An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the May 2024 SL (TZ2) IB Diploma Programme Biology paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from IB.
Paper 1 (Standard Level MCQ)
Answer all 30 multiple-choice questions on the answer sheet provided.
30 Question · 30 marks
Question 1 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Why is a double circulatory system advantageous in mammals?
A.It allows oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to mix, reducing the oxygen load on tissues.
B.It permits blood to be pumped at different pressures to the lungs and to the rest of the body.
C.It ensures that blood flows more slowly through the systemic circulation to allow better gas exchange.
D.It reduces the total volume of blood required to transport respiratory gases.
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Worked solution
Double circulation consists of two separate circuits: pulmonary and systemic. The pulmonary circuit operates at a lower pressure to protect the delicate capillaries of the lungs and prevent pulmonary edema, whereas the systemic circuit operates at a much higher pressure to distribute blood efficiently to all organs and tissues of the body.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for selecting B. Option A is incorrect because double circulation prevents mixing. Option C is incorrect as blood does not flow slower in systemic compared to pulmonary. Option D is incorrect as it does not reduce blood volume.
Question 2 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During vigorous exercise, the body coordinates the cardiovascular and ventilation systems to meet increased metabolic demands. Which physiological changes occur in response to an increase in blood carbon dioxide levels?
A.Decreased ventilation rate and decreased heart rate
B.Decreased ventilation rate and increased stroke volume
C.Increased ventilation rate and increased heart rate
D.Increased ventilation rate and decreased stroke volume
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Worked solution
An increase in cellular respiration during exercise leads to higher blood carbon dioxide concentration, which lowers blood pH. Chemoreceptors detect this change and stimulate the respiratory center in the medulla oblongata to increase the ventilation rate. Concurrently, the cardiovascular center stimulates the sinoatrial node via the sympathetic nervous system to increase heart rate, ensuring faster transport of oxygen to tissues and removal of carbon dioxide.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for selecting C. Both ventilation rate and heart rate increase to meet metabolic demands and restore homeostatic blood gas levels.
Question 3 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A student investigated the population size of a land snail (Helix aspersa) in a school garden. First sample: 40 snails were captured, marked on their shells, and released. Second sample: One week later, 50 snails were captured, of which 10 were found to be marked. What is the estimated population size of the snails using the Lincoln Index?
A.80
B.90
C.200
D.400
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Worked solution
The Lincoln Index is calculated using the formula: \(N = \frac{n_1 \times n_2}{m_2}\) where: \(n_1\) = number of individuals marked in the first sample (40), \(n_2\) = total number of individuals captured in the second sample (50), and \(m_2\) = number of marked individuals recaptured in the second sample (10). Therefore: \(N = \frac{40 \times 50}{10} = 200\).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct calculation yielding 200 (C).
Question 4 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An investigator used a light microscope to observe cells in a root tip meristem. Out of 600 total cells counted in the field of view, 480 cells were in interphase, 60 cells were in prophase, 30 cells were in metaphase, 20 cells were in anaphase, and 10 cells were in telophase. What is the mitotic index of this tissue?
A.0.10
B.0.20
C.0.80
D.1.20
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Worked solution
The mitotic index is calculated as: \(\text{Mitotic Index} = \frac{\text{Number of cells in mitosis}}{\text{Total number of cells}}\). Cells in mitosis include prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase: \(60 + 30 + 20 + 10 = 120\) cells. Total cells = 600. Therefore, \(\text{Mitotic Index} = \frac{120}{600} = 0.20\).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct mitotic index calculation of 0.20 (B).
Question 5 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A transmission electron micrograph of a plant cell shows a chloroplast with an image length of 60 mm. If the actual length of the chloroplast is 5 \(\mu\)m, what is the magnification of the micrograph?
A.\(\times 12\)
B.\(\times 120\)
C.\(\times 1,200\)
D.\(\times 12,000\)
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Worked solution
Magnification is calculated as: \(\text{Magnification} = \frac{\text{Image size}}{\text{Actual size}}\). Convert the image size from millimeters to micrometers to align the units: \(60\text{ mm} = 60,000\ \mu\text{m}\). Using the formula: \(\text{Magnification} = \frac{60,000\ \mu\text{m}}{5\ \mu\text{m}} = 12,000\). Therefore, the magnification is \(\times 12,000\).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for correct unit conversion and calculation of magnification (D).
Question 6 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events during natural selection?
A.Environmental change occurs \(\rightarrow\) Mutation occurs to adapt \(\rightarrow\) Selected individuals survive \(\rightarrow\) Change in allele frequencies
B.Genetic variation exists \(\rightarrow\) Environmental change occurs \(\rightarrow\) Differential survival and reproduction of favored phenotypes \(\rightarrow\) Change in allele frequencies
C.Differential survival \(\rightarrow\) Genetic variation occurs \(\rightarrow\) Selection pressure is applied \(\rightarrow\) Adaptation of individuals
D.Environmental change occurs \(\rightarrow\) Acquired traits develop \(\rightarrow\) Survival of the fittest \(\rightarrow\) Inheritance of acquired traits
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Worked solution
Natural selection acts on pre-existing genetic variation within a population. When an environmental change or selection pressure is applied, individuals possessing advantageous traits (phenotypes) are more likely to survive and reproduce. They pass these beneficial alleles to their offspring, leading to an increase in the frequency of these alleles in the gene pool over generations.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for B. A is incorrect because mutations are random and do not occur in response to an environmental need. C is out of logical order. D describes Lamarckian inheritance of acquired characteristics, which is incorrect.
Question 7 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During DNA replication, which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the double helix, and in which direction does DNA polymerase synthesize the new daughter strand?
A.Unwinding enzyme: DNA polymerase; Direction of synthesis: 3' to 5'
B.Unwinding enzyme: Helicase; Direction of synthesis: 5' to 3'
C.Unwinding enzyme: Helicase; Direction of synthesis: 3' to 5'
D.Unwinding enzyme: DNA polymerase; Direction of synthesis: 5' to 3'
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Worked solution
Helicase is the enzyme that unwinds the double helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs. DNA polymerase can only synthesize the new strand in the 5' to 3' direction because it can only add new nucleotides to the free 3'-OH group of the preceding nucleotide.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct combination of Helicase and 5' to 3' synthesis (B).
Question 8 · multiple-choice
1 marks
What is the state of sodium and potassium voltage-gated channels during the repolarization phase of an action potential?
A.Sodium channels are open, potassium channels are closed
B.Sodium channels are closed, potassium channels are open
C.Both sodium and potassium channels are open
D.Both sodium and potassium channels are closed
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Worked solution
During the repolarization phase of an action potential, voltage-gated sodium channels close (and become temporarily inactivated), preventing further influx of sodium ions. At the same time, voltage-gated potassium channels open, allowing potassium ions to diffuse out of the neuron down their concentration gradient, which makes the inside of the cell negative again.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct identification of channel states during repolarization (B).
Question 9 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During a stressful flight-or-fight situation, the human body coordinates nervous and endocrine systems to rapidly increase heart rate. Which pathway correctly outlines this integrated response?
A.The medulla oblongata sends inhibitory signals via parasympathetic nerves, while the adrenal glands secrete adrenaline.
B.The medulla oblongata sends excitatory signals via sympathetic nerves, while the adrenal glands secrete adrenaline.
C.The hypothalamus sends excitatory signals via parasympathetic nerves, while the thyroid gland secretes thyroxin.
D.The cerebrum sends excitatory signals via somatic nerves, while the pancreas secretes glucagon.
