
  3. C.$2 000 million
  4. D.$2 150 million
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

After withdrawing $50 million, the cash held by the public becomes $200\text{ million} + $50\text{ million} = $250\text{ million}. Bank reserves decrease from $400 million to $350 million. The maximum deposits created by the banking system = \text{Reserves} / \text{Required reserve ratio} = $350\text{ million} / 0.20 = $1\,750\text{ million}. The maximum money supply = \text{Cash held by public} + \text{Deposits} = $250\text{ million} + $1\,750\text{ million} = $2\,000\text{ million}.

Marking scheme

C (1 mark)
Award 1 mark for the correct option. No partial marks.
Question 44 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Suppose an economy is initially in long-run equilibrium. If the government increases profits tax on enterprises and at the same time world oil prices drop significantly, in the short run,
  1. A.both the price level and aggregate output will increase.
  2. B.both the price level and aggregate output will decrease.
  3. C.the price level will decrease while the change in aggregate output is indeterminate.
  4. D.aggregate output will increase while the change in price level is indeterminate.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

An increase in profits tax reduces investment expenditure, leading to a leftward shift in aggregate demand (AD). A significant drop in world oil prices reduces production costs for firms, shifting short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) to the right. Both a decrease in AD and an increase in SRAS exert downward pressure on the price level, so the price level must fall. However, the decrease in AD reduces output while the increase in SRAS increases output; thus, the net effect on aggregate output is indeterminate/uncertain.

Marking scheme

C (1 mark)
Award 1 mark for the correct option. No partial marks.
Question 45 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
The table below shows the maximum amount of toys and watches that Country A and Country B can produce with one unit of resources:

$$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|}
\hline
& \text{Toys (units)} & & \text{Watches (units)} \\
\hline
\text{Country A} & 8 & \text{OR} & 4 \\
\hline
\text{Country B} & 6 & \text{OR} & 2 \\
\hline
\end{array}$$

Which of the following statements is correct?
  1. A.Country B has a comparative advantage in producing watches.
  2. B.Country A has an absolute advantage in producing toys only.
  3. C.The mutually beneficial terms of trade could be 1 unit of watches = 2.5 units of toys.
  4. D.Both countries will gain if Country A exports toys in exchange for watches.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Calculate the opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of watches:
In Country A: \(1\text{ watch} = 8/4 = 2\text{ toys}\).
In Country B: \(1\text{ watch} = 6/2 = 3\text{ toys}\).
Country A has a lower opportunity cost in producing watches, so Country A has a comparative advantage in watches and should export watches. Country B has a comparative advantage in toys and should export toys. For mutually beneficial trade, the terms of trade for 1 watch must lie between the opportunity costs of both countries: \(2\text{ toys} < 1\text{ watch} < 3\text{ toys}\). Since 2.5 toys falls within this range, 1 unit of watches = 2.5 units of toys is mutually beneficial.

Marking scheme

C (1 mark)
Award 1 mark for the correct option. No partial marks.

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Paper 2 Section A (Short Questions)

Answer all questions in this section.
9 Question · 50 marks
Question 1 · Short Questions
5.5 marks
GreenTech Logistics is a partnership founded by two engineers in Hong Kong providing automated warehouse solutions.

(a) To finance a regional expansion, the partners consider changing the business organisation into a private limited company. State ONE advantage and ONE disadvantage of this change from the perspective of the owners. (2 marks)

(b) The market for automated logistics equipment in Hong Kong is dominated by four large multinational suppliers.
(i) Identify the market structure of this industry. (1 mark)
(ii) State TWO distinct features of this market structure. (2 marks)
(iii) Suggest ONE barrier to entry that prevents new firms from entering this market. (0.5 mark)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Advantage: The owners will enjoy limited liability (their personal assets are protected up to the amount of their capital contribution / shares in the company).
Disadvantage: The firm is subject to stricter statutory disclosure regulations (or higher setup and compliance costs, or the transfer of shares is subject to restrictions requiring consent from other shareholders).

(b) (i) Oligopoly.
(ii) Features (any two):
1. A few dominant sellers with high market concentration.
2. Mutual interdependence in pricing and output decisions (firms must consider competitors' reactions).
3. Non-price competition (e.g., branding, after-sales service) is prevalent.
4. High barriers to entry.
(iii) High initial capital requirement / economies of scale / patented technology / established brand loyalty.

Marking scheme

(a) Advantage: 1 mark for limited liability / legal entity.
Disadvantage: 1 mark for transfer of shares restrictions / higher compliance cost / less privacy.
[Max: 2 marks]

(b) (i) Oligopoly: 1 mark.
(ii) Any two valid features: 1 mark each (max 2 marks).
(iii) Any one valid barrier to entry: 0.5 mark.
Question 2 · Short Questions
5.5 marks
Commercial tree planting projects absorb atmospheric carbon dioxide and improve air quality for surrounding communities.

