IB DP · Thinka-original Practice Paper

2025 IB DP Sports, Exercise and Health Science Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Nov 2025 HL IB Diploma Programme-Style Mock — Sports, Exercise and Health Science

180 marks270 mins2025
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Nov 2025 HL IB Diploma Programme Sports, Exercise and Health Science paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from IB.

Paper 1

Answer all 40 multiple-choice questions on the answer sheet provided.
40 Question · 40 marks
Question 1 · multiple_choice
1 marks
What is the primary cause of the initial, rapid increase in heart rate at the onset of exercise?
  1. A.Increased circulating adrenaline
  2. B.Parasympathetic withdrawal
  3. C.Increased sympathetic stimulation
  4. D.Increased venous return (Starling's law)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The initial rapid increase in heart rate up to approximately 100 beats per minute at the very beginning of exercise is primarily due to the withdrawal of parasympathetic (vagal) nerve activity. Beyond this threshold, further increases in heart rate are driven by the stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and circulating catecholamines.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option B.
Question 2 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A soccer player kicks a ball, giving it a topspin. According to the Magnus effect, what is the direction of the lift force acting on the ball, and how does it affect the trajectory?
  1. A.Lateral force to the left, causing a curve to the left.
  2. B.Upward force, causing the ball to float longer.
  3. C.Downward force, causing the ball to dip faster.
  4. D.Lateral force to the right, causing a curve to the right.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Topspin causes the upper surface of the ball to rotate in the direction of the oncoming air flow, creating a region of high air pressure. The lower surface rotates in the opposite direction, creating a region of lower pressure. This pressure difference generates a downward force (negative lift), which causes the ball to dip more rapidly than it would under gravity alone.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option C.
Question 3 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A coach tells a gymnast that they bent their knees during a handstand. What classification of feedback does this represent?
  1. A.Extrinsic feedback and Knowledge of Performance
  2. B.Intrinsic feedback and Knowledge of Performance
  3. C.Extrinsic feedback and Knowledge of Results
  4. D.Intrinsic feedback and Knowledge of Results
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The feedback is delivered by an external agent (the coach), making it extrinsic (or augmented) feedback. Because the feedback details the movement mechanics and movement technique rather than the final score or outcome, it is categorized as Knowledge of Performance.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option A.
Question 4 · multiple_choice
1 marks
During the downward phase of a standard squat, which type of muscle contraction is occurring in the quadriceps femoris, and what is its role?
  1. A.Concentric contraction, acting to initiate the movement.
  2. B.Isometric contraction, acting to stabilize the knee joint.
  3. C.Eccentric contraction, acting to generate explosive upward force.
  4. D.Eccentric contraction, acting to control the descent.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