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Worked solution
During a stress response, the cardiovascular center in the medulla oblongata transmits excitatory signals along the sympathetic nerves to the sinoatrial (SA) node of the heart, stimulating it to increase heart rate. Simultaneously, the endocrine system is activated, causing the adrenal glands to secrete epinephrine (adrenaline) into the bloodstream, which also acts directly on the SA node to accelerate heart rate.
Marking scheme
Award [1] for the correct answer (B). All other options represent incorrect combinations of nervous pathways, endocrine glands, or physiological responses.
Question 10 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During intense physical exercise, the rate of cellular respiration increases, producing more carbon dioxide. Which sequence of events describes the homeostatic feedback mechanism that regulates blood pH and ventilation rate?
A.Increase in blood pH \(\rightarrow\) detected by chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata \(\rightarrow\) signals sent to diaphragm and intercostal muscles to contract faster.
B.Decrease in blood pH \(\rightarrow\) detected by chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata \(\rightarrow\) signals sent to diaphragm and intercostal muscles to contract faster.
C.Decrease in blood pH \(\rightarrow\) detected by baroreceptors in carotid arteries \(\rightarrow\) signals sent to bronchioles to dilate.
D.Increase in blood pH \(\rightarrow\) detected by thermoreceptors in the hypothalamus \(\rightarrow\) signals sent to abdominal muscles to contract.
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Worked solution
As cellular respiration increases, more carbon dioxide is produced and dissolves in the blood plasma to form carbonic acid, which dissociates and lowers the blood pH. This change is detected by chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata, carotid arteries, and aorta. In response, nerve impulses are sent to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles to increase the rate and depth of ventilation, thereby expelling carbon dioxide and returning blood pH to normal.
Marking scheme
Award [1] for the correct answer (B). Award [0] for options involving an increase in pH (which would occur with hyperventilation/decreased CO2) or incorrect receptor types/muscles.
Question 11 · multiple-choice
1 marks
After consuming a carbohydrate-rich meal, how do the blood flow direction and glucose concentration in the hepatic portal vein compare to those in the hepatic vein?
A.The hepatic portal vein flows from the liver to the heart, with a lower glucose concentration than the hepatic vein.
B.The hepatic portal vein flows from the small intestine to the liver, with a higher glucose concentration than the hepatic vein.
C.The hepatic portal vein flows from the liver to the small intestine, with a higher glucose concentration than the hepatic vein.
D.The hepatic portal vein flows from the pancreas to the liver, with a lower glucose concentration than the hepatic vein.
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Worked solution
The hepatic portal vein carries blood directly from the capillaries of the small intestine villi to the liver. After a meal rich in carbohydrates, glucose is actively absorbed into this portal system, leading to a very high glucose concentration. In the liver, excess glucose is converted to glycogen under the influence of insulin. Consequently, the hepatic vein, which carries blood away from the liver toward the heart, has a lower and more regulated glucose concentration.
Marking scheme
Award [1] for the correct answer (B). All other options represent incorrect flow directions or incorrect relative concentrations of glucose post-meal.
Question 12 · multiple-choice
1 marks
In a stable forest ecosystem, the net primary productivity of the autotrophs is determined to be \(12,000 \text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\). Assuming that the ecological efficiency of energy transfer between successive trophic levels is exactly 10%, what is the estimated energy available to the tertiary consumers in this ecosystem?
A.\(1,200 \text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\)
B.\(120 \text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\)
C.\(12 \text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\)
D.\(1.2 \text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\)
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Worked solution
To find the energy available to the tertiary consumers, we must track the energy transfer through the trophic levels starting from the primary producers: 1. Producers (Trophic Level 1): \(12,000 \text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\) 2. Primary Consumers (Trophic Level 2): \(12,000 \times 0.10 = 1,200 \text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\) 3. Secondary Consumers (Trophic Level 3): \(1,200 \times 0.10 = 120 \text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\) 4. Tertiary Consumers (Trophic Level 4): \(120 \times 0.10 = 12 \text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\).
Marking scheme
Award [1] for the correct calculation and choice (C).
Question 13 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A diploid eukaryotic somatic cell has 12 chromosomes and \(20\text{ pg}\) of DNA in the \(G_1\) phase of the cell cycle. What will be the chromosome number and DNA mass in this cell during Metaphase of mitosis?
A.12 chromosomes and \(20\text{ pg}\) of DNA
B.24 chromosomes and \(40\text{ pg}\) of DNA
C.12 chromosomes and \(40\text{ pg}\) of DNA
D.24 chromosomes and \(20\text{ pg}\) of DNA
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Worked solution
During the S phase of the cell cycle, DNA replication occurs, which doubles the mass of DNA from \(20\text{ pg}\) to \(40\text{ pg}\). However, the replicated sister chromatids remain joined at their centromeres, meaning they are still counted as individual chromosomes. Thus, the chromosome number remains 12 during metaphase. The chromosomes do not double in count until the sister chromatids separate during anaphase.
Marking scheme
Award [1] for the correct selection of chromosome number and DNA mass (C). Incorrect options mistakenly double chromosome count before anaphase or fail to double the DNA content post-replication.
Question 14 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An analysis of an unknown organism reveals the presence of 70S ribosomes, a single naked loop of DNA, and a cell wall composed of peptidoglycan. Which type of cell is being observed?
A.A eukaryotic plant cell
B.A prokaryotic bacterial cell
C.A eukaryotic fungal cell
D.An animal cell
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Worked solution
Prokaryotic bacterial cells are characterized by having 70S ribosomes, naked circular DNA (no histone proteins), and a cell wall made of peptidoglycan (murein). Eukaryotic plant cells have 80S ribosomes in the cytoplasm, linear DNA wrapped around histones, and cellulose cell walls. Fungal cell walls are composed of chitin, and animal cells lack cell walls entirely.
Marking scheme
Award [1] for the correct identification of a prokaryotic bacterial cell (B).
Question 15 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which sequence of events correctly outlines the development of antibiotic resistance in a bacterial population according to the theory of natural selection?
A.Exposure to antibiotic \(\rightarrow\) bacteria mutate to survive \(\rightarrow\) mutated bacteria reproduce \(\rightarrow\) resistance allele frequency increases.
B.Random mutation produces resistance allele \(\rightarrow\) exposure to antibiotic \(\rightarrow\) non-resistant bacteria die and resistant bacteria survive \(\rightarrow\) resistance allele frequency increases.
C.Exposure to antibiotic \(\rightarrow\) bacteria acquire resistance from host cells \(\rightarrow\) immune system fails \(\rightarrow\) resistance allele frequency increases.
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Worked solution
Natural selection requires pre-existing genetic variation in the population, which arises from random mutations before exposure to the selective agent. When the population is exposed to an antibiotic (the selective pressure), non-resistant individuals are killed, whereas those with the pre-existing resistance mutation survive and reproduce, leading to an increase in the frequency of the resistance allele over generations.
Marking scheme
Award [1] for the correct evolutionary order (B). Option A incorrectly implies Lamarckian-style directed mutation (mutating in response to the antibiotic).
Question 16 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During DNA replication, which statement correctly describes the action of DNA polymerase in synthesizing the new strand?
A.DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 5' end of the growing strand, synthesizing the new strand in the 3' to 5' direction.
B.DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, synthesizing the new strand in the 5' to 3' direction.
C.Helicase adds nucleotides to the 3' end of the template strand, synthesizing the new strand in the 3' to 5' direction.
D.DNA ligase adds nucleotides to the 5' end of the template strand, synthesizing the new strand in the 5' to 3' direction.
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Worked solution
DNA polymerase can only add free nucleotides to the 3' hydroxyl (-OH) group of the growing strand. This means that synthesis of the newly forming DNA strand always occurs in a 5' to 3' direction. Helicase and ligase have different functions (unwinding DNA and joining Okazaki fragments respectively) and do not assemble free nucleotides in this manner.