(a) In terms of externality, explain why the market equilibrium output of commercial forestry projects without government intervention may result in economic inefficiency. (3.5 marks)

(b) Suggest ONE government policy that can eliminate this inefficiency and explain briefly how it works. (2 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Commercial tree planting generates positive external benefits / positive externalities to third parties (e.g. improving air quality and absorbing carbon dioxide without receiving monetary compensation).
Therefore, the marginal social benefit (MSB) is greater than the marginal private benefit (MPB), i.e., \( \text{MSB} > \text{MPB} \).
In a free market, profit-maximising forestry firms produce at the output level where marginal private benefit equals marginal private cost (\( \text{MPB} = \text{MPC} \)).
Since \( \text{MSB} > \text{MSC} \) at this market equilibrium output, the market output is lower than the socially optimal output level (where \( \text{MSB} = \text{MSC} \)), resulting in under-production and a deadweight loss (economic inefficiency).

(b) The government can provide a per-unit subsidy to commercial forestry firms equal to the marginal external benefit.
This reduces the marginal private cost of production (or shifts the private supply curve downward/rightward), incentivising firms to increase output to the socially optimal level where \( \text{MSB} = \text{MSC} \).

Marking scheme

(a) Positive externality / external benefits explained: 1 mark.
\( \text{MSB} > \text{MPB} \) identified: 1 mark.
Free market produces where \( \text{MPB} = \text{MPC} \): 0.5 mark.
\( \text{MSB} > \text{MSC} \) at market output / under-production leads to deadweight loss: 1 mark.
[Subtotal: 3.5 marks]

(b) Government policy suggested (per-unit subsidy / direct provision): 1 mark.
Explanation of how it lowers private cost / expands output to socially efficient level: 1 mark.
[Subtotal: 2 marks]
Question 3 · Short Questions
5.5 marks
Suppose the government imposes an effective price ceiling on private rental housing to assist low-income households.

(a) Explain what is meant by an 'effective price ceiling'. (1.5 marks)

(b) Explain how the effective price ceiling affects:
(i) the quantity of rental housing transacted; (1 mark)
(ii) consumer surplus and producer surplus in the market. (3 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) An effective price ceiling is a legally established maximum price set below the market equilibrium price, prohibiting landlords from charging a price above it.

(b) (i) At the price ceiling, quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied, creating a shortage. The actual quantity transacted is determined by the quantity supplied, which decreases relative to the equilibrium quantity.

(ii)
- Producer surplus: Decreases unambiguously because landlords receive a lower rental price and supply a smaller quantity of housing.
- Consumer surplus: May increase or decrease (is indeterminate). On one hand, tenants who secure housing pay a lower rent (gain in surplus); on the other hand, fewer units are transacted and non-price allocation costs (e.g. queuing or search costs) may arise, reducing surplus.

Marking scheme

(a) Definition: legally set maximum price (1 mark) + below equilibrium price (0.5 mark).

(b) (i) Quantity transacted decreases / determined by quantity supplied: 1 mark.
(ii) Producer surplus decreases (with explanation): 1 mark.
Consumer surplus change is indeterminate / may increase or decrease (1 mark) + explanation of lower price vs reduced quantity / non-price competition (1 mark).
[Max for (b)(ii): 3 marks]
Question 4 · Short Questions
5.5 marks
The following table shows the macroeconomic data of Economy A for the years 2022 and 2023:

$$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|}
\hline
\textbf{Year} & \textbf{Nominal GDP (\$ billion)} & \textbf{GDP Deflator (2020 = 100)} \\
\hline
2022 & 1\,260 & 105 \\
\hline
2023 & 1\,344 & 112 \\
\hline
\end{array}$$

(a) Calculate the real GDP of Economy A in 2022 and 2023 respectively. (2 marks)

(b) Did real output increase, decrease, or remain unchanged from 2022 to 2023? (0.5 mark)

(c) 'An increase in real GDP necessarily implies an improvement in the general standard of living.' Give THREE economic reasons why this statement may NOT hold. (3 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)
$$\text{Real GDP}_{2022} = \frac{\text{Nominal GDP}}{\text{GDP Deflator}} \times 100 = \frac{1\,260}{105} \times 100 = \$1\,200\text{ billion}$$
$$\text{Real GDP}_{2023} = \frac{1\,344}{112} \times 100 = \$1\,200\text{ billion}$$

(b) Real output remained unchanged ($1\,200 billion in both years).

(c) Reasons why an increase in real GDP may not improve the standard of living (any three):
1. Population growth: If population grows faster than real GDP, per capita real GDP falls.
2. Income inequality: The increase in output may be concentrated among a small group of high-income earners while the majority see no gain.
3. Negative externalities / environmental quality: Increased production may generate pollution, congestion, and environmental degradation that harm welfare.
4. Working hours and leisure: Higher output might result from longer working hours and reduced leisure time.
5. Composition of output: Output growth may be driven by military spending or capital goods rather than consumer goods and services that directly satisfy household needs.

