IB DP · Thinka-original Practice Paper

2024 IB DP Sports, Exercise and Health Science Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Nov 2024 SL IB Diploma Programme-Style Mock — Sports, Exercise and Health Science

80 marks120 mins2024
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Nov 2024 SL IB Diploma Programme Sports, Exercise and Health Science paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from IB.

Paper 1

Answer all 30 multiple-choice questions. No calculators allowed.
30 Question · 30 marks
Question 1 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
What happens to the arterio-venous oxygen difference (\(a\text{-}\bar{v}\text{O}_2\text{ diff}\)) during intense exercise?
  1. A.It increases because venous oxygen content decreases while arterial oxygen content remains relatively constant.
  2. B.It decreases because arterial oxygen content drops significantly during exercise.
  3. C.It remains constant because both arterial and venous oxygen content increase proportionally.
  4. D.It decreases because muscle cells extract less oxygen at high workloads.
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Worked solution

Arterio-venous oxygen difference (\(a\text{-}\bar{v}\text{O}_2\text{ diff}\)) represents the difference in oxygen content between arterial and venous blood. During exercise, active skeletal muscles require and extract more oxygen from the arterial blood to meet the metabolic demands of aerobic respiration. Consequently, the oxygen content of venous blood returning to the heart decreases significantly. Since arterial oxygen content remains relatively constant (due to efficient gas exchange in the lungs), the difference between arterial and venous oxygen content increases.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (A). Reject other choices as they do not accurately describe the physiological change in arterio-venous oxygen difference during exercise.
Question 2 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following describes the primary stimulus for the increase in ventilation during moderate-to-high intensity aerobic exercise?
  1. A.An increase in blood pH detected by central chemoreceptors.
  2. B.An increase in partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (\(P_{\text{CO}_2}\)) detected by chemoreceptors.
  3. C.A decrease in arterial partial pressure of oxygen (\(P_{\text{O}_2}\)) below 90 mmHg.
  4. D.An increase in blood temperature detected by thermoreceptors in the hypothalamus.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

During moderate-to-high intensity exercise, active muscles produce carbon dioxide (\(\text{CO}_2\)) as a byproduct of aerobic metabolism. This increases the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (\(P_{\text{CO}_2}\)) in the blood, leading to an increase in hydrogen ion concentration (which lowers blood pH). Central and peripheral chemoreceptors detect these changes (primarily the rise in \(P_{\text{CO}_2}\) and corresponding drop in pH) and signal the respiratory control center in the medulla oblongata to increase the rate and depth of ventilation.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (B). Reject A because blood pH decreases (becomes more acidic) rather than increases. Reject C because arterial oxygen partial pressure does not drop significantly under normal physiological conditions to become the primary stimulus. Reject D because although temperature increases, chemical stimuli are the primary regulator of ventilation.
Question 3 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
According to the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction, which region of the sarcomere remains constant in length as the muscle contracts?
  1. A.The I-band
  2. B.The H-zone
  3. C.The A-band
  4. D.The distance between consecutive Z-discs
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Worked solution

During muscle contraction, the actin (thin) filaments slide past the myosin (thick) filaments. The A-band, which corresponds to the complete length of the myosin filaments, does not shorten or change length during contraction. The I-band (containing only actin) and the H-zone (containing only myosin in the center of the sarcomere) both shorten, and the overall distance between consecutive Z-discs decreases.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (C). Reject A, B, and D because the I-band, H-zone, and distance between consecutive Z-discs all shorten during contraction.
Question 4 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
When an athlete performs the downward (descending) phase of a standard pull-up, which muscle is acting as the primary agonist and what type of contraction is it performing?
  1. A.Latissimus dorsi performing an eccentric contraction
  2. B.Latissimus dorsi performing a concentric contraction
  3. C.Biceps brachii performing an isometric contraction
  4. D.Pectoralis major performing an eccentric contraction
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

During the downward phase of a pull-up, gravity pulls the body down. To control this descent and prevent a rapid drop, the muscles that performed the upward phase (specifically the latissimus dorsi, which is the primary agonist) must undergo a controlled lengthening while under tension. This is known as an eccentric contraction. Therefore, the latissimus dorsi acts as the agonist, performing an eccentric contraction to slow down the movement.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (A). Reject B because a concentric contraction would pull the body upward. Reject C because the biceps brachii also undergoes an eccentric contraction (lengthening under tension) to control the movement, not isometric. Reject D because the pectoralis major is not the primary agonist for this movement.
Question 5 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
During a standing calf raise (rising up onto the balls of the feet), what class of lever is being utilized at the ankle joint, and where is the effort applied?
  1. A.First-class lever; effort is applied by the tibialis anterior at the front of the foot.
  2. B.Second-class lever; effort is applied by the gastrocnemius via the Achilles tendon.
  3. C.Third-class lever; effort is applied by the quadriceps at the patellar tendon.
  4. D.Second-class lever; effort is applied by the floor reaction force at the metatarsals.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In a standing calf raise, the foot operates as a second-class lever. In a second-class lever, the load lies between the fulcrum and the effort. Here, the fulcrum is at the metatarsal-phalangeal joints (ball of the foot), the load is the body's weight acting down through the ankle joint, and the effort is applied by the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles pulling upward on the calcaneus via the Achilles tendon. Thus, it is a second-class lever with effort applied by the gastrocnemius.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (B). Reject A because it describes a first-class lever and incorrect muscle. Reject C because it describes a third-class lever. Reject D because the floor reaction force is the force acting at the fulcrum, not the muscular effort.
Question 6 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A gymnast performs a vault and receives feedback from their coach, who states: "Your legs were slightly bent during the flight phase." What type of feedback does this represent?
  1. A.Intrinsic, Knowledge of Results
  2. B.Extrinsic, Knowledge of Performance
  3. C.Intrinsic, Knowledge of Performance
  4. D.Extrinsic, Knowledge of Results
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Feedback that comes from an external source (such as a coach) is classified as extrinsic (or augmented) feedback. Feedback that provides detailed information about the patterns of the movement and how the skill was executed (e.g., 'your legs were slightly bent') is known as Knowledge of Performance (KP). In contrast, Knowledge of Results (KR) would focus on the outcome of the performance (e.g., the final score or whether the vault was successful).