Marking scheme
Award [1] for the correct direction of synthesis and function of DNA polymerase (B).
Question 17 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During intense physical exercise, the body coordinates several systems to meet the increased demand for oxygen in skeletal muscles. Which of the following correctly describes the integrated response of the nervous and cardiovascular systems to a drop in blood pH?
A.Chemoreceptors detect the lower pH and send impulses to the cerebrum, which decreases parasympathetic stimulation to the sinoatrial (SA) node.
B.Chemoreceptors in the medulla detect the lower pH and send impulses to the cardiovascular centre, which increases sympathetic stimulation to the sinoatrial (SA) node.
C.Baroreceptors detect the lower pH and stimulate the adrenal glands to release epinephrine directly into the SA node.
D.Thermoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect the lower pH and trigger the somatic nervous system to increase the heart rate.
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Worked solution
Chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata, aorta, and carotid arteries detect the drop in pH caused by increased \(CO_2\) levels during exercise. They send nerve impulses to the cardiovascular centre in the medulla oblongata, which responds by increasing sympathetic nerve stimulation to the sinoatrial (SA) node, thereby increasing heart rate.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying that chemoreceptors detect pH changes and transmit signals to the cardiovascular centre to increase sympathetic stimulation to the SA node.
Question 18 · multiple-choice
1 marks
When a person is dehydrated, the hypothalamus detects an increase in blood solute concentration. What integrated response occurs to restore water balance?
A.The anterior pituitary gland releases ADH, which decreases the permeability of the proximal convoluted tubule to water.
B.The posterior pituitary gland releases ADH, which increases the permeability of the collecting duct to water.
C.The adrenal gland releases aldosterone, which decreases the active transport of sodium ions in the loop of Henle.
D.The glomerulus increases its filtration rate to flush out excess solutes from the bloodstream.
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Worked solution
Dehydration leads to high blood osmolarity, detected by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus. This stimulates the posterior pituitary gland to release Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). ADH acts on the collecting ducts of the kidneys, increasing their permeability to water (via insertion of aquaporins), allowing more water reabsorption into the blood.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying that the posterior pituitary releases ADH, which increases the permeability of the collecting duct to water.
Question 19 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An ecologist monitors a population of herbivorous insects in a temperate forest. She observes that the insect population size is primarily limited by the abundance of their host plants rather than by the presence of predatory wasps. Which type of population regulation is demonstrated by this scenario?
A.Top-down control, because predators do not significantly influence the population.
B.Bottom-up control, because the population is limited by a resource at a lower trophic level.
C.Density-independent regulation, because the host plant abundance is unaffected by weather.
D.Competitive exclusion, because the wasps and insects compete for the same host plant.
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Worked solution
Bottom-up control occurs when the population of a species is limited by the availability of resources (such as food or space) from lower trophic levels. Since the insects are limited by their host plants (primary producers) rather than predators (wasps), this is an example of bottom-up regulation.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for the correct identification and explanation of bottom-up control.
Question 20 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Cyclins are regulatory proteins that control the progression of cells through the cell cycle. Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism by which cyclins regulate this process?
A.Cyclins bind to and activate cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs), which then phosphorylate target proteins to trigger specific cell cycle events.
B.Cyclins act as enzymes that directly degrade the nuclear membrane during prophase.
C.Cyclins bind directly to DNA to initiate transcription of the genes required for DNA replication.
D.Cyclins accumulate inside the mitochondria to stimulate ATP synthesis required for spindle fibre contraction.
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Worked solution
Cyclins regulate the cell cycle by binding to enzymes called cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). Once activated, these kinases phosphorylate specific target proteins that carry out tasks specific to that phase of the cell cycle.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for stating that cyclins bind to and activate CDKs, which phosphorylate target proteins.
Question 21 · multiple-choice
1 marks
What is a major advantage of compartmentalization in eukaryotic cells compared to prokaryotic cells?
A.It allows for the simultaneous replication of circular DNA in different regions of the cytoplasm.
B.It enables the cell to maintain a high surface area to volume ratio as the overall cell size increases.
C.It allows enzymes and substrates for specific metabolic processes to be concentrated in particular areas.
D.It prevents any movement of substances between different organelles, ensuring complete isolation of chemical reactions.
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Worked solution
Compartmentalization in eukaryotes (via membrane-bound organelles) allows specific microenvironments to be created. This concentrates enzymes and substrates for particular reactions (e.g., inside lysosome or mitochondrion), improving metabolic efficiency.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying that compartmentalization concentrates enzymes and substrates for specific metabolic pathways.
Question 22 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The development of antibiotic resistance in a population of bacteria is a classic example of natural selection. Which of the following statements correctly explains how this occurs?
A.Exposure to low doses of antibiotics induces specific mutations in individual bacteria to make them resistant.
B.Antibiotics act as selective agents, killing susceptible bacteria and allowing pre-existing resistant variants to survive and reproduce.
C.Resistant bacteria share their resistance genes with susceptible bacteria by transforming them into a new species.
D.Bacteria learn to tolerate the antibiotic over time and pass this acquired behavioral trait to their offspring.
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Worked solution
Natural selection requires pre-existing genetic variation (e.g., through mutation). When an antibiotic is introduced, it acts as a selective pressure. The susceptible bacteria die, while those carrying the pre-existing resistance mutation survive and reproduce, passing the resistance gene to their offspring.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying that antibiotics act as selective agents, selecting for pre-existing resistant individuals.
Question 23 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During DNA replication, synthesis of the lagging strand occurs discontinuously. What is the correct role of DNA polymerase I in this process?
A.It unwinds the double helix at the replication fork by breaking hydrogen bonds.
B.It synthesizes short RNA primers to provide a 3'-OH group for DNA polymerase III.
C.It removes the RNA primers and replaces them with DNA nucleotides.
D.It covalently joins the sugar-phosphate backbones of adjacent Okazaki fragments.
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Worked solution
DNA polymerase I is responsible for removing the RNA primers from the lagging (and leading) strands and replacing them with DNA nucleotides. Helicase unwinds the helix, primase synthesizes RNA primers, and ligase joins the Okazaki fragments.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying that DNA polymerase I removes RNA primers and replaces them with DNA.
Question 24 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During intense exercise, the rate of cellular respiration in skeletal muscle tissue increases dramatically. Which of the following integrated physiological responses correctly describes how the respiratory and nervous systems respond to maintain homeostasis?
A.Decreased blood \(CO_2\) levels are detected by baroreceptors, which stimulate the somatic nervous system to decrease the contraction rate of the diaphragm.
B.Increased blood \(CO_2\) levels lower blood pH, which is detected by the respiratory centre in the medulla oblongata to increase the rate and depth of ventilation.
C.Increased blood oxygen levels stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system to constrict the bronchioles.
D.Decreased lactic acid levels stimulate the spinal cord to inhibit the external intercostal muscles.
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Worked solution
Cellular respiration increases the production of carbon dioxide, which dissolves in the blood to form carbonic acid, lowering blood pH. This change is detected by chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata (respiratory centre) and the major arteries. In response, the medulla oblongata sends more frequent nerve impulses via the phrenic and intercostal nerves to the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles, increasing the rate and depth of ventilation to expel \(CO_2\).
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for identifying that increased blood \(CO_2\) lowers blood pH, which is detected by the respiratory centre in the medulla oblongata, leading to an increase in ventilation rate and depth.
Question 25 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During vigorous exercise, a runner's blood pH decreases due to increased cellular respiration. Which row correctly identifies the receptor type, the control center, and the motor pathway involved in coordinating the homeostatic increase in heart rate?