During the downward phase of a squat, the knee joint flexes. To control the movement against gravity, the quadriceps femoris muscles must lengthen while generating force, which is an eccentric contraction. This acts as a braking mechanism to control the rate of descent.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option D.
Question 5 · multiple_choice
1 marks
An endurance runner wants to maximize glycogen resynthesis immediately following an intensive 2-hour training session. Which of the following dietary strategies is most effective?
  1. A.Consuming high-glycemic index carbohydrates within 30 minutes.
  2. B.Consuming low-glycemic index carbohydrates 4 hours after the run.
  3. C.Consuming a high-fat meal immediately after the run.
  4. D.Consuming high-protein meals exclusively for the first 12 hours.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Consuming carbohydrates with a high glycemic index (GI) immediately after exercise (within 30 minutes) rapidly elevates blood glucose and insulin levels, optimizing the transport of glucose into muscles and speeding up glycogen resynthesis during the early recovery window.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option A.
Question 6 · multiple_choice
1 marks
According to Eysenck's theory of personality, which of the following is characteristic of an extroverted athlete compared to an introverted athlete?
  1. A.They have a higher level of intrinsic cortical arousal and prefer quiet, solitary sports.
  2. B.They have a lower level of intrinsic cortical arousal and seek high-stimulation environments.
  3. C.They require lower levels of sensory stimulation to reach optimal performance.
  4. D.They are highly susceptible to over-arousal in calm environments.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Hans Eysenck proposed that extroverts have lower baseline levels of cortical arousal in their Reticular Activating System (RAS) compared to introverts. Consequently, they seek out external stimulation, dynamic environments, and high-intensity social settings to reach their optimal levels of arousal.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option B.
Question 7 · multiple_choice
1 marks
According to Self-Determination Theory, which of the following scenarios best satisfies the need for autonomy in an elite athlete?
  1. A.The athlete is given the opportunity to collaborate with the coach to design their own training schedule.
  2. B.The athlete receives a monetary bonus for winning a national championship.
  3. C.The athlete feels a strong sense of belonging and connection with their teammates.
  4. D.The athlete masters a highly complex technical skill after months of practice.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Autonomy refers to the need for individuals to experience self-direction, personal agency, and choice. Allowing an athlete to participate in designing their own training schedules directly promotes a sense of personal choice and volition (autonomy). In contrast, option C targets the need for relatedness, option D targets competence, and option B is an extrinsic reward.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option A.
Question 8 · multiple_choice
1 marks
An athlete experiences physiological symptoms of stress before a competition, such as an increased heart rate, sweating, and muscle tension. What term is used to describe these physical manifestations of anxiety?
  1. A.Cognitive anxiety
  2. B.Eustress
  3. C.Somatic anxiety
  4. D.State self-confidence
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Somatic anxiety refers directly to the physical symptoms and physiological bodily changes associated with anxiety, including autonomic arousal (e.g., increased heart rate, sweating, dry mouth, tension). Cognitive anxiety is the mental component of anxiety, such as worry or negative self-talk.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option C.
Question 9 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following describes the typical cardiovascular response during a graded exercise test to exhaustion in a healthy, untrained individual?
  1. A.Stroke volume increases linearly until exhaustion.
  2. B.Heart rate increases linearly while stroke volume plateaus at approximately 40-60% of \(VO_2\text{max}\).
  3. C.Cardiac output remains constant as heart rate increases.
  4. D.Diastolic blood pressure increases significantly while systolic blood pressure remains stable.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In untrained individuals, stroke volume typically increases during submaximal exercise until it plateaus at approximately 40% to 60% of \(VO_2\text{max}\). Beyond this intensity, any further increase in cardiac output is achieved primarily through an increase in heart rate. Systolic blood pressure increases while diastolic blood pressure remains relatively constant.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying that stroke volume plateaus at submaximal intensity while heart rate continues to increase linearly to exhaustion.
Question 10 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A sprinter exerts a force against the starting blocks to accelerate at the start of a 100-meter race. Which of Newton's laws of motion best explains why the blocks push back on the sprinter with an equal and opposite force?
  1. A.Newton's First Law (Law of Inertia)
  2. B.Newton's Second Law (Law of Acceleration)
  3. C.Newton's Third Law (Law of Action-Reaction)
  4. D.Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation
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Worked solution

Newton's Third Law of Motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. When the sprinter exerts a force backward and downward onto the blocks (action), the blocks exert an equal and opposite force forward and upward onto the sprinter (reaction), propelling them forward.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying Newton's Third Law of Motion (Action-Reaction).
Question 11 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A tennis player uses their understanding of a tennis serve to help learn a volleyball serve. What type of transfer of learning is demonstrating this effect?
  1. A.Negative transfer
  2. B.Bilateral transfer
  3. C.Proactive positive transfer
  4. D.Retroactive positive transfer
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Worked solution

Positive transfer occurs when previous learning facilitates the acquisition of a new skill. Since the tennis serve was learned before the volleyball serve and aids in its execution, this is an example of proactive positive transfer.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for selecting proactive positive transfer.
Question 12 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
During the downward phase of a standard squat (eccentric phase of the quadriceps), what is happening to the muscle length and tension of the agonist muscle group?
  1. A.The quadriceps are shortening while generating tension.
  2. B.The quadriceps are lengthening while generating tension.
  3. C.The quadriceps remain at a constant length while tension increases.
  4. D.The quadriceps are relaxing completely to allow gravity to lower the body.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