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (B). Reject A and C because the feedback is external, not intrinsic. Reject D because it describes the quality of the movement execution (KP) rather than the outcome (KR).
Question 7 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following describes the correct order of metabolic pathways involved in the complete aerobic respiration of a single glucose molecule?
  1. A.Krebs cycle \(\rightarrow\) Glycolysis \(\rightarrow\) Electron transport chain
  2. B.Glycolysis \(\rightarrow\) Krebs cycle \(\rightarrow\) Electron transport chain
  3. C.Beta-oxidation \(\rightarrow\) Krebs cycle \(\rightarrow\) Electron transport chain
  4. D.Glycolysis \(\rightarrow\) Beta-oxidation \(\rightarrow\) Krebs cycle
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Worked solution

The complete aerobic breakdown of glucose begins with Glycolysis in the cell cytoplasm (converting glucose into pyruvate), followed by the Krebs cycle in the mitochondrial matrix (which processes acetyl-CoA and produces NADH and FADH2), and ends with the Electron Transport Chain on the inner mitochondrial membrane (which uses these carriers to generate a large amount of ATP through oxidative phosphorylation). Beta-oxidation is only used for fatty acids, not glucose.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (B). Reject A because the sequence is incorrect (Krebs cycle occurs after glycolysis). Reject C and D because Beta-oxidation is the pathway for fat breakdown, not glucose.
Question 8 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which personality theory suggests that an athlete's behavior is determined by a dynamic interaction between their stable, deeply ingrained traits and the specific environmental situations they encounter?
  1. A.Trait theory
  2. B.Social learning theory
  3. C.Interactionist theory
  4. D.Psychoanalytic theory
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Worked solution

The Interactionist theory proposed that behavior is a function of both personality traits and situational factors, typically represented by the formula \(B = f(P, E)\), where Behavior (\(B\)) is a function of the stable Personality (\(P\)) and the Environment (\(E\)). Trait theory focuses solely on stable, genetically determined characteristics. Social learning theory suggests behavior is entirely learned from environmental observations and reinforcement.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer (C). Reject A because trait theory ignores situational influences. Reject B because social learning theory ignores stable internal traits. Reject D because psychoanalytic theory focuses on unconscious drives and conflict.
Question 9 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
At the absolute onset of physical exercise, there is an immediate, anticipatory rise in heart rate. What is the primary physiological mechanism responsible for this initial change?
  1. A.Withdrawal of parasympathetic (vagal) tone and activation of the central command
  2. B.Activation of peripheral chemoreceptors detecting elevated carbon dioxide levels
  3. C.Increased stimulation of baroreceptors due to systemic blood pressure drops
  4. D.An increase in core blood temperature directly stimulating the sinoatrial node
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The immediate increase in heart rate at the very onset of exercise (or even just prior to it) is mediated by the central nervous system (central command) which causes parasympathetic withdrawal (vagal withdrawal) followed closely by an increase in sympathetic nervous system activity. Chemical changes in the blood (like elevated carbon dioxide or lactic acid) take longer to develop and stimulate chemoreceptors, so they do not account for this initial rapid spike.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer (A). No partial marks are awarded for multiple-choice questions.
Question 10 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
According to the sliding filament theory, which of the following describes the structural changes that occur within a muscle sarcomere during a concentric contraction?
  1. A.The H-zone shortens, while the A-band remains constant in length
  2. B.Both the H-zone and the A-band shorten in length
  3. C.The H-zone remains constant in length, while the A-band shortens
  4. D.Both the H-zone and the A-band remain constant in length
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Worked solution