A.Receptor: Chemoreceptors; Control Center: Medulla oblongata; Pathway: Sympathetic nerve
B.Receptor: Baroreceptors; Control Center: Cerebellum; Pathway: Parasympathetic nerve
C.Receptor: Chemoreceptors; Control Center: Medulla oblongata; Pathway: Somatic motor nerve
D.Receptor: Baroreceptors; Control Center: Cerebrum; Pathway: Sympathetic nerve
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Worked solution
During exercise, increased metabolic activity produces more carbon dioxide ( \(CO_2\)), which reacts with water to form carbonic acid, thereby decreasing blood pH. Chemoreceptors located in the medulla, carotid arteries, and aorta detect this drop in pH. They send sensory impulses to the cardiovascular control center in the medulla oblongata of the brain. The medulla oblongata then increases the frequency of impulses sent down the sympathetic nerve (accelerator nerve) to the sinoatrial (SA) node, increasing the heart rate to speed up the clearance of carbon dioxide and delivery of oxygen.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] Award for selecting the correct option (A). - Reject other options because baroreceptors detect pressure changes, not chemical/pH changes (ruling out B and D). - The cerebellum does not act as the primary control center for heart rate regulation, and somatic motor nerves control voluntary skeletal muscle, not cardiac muscle (ruling out B and C).
Question 26 · multiple-choice
1 marks
In the small intestine, different nutrients are absorbed through the villus epithelium and transported via distinct circulatory routes. Which of the following correctly describes the absorption pathway for triglycerides and amino acids?
A.Triglycerides: absorbed into lacteals and transported via the lymphatic system; Amino acids: absorbed into capillaries and transported via the hepatic portal vein.
B.Triglycerides: absorbed into capillaries and transported via the hepatic portal vein; Amino acids: absorbed into lacteals and transported via the lymphatic system.
C.Triglycerides: absorbed into lacteals and transported via the hepatic portal vein; Amino acids: absorbed into capillaries and transported via the lymphatic system.
D.Triglycerides: absorbed into capillaries and transported via the lymphatic system; Amino acids: absorbed into lacteals and transported via the hepatic portal vein.
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Worked solution
Amino acids are hydrophilic molecules and are absorbed into the capillary network of the villus, from where they travel via the hepatic portal vein directly to the liver. Triglycerides are broken down into fatty acids and monoglycerides for absorption, reassembled into triglycerides (and packaged as chylomicrons) inside the epithelial cells, and then absorbed into the lacteals. The lacteals are part of the lymphatic system, which eventually empties into the systemic venous circulation.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] Award for selecting the correct option (A). - Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they misidentify the pathways: amino acids go to blood capillaries (and then the hepatic portal vein), whereas lipids go to the lacteals (and then the lymphatic system).
Question 27 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A population of yeast is grown in a closed batch culture with a fixed concentration of glucose. Which statement correctly explains the transition from the exponential phase to the transitional and plateau phases of population growth?
A.Natality rates increase while mortality rates decrease because resource availability peaks.
B.The carrying capacity of the culture increases because the yeast cells adapt to higher ethanol concentrations.
C.Accumulation of toxic waste products and depletion of nutrients increase the mortality rate relative to the natality rate.
D.Intra-specific competition decreases, allowing a rapid increase in the immigration rate of yeast cells.
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Worked solution
In a closed system with a finite amount of resources, the growth of a population eventually slows down due to limiting factors. As the yeast population increases, nutrients such as glucose are depleted and toxic waste products (like ethanol) accumulate in the medium. This leads to an increase in the mortality rate and a decrease in the natality rate, causing the growth curve to transition from exponential growth to a plateau (stationary phase).
Marking scheme
[1 mark] Award for selecting the correct option (C). - Option A is incorrect because natality decreases and mortality increases as resources deplete. - Option B is incorrect because carrying capacity does not increase; rather, environmental resistance increases. - Option D is incorrect because intra-specific competition increases, and in a closed yeast culture, there is no immigration.
Question 28 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A eukaryotic cell with a diploid number of \(2n = 8\) undergoes mitosis. What is the total number of chromosomes and the total number of DNA molecules present in the cell during Prophase, and in one of the daughter cells immediately after Cytokinesis is complete?
A.Prophase: 8 chromosomes, 16 DNA molecules; Daughter cell: 8 chromosomes, 8 DNA molecules
B.Prophase: 16 chromosomes, 16 DNA molecules; Daughter cell: 8 chromosomes, 8 DNA molecules
C.Prophase: 8 chromosomes, 8 DNA molecules; Daughter cell: 4 chromosomes, 4 DNA molecules
D.Prophase: 16 chromosomes, 32 DNA molecules; Daughter cell: 8 chromosomes, 16 DNA molecules
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Worked solution
During Prophase, DNA has already been replicated during the S phase of interphase. There are 8 chromosomes, but each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids joined at the centromere, meaning there are 16 DNA molecules in total. Following mitosis and cytokinesis, the sister chromatids have separated into individual chromosomes and are distributed into two daughter cells. Each daughter cell receives 8 chromosomes, each consisting of a single DNA molecule (double helix), so there are 8 chromosomes and 8 DNA molecules in one daughter cell.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] Award for selecting the correct option (A). - B is incorrect because during prophase, the individual sister chromatids are still joined at the centromere and counted as a single chromosome (8 chromosomes, not 16). - C is incorrect because it implies DNA has not replicated or has halved inappropriately. - D is incorrect because it overestimates both chromosomes and DNA molecules.
Question 29 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An investigator wants to observe the detailed internal ultrastructure of the cristae in a mitochondrion, and also wishes to observe the movement of a living bacterium. Which types of microscopy are most appropriate for these two observations?
A.Mitochondrial cristae: Transmission electron microscope (TEM); Living bacterium: Light microscope
B.Mitochondrial cristae: Scanning electron microscope (SEM); Living bacterium: Transmission electron microscope (TEM)
C.Mitochondrial cristae: Light microscope; Living bacterium: Scanning electron microscope (SEM)
D.Mitochondrial cristae: Light microscope; Living bacterium: Light microscope
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Worked solution
To resolve the internal ultrastructure of a mitochondrion (such as cristae), transmission electron microscopy (TEM) is required because of its high resolution (down to \(0.1\text{ nm}\)), which is much higher than the limit of resolution of a light microscope (around \(200\text{ nm}\)). However, because specimen preparation for electron microscopy requires a vacuum and kills the specimen, observing living organisms (like a moving bacterium) can only be done using light microscopy.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] Award for selecting the correct option (A). - Reject B because SEM is used for 3D surface topography, not internal ultrastructure, and TEM cannot be used on living specimens. - Reject C and D because the light microscope lacks the resolution to clearly show the detailed internal membrane cristae of a mitochondrion.
Question 30 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which row correctly pairs the replication enzyme with its specific function during DNA replication?
A.Helicase: Breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary bases to separate the strands; DNA polymerase: Synthesizes a new DNA strand by catalyzing the formation of covalent phosphodiester bonds.
B.Helicase: Catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds between nucleotides; DNA polymerase: Unwinds the helix by breaking covalent bonds.
C.Helicase: Breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary bases; DNA polymerase: Synthesizes a complementary RNA primer to initiate replication.
D.Helicase: Formulates hydrogen bonds between complementary bases; DNA polymerase: Seals nicks in the sugar-phosphate backbone by joining Okazaki fragments.