During an eccentric contraction, the muscle is actively lengthening under tension to control the movement against gravity. In a squat, during the downward phase, the quadriceps (agonist muscles) lengthen to control the rate of knee flexion.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying that during the eccentric phase, muscle length increases while maintaining tension.
Question 13 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following correctly describes the primary storage sites and forms of carbohydrates in the human body?
  1. A.As glucose in the adipose tissue and skeletal muscle
  2. B.As glycogen in the liver and skeletal muscle
  3. C.As triglycerides in the liver and kidneys
  4. D.As glycogen in the brain and cardiac muscle
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Carbohydrates are stored in the body primarily as glycogen, with the majority located in skeletal muscle and a smaller but highly active reserve in the liver.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying glycogen in the liver and skeletal muscle.
Question 14 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
According to Deci and Ryan’s Self-Determination Theory, which of the following represents the correct triad of basic psychological needs required to foster intrinsic motivation?
  1. A.Competence, relatedness, and autonomy
  2. B.Self-esteem, socialization, and feedback
  3. C.Performance, ego-orientation, and task-orientation
  4. D.Confidence, peer-support, and goal-setting
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Self-Determination Theory (SDT) posits that there are three basic psychological needs that must be satisfied to support optimal functioning and intrinsic motivation: autonomy, competence, and relatedness.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying autonomy, competence, and relatedness.
Question 15 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following statements best describes the interactionist approach to understanding personality in sports?
  1. A.Behavior is determined entirely by inherited, stable genetic traits.
  2. B.Behavior is determined solely by environmental influences and situational demands.
  3. C.Behavior is a product of the dynamic relationship between personal traits and situational factors.
  4. D.Behavior is driven entirely by unconscious desires and past childhood experiences.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The interactionist approach views personality and behavior as a result of the interaction between stable internal traits (the individual's characteristics) and the situational context (the environment).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying that behavior is determined by the combination of stable traits and situational factors.
Question 16 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which chronic cardiovascular adaptation is observed in an endurance athlete at rest compared to an untrained individual?
  1. A.Higher resting heart rate and smaller stroke volume
  2. B.Higher resting cardiac output and lower blood volume
  3. C.Lower resting heart rate and larger stroke volume
  4. D.Lower resting blood volume and higher systolic blood pressure
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Chronic aerobic training leads to physiological adaptations including cardiac hypertrophy (specifically left ventricular volume expansion) which increases stroke volume. Consequently, to maintain the same resting cardiac output, resting heart rate decreases (bradycardia).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for selecting lower resting heart rate and larger stroke volume.
Question 17 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following describes the redistribution of blood flow (shunting) during high-intensity aerobic exercise?
  1. A.Blood flow to the kidneys increases, while blood flow to active skeletal muscle increases.
  2. B.Blood flow to the brain decreases, while blood flow to the skin decreases.
  3. C.Blood flow to the digestive tract decreases, while blood flow to active skeletal muscle increases.
  4. D.Blood flow to active skeletal muscle decreases, while blood flow to the myocardium remains constant.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

During high-intensity exercise, sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes vasoconstriction in non-essential organs (like the digestive tract) and vasodilation in active skeletal muscles to meet the increased demand for oxygen and nutrients. Blood flow to the brain is maintained, and blood flow to the heart increases.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option C. No partial credit is given for incorrect answers.
Question 18 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A soccer player kicks a ball, imparting top-spin. According to the Magnus effect, how does this top-spin affect the air pressure around the ball and its flight path?
  1. A.High pressure is created on top of the ball, forcing the ball to dive downwards.
  2. B.Low pressure is created on top of the ball, forcing the ball to rise upwards.
  3. C.Equal pressure is created on all sides, resulting in a straight-line trajectory.
  4. D.High pressure is created underneath the ball, causing it to float longer.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Top-spin causes the boundary layer of air on top of the ball to oppose the oncoming airflow, decreasing relative velocity and creating a high-pressure zone. Air below the ball flows faster, creating low pressure. This pressure difference creates a downward force, causing the ball to dive downwards.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option A. No partial credit is given for incorrect answers.
Question 19 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A tennis player hits a forehand and immediately feels through sensory feedback that the ball hit the frame of the racket rather than the sweet spot. What type of feedback is this?
  1. A.Extrinsic, knowledge of results
  2. B.Intrinsic, knowledge of performance
  3. C.Extrinsic, knowledge of performance
  4. D.Intrinsic, knowledge of results
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Intrinsic feedback is sensory information that is naturally available to the performer during or after the movement. Knowledge of performance relates to the characteristics of the movement or execution rather than the ultimate outcome of the shot. Feeling the vibration of the frame is intrinsic knowledge of performance.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option B. No partial credit is given for incorrect answers.
Question 20 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
During the upward phase of a standard push-up, which muscular contraction and joint movement occur at the elbow joint?
  1. A.Eccentric contraction of the biceps brachii during elbow flexion
  2. B.Concentric contraction of the triceps brachii during elbow extension
  3. C.Eccentric contraction of the triceps brachii during elbow flexion
  4. D.Concentric contraction of the biceps brachii during elbow extension
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

During the upward phase of a push-up, the body is raised away from the floor, requiring elbow extension. The prime mover for elbow extension is the triceps brachii, which shortens under tension (concentric contraction).

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option B. No partial credit is given for incorrect answers.
Question 21 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which of the following describes the primary physiological role of consuming high-glycemic index (GI) carbohydrates immediately after a prolonged endurance training session?
  1. A.To promote slow, sustained release of glucose into the blood stream over several hours.
  2. B.To rapidly replenish muscle glycogen stores by triggering a high insulin response.
  3. C.To minimize the rate of digestion and prevent gastrointestinal distress.
  4. D.To stimulate the breakdown of stored triglycerides for aerobic respiration.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

High-glycemic index (GI) carbohydrates are rapidly digested and absorbed, causing a fast rise in blood glucose levels. This triggers a high release of insulin, which maximizes glucose uptake into muscle cells for rapid glycogen resynthesis.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option B. No partial credit is given for incorrect answers.
Question 22 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
According to Weiner's Attribution Theory, how would an athlete who attributes a loss to 'bad luck' classify this attribution?
  1. A.Internal, Stable, Uncontrollable
  2. B.External, Unstable, Uncontrollable
  3. C.External, Stable, Controllable
  4. D.Internal, Unstable, Controllable
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In Weiner's Attribution Theory, luck is classified as an external factor (outside the athlete's body/control), unstable (it can change unpredictably from task to task), and uncontrollable (the athlete cannot influence it).