During a concentric contraction, actin (thin) filaments are pulled toward the center of the sarcomere. This causes the H-zone (the area containing only myosin) to narrow or completely disappear. However, the A-band represents the entire length of the thick myosin filaments, which do not change in length during contraction. Therefore, the H-zone shortens while the A-band remains constant.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer (A).
Question 11 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following correctly identifies the primary chemical storage form and storage locations of carbohydrates within the human body?
  1. A.Stored as glucose in adipose tissue and the kidneys
  2. B.Stored as glycogen in skeletal muscle and the liver
  3. C.Stored as triglycerides in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue
  4. D.Stored as glucagon in the liver and pancreas
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Carbohydrates are stored in the human body as glycogen. The main reservoirs for glycogen are skeletal muscles and the liver. Glucose is the circulating form in blood, and glucagon is a hormone, not a storage form.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer (B).
Question 12 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A basketball coach tells a player immediately after a shot: 'Your knees were not sufficiently bent when you initiated the jump.' Which type of feedback does this statement represent?
  1. A.Concurrent Knowledge of Results
  2. B.Terminal Knowledge of Performance
  3. C.Concurrent Knowledge of Performance
  4. D.Terminal Knowledge of Results
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The feedback is delivered after the movement has ended (terminal feedback) and focuses on the pattern and quality of the movement execution (Knowledge of Performance) rather than the outcome of the shot (Knowledge of Results).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer (B).
Question 13 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
During a standing calf raise (plantar flexion), the ball of the foot acts as the pivot point, the body weight acting through the ankle joint acts as the resistance, and the gastrocnemius muscle provides the upward pulling force. What class of lever does this movement represent?
  1. A.First-class lever
  2. B.Second-class lever
  3. C.Third-class lever
  4. D.Fourth-class lever
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Worked solution

In a second-class lever, the load/resistance lies between the fulcrum and the effort force (Fulcrum - Load - Effort). In a standing calf raise, the ball of the foot (metatarsophalangeal joints) is the fulcrum, the downward force of body weight is the load, and the upward pull of the Achilles tendon is the effort. Thus, it is a second-class lever.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer (B).
Question 14 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which energy system serves as the dominant contributor of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) during an all-out maximal sprint lasting exactly 18 seconds?
  1. A.Lactic acid (anaerobic glycolysis) system
  2. B.ATP-CP (creatine phosphate) system
  3. C.Aerobic (oxidative) system
  4. D.Beta-oxidation pathway
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Worked solution

The ATP-CP system is only the primary source of ATP for high-intensity efforts lasting up to approximately 10 seconds. For high-intensity efforts lasting between 10 to 90 seconds, such as an 18-second maximal sprint, the lactic acid (anaerobic glycolysis) system becomes the dominant provider of ATP.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer (A).
Question 15 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following outlines the correct structural pathway of an electrical signal initiating a contraction within a motor unit?
  1. A.Dendrite -> Axon -> Neuromuscular junction -> Sarcolemma -> T-tubules
  2. B.Myofibril -> Sarcolemma -> Neuromuscular junction -> Axon -> Dendrite
  3. C.Sarcoplasmic reticulum -> T-tubules -> Sarcolemma -> Neuromuscular junction -> Axon
  4. D.Axon -> Dendrite -> T-tubules -> Neuromuscular junction -> Sarcoplasmic reticulum
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Worked solution

An action potential initiates at the dendrite or cell body of the motor neuron, travels along the axon, crosses the neuromuscular junction to depolarize the sarcolemma (muscle cell membrane), and propagates down the transverse tubules (T-tubules) to trigger calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer (A).
Question 16 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following statements correctly explains how genetic and environmental factors interact to determine an individual's athletic performance level?
  1. A.Physical performance (genotype) is entirely independent of environmental influences like diet and altitude
  2. B.Systematic physical training alters an athlete's genotype to yield superior aerobic performance
  3. C.The athlete's phenotype is the product of their fixed genotype interacting with training and environmental factors
  4. D.Athletes with the exact same genotype will display identical athletic phenotypes regardless of differences in coaching
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Worked solution

An individual's actual physical performance characteristics (phenotype) are determined by the interaction of their underlying genetic makeup (genotype) and external environmental factors (such as training intensity, nutrition, and environmental conditions). Genotype is fixed at birth and does not change with training.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct answer (C).
Question 17 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following describes the change in stroke volume and heart rate when an untrained individual transitions from rest to sub-maximal steady-state aerobic exercise?
  1. A.Stroke volume increases and plateaus, while heart rate increases and plateaus.
  2. B.Stroke volume continuously increases until exhaustion, while heart rate plateaus.
  3. C.Stroke volume remains constant, while heart rate increases linearly.
  4. D.Stroke volume decreases initially due to pressure, while heart rate increases exponentially.
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Worked solution

During sub-maximal steady-state aerobic exercise, an untrained individual's stroke volume increases rapidly and then plateaus (typically around 40% to 60% of \(VO_2\) max). Heart rate also increases and reaches a steady-state plateau to match the metabolic demands of the exercise. Therefore, both stroke volume and heart rate increase and plateau.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer: A. No partial marks.
Question 18 · multiple-choice
1 marks
What causes the immediate increase in ventilation at the onset of exercise, before any chemical changes in the blood can be detected?
  1. A.Increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood
  2. B.Neural command from the motor cortex and proprioceptors in moving joints
  3. C.A decrease in blood pH detected by central chemoreceptors in the medulla
  4. D.Increased stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors by decreased oxygen levels
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The rapid, immediate increase in ventilation at the very start of exercise is driven by neural mechanisms: central command from the motor cortex and feedback from proprioceptors (mechanoreceptors) in the active joints and muscles. Chemical changes (such as changes in arterial \(PCO_2\) or pH) take time to develop and are sensed later by chemoreceptors during the slower secondary rise in ventilation.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer: B. No partial marks.
Question 19 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During the downward phase of a standard barbell back squat, which type of muscle contraction is primarily occurring in the quadriceps femoris muscle group?
  1. A.Concentric
  2. B.Isometric
  3. C.Eccentric
  4. D.Isokinetic
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