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Worked solution
Helicase functions by unwinding the double helix and breaking the hydrogen bonds holding complementary base pairs together. DNA polymerase synthesizes a new complementary DNA strand by bringing in free nucleotides and catalyzing the formation of covalent phosphodiester bonds between the 3' carbon of the pentose sugar and the phosphate group of the incoming nucleotide.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] Award for selecting the correct option (A). - B is incorrect because Helicase breaks hydrogen bonds (not covalent bonds), and DNA polymerase forms phosphodiester (covalent) bonds (not peptide bonds). - C is incorrect because primase (not DNA polymerase) synthesizes the RNA primer. - D is incorrect because DNA ligase (not DNA polymerase) seals nicks in the sugar-phosphate backbone by joining Okazaki fragments.
Paper 2 Section A (Structured short answers)
Answer all questions in Section A.
4 Question · 34 marks
Question 1 · structured
8.5 marks
An investigation was conducted to study the effect of moderate and intense cycling exercise on cardiac output (\(\text{dm}^3\,\text{min}^{-1}\)) and blood lactate concentration (\(\text{mmol}\,\text{dm}^{-3}\)) in trained athletes. The average data recorded were:
(a) Calculate the percentage increase in cardiac output from rest to intense exercise. [1.5] (b) Explain the physiological mechanism that causes the increase in cardiac output during exercise. [3] (c) Discuss the relationship between blood lactate accumulation and cell respiration during intense exercise. [4]
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(b) The heart increases its output to meet the oxygen and nutrient demands of working muscles. Cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume. Increased carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions in the blood are detected by chemoreceptors. This triggers a sympathetic response from the medulla oblongata, releasing noradrenaline to increase heart rate. Adrenaline (epinephrine) released from the adrenal glands further boosts heart rate and cardiac muscle contractility.
(c) Anaerobic cell respiration yields only 2 ATP per glucose molecule compared to the ~36 ATP of aerobic respiration, but does so at a much faster rate. Pyruvate is converted to lactate to regenerate \(\text{NAD}^+\). If lactate production exceeds the rate of liver clearance (Cori cycle), it accumulates in the blood, serving as a marker for anaerobic threshold crossing.
Marking scheme
Part (a) [1.5 marks]: - Correct calculation of 384% [1] - Show appropriate working (e.g., \((24.2 - 5.0) / 5.0\)) [0.5]
Part (b) [3 marks max]: - Cardiac output increases due to increase in stroke volume and/or heart rate [1] - Exercise increases carbon dioxide / decreases blood pH [1] - Detected by chemoreceptors (in aorta/carotid/medulla) [1] - Signals sent to the cardiovascular control center in the medulla [1] - Sympathetic nerve impulses / epinephrine (adrenaline) stimulate the sinoatrial (SA) node [1]
Part (c) [4 marks max]: - Intense exercise leads to an oxygen deficit / oxygen demand exceeds supply [1] - Aerobic respiration cannot supply enough ATP [1] - Muscle cells switch to anaerobic respiration / glycolysis [1] - Pyruvate is converted to lactate [1] - This reaction regenerates \(\text{NAD}^+\) [1] - Allows glycolysis to continue producing ATP [1] - Lactate diffuses out of muscles into the blood, causing accumulation [1]
Question 2 · structured
8.5 marks
An ecological study investigated competition between two species of flour beetles, *Tribolium castaneum* and *Tribolium confusum*, under different environmental conditions. When cultured together:
- Under warm-wet conditions (\(34^\circ\text{C}\), 70% RH), *T. castaneum* completely outcompeted and eliminated *T. confusum* in 100% of the trials. - Under cool-dry conditions (\(24^\circ\text{C}\), 30% RH), *T. confusum* outcompeted and eliminated *T. castaneum* in 90% of the trials.
(a) State the ecological principle demonstrated when one species completely eliminates another from a shared environment. [1] (b) Distinguish between the fundamental niche and the realized niche of *T. castaneum* based on these findings. [3] (c) Predict and explain the outcome if both species were introduced into an environment that fluctuates regularly between warm-wet and cool-dry conditions. [3.5] (d) Suggest one abiotic factor, other than temperature and humidity, that could influence the population growth of these beetles. [1]
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Worked solution
(a) The competitive exclusion principle (or Gause's principle) states that two species competing for the exact same resources cannot stably coexist if other ecological factors remain constant.
(b) Fundamental niche refers to the potential niche space a species can occupy without interspecific competition. Since *T. castaneum* can live in both conditions, both are within its fundamental niche. Realized niche is the actual niche occupied under competitive pressure. In this case, *T. castaneum*'s realized niche does not include cool-dry conditions due to exclusion by *T. confusum*.
(c) Environmental fluctuations prevent competitive exclusion from running to completion. In warm-wet cycles, *T. castaneum* increases, while in cool-dry cycles, *T. confusum* increases. This temporal variation leads to a stable or dynamic coexistence.
(d) Acceptable answers include light intensity, space/volume of the habitat, pH of the medium, or presence of physical barriers.
Marking scheme
Part (a) [1 mark]: - Competitive exclusion principle / Gause's law [1]
Part (b) [3 marks max]: - Fundamental niche is the theoretical range of conditions a species can occupy without competition [1] - Realized niche is the actual range occupied in the presence of competition [1] - Both environments are part of *T. castaneum*'s fundamental niche [1] - Its realized niche is restricted to warm-wet environments when in competition with *T. confusum* [1]
Part (c) [3.5 marks max]: - Prediction: Coexistence / both species persist [1] - Explanation: Competitive advantage shifts back and forth as conditions change [1] - Neither species has the advantage long enough to cause the extinction of the other [1] - Temporal niche partitioning occurs [0.5]
Part (d) [1 mark]: - Food availability / quality of medium / space / light levels / gas concentration (O2/CO2 levels) [1] (Do not accept temperature or humidity)
Question 3 · structured
8.5 marks
The regulation of the eukaryotic cell cycle is mediated by proteins called cyclins. The concentration of four major cyclins (D, E, A, and B) fluctuates throughout a standard 24-hour cell cycle:
- Cyclin D increases gradually from the beginning of G1 and remains elevated. - Cyclin E peaks sharply at the G1/S transition (around hour 10). - Cyclin A peaks during the G2 phase (around hour 18). - Cyclin B peaks during mitosis (around hour 22) and falls rapidly at the end of metaphase.
(a) Identify the cyclin that reaches its peak concentration immediately before the start of DNA replication. [1] (b) Using the information provided, estimate the duration of the interphase part of this cell cycle and outline your reasoning. [2.5] (c) Explain how cyclins regulate the progression of the cell cycle, referencing the role of cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). [3] (d) Describe what would happen to the cell cycle if a mutation rendered the gene for Cyclin B non-functional. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) DNA replication occurs during the S phase. Cyclin E peaks at the G1/S boundary, preparing the replication machinery.
(b) Cell cycle duration is 24 hours. Mitosis (M phase) is indicated by the peak of Cyclin B and its rapid degradation, occurring from hour 22 to 24 (2 hours). Interphase is the rest of the cycle: \(24 - 2 = 22\) hours (acceptable range: 21 to 23 hours based on reasonable estimation of mitosis duration).
(c) Cyclins are regulatory subunits. CDKs are catalytic subunits that require cyclin binding to become active. Phosphorylation targets include transcription factors (e.g., to initiate S-phase genes) or structural proteins (e.g., to break down the nuclear envelope in mitosis).
(d) Cyclin B forms the Mitosis Promoting Factor (MPF) with CDK1. Without it, chromosome condensation, nuclear envelope breakdown, and spindle assembly cannot occur, causing G2/M arrest.