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option B. No partial credit is given for incorrect answers.
Question 23 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly distinguishes the Inverted-U Hypothesis from the Drive Theory of arousal and performance?
  1. A.Drive Theory suggests performance continuously improves as arousal increases, whereas the Inverted-U Hypothesis suggests performance peaks at moderate arousal and declines at higher levels.
  2. B.Drive Theory states that performance is highest at low arousal levels, whereas the Inverted-U Hypothesis suggests arousal has no effect on motor task performance.
  3. C.Drive Theory proposes that complex tasks are performed best at high arousal, whereas the Inverted-U Hypothesis claims simple tasks require low arousal.
  4. D.Drive Theory models performance as a sudden catastrophic drop at high arousal, whereas the Inverted-U Hypothesis models a gradual improvement.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Drive Theory proposes a linear relationship where higher arousal levels lead to better performance. The Inverted-U Hypothesis proposes a curvilinear relationship where performance increases with arousal up to an optimal midpoint, beyond which further arousal impairs performance.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option A. No partial credit is given for incorrect answers.
Question 24 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
An elite athlete possesses a strong 'Need to Achieve' (NACH) personality profile. According to achievement motivation theory, which of the following competitive situations are they most likely to seek out?
  1. A.Challenging tasks with a 50% chance of success where they can take personal responsibility.
  2. B.Very easy tasks where success is guaranteed to avoid negative feedback.
  3. C.Highly difficult tasks where failure is expected so they cannot be blamed.
  4. D.Situations with purely external rewards where personal effort does not influence the outcome.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

NACH (Need to Achieve) athletes typically seek out challenging but realistic situations (such as a 50 percent probability of success) where they can take personal responsibility for the outcome, value feedback, and are motivated by the challenge of pride in success.

Marking scheme

Award [1] for the correct option A. No partial credit is given for incorrect answers.
Question 25 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During high-intensity aerobic exercise, which organ experiences the greatest relative decrease in the percentage of total cardiac output it receives compared to resting conditions?
  1. A.Skeletal muscles
  2. B.Heart
  3. C.Kidneys
  4. D.Brain
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

During exercise, blood flow is shunted away from non-essential visceral organs to support the metabolically active skeletal muscles. While absolute blood flow to the brain remains relatively constant, the kidneys experience the most drastic relative reduction in their percentage share of the total cardiac output (dropping from approximately 20% at rest to around 1% during maximal exercise).

Marking scheme

Award [1] mark for identifying C as the correct option.
Question 26 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which of the following correctly describes a third-class lever system?
  1. A.The fulcrum is located between the effort and the load.
  2. B.The load is located between the fulcrum and the effort.
  3. C.The effort is applied between the fulcrum and the load.
  4. D.The effort and load are applied at the exact same location relative to the fulcrum.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In a third-class lever system, the effort force is applied between the fulcrum and the load. This is the most common lever class found in the human body, facilitating speed and range of motion at the expense of force.

Marking scheme

Award [1] mark for identifying C as the correct option.
Question 27 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An elite gymnast can execute a complex routine consistently with minimal conscious thought, allowing them to focus entirely on artistic expression and performance adjustments. According to Fitts and Posner, which stage of learning is being demonstrated?
  1. A.Cognitive stage
  2. B.Associative stage
  3. C.Autonomous stage
  4. D.Somatic stage
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The autonomous stage of learning is characterized by skills becoming automatic, requiring little to no conscious cognitive processing. This frees up the performer's attentional capacity to focus on external cues or higher-level tactics and artistic expression.

Marking scheme

Award [1] mark for identifying C as the correct option.
Question 28 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which type of muscle contraction occurs in the quadriceps femoris group during the downward phase of a standard squat exercise?
  1. A.Concentric contraction
  2. B.Eccentric contraction
  3. C.Isometric contraction
  4. D.Isokinetic contraction
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

During the downward phase of a squat, the knee flexes under the resistance of gravity. The quadriceps femoris lengthens while generating force to control the descent, which is defined as an eccentric contraction.

Marking scheme

Award [1] mark for identifying B as the correct option.
Question 29 · multiple-choice
1 marks
What is the recommended nutritional strategy for maximizing muscle glycogen resynthesis immediately following an exhaustive endurance training session?
  1. A.Consume high quantities of unsaturated lipids within 30 minutes of finishing.
  2. B.Consume high-glycemic carbohydrates within 30 minutes of finishing.
  3. C.Consume low-glycemic carbohydrates 3 hours after finishing.
  4. D.Consume essential amino acids only, while restricting carbohydrate intake.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Consuming high-glycemic index carbohydrates within the first 30 minutes post-exercise maximizes muscle glycogen resynthesis. This timing takes advantage of elevated insulin sensitivity and GLUT-4 transporter activity.