During the downward (eccentric) phase of a squat, the quadriceps femoris muscle group is lengthening under tension to control the rate of knee flexion against gravity. This is defined as an eccentric contraction.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer: C. No partial marks.
Question 20 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following correctly pairs a joint type with its structural classification and an example in the human body?
  1. A.Hinge joint | Synovial | Elbow joint
  2. B.Pivot joint | Fibrous | Cranial sutures
  3. C.Ball and socket | Cartilaginous | Hip joint
  4. D.Saddle joint | Synovial | Intervertebral discs
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Worked solution

The elbow joint is structurally classified as a synovial joint, and functionally/structurally behaves as a hinge joint. Cranial sutures are fibrous joints but are not pivot joints. The hip joint is a ball and socket synovial joint (not cartilaginous). Intervertebral discs are cartilaginous joints (not saddle joints).

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer: A. No partial marks.
Question 21 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which class of lever is represented by the action of lifting the body onto the toes (plantarflexion) during a calf raise?
  1. A.First-class lever
  2. B.Second-class lever
  3. C.Third-class lever
  4. D.Fourth-class lever
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A calf raise represents a second-class lever system. The fulcrum (F) is located at the metatarsophalangeal joints (the ball of the foot). The load (L) is the body weight acting downward through the tibia (in the middle). The effort (E) is applied upward by the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles via the Achilles tendon at the heel. Because the load is between the fulcrum and the effort, it is a second-class lever.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer: B. No partial marks.
Question 22 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following describes the primary role of dietary carbohydrates stored as muscle glycogen during prolonged, high-intensity aerobic exercise?
  1. A.To serve as the sole source of energy for low-intensity recovery walking
  2. B.To be converted directly into essential amino acids to prevent muscle breakdown
  3. C.To act as a readily available source of glucose for rapid ATP regeneration
  4. D.To increase the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins in the small intestine
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Muscle glycogen is broken down into glucose-1-phosphate and converted to glucose-6-phosphate to enter the glycolytic pathway. During high-intensity aerobic exercise, it acts as a rapidly accessible source of glucose for ATP resynthesis, supporting high-rate energy production.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer: C. No partial marks.
Question 23 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A tennis coach provides immediate verbal feedback to a player regarding the specific biomechanical position of their wrist during a served ball. What type of feedback is this?
  1. A.Knowledge of results (KR) and intrinsic feedback
  2. B.Knowledge of performance (KP) and extrinsic (augmented) feedback
  3. C.Knowledge of results (KR) and concurrent feedback
  4. D.Knowledge of performance (KP) and intrinsic feedback
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Feedback regarding the execution and technique of a movement (e.g., wrist position during the swing) is classified as Knowledge of Performance (KP). Because this feedback comes from an external source (the coach), it is extrinsic (or augmented) feedback.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer: B. No partial marks.
Question 24 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An elite marathon runner typically exhibits a somatotype characterized by high linearity, thinness, and low levels of muscle and fat. Which somatotype component is dominant in this athlete?
  1. A.Endomorphy
  2. B.Mesomorphy
  3. C.Ectomorphy
  4. D.Gynomorphy
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The three components of somatotyping are endomorphy (roundness/adiposity), mesomorphy (muscularity), and ectomorphy (linearity/thinness). Elite marathon runners rely on energy efficiency and heat dissipation, which are favored by high linearity and a low body mass-to-surface area ratio, typical of ectomorphy.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct answer: C. No partial marks.
Question 25 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which of the following describes the typical response of stroke volume during a progressive intensity exercise test in an untrained healthy individual?
  1. A.It increases linearly with exercise intensity up to maximum exertion.
  2. B.It increases initially and then plateaus at approximately 40% to 60% of VO2 max.
  3. C.It remains constant from the onset of exercise until exhaustion.
  4. D.It decreases steadily as heart rate increases to prevent excessive cardiac output.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In untrained healthy individuals, stroke volume increases progressively during submaximal exercise but plateaus at approximately 40% to 60% of maximum oxygen uptake (\(VO_2\text{ max}\)). Beyond this intensity, any further increase in cardiac output is achieved primarily through an increase in heart rate.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option (B). No partial marks.
Question 26 · multiple_choice
1 marks
What is the function of tropomyosin in the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction?
  1. A.It binds to calcium ions, causing a conformational change in actin.
  2. B.It prevents myosin cross-bridges from binding to actin when the muscle is at rest.
  3. C.It hydrolyzes ATP to release energy for the power stroke.
  4. D.It acts as a structural anchor that binds myosin directly to the Z-line.
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Worked solution