Marking scheme
Part (a) [1 mark]: - Cyclin E [1]
Part (b) [2.5 marks]: - Estimate: 22 hours (allow 21 to 23 hours) [0.5] - Reasoning: Mitosis (M phase) is represented by Cyclin B's peak and fall, which takes place in the final hours (approx. hours 22–24) [1] - Interphase is the entire cell cycle minus mitosis (G1 + S + G2) [1]
Part (c) [3 marks max]: - Cyclins bind to cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) [1] - This binding activates the CDKs [1] - Active CDKs phosphorylate target proteins [1] - Phosphorylation activates/deactivates proteins that control cell cycle progress [1] - Different cyclins peak at different times, ensuring sequential phase progression [1]
Part (d) [2 marks]: - The cell cannot progress from G2 to mitosis / cannot enter M phase [1] - Cell division is arrested / cell cycle stops at the G2/M checkpoint [1]
Question 4 · structured
8.5 marks
An experiment was performed to measure the rate of DNA replication in eukaryotic cells in the presence of aphidicolin, a known inhibitor of DNA polymerase. Cells were incubated with radioactive thymidine, and replication was measured in counts per minute (CPM). The following data were collected:
(a) Identify the independent and dependent variables in this experiment. [1] (b) Calculate the percentage inhibition of DNA synthesis caused by \(5\,\mu\text{M}\) aphidicolin compared to the control. [2] (c) Describe the distinct roles of helicase and DNA polymerase during the process of DNA replication. [3.5] (d) Suggest why prokaryotic DNA replication can occur much more rapidly than eukaryotic DNA replication, despite prokaryotes having simpler replication machinery. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) The independent variable is manipulated (aphidicolin concentration), and the dependent variable is measured (rate of replication via CPM).
(c) Helicase requires ATP to break the relatively weak hydrogen bonds between bases. DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to a pre-existing 3'-OH end (requiring an RNA primer synthesized by primase) and works in opposite directions on the leading and lagging strands.
(d) Eukaryotes must unpack dense chromatin (nucleosomes) before replication can proceed. The absolute genome size of prokaryotes is also much smaller, enabling rapid duplication from a single origin of replication (oriC).
Marking scheme
Part (a) [1 mark]: - Independent: aphidicolin concentration AND Dependent: rate of DNA replication / thymidine uptake / CPM [1] (Both correct for 1 mark, 0.5 if only one is correct)
Part (b) [2 marks]: - Correct working shown (e.g., \((15000 - 4500)/15000\)) [1] - Correct final percentage: 70% [1]
Part (c) [3.5 marks max]: - Helicase unwinds / unzips DNA double helix [1] - Helicase breaks hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases [1] - DNA polymerase adds complementary free nucleotides to the template strand [1] - DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA in a 5' to 3' direction / forms phosphodiester bonds [1] - DNA polymerase requires an RNA primer to initiate replication [0.5]
Part (d) [2 marks max]: - Prokaryotic DNA is circular and not bound to histones / no nucleosomes to unwind [1] - Prokaryotic genomes are much smaller than eukaryotic genomes [1] - Lack of a nuclear envelope allows transcription, translation, and replication processes to occur in close proximity / simpler regulation [1]
Paper 2 Section B (Extended response choice)
Answer one question out of two options. Quality of communication will be assessed.
1 Question · 16 marks
Question 1 · extended response
16 marks
During physical exertion, multiple physiological systems must coordinate to maintain homeostasis and support increased metabolic demands.
(a) Outline the role of the autonomic nervous system in controlling heart rate during the transition from rest to exercise. [4]
(b) Explain how the respiratory system responds to increased blood carbon dioxide levels produced during exercise. [5]
(c) Discuss how the cardiovascular and muscular systems coordinate to optimize oxygen delivery and utilization in active skeletal muscle tissue. [7]
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Worked solution
### Part (a) Autonomic Nervous System and Heart Rate * The cardiovascular control center is located in the medulla oblongata of the brain. * At the start of exercise, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, while parasympathetic activity decreases. * Sympathetic nerves (the cardiac nerve) release the neurotransmitter noradrenaline (norepinephrine) at the sinoatrial (SA) node. * Noradrenaline binds to beta-receptors on the SA node, increasing the frequency of electrical impulses (pacemaker activity) and thereby raising the heart rate. * Conversely, during rest, the parasympathetic nervous system (via the vagus nerve) releases acetylcholine to slow down the SA node; the withdrawal of this vagal tone contributes to the initial rise in heart rate during exercise.
### Part (b) Respiratory System Response to Carbon Dioxide * Respiring muscle tissue produces carbon dioxide ( \(\text{CO}_2\)), which diffuses into the blood plasma. * In the blood, \(\text{CO}_2\) reacts with water to form carbonic acid (\(\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3\)), catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase, which dissociates into hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) and hydrogen carbonate ions (\(\text{HCO}_3^-\)), lowering the pH of the blood. * Central chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata and peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies detect the increase in partial pressure of \(\text{CO}_2\) (\(p\text{CO}_2\)) and decrease in pH. * These chemoreceptors send sensory nerve impulses to the respiratory control center in the medulla oblongata. * The medulla oblongata sends increased frequency of motor impulses via the phrenic nerve (to the diaphragm) and intercostal nerves (to the external intercostal muscles). * This stimulates an increase in both the rate and depth of ventilation (breathing), accelerating the excretion of \(\text{CO}_2\) across the alveoli and returning blood pH back to homeostatic limits (negative feedback).
### Part (c) Cardiovascular and Muscular System Coordination * **Cardiovascular Adjustments:** 1. Cardiac output is significantly increased by raising both heart rate and stroke volume. 2. Vasodilation occurs in the arterioles supplying active skeletal muscles, mediated by local metabolic factors (e.g., high \(\text{CO}_2\), low pH, lactic acid, and adenosine). 3. Vasoconstriction occurs in arterioles supplying non-essential organs (such as the digestive tract and kidneys), redirecting blood flow toward active muscle beds. 4. Precapillary sphincters in skeletal muscle capillaries relax, increasing capillary perfusion and maximizing surface area for gas exchange. * **Muscular System Adaptations and Coordination:** 5. Rhythmic contraction of skeletal muscles compresses nearby veins, acting as a "skeletal muscle pump" that enhances venous return of blood to the heart. 6. The local environment of working muscles (elevated temperature, high \(p\text{CO}_2\), and lower pH) causes a rightward shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve (the Bohr effect), reducing hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen and promoting its release to active tissues. 7. Active muscle fibers contain myoglobin, which has a higher affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin, facilitating rapid extraction and storage of oxygen within the muscle sarcoplasm. 8. Mitochondria within muscle fibers consume oxygen rapidly during aerobic respiration (electron transport chain), maintaining a steep concentration gradient that drives the continuous diffusion of oxygen from blood plasma into muscle cells.