Marking scheme

(a) Correct calculation of real GDP for 2022: 1 mark.
Correct calculation of real GDP for 2023: 1 mark.

(b) Real output remained unchanged: 0.5 mark.

(c) Any three valid reasons: 1 mark each.
[Max: 3 marks]
Question 5 · Short Questions
5.5 marks
In an ancient economy without money, a carpenter wants to exchange wooden chairs for fish from a fisherman, but the fisherman only wants wool blankets.

(a) State the main difficulty of barter trade illustrated in this scenario. (1 mark)

(b) Explain how the introduction of a generally accepted medium of exchange overcomes this difficulty. (2 marks)

(c) State TWO essential characteristics/properties of an asset that make it suitable to serve as money. (2 marks)

(d) Which function of money is directly affected during periods of hyperinflation? (0.5 mark)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) The absence / lack of a double coincidence of wants.

(b) Money acts as a medium of exchange, separating the single act of barter into two separate transactions: sale and purchase.
The carpenter can sell wooden chairs for money and then use that money to purchase fish from the fisherman (who can likewise spend it on blankets), thereby eliminating the requirement that both parties must simultaneously desire each other's goods.

(c) Characteristics (any two):
1. High divisibility without loss of value.
2. High portability / high value-to-weight ratio.
3. Homogeneity / uniformity.
4. Durability / resistance to wear and tear.
5. Scarcity / limited supply.
6. Recognisability / difficult to counterfeit.

(d) Store of value.

Marking scheme

(a) Lack/absence of double coincidence of wants: 1 mark.
(b) Explanation of separating sale and purchase / facilitating trade: 2 marks.
(c) Any two correct characteristics: 1 mark each (max 2 marks).
(d) Store of value: 0.5 mark.
Question 6 · Short Questions
5.5 marks
The following table shows the balance sheet of the banking system in an economy:

$$\begin{array}{|lr|lr|}
\hline
\multicolumn{2}{|c|}{\textbf{Assets (\$ million)}} & \multicolumn{2}{c|}{\textbf{Liabilities (\$ million)}} \\
\hline
\text{Reserves} & 500 & \text{Deposits} & 2\,000 \\
\text{Loans} & 1\,500 & & \\
\hline
\end{array}$$

Suppose the public holds a fixed amount of cash, banks hold no excess reserves, and the legal required reserve ratio is 20\%.

(a) Calculate the excess reserves held by the banking system initially. (1 mark)

(b) Suppose a customer withdraws $100 million of cash from the banking system.
(i) Calculate the reserve shortage immediately after the withdrawal. (1.5 marks)
(ii) Calculate the maximum change in deposits after the process of deposit contraction is complete. Show your workings. (3 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)
$$\text{Required Reserves} = \$2\,000\text{ million} \times 20\% = \$400\text{ million}$$
$$\text{Excess Reserves} = \text{Actual Reserves} - \text{Required Reserves} = \$500\text{ million} - \$400\text{ million} = \$100\text{ million}$$

(b) (i) Immediately after withdrawal of $100 million:
$$\text{New Reserves} = \$500\text{ million} - \$100\text{ million} = \$400\text{ million}$$
$$\text{New Deposits} = \$2\,000\text{ million} - \$100\text{ million} = \$1\,900\text{ million}$$
$$\text{New Required Reserves} = \$1\,900\text{ million} \times 20\% = \$380\text{ million}$$
Since actual reserves ($400M) exceed required reserves ($380M), there is NO reserve shortage; instead, there is an excess reserve of $20 million (i.e. reserve shortage = $0).

(ii) With the new total reserves of $400 million and no excess reserves kept:
$$\text{Maximum Deposits} = \frac{\text{Total Reserves}}{r_R} = \frac{\$400\text{ million}}{0.20} = \$2\,000\text{ million}$$
$$\text{Maximum Change in Deposits} = \$2\,000\text{ million} - \$2\,000\text{ million} = \$0$$
(Or: Deposits immediately fall by $100 million to $1,900 million, but the remaining $20 million excess reserves allow banks to create $\frac{20}{0.20} = $100\text{ million}$ new deposits, restoring total deposits to $2,000 million. Maximum change in deposits = $0.)

Marking scheme

(a) Correct calculation of excess reserves = $100 million: 1 mark.
(b) (i) Correct calculation showing actual reserves ($400M) vs required reserves ($380M), concluding reserve shortage is $0 (or excess reserve = $20M): 1.5 marks.
(ii) Calculation formula / working shown: 1.5 marks.
Correct final answer (change in deposits = $0 / no change): 1.5 marks.
[Subtotal: 3 marks]
Question 7 · Short Questions
5.5 marks
Suppose an economy initially operates at full employment output. A severe decline in global trade sharply reduces the demand for its exports.