Tropomyosin is a regulatory protein that wraps around actin filaments. At rest, it covers the myosin-binding sites on actin, preventing the myosin heads from forming cross-bridges. When calcium binds to troponin, troponin shifts tropomyosin out of the way, allowing contraction to occur.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying the correct regulatory role of tropomyosin (B).
Question 27 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which nutritional strategy is most effective for maximizing the rate of muscle glycogen resynthesis immediately after prolonged exhaustive exercise?
  1. A.Consuming low-glycemic index carbohydrates alone at regular 2-hour intervals.
  2. B.Consuming high-glycemic index carbohydrates combined with a source of protein.
  3. C.Consuming a high-fat meal to spare remaining glycogen reserves.
  4. D.Consuming pure branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs) with water.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Consuming high-glycemic index carbohydrates immediately post-exercise rapid-starts glycogen resynthesis. Adding protein enhances this effect by stimulating a greater insulin response, which increases glucose uptake into the muscle cells via GLUT-4 transporters.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying the correct combination of high-glycemic carbohydrates and protein (B).
Question 28 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A gymnast performs a complex routine with high consistency, automaticity, and minimal conscious attention to basic mechanics, allowing them to focus entirely on artistic expression. According to Fitts and Posner, which stage of learning is demonstrated?
  1. A.Cognitive stage
  2. B.Associative stage
  3. C.Autonomous stage
  4. D.Perceptual stage
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Worked solution

The autonomous stage of learning is characterized by skills performing automatically without conscious control. The learner can focus on tactical aspects or artistic expression while maintaining high consistency and self-correcting subtle errors.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying the Autonomous stage (C).
Question 29 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which of the following represents a third-class lever in the human body?
  1. A.The ankle joint during plantarflexion (standing on tip-toes).
  2. B.The elbow joint during a biceps curl (flexion of the forearm).
  3. C.The neck joint when hyperextending the head to look upwards.
  4. D.The knee joint during passive extension with no external load.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In a third-class lever, the effort force (biceps tendon insertion) lies between the fulcrum (elbow joint) and the load (mass of the forearm and hand). This is the most common lever class in the human musculoskeletal system.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for selecting the correct example of a third-class lever (B).
Question 30 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which of the following somatotypes is most typically dominant in an elite heavyweight weightlifter who requires extreme muscular strength and high overall body mass?
  1. A.Ectomorph
  2. B.Mesomorph with a moderate-to-high endomorph component
  3. C.Endomorph with an extremely high ectomorph component
  4. D.Pure ectomorph with minimal mesomorph component
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Heavyweight powerlifters and weightlifters benefit from high muscularity (mesomorphy) combined with high overall mass and bone density (often associated with endomorphy) to provide leverage and stability, while minimizing ectomorphy (linearity/thinness).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option (B).

Paper 2 Section A

Answer all short-answer data-based and core theory questions.
4 Question · 30 marks
Question 1 · Data-Based Questions
7 marks
In a study, twelve endurance runners completed three 20 km runs in warm conditions (30°C) under three different hydration protocols:

- Strategy A: Water only (150 ml consumed every 3 km)
- Strategy B: 6% carbohydrate-electrolyte solution (150 ml consumed every 3 km)
- Strategy C: Control (no fluid intake)

The mean percentage body mass loss (± standard deviation) at the end of the 20 km run was recorded as follows:
- Strategy A: 2.7% ± 0.3%
- Strategy B: 1.1% ± 0.2%
- Strategy C: 4.3% ± 0.5%

(a) State the hydration strategy that was most effective at preventing body mass loss. [1]
(b) Compare the variability of the body mass loss data between Strategy A and Strategy C. [2]
(c) Explain the physiological benefits of consuming a carbohydrate-electrolyte solution (Strategy B) compared to water only (Strategy A) during prolonged exercise in the heat. [4]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Strategy B (6% carbohydrate-electrolyte solution) showed the lowest percentage body mass loss (1.1%), indicating it was the most effective protocol at preventing body mass loss.

(b) The standard deviation (SD) for Strategy A (0.3%) is lower than that of Strategy C (0.5%). This demonstrates that the variability of body mass loss was smaller/more consistent among individuals when drinking water (Strategy A) compared to receiving no fluids (Strategy C). However, both protocols still showed greater overall variability than Strategy B (0.2%).

(c) Consuming a carbohydrate-electrolyte solution provides multiple advantages over water alone:
1. Carbohydrate delivery: Maintains blood glucose levels and spares muscle/liver glycogen, postponing the onset of central and peripheral fatigue.
2. Enhanced absorption: Sodium and carbohydrate co-transport in the small intestine accelerates water absorption rates compared to plain water.
3. Fluid retention: Sodium helps maintain extracellular fluid volume and plasma volume, reducing cardiovascular drift and physical strain.
4. Thirst maintenance: Sodium preserves the osmotic drive to drink, ensuring athletes maintain better voluntary hydration habits.

Marking scheme

Part (a):
- Award [1] for identifying Strategy B (accept 6% carbohydrate-electrolyte solution).

Part (b):
- Award [1] for stating that Strategy A has lower variability / a smaller standard deviation than Strategy C (0.3% vs 0.5%).
- Award [1] for stating that a lower standard deviation means the participants' responses under Strategy A were more consistent/clustered closer to the mean than under Strategy C.