Marking scheme
### Part (a) [Max 4 marks] * **MP1:** Cardiorespiratory control center is located in the medulla oblongata. * **MP2:** Exercise triggers activation of the sympathetic nervous system (and withdrawal of parasympathetic activity). * **MP3:** Sympathetic cardiac nerves release noradrenaline. * **MP4:** Noradrenaline binds to receptors on the sinoatrial (SA) node to increase heart rate. * **MP5:** Parasympathetic vagus nerve releases acetylcholine, which slows heart rate at rest (withdrawal allows rapid heart rate increase). *(Accept any four of the above points)*
### Part (b) [Max 5 marks] * **MP1:** Carbon dioxide (\(\text{CO}_2\)) reacts with water in blood to form carbonic acid (\(\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3\)) which dissociates to release hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) / decreases blood pH. * **MP2:** Chemoreceptors in the medulla (central) or aorta/carotid arteries (peripheral) detect the low pH / high \(p\text{CO}_2\). * **MP3:** Nerve impulses are transmitted to the respiratory control center in the medulla oblongata. * **MP4:** Medulla oblongata sends motor signals via the phrenic and/or intercostal nerves. * **MP5:** Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract more rapidly/strongly, increasing rate and depth of ventilation. * **MP6:** Increased ventilation enhances gas exchange at the alveoli, removing excess \(\text{CO}_2\) and restoring pH (negative feedback). *(Accept any five of the above points)*
### Part (c) [Max 7 marks] * **MP1:** Cardiac output is increased (by raising heart rate and stroke volume) to meet systemic oxygen demand. * **MP2:** Vasodilation of arterioles in active muscle tissues increases local blood flow. * **MP3:** Vasoconstriction of arterioles in non-essential systems (e.g. gut/kidneys) redistributes blood to working skeletal muscles. * **MP4:** Precapillary sphincters open in muscle beds, increasing surface area for oxygen diffusion. * **MP5:** Skeletal muscle pump (contraction of muscles) compresses veins, increasing venous return to the heart. * **MP6:** Bohr effect occurs: high temperature / low pH / high \(\text{CO}_2\) in active muscles decreases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, promoting oxygen unloading. * **MP7:** Myoglobin in muscle cells acts as an oxygen store/facilitator due to its high oxygen affinity. * **MP8:** Mitochondrial respiration maintains a steep concentration gradient of oxygen from capillaries into muscle fibers. *(Accept any seven of the above points)*
Paper 3 Section A (Experimental & general data analysis)
Answer all questions in Section A.
3 Question · 15 marks
Question 1 · experimental design and database questions
5 marks
An experiment was conducted to estimate the water potential of potato tuber tissue. Cylinders of potato tissue of equal length were placed in sucrose solutions of different concentrations for 24 hours. The initial and final masses were measured to calculate the mean percentage change in mass. The results are shown in the table below:
a) State the independent variable in this investigation. [1] b) Explain why calculating the percentage change in mass is more appropriate than using the absolute change in mass. [1] c) Estimate the concentration of sucrose that is isotonic to the cytoplasm of the potato cells, and explain how you arrived at this value using the data. [2] d) Identify one variable, other than the dimensions of the potato cylinders, that must be controlled in this experiment. [1]
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Worked solution
a) The independent variable is the factor systematically changed by the experimenter, which is the sucrose concentration (measured in \( \text{mol~dm}^{-3} \)). b) Percentage change accounts for differences in the initial starting mass of the individual potato cylinders, allowing for a fair comparison between trials. c) The isotonic point is the solute concentration at which there is no net movement of water into or out of the cells, resulting in a 0% change in mass. By interpolating between 0.2 \( \text{mol~dm}^{-3} \) (+5.2%) and 0.4 \( \text{mol~dm}^{-3} \) (-1.8%), the 0% change lies around 0.35 \( \text{mol~dm}^{-3} \). d) Temperature must be controlled because it affects the rate of diffusion/osmosis. Alternatively, the source/type of potato must be kept the same because different varieties or ages of potatoes have different initial solute concentrations.
Marking scheme
a) [1 max] - Sucrose concentration / concentration of sucrose solution (do not accept 'amount of sucrose' or 'water potential').
b) [1 max] - Initial/starting masses of potato cylinders were not identical / allows for valid comparison between cylinders with different starting masses.
c) [2 max] - 0.35 \( \text{mol~dm}^{-3} \) (accept range 0.33 to 0.37 \( \text{mol~dm}^{-3} \)); [1] - The isotonic concentration is where there is no net water movement / 0% mass change / where the line of best fit crosses the x-axis / between 0.2 and 0.4 \( \text{mol~dm}^{-3} \); [1]
d) [1 max] - Temperature (of the solutions); - Source/variety/age of potato tissue; - Volume of sucrose solution in each tube; - Duration of immersion/time left in solution.
Question 2 · experimental design and database questions
5 marks
An experiment was conducted to investigate the effect of an aqueous extract of garlic (*Allium sativum*) on the mitotic index of onion (*Allium cepa*) root tip cells. Onion root tips were treated with different concentrations of garlic extract for 12 hours. The cells were then stained and viewed under a light microscope. The table below shows the number of cells observed in interphase and mitosis:
| Concentration of garlic extract / \% | Number of cells in interphase | Number of cells in mitosis | | :---: | :---: | :---: | | 0 (Control) | 450 | 50 | | 5 | 475 | 25 | | 10 | 490 | 10 |
a) Calculate the mitotic index (\%) for the control group (0\%) and the 10\% extract group. Show your working. [2] b) Describe the effect of the garlic extract on cell division in the onion root tips. [1] c) Suggest a reason why cells from the root tip of a plant are specifically used to study mitosis. [1] d) State one safety precaution that should be taken when preparing root tip squash slides involving chemical staining. [1]
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Worked solution
a) Mitotic Index is calculated as: \( \text{Mitotic Index} = \frac{\text{Number of cells in mitosis}}{\text{Total number of cells}} \times 100 \). - Control (0%): \( \text{Total} = 450 + 50 = 500 \). \( \text{Mitotic Index} = \frac{50}{500} \times 100 = 10.0\% \). - 10% Extract: \( \text{Total} = 490 + 10 = 500 \). \( \text{Mitotic Index} = \frac{10}{500} \times 100 = 2.0\% \). b) Increasing the concentration of garlic extract causes a decrease in the mitotic index / inhibits cell division. c) Root tips contain meristematic tissue (apical meristems) which actively undergoes mitosis for growth, making it easy to find cells in different stages of cell division. d) Staining root tips typically involves concentrated acids (e.g., hydrochloric acid) for maceration and toxic/staining dyes (e.g., aceto-orcein). Safety measures include wearing safety goggles, protective gloves, or performing the heating steps in a well-ventilated area/fume hood.
Marking scheme
a) [2 max] - Control = 10% (or 0.10) AND 10% extract = 2% (or 0.02); [1] - Correct working shown: \( \frac{\text{cells in mitosis}}{\text{total cells}} \times 100 \) (e.g., \( \frac{50}{500} \times 100 \) and \( \frac{10}{500} \times 100 \)); [1]
b) [1 max] - Garlic extract inhibits cell division / decreases the mitotic index; - Higher concentrations of garlic extract lead to lower mitotic indices / fewer cells entering mitosis;
c) [1 max] - Root tip contains the (apical) meristem; - Active site of growth / high rate of cell division / many dividing cells;
d) [1 max] - Wear safety goggles / protective gloves to avoid contact with corrosive acids / toxic stains; - Heat slide gently or use a fume hood to avoid inhaling harmful chemical fumes.
Question 3 · experimental design and database questions
5 marks
An ecological study was carried out to estimate the population size of a ground beetle species (*Carabus nemoralis*) in a local woodland area using the mark-release-recapture method. On Day 1, a sample of 80 beetles was captured, marked with a small dot of non-toxic, weather-resistant paint on their elytra, and released back into the woodland. On Day 5, a second sample of 75 beetles was captured from the same area, of which 15 were found to have the paint mark.
a) Calculate the estimated population size of the ground beetles using the Lincoln Index: \[N = \frac{n_1 \times n_2}{m_2}\] where \(N\) is the estimated population size, \(n_1\) is the number of individuals marked in the first sample, \(n_2\) is the total number of individuals captured in the second sample, and \(m_2\) is the number of marked individuals recaptured. Show your working. [2] b) State two assumptions of the mark-release-recapture method that must be met for this estimate to be reliable. [2] c) Suggest one reason why the paint used to mark the beetles must be non-toxic and not highly visible to predators. [1]
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Worked solution
a) Substitute the values into the formula: \(n_1 = 80\), \(n_2 = 75\), \(m_2 = 15\). Calculation: \(N = \frac{80 \times 75}{15} = \frac{6000}{15} = 400\) beetles. b) Key assumptions of the Lincoln Index include: the population is closed (no births, deaths, immigration, or emigration during the study period); the marks do not wear off, fade, or get lost; the marks do not affect the survival or behavior of the individuals; marked individuals mix completely and randomly back into the population before the second sample is taken. c) The paint must be non-toxic so it does not harm/kill the beetles, and not highly visible to prevent making them easier targets for predators, which would violate the assumption that marking does not affect survival rates.
b) [2 max] - No immigration or emigration / closed population; [1] - No births or deaths / population size remains constant; [1] - The mark does not affect survival / does not increase predation risk; [1] - The mark does not rub off / remains clearly visible; [1] - Marked individuals mix randomly with the rest of the population; [1] (Award [1] for each correct assumption up to [2])
c) [1 max] - To prevent increasing the death rate / mortality of the marked beetles (which would skew the population estimate / violate the assumption of equal survival probability).