(a) Explain how aggregate output and the price level will be affected in the short run. (2.5 marks)

(b) Explain how the self-correcting market mechanism can restore the economy to its full-employment output level in the long run without government intervention. (3 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) A decrease in export demand leads to a drop in net exports (\( \text{NX} \)), which is a component of aggregate demand (\( \text{AD} = C + I + G + \text{NX} \)).
The aggregate demand curve shifts to the left from \( \text{AD}_0 \) to \( \text{AD}_1 \).
In the short run, with a given upward-sloping short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve, both the price level and aggregate output decrease (creating a recessionary / deflationary output gap).

(b)
1. Because output is below the full-employment level, an excess supply of factor inputs (e.g. widespread unemployment) emerges in the factor market.
2. Wages and other input prices face downward pressure and adjust downwards over time.
3. The reduction in production costs causes the short-run aggregate supply curve to shift to the right (\( \text{SRAS} \) increases).
4. Output expands until it returns to the long-run full-employment output level \( Y_f \) at a lower equilibrium price level.

Marking scheme

(a) Drop in \( \text{NX} \) causes \( \text{AD} \) to shift left: 1 mark.
Short-run effect: price level falls (0.5 mark), aggregate output falls (0.5 mark), deflationary gap created (0.5 mark).
[Subtotal: 2.5 marks]

(b) Excess supply / unemployment in factor market: 1 mark.
Wages / factor costs adjust downward: 1 mark.
\( \text{SRAS} \) shifts rightward, restoring output to full-employment level \( Y_f \): 1 mark.
[Subtotal: 3 marks]
Question 8 · Short Questions
5.5 marks
The table below shows the maximum amount of Smartphones and Solar Panels that Country A and Country B can produce using one unit of resources:

$$\begin{array}{|l|c|c|c|}
\hline
& \textbf{Smartphones (units)} & & \textbf{Solar Panels (units)} \\
\hline
\textbf{Country A} & 60 & \text{OR} & 30 \\
\hline
\textbf{Country B} & 40 & \text{OR} & 40 \\
\hline
\end{array}$$

(a) Determine which country has the comparative advantage in producing Smartphones. Explain your answer with calculations. (2.5 marks)

(b) State the range of mutually beneficial terms of trade for 1 unit of Solar Panels. (1 mark)

(c) Suppose the agreed terms of trade are 1 unit of Solar Panels = 1.5 units of Smartphones. If Country B exports 20 units of Solar Panels, calculate Country B's total gain from trade in terms of Smartphones. (2 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Opportunity costs:
- Country A: To produce 1 unit of Smartphones, opportunity cost is \( \frac{30}{60} = 0.5 \text{ units of Solar Panels} \).
- Country B: To produce 1 unit of Smartphones, opportunity cost is \( \frac{40}{40} = 1.0 \text{ unit of Solar Panels} \).
Since Country A has a lower opportunity cost in producing Smartphones (\( 0.5 < 1.0 \)), Country A has the comparative advantage in producing Smartphones.

(b) Opportunity costs of producing 1 unit of Solar Panels:
- Country A: \( \frac{60}{30} = 2 \text{ units of Smartphones} \).
- Country B: \( \frac{40}{40} = 1 \text{ unit of Smartphones} \).
The mutually beneficial terms of trade are:
$$1\text{ unit of Solar Panels} = x\text{ units of Smartphones, where } 1 < x < 2$$

(c) Country B specializes in and exports Solar Panels.
Domestic cost for Country B to produce 1 unit of Solar Panels = 1 unit of Smartphones.
Under the terms of trade, Country B receives 1.5 units of Smartphones per unit of Solar Panels exported.
Gain per unit of Solar Panels exported = \( 1.5 - 1.0 = 0.5 \text{ units of Smartphones} \).
Total gain for exporting 20 units of Solar Panels:
$$\text{Total Gain} = 20 \times 0.5 = 10\text{ units of Smartphones}$$

Marking scheme

(a) Correct calculation of opportunity costs for both countries: 1.5 marks.
Correct conclusion that Country A has comparative advantage in Smartphones: 1 mark.
[Subtotal: 2.5 marks]

(b) Correct terms of trade range (1 unit of Solar Panels between 1 and 2 units of Smartphones): 1 mark.

(c) Gain per unit of export (0.5 units of Smartphones): 1 mark.
Total gain for 20 units (10 units of Smartphones): 1 mark.
[Subtotal: 2 marks]
Question 9 · Short Questions
6 marks
The table below shows the balance sheet of a banking system in an economy:

$$\begin{array}{|lr|lr|}
\hline
\textbf{Assets} & (\$\text{ million}) & \textbf{Liabilities} & (\$\text{ million}) \\
\hline
\text{Reserves} & 400 & \text{Deposits} & 1\,600 \\
\text{Loans} & 1\,200 & & \\
\hline
\end{array}$$

Suppose the legal required reserve ratio is $20\%$, and the public holds a fixed amount of cash.