Marking scheme

Award [1] mark for identifying B as the correct option.
Question 30 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which approach to sports personality suggests that an athlete's behavior is a function of both their stable, inherent personality traits and the immediate situational environment?
  1. A.Trait perspective
  2. B.Situational perspective
  3. C.Interactionist perspective
  4. D.Psychodynamic perspective
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The interactionist perspective proposes that behavior is determined by the interaction between a person's personality traits and the situational factors of their environment, typically represented by the formula \(B = f(P, E)\).

Marking scheme

Award [1] mark for identifying C as the correct option.
Question 31 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An amateur runner continues to train daily because they find the activity inherently enjoyable and feel a deep sense of personal accomplishment. What type of motivation is this?
  1. A.Extrinsic motivation
  2. B.Intrinsic motivation
  3. C.Amotivation
  4. D.Introjected regulation
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Intrinsic motivation refers to engaging in an activity for the inherent satisfaction of the activity itself, rather than for some separable consequence, external reward, or pressure.

Marking scheme

Award [1] mark for identifying B as the correct option.
Question 32 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A competitive diver experiences butterflies in their stomach, an increased heart rate, and muscular tension immediately prior to a competition. What term is used to describe these physical responses?
  1. A.Cognitive anxiety
  2. B.Somatic anxiety
  3. C.Trait anxiety
  4. D.Eustress
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Somatic anxiety represents the physiological manifestations of arousal and anxiety, such as sweating, elevated heart rate, muscle tension, and nausea, as opposed to cognitive anxiety, which relates to negative thoughts and worries.

Marking scheme

Award [1] mark for identifying B as the correct option.
Question 33 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
What primary mechanism causes the rapid initial increase in heart rate at the very onset of exercise?
  1. A.Direct chemical stimulation of the sinoatrial (SA) node by elevated blood carbon dioxide levels.
  2. B.An increase in sympathetic nervous system stimulation before any parasympathetic changes occur.
  3. C.The withdrawal of parasympathetic (vagal) tone, followed by an increase in sympathetic stimulation.
  4. D.Increased venous return causing immediate stretching of the myocardium (Frank-Starling effect).
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

At the onset of exercise, the rapid initial increase in heart rate (up to approximately 100 beats per minute) is caused by the withdrawal of parasympathetic (vagal) nerve activity. Beyond this point, further increases in heart rate are driven by the activation of the sympathetic nervous system and the release of catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine).

Marking scheme

[1] Award 1 mark for identifying C as the correct mechanism.
Question 34 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A soccer player kicks a ball with topspin. Which statement correctly describes the aerodynamic forces acting on the ball due to the Magnus effect?
  1. A.Air velocity is higher on top of the ball, creating a high-pressure zone on top that causes the ball to lift.
  2. B.Air velocity is lower on top of the ball, creating a high-pressure zone on top that causes the ball to dip downwards.
  3. C.Air velocity is higher on top of the ball, creating a low-pressure zone on top that causes the ball to lift.
  4. D.Air velocity is lower on top of the ball, creating a low-pressure zone on top that causes the ball to dip downwards.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Due to topspin, the top surface of the ball rotates forward (against the direction of relative airflow), which slows down the boundary layer of air on top. This results in lower air velocity and consequently higher pressure on top of the ball (according to Bernoulli's principle). Conversely, the bottom surface rotates with the airflow, increasing velocity and lowering pressure. This pressure difference creates a downward Magnus force, causing the ball to dip.

Marking scheme

[1] Award 1 mark for identifying B as the correct statement explaining the Magnus effect on a topspin ball.
Question 35 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
According to Welford's model of information processing, which of the following represents the correct sequence of stages after sensory organs receive a stimulus?
  1. A.Perception \(\rightarrow\) Short-term store \(\rightarrow\) Decision making \(\rightarrow\) Effector control
  2. B.Short-term store \(\rightarrow\) Effector control \(\rightarrow\) Perception \(\rightarrow\) Decision making
  3. C.Decision making \(\rightarrow\) Perception \(\rightarrow\) Short-term store \(\rightarrow\) Effector control
  4. D.Perception \(\rightarrow\) Decision making \(\rightarrow\) Effector control \(\rightarrow\) Short-term store
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Welford's information processing model follows this logical sequence: sensory input is received, filtered/interpreted via perception, stored temporarily in the short-term memory store, processed to make a decision (decision making), and then instructions are organized through effector control to signal the muscles (effectors).