Part (c):
Award [1] per valid physiological point explained, up to [4 max]:
- Carbohydrate intake spares muscle/liver glycogen levels OR maintains blood glucose levels.
- Sodium/electrolytes promote faster intestinal absorption of water via co-transport mechanisms.
- Electrolytes help maintain plasma/extracellular fluid volume, reducing cardiovascular strain/drift.
- Sodium maintains the osmolality of blood, which sustains the drive to drink/thirst mechanism.
- Carbohydrate utilization prevents hypoglycemia and delays the onset of fatigue.
Question 2 · Data-Based Questions
7 marks
The table below shows the mean blood lactate concentrations (mmol/L) of elite and recreational rowers during an incremental rowing test at different percentages of their Maximum Aerobic Power (%MAP):

| Intensity (%MAP) | Elite Rowers (mmol/L) | Recreational Rowers (mmol/L) |
|---|---|---|
| 50% | 1.1 | 1.9 |
| 60% | 1.3 | 2.8 |
| 70% | 1.8 | 4.6 |
| 80% | 3.1 | 6.9 |
| 90% | 5.4 | 9.1 |

(a) State the blood lactate concentration for elite rowers at 80% MAP. [1]
(b) Describe the trend in blood lactate concentration as exercise intensity increases for both groups of rowers. [2]
(c) Explain the cardiovascular and muscular adaptations that allow elite athletes to maintain lower blood lactate concentrations during submaximal exercise. [4]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) At 80% MAP, the blood lactate concentration for elite rowers is 3.1 mmol/L.

(b) For both groups, blood lactate concentration increases as exercise intensity (%MAP) increases. However, the accumulation is much more pronounced and occurs at lower relative intensities in recreational rowers (rising from 1.9 to 9.1 mmol/L) compared to elite rowers (rising from 1.1 to 5.4 mmol/L). The onset of blood lactate accumulation (OBLA) is delayed to a higher %MAP in elite rowers.

(c) Several muscular and cardiovascular adaptations explain why elite rowers maintain lower blood lactate concentrations:
1. Increased capillary density around skeletal muscles: Improves local oxygen delivery and facilitates the removal of metabolic byproducts/lactate from active fibers.
2. Increased mitochondrial density and size: Enhances the capacity of the muscle cells to produce ATP aerobically via the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain, reducing reliance on anaerobic glycolysis.
3. Higher activity of oxidative enzymes (e.g., citrate synthase, succinate dehydrogenase): Facilitates rapid aerobic metabolism at higher submaximal workloads.
4. Improved lactate clearance: Greater expression of monocarboxylate transporters (MCT-1 and MCT-4) allows faster shuttling and clearance of lactate to be oxidized in slow-twitch fibers or the heart.
5. Glycogen-sparing effect: Better adaptation for fat oxidation at submaximal levels reduces the rate of pyruvate (and thus lactate) production.

Marking scheme

Part (a):
- Award [1] for stating 3.1 mmol/L (accept "3.1").

Part (b):
- Award [1] for stating that blood lactate increases in both groups as exercise intensity increases.
- Award [1] for identifying that recreational rowers experience a steeper/faster rate of lactate accumulation OR that elite rowers maintain lower absolute lactate levels at every exercise stage.

Part (c):
Award [1] per valid physiological adaptation explained, up to [4 max]:
- Increased capillary density improves muscle perfusion / oxygen delivery / lactate removal.
- Greater mitochondrial density/size allows more aerobic ATP resynthesis, decreasing glycolysis reliance.
- Higher concentrations of oxidative enzymes (e.g., succinate dehydrogenase) speed up aerobic pathways.
- Enhanced lactate transport proteins (MCTs) clear lactate from the sarcoplasm more rapidly.
- Improved capacity to oxidize free fatty acids spares glycogen reserves, resulting in less pyruvate/lactate creation.
- High percentage of Type I (slow-twitch) muscle fibers which have high oxidative capacity and lower lactate production rates.
Question 3 · Short Answer Theory
8 marks
Prolonged steady-state exercise, especially in a warm environment, leads to cardiovascular drift.

(a) Define the term cardiovascular drift. [2]

(b) Explain the physiological mechanisms that cause cardiovascular drift during prolonged, submaximal exercise in a warm environment. [4]

(c) Explain the relationship between heart rate, stroke volume, and cardiac output during this drift. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Cardiovascular drift refers to the progressive increase in heart rate accompanied by a parallel decrease in stroke volume during prolonged, steady-state submaximal exercise.

(b) During prolonged exercise in a warm environment, the body core temperature rises. To facilitate thermoregulation, sweat rate increases, causing a loss of body fluids and a subsequent reduction in blood plasma volume. This reduction in plasma volume decreases venous return (the volume of blood returning to the heart). According to Starling's law of the heart, a reduced venous return decreases end-diastolic volume, which directly causes a reduction in stroke volume. Furthermore, vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels occurs to transport heat to the skin surface, further reducing central blood volume and venous return.

(c) Cardiac output (\(Q\)) is the product of heart rate (HR) and stroke volume (SV) (represented by the formula \(Q = HR \times SV\)). During prolonged steady-state exercise, the body's metabolic demand remains constant, meaning cardiac output must also remain relatively constant. Because stroke volume progressively declines due to fluid loss and cutaneous redistribution, the heart rate must progressively increase to compensate and maintain a stable cardiac output.

Marking scheme

Part (a) [2 marks max]
- Award [1] for noting the progressive increase in heart rate.
- Award [1] for noting the corresponding decrease in stroke volume.
- Note: Must mention that this occurs during prolonged, steady-state/submaximal exercise.

Part (b) [4 marks max]
- Award [1] for mentioning increased core temperature leading to increased sweating / fluid loss.
- Award [1] for linking fluid loss to a reduction in blood/plasma volume.
- Award [1] for identifying that reduced plasma volume leads to decreased venous return.
- Award [1] for stating that decreased venous return reduces stroke volume (accept reference to Starling's law/reduced end-diastolic volume).
- Award [1] for stating that cutaneous vasodilation (redirection of blood to the skin for cooling) further reduces central venous return.