(a) Calculate the excess reserves of the banking system initially. (1 mark)

(b) Suppose the central bank sells $$150$ million of government bonds to the public, and the public pays by drawing cheques on their bank accounts.

(i) Calculate the reserve shortage of the banking system immediately after the cheques are cleared. (2 marks)

(ii) Assuming banks do not hold excess reserves and the public holds no additional cash, calculate the maximum possible change in the money supply of the economy. Show your workings. (3 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Initial required reserves $= $1\,600\text{ million} \times 20\% = $320\text{ million}$
Initial excess reserves $= $400\text{ million} - $320\text{ million} = $80\text{ million}$

(b) (i) Immediately after the cheques are cleared:
- Total deposits $= $1\,600\text{ million} - $150\text{ million} = $1\,450\text{ million}$
- Total reserves $= $400\text{ million} - $150\text{ million} = $250\text{ million}$

Required reserves $= $1\,450\text{ million} \times 20\% = $290\text{ million}$
Reserve shortage $= $290\text{ million} - $250\text{ million} = $40\text{ million}$

(ii) Maximum final deposits after balance sheet adjustment:
$\text{Final deposits} = \frac{\text{Total reserves}}{\text{Required reserve ratio}} = \frac{$250\text{ million}}{0.20} = $1\,250\text{ million}$

Maximum change in deposits $= $1\,250\text{ million} - $1\,600\text{ million} = -$350\text{ million}$

Since the public holds a fixed amount of cash, the change in money supply equals the change in deposits:
Maximum change in money supply $= -$350\text{ million}$ (i.e. decreases by $$350\text{ million}$).

Marking scheme

(a) Excess reserves $= $400 - ($1\,600 \times 20\%) = $80$ million (1 mark)

(b) (i)
- Required reserves after withdrawal $= $1\,450 \times 20\% = $290$ million (1 mark)
- Reserve shortage $= $290 - $250 = $40$ million (1 mark)

(ii)
- Maximum new deposits $= $250 / 0.20 = $1\,250$ million (1 mark)
- Change in deposits $= $1\,250 - $1\,600 = -$350$ million (1 mark)
- Maximum change in money supply is a decrease of $$350$ million (1 mark)

Paper 2 Section B (Structured & Essay)

Answer all questions in this section.
4 Question · 70 marks
Question 1 · Structured
17 marks
The table below shows the maximum output of solar panels and smart meters that Country A and Country B can produce using one unit of resources respectively:




Solar panels (units)
Smart meters (units)


Country A
80
40


Country B
60
60



(a) Explain which country has an absolute advantage in producing smart meters. (2 marks)

(b) State the principle of comparative advantage. Determine the direction of mutually beneficial trade between Country A and Country B. (4 marks)

(c) Suppose the agreed terms of trade are \(1\text{ unit of solar panels} = 0.75\text{ units of smart meters}\). If the exporting country exports 120 units of solar panels, calculate the total gain from trade for that country. (3 marks)

(d) Country B decides to impose a tariff on imported solar panels.
(i) With the aid of a supply-demand diagram for Country B, illustrate and explain the effect of the tariff on the domestic price, domestic production, and import volume of solar panels. (5 marks)
(ii) Under what condition would the total tariff revenue collected by Country B's government be zero after imposing the tariff? (3 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Country B has an absolute advantage in producing smart meters because with one unit of resources, Country B can produce 60 units of smart meters, which is greater than the 40 units produced by Country A.

(b) The principle of comparative advantage states that a country should specialize in producing the good in which it has a lower opportunity cost.
Opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of solar panels:
- In Country A: \(40 / 80 = 0.5\) units of smart meters.
- In Country B: \(60 / 60 = 1\) unit of smart meters.
Since Country A has a lower opportunity cost in producing solar panels (\(0.5 < 1\)), Country A has a comparative advantage in producing solar panels and will export solar panels to Country B. Country B has a comparative advantage in producing smart meters and will export smart meters to Country A.

(c) Country A exports solar panels.
Gain per unit of solar panels exported \(= \text{Terms of trade} - \text{Opportunity cost} = 0.75 - 0.5 = 0.25\) units of smart meters.
Total gain from exporting 120 units of solar panels \(= 120 \times 0.25 = 30\) units of smart meters.

(d) (i)
- Imposing a tariff shifts the world supply curve (with tariff) upwards by the tariff amount.
- The domestic price of solar panels in Country B rises from \(P_w\) to \(P_w + t\).
- Domestic quantity supplied (production) increases from \(Q_1\) to \(Q_2\).
- Domestic quantity demanded decreases from \(Q_4\) to \(Q_3\).
- The volume of imports decreases from \((Q_4 - Q_1)\) to \((Q_3 - Q_2)\).