Marking scheme

[1] Award 1 mark for selecting A.
Question 36 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
During the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, which structural change occurs within the sarcomere according to the sliding filament theory?
  1. A.The A-band shortens as thick filaments contract.
  2. B.The I-band and H-zone shorten, while the A-band remains a constant width.
  3. C.The individual actin and myosin filaments shorten in length.
  4. D.The Z-lines move further apart to allow more muscle tension.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

According to the sliding filament theory, actin (thin) and myosin (thick) filaments do not change their actual length. Instead, they slide past each other. This causes the I-band (containing only thin filaments) and the H-zone (containing only thick filaments) to shorten, while the A-band (representing the full length of the thick filaments) remains unchanged in width.

Marking scheme

[1] Award 1 mark for selecting B.
Question 37 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
An endurance runner wishes to consume a meal 3 to 4 hours before a marathon. Which food category and Glycemic Index (GI) classification is most appropriate to ensure a sustained release of energy?
  1. A.High-GI foods, such as sports drinks, to rapidly elevate blood glucose levels.
  2. B.Low-GI foods, such as pasta or oatmeal, to provide a slow, sustained release of glucose.
  3. C.High-protein foods, such as chicken breast, to minimize muscle catabolism.
  4. D.High-fat foods, such as cheese, to maximize fat oxidation during the race.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Consuming low-GI (Glycemic Index) carbohydrates 3 to 4 hours prior to prolonged exercise is recommended because they are digested and absorbed slowly. This prevents a rapid rise and subsequent crash in blood glucose (insulin spike), providing a steady supply of energy throughout the event.

Marking scheme

[1] Award 1 mark for identifying B as the correct dietary recommendation.
Question 38 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which personality theory proposes that an athlete's behavior is determined by the dynamic interaction between their stable, internal traits and the specific environmental situation, represented by the formula \( B = f(P, E) \)?
  1. A.Trait Theory
  2. B.Social Learning Theory
  3. C.Interactionist Theory
  4. D.Psychodynamic Theory
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The Interactionist Theory suggests that behavior (B) is a function (f) of personality (P) and the environment (E), i.e., \( B = f(P, E) \). It argues that stable traits and situational factors interact to shape how an athlete behaves in a sporting context.

Marking scheme

[1] Award 1 mark for identifying C as the correct personality theory.
Question 39 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A basketball coach decides to let players design their own set plays during training sessions. According to Self-Determination Theory (SDT), which basic psychological need is the coach primarily supporting?
  1. A.Competence
  2. B.Autonomy
  3. C.Relatedness
  4. D.Self-actualization
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Autonomy refers to the need to feel in control of one's own actions, choices, and destiny. By allowing players to design their own plays, the coach gives them a sense of choice and ownership, thereby supporting their need for autonomy.

Marking scheme

[1] Award 1 mark for selecting B.
Question 40 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Which sports psychology theory proposes that a high level of cognitive anxiety, when paired with high physiological arousal, causes a sudden, dramatic drop in performance rather than a gradual decline?
  1. A.Drive Theory
  2. B.Inverted-U Hypothesis
  3. C.Catastrophe Theory
  4. D.Individual Zones of Optimal Functioning (IZOF)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Catastrophe Theory (Hardy and Fazey) predicts that physiological arousal is beneficial for performance up to an optimal level, but only if cognitive anxiety is low. If cognitive anxiety is high, reaching high levels of physiological arousal leads to a sudden, catastrophic drop in performance.

Marking scheme

[1] Award 1 mark for identifying C as the correct theory.

Paper 2 Section A

Answer all structured, data-response, and short-answer questions in the spaces provided.
4 Question · 50 marks
Question 1 · Data Response
11 marks
A study investigated the effects of consuming a 6% carbohydrate-electrolyte solution (CHO) versus a placebo solution (PLA) during 120 minutes of cycling at 70% of \(\text{VO}_2\text{max}\). The table below displays mean blood glucose concentrations and ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) recorded every 30 minutes.

| Time (minutes) | Blood Glucose (mmol/L) - CHO | Blood Glucose (mmol/L) - PLA | RPE - CHO | RPE - PLA |
| :---: | :---: | :---: | :---: | :---: |
| 0 | 4.5 | 4.5 | 6 | 6 |
| 30 | 4.8 | 4.4 | 9 | 10 |
| 60 | 5.0 | 4.1 | 11 | 13 |
| 90 | 4.9 | 3.6 | 13 | 16 |
| 120 | 4.7 | 3.2 | 15 | 19 |

(a) State the difference in blood glucose concentration (in mmol/L) between the CHO and PLA conditions at 90 minutes. [1]

(b) Describe the changes in RPE over time for both conditions. [3]

(c) Explain the physiological reasons for the difference in RPE between the CHO and PLA conditions at 120 minutes. [4]

(d) Discuss the advantages of using a double-blind, randomized crossover design in this study. [3]
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Worked solution

(a) Difference at 90 minutes:
\(4.9\text{ mmol/L} - 3.6\text{ mmol/L} = 1.3\text{ mmol/L}\)

(b) Description of RPE trends:
- For both conditions, RPE increases progressively throughout the 120 minutes.
- The rate of increase in RPE is greater in the PLA condition compared to the CHO condition.
- While both start at an identical RPE of 6, the gap between conditions widens over time (e.g., a difference of 1 point at 30 minutes vs. a difference of 4 points at 120 minutes).