Paper 3 Section B (Option D - Human Physiology)
Answer all questions from the chosen option.
5 Question · 20 marks
Question 1 · structured
4 marks
Kupffer cells and hepatocytes in the liver play vital roles in processing the breakdown products of worn-out red blood cells. State the name of the cellular process by which Kupffer cells engulf erythrocytes, and explain how the components of hemoglobin are subsequently processed and recycled.
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Worked solution
Kupffer cells are specialized macrophages in the liver that perform phagocytosis to engulf aged or damaged red blood cells. Once inside the cell, hemoglobin is broken down. The protein component, globin, is hydrolyzed into its constituent amino acids, which are released back into the bloodstream for protein synthesis. The non-protein heme group is split into iron and an organic residue. Iron is stored within the liver as ferritin or transported back to the bone marrow via transferrin to synthesize new hemoglobin. The remaining organic portion of the heme group is converted into bilirubin (bile pigment), which is secreted into the bile canaliculi by hepatocytes.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 4 marks: 1. Correctly naming phagocytosis as the mechanism used by Kupffer cells. 2. Stating that globin is broken down/hydrolyzed into amino acids (which are recycled). 3. Explaining that iron is removed from heme and stored (as ferritin) or sent to bone marrow. 4. Stating that the remaining heme group is converted into bilirubin / bile pigment.
Question 2 · structured
4 marks
The secretion of gastric juice is tightly controlled by both nervous and endocrine pathways during the cephalic and gastric phases of digestion. Describe how these pathways coordinate to regulate gastric secretions when a person anticipates and then ingests a meal.
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Worked solution
During the cephalic phase, the sight, smell, or thought of food sends sensory inputs to the brain, which transmits parasympathetic impulses via the vagus nerve directly to the gastric glands, stimulating the secretion of pepsinogen, acid, and gastrin. During the gastric phase, the physical distension of the stomach walls by food activates stretch receptors, and the presence of peptides activates chemoreceptors. This triggers local nerve reflexes and further release of the hormone gastrin from endocrine G-cells in the stomach mucosa. Gastrin travels via the blood to stimulate parietal cells to produce more hydrochloric acid (HCl) and chief cells to secrete pepsinogen, ensuring a highly acidic and enzymatic environment for protein digestion.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 4 marks: 1. Describing the cephalic phase as nervous stimulation via the vagus nerve in response to sensory anticipation of food. 2. Stating that stomach distension / chemical detection of peptides triggers the gastric phase. 3. Explaining that the hormone gastrin is secreted by G-cells in response to stomach stretching or chemical stimuli. 4. Detailing that gastrin travels via the bloodstream to stimulate parietal cells (for HCl) and/or chief cells (for pepsinogen).
Question 3 · structured
4 marks
In a clinical electrocardiogram (ECG) recording, the PR interval represents a specific phase of the cardiac cycle. Explain what physiological events occur during the PR interval, and describe why a delay in electrical conduction at the atrioventricular (AV) node is essential for efficient cardiac output.
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Worked solution
The PR interval measures the time from the beginning of atrial depolarization (the P wave) to the beginning of ventricular depolarization (the QRS complex). This interval represents the passage of the cardiac impulse from the sinoatrial (SA) node, through the atrial myocardium, and down to the atrioventricular (AV) node. The conduction of the action potential slows down significantly at the AV node. This delay is biologically essential because it gives the atria enough time to complete their contraction (atrial systole), ensuring that the ventricles are fully filled with blood before they begin to contract (ventricular systole). Without this delay, the atria and ventricles would contract almost simultaneously, leading to incomplete filling of the ventricles and severely reduced cardiac output.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 4 marks: 1. Identifying that the PR interval represents the conduction of the electrical signal from the SA node through the atria and the AV node. 2. Explaining that the AV node causes a delay in the transmission of the action potential to the ventricles. 3. Stating that this delay allows the atria to contract fully and empty their blood into the ventricles. 4. Explaining that this maximizes ventricular filling and prevents the ventricles from contracting before they are filled, thus maintaining efficient stroke volume/cardiac output.
Question 4 · structured
4 marks
During periods of intense physical exercise, active skeletal muscles produce substantial amounts of carbon dioxide and lactic acid, causing a change in blood conditions that results in the Bohr shift. Explain how these changes affect hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen and the physiological benefit this provides to the working muscles.
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Worked solution
As skeletal muscles respire intensely, they release carbon dioxide, which reacts with water to form carbonic acid, and lactic acid from anaerobic pathways. Both metabolites increase the concentration of hydrogen ions, thereby lowering the local blood pH. The increased acidity and high partial pressure of carbon dioxide promote the binding of hydrogen ions and carbon dioxide to hemoglobin, causing a conformational change. This change reduces hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, shifting the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right (known as the Bohr shift). The physiological benefit is that hemoglobin releases (unloads) oxygen much more readily at the tissue level, ensuring that actively respiring muscle cells receive a greater supply of oxygen to maintain aerobic respiration and minimize fatigue.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 4 marks: 1. Stating that carbon dioxide and lactic acid accumulation lowers the local blood pH / increases acidity. 2. Explaining that lower pH/higher carbon dioxide decreases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen. 3. Describing that this causes the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the right (Bohr shift). 4. Identifying the physiological benefit as enhanced unloading/delivery of oxygen to the active skeletal muscles to support aerobic respiration.
Question 5 · structured
4 marks
The discovery that Helicobacter pylori infection is a primary cause of gastric ulcers revolutionized gastroenterology. Explain how H. pylori colonizes the stomach to cause ulcers, and describe how proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are used as part of the therapeutic regime to treat this condition.
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Worked solution
Helicobacter pylori is adapted to the highly acidic environment of the stomach by secreting the enzyme urease, which converts urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide, neutralizing local gastric acid. Once established, the bacteria burrow into the protective mucus layer lining the stomach wall, producing toxins and initiating an inflammatory response that degrades the mucin gel. This localized destruction leaves the underlying gastric epithelial cells exposed to the highly corrosive hydrochloric acid and pepsin of the stomach, leading to tissue damage and the formation of a gastric ulcer. To treat this, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are administered. PPIs target and irreversibly inhibit the H+/K+-ATPase pump proteins in the membrane of parietal cells. By shutting down these pumps, PPIs dramatically reduce gastric acid secretion, raising the pH of the stomach and allowing the damaged mucosal lining to heal.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 4 marks: 1. Explaining that H. pylori secretes urease to neutralize gastric acid, allowing survival/colonization. 2. Describing how the bacteria damage the protective mucus layer of the stomach lining. 3. Explaining that this exposure of the gastric epithelium to stomach acid/pepsin results in inflammation and ulceration. 4. Stating that proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) inhibit the H+/K+-ATPase pump in parietal cells, reducing acid secretion to facilitate healing.
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