Part (c) [2 marks max]
- Award [1] for identifying that cardiac output (\(Q\)) remains relatively constant/stable during steady-state exercise.
- Award [1] for explaining that as stroke volume decreases, heart rate must increase to compensate and maintain this constant cardiac output (must mention the mathematical relationship: \(Q = HR \times SV\)).
Question 4 · Short Answer Theory
8 marks
The application of fluid dynamics is essential for optimizing performance in sports such as tennis and cycling.

(a) State Bernoulli's principle. [2]

(b) Explain how the Magnus effect influences the trajectory of a tennis ball hit with topspin. [4]

(c) State two methods a cyclist can use to minimize drag forces during a race. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Bernoulli's principle states that the pressure exerted by a fluid (such as air) is inversely proportional to its velocity. This means that as the speed of fluid flow increases, the pressure within that fluid decreases, and where the speed of fluid flow decreases, the pressure increases.

(b) When a tennis ball is hit with topspin, it rotates forward (clockwise relative to its forward motion). This rotation drags a layer of air around the ball. On top of the ball, the rotational motion of the ball's surface opposes the oncoming relative airflow, slowing the air down (creating low velocity, which results in high pressure). On the bottom of the ball, the rotational motion travels in the same direction as the oncoming relative airflow, speeding the air up (creating high velocity, which results in low pressure). The resulting pressure differential (high pressure on top and low pressure underneath) generates a downward force (the Magnus force) that pulls the ball down towards the court quicker than gravity alone.

(c) To minimize drag forces, a cyclist can:
1. Adopt an aerodynamic body position (e.g., tucking the head, leaning forward, or using low aerobars to minimize frontal surface area).
2. Use specialized aerodynamic equipment (e.g., streamlined teardrop helmets, deep-section or disc wheels, and aerodynamic frame designs).
3. Wear tight-fitting, specialized skinsuits made of materials designed to reduce surface drag.
4. Ride closely behind another cyclist to benefit from drafting (reducing frontal air resistance).

Marking scheme

Part (a) [2 marks max]
- Award [1] for stating that pressure is inversely proportional to velocity in a moving fluid (or equivalent description of velocity-pressure relationship).
- Award [1] for clarifying that high velocity results in low pressure OR low velocity results in high pressure.

Part (b) [4 marks max]
- Award [1] for identifying that topspin causes the ball to rotate in a forward direction.
- Award [1] for explaining that air velocity on top of the ball is reduced due to opposing surface boundary forces, creating high pressure.
- Award [1] for explaining that air velocity below the ball is increased due to surface boundary forces moving in the same direction, creating low pressure.
- Award [1] for concluding that the pressure difference (high pressure above, low pressure below) creates a downward force (Magnus force) causing a steeper downwards trajectory.

Part (c) [2 marks max]
- Award [1] per valid method stated, up to [2 marks max].
- Acceptable answers include:
- Aerodynamic body position / tucking.
- Drafting behind another rider.
- Wearing tight-fitting aerodynamic clothing/skinsuits.
- Using streamlined equipment (e.g., aero helmets, disc wheels, aero frames).

Paper 2 Section B

Choose and answer one complete extended response question out of three options.
1 Question · 20 marks
Question 1 · Extended Essay Response
20 marks
During prolonged endurance events like a marathon, the body must manage energy reserves and physiological systems under thermal stress.

(a) Outline the role of carbohydrates and lipids as energy sources during exercise of varying intensities. [4]

(b) Explain the physiological mechanisms of cardiovascular drift during prolonged, steady-state submaximal exercise in a hot environment. [7]

(c) Discuss nutritional and hydration strategies an endurance runner can implement before, during, and after a marathon to optimize performance and prevent fatigue. [9]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

### Part (a) Role of carbohydrates and lipids as energy sources
- At low intensities (e.g., < 50-60% \(VO_2\) max), lipids (fats) are the primary fuel source as they provide a high yield of ATP per molecule through aerobic pathways, though at a slower rate.
- As exercise intensity increases, there is a "crossover point" where the proportion of energy derived from lipids decreases and the proportion from carbohydrates increases.
- During high-intensity exercise (e.g., > 75-80% \(VO_2\) max), carbohydrates become the dominant fuel source because glycogen can be broken down rapidly both aerobically and anaerobically.
- Carbohydrates require less oxygen to produce a given amount of ATP compared to lipids, making them a more efficient fuel source when oxygen delivery is a limiting factor during intense exercise.

### Part (b) Physiological mechanisms of cardiovascular drift
- Cardiovascular drift is a progressive decrease in stroke volume (SV) and a parallel increase in heart rate (HR) during prolonged, steady-state submaximal exercise, while cardiac output (\(Q\)) remains relatively constant.
- In hot environments, the body sweats excessively to facilitate evaporative cooling to regulate core body temperature.
- This prolonged sweating leads to a loss of body fluids, causing a reduction in blood plasma volume.
- Simultaneously, cutaneous vasodilation occurs to direct blood flow to the skin, aiding heat dissipation.
- The combination of reduced plasma volume and venous pooling in the skin vasculature reduces the volume of blood returning to the heart (reduced venous return).
- A reduced venous return decreases end-diastolic volume (EDV) / pre-load.
- According to Starling's Law of the Heart, a lower EDV leads to weaker cardiac contraction and a resulting decrease in stroke volume (SV).
- To maintain a constant cardiac output (since \(Q = \text{HR} \times \text{SV}\)), the heart rate (HR) must progressively increase to compensate for the falling stroke volume.