(c) Physiological reasons for RPE difference at 120 mins:
- In the PLA trial, blood glucose levels drop significantly (to 3.2 mmol/L), indicating hypoglycemia and depletion of glycogen stores.
- Low blood glucose reduces the rate of glucose uptake by the central nervous system/brain.
- This leads to central fatigue, where motor cortex output must increase to maintain the same power output, raising the subjective perception of effort.
- In the CHO trial, exogenous carbohydrate ingestion maintains blood glucose levels (at 4.7 mmol/L), providing an active substrate for both active skeletal muscles and the brain, delaying central and peripheral fatigue.

(d) Advantages of the experimental design:
- Double-blind: Prevents participant bias (placebo effect) and researcher expectancy bias, as neither party knows which fluid is administered.
- Randomized: Minimizes order effects (such as learning effects, fitness gains, or residual fatigue from the first trial) by varying the sequence of trials.
- Crossover: Allows each participant to act as their own control, which minimizes the confounding effects of inter-individual variability (e.g., base fitness, metabolic rate).

Marking scheme

(a) [1 max]
- Award [1] for 1.3 (or 1.3 mmol/L).

(b) [3 max]
- Award [1] for noting that RPE increases continuously in both conditions.
- Award [1] for noting that RPE increases faster/is higher in the PLA condition than the CHO condition.
- Award [1] for quantification of the difference (e.g., identical at 0 mins but 4 points higher in PLA at 120 mins).

(c) [4 max]
- Award [1] for identifying that blood glucose drops significantly/hypoglycemia occurs in the PLA trial (to 3.2 mmol/L) due to glycogen depletion.
- Award [1] for linking low blood glucose to reduced energy availability/glucose supply to the central nervous system/brain.
- Award [1] for explaining that central fatigue increases motor unit recruitment effort, which elevates the perception of exertion (RPE).
- Award [1] for explaining that CHO ingestion maintains circulating blood glucose, sparing muscle glycogen or serving as a direct fuel, which preserves neuromuscular efficiency and lowers RPE.

(d) [3 max]
- Award [1] for explaining the benefit of a double-blind setup (reduces participant/researcher bias).
- Award [1] for explaining the benefit of randomization (mitigates order/learning/fatigue effects).
- Award [1] for explaining the benefit of a crossover design (controls for individual differences by using participants as their own control).
Question 2 · Data Response
11 marks
A biomechanics laboratory examined vertical ground reaction forces (vGRF) during a single-leg landing from a 30 cm platform. Ten recreational athletes performed landings wearing traditional cushioning shoes and minimalist athletic shoes. The mean biomechanical results are presented in the table below.

| Footwear Type | Peak vGRF (Body Weights, BW) | Time to Peak Force (ms) |
| :--- | :---: | :---: |
| Traditional Cushioning | 2.4 | 45 |
| Minimalist | 3.6 | 15 |

(a) Identify the shoe type that results in the higher rate of force development. [1]

(b) Compare the vertical ground reaction forces and landing durations between the two footwear conditions. [3]

(c) Explain the biomechanical mechanisms by which traditional cushioning shoes protect the musculoskeletal system during landing impact. [4]

(d) Suggest three limitations of this laboratory study when applying these findings to dynamic team sports. [3]
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Worked solution

(a) Minimalist footwear.

(b) Comparison of parameters:
- Peak vGRF is 1.2 BW (50%) higher in the minimalist shoe (3.6 BW) compared to the traditional cushioning shoe (2.4 BW).
- Time to reach peak force is three times longer in the traditional cushioning shoe (45 ms) than in the minimalist shoe (15 ms).
- Traditional cushioning shoes distribute the impact energy over a significantly longer duration, resulting in a lower peak impact force.

(c) Biomechanical mechanisms of cushioning:
- Based on the impulse-momentum relationship, Impulse is the product of Force and Time (\(I = F
\times
\Delta t\)).
- For a given landing, the change in momentum (impulse required to stop the body) is constant.
- Cushioning materials (e.g., EVA foam midsoles) compress upon contact, which increases the time of deceleration (\(\Delta t\)).
- Because impact time is increased, the average and peak impact forces (\(F\)) acting on the body are minimized, reducing the mechanical stress and potential for overuse injuries in bones, joints, and tendons.