(ii) Tariff revenue is zero if the tariff is prohibitive (i.e. the tariff rate is set high enough such that the domestic price equals or exceeds the domestic autarky equilibrium price), resulting in zero imports.

Marking scheme

(a)
- Country B (1 mark)
- Producing more output (60 > 40) with the same amount of resources (1 mark)

(b)
- Statement of the principle of comparative advantage (1 mark)
- Opportunity cost calculation for both countries (1 mark)
- Country A exports solar panels (1 mark)
- Country B exports smart meters (1 mark)

(c)
- Gain per unit \(= 0.25\) units of smart meters (1 mark)
- Formula / step showing \(120 \times 0.25\) (1 mark)
- Final gain \(= 30\) units of smart meters (1 mark)

(d) (i)
Diagram (3 marks):
- Correct upward shift of world price/supply line (1 mark)
- Increase in domestic price and increase in domestic quantity supplied indicated (1 mark)
- Decrease in domestic quantity demanded and decrease in import volume indicated (1 mark)
Verbal explanation (2 marks):
- Domestic price rises and domestic production increases (1 mark)
- Import volume falls (1 mark)

(ii)
- The tariff is prohibitive / imports fall to zero (2 marks)
- When domestic price reaches or exceeds the domestic equilibrium price without trade (1 mark)
Question 2 · Structured
17 marks
GreenElectric Ltd. is the exclusive provider of residential electric vehicle (EV) charging stations in City K.

(a) Name the type of market structure GreenElectric Ltd. operates in. State TWO barriers to entry that can help protect its market position. (3 marks)

(b) Suppose the government provides a fixed per-unit subsidy to GreenElectric Ltd. for every charging station installed.
(i) With the aid of a supply-demand diagram, explain how the subsidy affects the market price, output, and total expenditure of consumers on charging stations. (6 marks)
(ii) Explain the condition regarding the price elasticity of demand under which the proportion of subsidy benefit received by consumers is greater than that received by the producer. (2 marks)

(c) The installation of EV charging stations reduces tailpipe emissions from traditional fuel vehicles, improving the city's overall air quality.
(i) Explain why the unregulated market output of charging stations is economically inefficient in terms of externalities. (4 marks)
(ii) Explain how the government's subsidy in (b) helps improve economic efficiency. (2 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Market structure: Monopoly.
Two barriers to entry:
1. Legal barriers / Government franchise or exclusive operating licence.
2. Huge initial capital outlay / Natural monopoly / Economies of scale.

(b) (i)
- The per-unit subsidy lowers the marginal cost of production, shifting the supply curve downward/rightward from \(S_1\) to \(S_2\) by the subsidy per unit.
- Market equilibrium price falls from \(P_1\) to \(P_2\).
- Equilibrium quantity transacted increases from \(Q_1\) to \(Q_2\).
- Consumer expenditure is \(P \times Q\). Since price decreases and quantity increases, the change in total expenditure depends on the price elasticity of demand (it increases if demand is elastic, decreases if inelastic, or remains unchanged if unitary elastic).

(ii)
Consumers receive a larger share of the per-unit subsidy when the price elasticity of demand is smaller (more inelastic) than the price elasticity of supply (\(|E_d| < E_s\)).

(c) (i)
- A positive externality (external benefit) is present because charging stations improve air quality, benefiting third parties without them paying for it.
- Marginal social benefit (MSB) exceeds marginal private benefit (MPB), while marginal social cost (MSC) equals marginal private cost (MPC).
- At the free market equilibrium where \(MPB = MPC\), \(MSB > MSC\).
- The market produces less than the socially efficient output level (underproduction), leading to a deadweight loss.

(ii)
- The subsidy reduces the private marginal cost of installation, increasing output towards the socially optimal output level where \(MSB = MSC\).
- Thus, the underproduction problem is mitigated, reducing deadweight loss and enhancing economic efficiency.

Marking scheme

(a)
- Monopoly (1 mark)
- Any TWO valid barriers to entry (e.g. government franchise, high capital requirement, legal patent, economies of scale) (2 marks, 1 mark each)

(b) (i)
Diagram (3 marks):
- Correct supply curve shift downward/rightward by the vertical distance of the per-unit subsidy (1 mark)
- New lower equilibrium price indicated (1 mark)
- New higher equilibrium quantity indicated (1 mark)
Verbal explanation (3 marks):
- Supply curve shifts down/right by the unit subsidy (1 mark)
- Price falls and quantity increases (1 mark)
- Total expenditure change depends on the price elasticity of demand (1 mark)

(ii)
- Price elasticity of demand is smaller than price elasticity of supply / demand is relatively less elastic than supply (2 marks)

(c) (i)
- Positive externality exists / third parties enjoy cleaner air without paying (1 mark)
- Marginal social benefit > marginal private benefit (\(MSB > MPB\)) (1 mark)
- Market equilibrium output is where \(MPB = MPC\), which is lower than the socially efficient level where \(MSB = MSC\) (underproduction) (1 mark)
- Presence of deadweight loss (1 mark)

(ii)
- The subsidy lowers private costs, expanding output towards the socially optimal output where \(MSB = MSC\) (1 mark)
- Deadweight loss is reduced, improving allocative efficiency (1 mark)
Question 3 · Structured
18 marks
Suppose Country H initially operates at long-run equilibrium with real aggregate output at the full-employment level \(Y_f\).