### Part (c) Nutritional and hydration strategies before, during, and after a marathon

**Before the Marathon (Preparation):**
- **Carbohydrate Loading:** In the 2-3 days leading up to the race, the athlete should consume a high carbohydrate diet (approx. 8-10 g/kg of body weight per day) to maximize muscle and liver glycogen stores.
- **Pre-event Meal:** Consume a meal 3-4 hours prior to the race that is rich in complex carbohydrates, low in fat, fiber, and moderate in protein to top up glycogen reserves while minimizing gastrointestinal distress.
- **Pre-hydration:** Sip fluids (water or sports drinks) in the hours leading up to the race (e.g., 5-7 ml/kg body weight 4 hours prior) to ensure the athlete starts in a euhydrated state.

**During the Marathon (Performance):**
- **Exogenous Carbohydrates:** Consume 30-60 grams (up to 90g if using multiple transportable carbohydrates like glucose-fructose mixtures) of carbohydrates per hour using gels, sports drinks, or chews to maintain blood glucose levels and spare endogenous glycogen.
- **Fluid Replacement:** Drink fluids regularly to match sweat rate, aiming to prevent a body mass loss of greater than 2% while avoiding overhydration (which can lead to hyponatremia).
- **Electrolytes:** Ensure fluids contain sodium and other electrolytes to stimulate thirst, assist with intestinal fluid absorption, and maintain osmotic balance.

**After the Marathon (Recovery):**
- **Rehydration:** Consume fluids equal to approximately 1.5 times (150%) of the body weight lost during the run to fully restore fluid balance.
- **Refueling (Carbohydrates):** Ingest high-glycemic carbohydrates (e.g., 1.0-1.2 g/kg/hour) immediately after exercise and at regular intervals for the first 4 hours to kickstart rapid muscle glycogen resynthesis.
- **Repair (Protein):** Consume 20-25g of high-quality protein shortly after the race to provide essential amino acids to stimulate muscle protein synthesis and repair exercise-induced muscle damage.

Marking scheme

### Part (a) [4 marks maximum]
- **[1]** Award 1 mark for stating that lipids are the primary fuel source at low intensities.
- **[1]** Award 1 mark for describing the transition/crossover concept as intensity increases (shift from lipids to carbohydrates).
- **[1]** Award 1 mark for stating that carbohydrates are the dominant fuel source at high intensities.
- **[1]** Award 1 mark for explaining that carbohydrates are more oxygen-efficient (yield more ATP per unit of oxygen consumed than lipids) or are mobilized/metabolized faster.

### Part (b) [7 marks maximum]
- **[1]** Award 1 mark for defining cardiovascular drift (progressive decrease in SV, increase in HR, constant cardiac output \(Q\)).
- **[1]** Award 1 mark for linking hot environments to increased sweating for thermoregulation/evaporative cooling.
- **[1]** Award 1 mark for explaining that sweat loss leads to a reduction in blood/plasma volume.
- **[1]** Award 1 mark for noting cutaneous vasodilation (blood shunted to skin for heat loss).
- **[1]** Award 1 mark for explaining that reduced plasma volume and cutaneous pooling lead to decreased venous return.
- **[1]** Award 1 mark for linking reduced venous return to reduced end-diastolic volume (EDV) / ventricular filling.
- **[1]** Award 1 mark for explaining that reduced EDV decreases myocardial stretch and stroke volume (Starling's Law).
- **[1]** Award 1 mark for linking the reduction in SV to the compensatory increase in HR to maintain constant cardiac output (using the formula \(Q = \text{HR} \times \text{SV}\)).

### Part (c) [9 marks maximum]
*Award maximum 3 marks per phase (Before, During, After).*

**Before (Max 3 marks):**
- **[1]** Carb-loading: High carbohydrate intake (8-10g/kg) 2-3 days prior to maximize glycogen supercompensation.
- **[1]** Pre-event meal: High carb, low fat/fiber/protein 3-4 hours prior to prevent GI distress and top up blood glucose.
- **[1]** Pre-hydration: Drinking fluids (water/electrolyte solutions) hours before to achieve euhydration.

**During (Max 3 marks):**
- **[1]** Exogenous Carbs: Intake of 30-60g (or up to 90g) of carbohydrates per hour to maintain blood glucose.
- **[1]** Fluid Intake: Drinking to match sweat rate / preventing >2% body mass loss.
- **[1]** Electrolytes: Consuming sodium to prevent hyponatremia and assist fluid absorption.

**After (Max 3 marks):**
- **[1]** Rehydration: Ingesting 1.5 times the weight lost to restore fluid balance.
- **[1]** Refueling: Rapid carbohydrate intake (1.0-1.2g/kg/hr) immediately after to optimize glycogen resynthesis.
- **[1]** Repair: Ingesting 20-25g of high-quality protein to support muscle repair and synthesis.

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