(a) Due to a sudden surge in global energy prices, the cost of imported raw materials for domestic manufacturers increases significantly.
(i) With the aid of an AD-AS diagram, explain how this event affects the price level, real output, and the type of output gap created in Country H in the short run. (6 marks)
(ii) Explain how the unemployment rate in Country H will be affected in the short run. (2 marks)

(b) Suppose the government of Country H takes NO discretionary policy actions.
(i) With the aid of the same or a new AD-AS diagram, explain how the self-correcting market mechanism restores the economy to long-run equilibrium. (5 marks)
(ii) State ONE limitation of relying on the self-correcting mechanism to resolve the output gap. (1 mark)

(c) Instead of relying on the self-correcting mechanism, the central bank of Country H decides to conduct an open market operation to stabilize real output back to \(Y_f\) in the short run.
(i) Identify the open market operation the central bank should conduct. (1 mark)
(ii) Explain how this monetary measure shifts the aggregate demand curve and affects the price level in the short run. (3 marks)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i)
- The increase in global energy prices raises production costs for domestic firms, shifting the short-run aggregate supply curve leftward/upward from \(SRAS_0\) to \(SRAS_1\).
- In the short run, the aggregate price level increases from \(P_0\) to \(P_1\) (stagflation).
- Real aggregate output decreases from \(Y_f\) to \(Y_1\).
- Since the actual output \(Y_1\) is below the potential/full-employment output \(Y_f\), a deflationary (recessionary) output gap is created.

(ii)
- Since real output falls, firms reduce their demand for labour, resulting in cyclical unemployment.
- The unemployment rate will increase in the short run.

(b) (i)
- In the presence of a deflationary gap (recession), there is excess supply / unemployment in factor markets.
- Over time, nominal wages and other input prices adjust downward due to market competition among workers/suppliers.
- Lower production costs shift the short-run aggregate supply curve rightward from \(SRAS_1\) back to \(SRAS_0\).
- The economy returns to the long-run equilibrium at the potential output level \(Y_f\), while the price level falls back to \(P_0\).

(ii)
- Downward wage/price rigidity (sticky wages) makes the adjustment process very slow and painful.

(c) (i)
- The central bank should buy government bonds (securities) in the open market.

(ii)
- Buying bonds increases the monetary base and money supply, putting downward pressure on nominal interest rates.
- Lower interest rates reduce the cost of borrowing, boosting consumption and investment expenditures.
- This shifts the aggregate demand (AD) curve to the right, raising output back towards \(Y_f\) but further increasing the price level.

Marking scheme

(a) (i)
Diagram (3 marks):
- Leftward shift of the SRAS curve (1 mark)
- Increase in price level shown (1 mark)
- Decrease in real output below \(Y_f\) shown (1 mark)
Verbal explanation (3 marks):
- Higher production costs shift SRAS leftward (1 mark)
- Real output falls and price level rises (1 mark)
- Deflationary (recessionary) gap created (1 mark)

(ii)
- Falling output reduces derived demand for labour (1 mark)
- Unemployment rate rises (1 mark)

(b) (i)
Diagram (2 marks):
- Rightward shift of SRAS curve towards \(Y_f\) (1 mark)
- Restoration of long-run equilibrium at \(Y_f\) (1 mark)
Verbal explanation (3 marks):
- Factor surplus/unemployment creates downward pressure on wages/input costs (1 mark)
- Cost reduction shifts SRAS rightward (1 mark)
- Real output returns to full-employment output \(Y_f\) (1 mark)

(ii)
- Wages/prices may be downwardly rigid, making the adjustment slow / prolonging the recession (1 mark)

(c) (i)
- Purchasing government bonds (securities) in the open market (1 mark)

(ii)
- Money supply increases, lowering interest rates (1 mark)
- Consumption and investment increase, shifting AD rightward (1 mark)
- Price level rises further in the short run (1 mark)
Question 4 · Data-Response
18 marks
Study the following sources and answer the questions that follow.

Source A: Extract from a government economic report


Year
Government Revenue ($ billion)
Government Expenditure ($ billion)


2022-23
620
810


2023-24
550
730



Source B: Exchange rate information


Date
Exchange Rate


January 2023
1 USD = 7.80 HKD ; 1 USD = 6.70 RMB


January 2024
1 USD = 7.82 HKD ; 1 USD = 7.20 RMB



Source C: Views on proposed economic revival policies
- Proposal I: The government provides cash consumption vouchers of $5,000 to all permanent residents to stimulate local retail and dining spending.
- Proposal II: The government increases expenditure on high-tech infrastructure and provides research tax concessions to attract innovative international technology enterprises.

(a) With reference to Source A, calculate the fiscal balance in 2023-24. State whether the government experienced a fiscal surplus or fiscal deficit. (2 marks)

(b) With reference to Source B, under the Linked Exchange Rate System of Hong Kong:
(i) Explain the change in the exchange rate of HKD against RMB between January 2023 and January 2024. (2 marks)
(ii) Explain how this change in exchange rate affects the spending behaviour of Hong Kong residents travelling to the Mainland. (2 marks)

(c) For part (c), candidates are required to present their answers in an essay form. Criteria for marking will include the use of economic concepts, logical structure, and clarity of expression. (12 marks)

With reference to the sources and your own economic knowledge, evaluate the effectiveness of Proposal I and Proposal II in achieving short-term economic recovery and long-term economic growth for Hong Kong, and discuss potential limitations or risks associated with each proposal.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Fiscal balance for 2023-24 \(= \text{Government Revenue} - \text{Government Expenditure} = 550 - 730 = -180\) billion dollars.
The government experienced a fiscal deficit of $180 billion.

(b) (i) In Jan 2023, \(1\text{ HKD} = 6.70 / 7.80 \approx 0.859\text{ RMB}\). In Jan 2024, \(1\text{ HKD} = 7.20 / 7.82 \approx 0.921\text{ RMB}\). Since 1 HKD can be exchanged for more RMB, the HKD has appreciated against the RMB (or RMB depreciated against HKD).
(ii) Because the HKD appreciated against RMB, prices of Mainland goods and services became relatively cheaper in terms of HKD. This incentivizes Hong Kong residents to travel to the Mainland for consumption.

(c) Essay response outline:
1. Short-term and Long-term effects of Proposal I (Consumption Vouchers):
- Mechanism: Directly stimulates private consumption expenditure (C), leading to a rightward shift of the aggregate demand (AD) curve in the short run. This increases real output and employment, accelerating short-term economic recovery.
- Limitations: Vouchers provide only a temporary boost; consumers may substitute voucher spending for regular planned spending (leakage/displacement effect). Moreover, as seen in Source B, currency appreciation encourages cross-border consumption, causing spending to leak out of the local economy. It also worsens the government's fiscal deficit (Source A).

2. Short-term and Long-term effects of Proposal II (High-tech Infrastructure & Tax Concessions):
- Mechanism: In the short run, infrastructure expenditure increases government expenditure (G) and investment (I), shifting AD rightward. In the long run, improved infrastructure and tech development enhance total factor productivity, improve capital stock, and expand the economy's productive capacity, shifting both SRAS and LRAS rightward, fostering sustainable long-term economic growth.
- Limitations: Time lag in project planning and execution; high fiscal outlay in the short term exacerbates the fiscal deficit (Source A); uncertain return on technological investments; depends on global business sentiment and interest rate environments.

3. Conclusion & synthesis: Proposal I is suitable for rapid short-term stimulus but lacks lasting effects and risks leakage, whereas Proposal II promotes long-term potential growth but involves time lags and fiscal burdens.

Marking scheme

(a)
- Correct calculation: -$180 billion / deficit of $180 billion (1 mark)
- Stating fiscal deficit (1 mark)

(b) (i)
- Showing appreciation of HKD against RMB (2 marks)

(ii)
- Mainland goods become relatively cheaper in HKD terms, increasing local residents' cross-border spending in Mainland (2 marks)

(c) Essay marking criteria (Total 12 marks: 10 marks content + 2 marks effective communication):

Content (max 10 marks):
- Proposal I (Consumption vouchers) (max 5 marks):
* Explains mechanism of boosting AD via private consumption in the short run (2 marks)
* Analyzes limitations: temporary effect, displacement effect, cross-border leakage due to exchange rate (Source B), worsens fiscal deficit (Source A) (3 marks)
- Proposal II (High-tech infrastructure & tax concessions) (max 5 marks):
* Explains mechanism: raises I & G in the short run (AD shift) and increases productive capacity / LRAS in the long run (3 marks)
* Analyzes limitations: implementation time lag, high fiscal cost/burden (Source A), uncertainty of innovation projects (2 marks)

Effective Communication (EC: max 2 marks):
- 2 marks: Well-structured, coherent logical flow, proper application of economic terms and source integration.
- 1 mark: Comprehensible but loosely organized with some minor inaccuracies.
- 0 marks: Poorly organized, irrelevant content, or severe conceptual flaws.

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