(d) Limitations of the laboratory study:
- Simple vertical drop landings (straight down) do not replicate multidirectional movements (e.g., cutting, pivoting, rapid deceleration) common in team sports.
- Laboratory conditions utilize fixed force plates which lack the varying friction, compliance, and unevenness of real sports surfaces (e.g., natural grass, turf).
- Controlled drops lack the psychological distress, fatigue, or cognitive load of game situations which can alter muscle pre-activation and landing mechanics.

Marking scheme

(a) [1 max]
- Award [1] for Minimalist.

(b) [3 max]
- Award [1] for stating that peak vGRF is higher in minimalist shoes (or lower in cushioning shoes).
- Award [1] for stating that time to peak force is shorter in minimalist shoes (or longer in cushioning shoes).
- Award [1] for a comparative synthesis, e.g., cushioning shoes spread the force over a longer time duration, reducing the peak force magnitude.

(c) [4 max]
- Award [1] for referencing the impulse-momentum relationship: \(\text{Impulse} = F \Delta t\) (or \(F = \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t}\)).
- Award [1] for explaining that the total change in momentum (impulse) during the landing is constant (mass and velocity at touchdown are constant).
- Award [1] for stating that cushioning materials deform/compress, directly increasing the duration of the impact (\(\Delta t\)).
- Award [1] for concluding that an increased time of impact results in lower peak vertical forces (\(F\)), thereby reducing mechanical stress on skeletal structures.

(d) [3 max]
- Award [1] for explaining that static drop tests lack the multidirectional/horizontal movements of team sports.
- Award [1] for noting that laboratory force plates do not simulate real sports surfaces (e.g., turf, grass, court floors).
- Award [1] for mentioning the lack of game-like conditions, such as fatigue, defensive pressure, or unpredictability, which alter landing patterns.
Question 3 · Short Answer
14 marks
(a) Define cardiovascular drift. [2]

(b) Explain the physiological mechanisms that lead to cardiovascular drift during prolonged, steady-state exercise in a hot environment. [5]

(c) Distinguish between the distribution of blood flow at rest and during maximal exercise. [4]

(d) Outline three functions of the conducting airways. [3]
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Worked solution

(a) Cardiovascular drift is characterized by a gradual, progressive increase in heart rate accompanied by a parallel decrease in stroke volume during prolonged, submaximal steady-state exercise, while cardiac output remains relatively constant.

(b) During prolonged exercise in a hot environment, the body increases sweating rates to aid thermoregulation through evaporative cooling. This loss of fluid leads to a reduction in blood plasma volume. A lower plasma volume reduces the venous return (preload) to the heart. According to Starling's Law of the heart, a reduced venous return decreases the end-diastolic volume, which in turn causes a reduction in stroke volume. To compensate for the reduced stroke volume and maintain a constant cardiac output (since \(Q = HR \times SV\)), the heart rate must progressively increase.

(c) At rest, about 15-20% of cardiac output is directed to active skeletal muscles, while the majority (approx. 80-85%) is directed to the kidneys, liver, stomach, and other visceral organs. During maximal exercise, this distribution changes dramatically: up to 80-85% of cardiac output is redirected to the working skeletal muscles via vasodilation of active arterioles. Conversely, blood flow to visceral organs is severely restricted via vasoconstriction of inactive vascular beds. While absolute blood flow to the brain is maintained, its percentage of the total cardiac output decreases. Blood flow to the skin also initially increases for cooling but may be restricted during maximal exertion to prioritize muscular oxygenation.

(d) The three primary functions of the conducting airways are:
1. Offering a low-resistance pathway for airflow.
2. Warming the inspired air to core body temperature.
3. Humidifying/moistening the inspired air to protect the delicate mucosal surfaces.
4. Filtering/cleaning the air using cilia and mucus to trap foreign particles before they reach the alveoli.

Marking scheme

(a) Award [1] for noting the progressive increase in heart rate and [1] for the parallel decrease in stroke volume during prolonged steady-state exercise.
- Accept reference to cardiac output remaining constant for clarification.

(b) Award [1] per valid physiological mechanism step, up to [5]:
- Body temperature increases, triggering sweating for heat dissipation [1].
- Sweating causes a reduction in blood plasma volume [1].
- Reduced plasma volume leads to lower venous return/preload [1].
- Lower venous return causes a decrease in stroke volume (Starling's Law) [1].
- Cardiac output must be maintained (\(Q = HR \times SV\)) [1].
- Therefore, heart rate increases to compensate [1].
- Redirection of blood flow to the skin for heat dissipation also decreases central blood volume/stroke volume [1].

(c) Award [1] per comparative point, up to [4]:
- At rest, only 15-20% of blood flow goes to skeletal muscle; during maximal exercise, this increases to 80-85% [1].
- At rest, digestive/visceral organs receive the majority of cardiac output; during maximal exercise, vasoconstriction reduces this drastically [1].
- Coronary blood flow (heart muscle) increases absolutely during exercise [1].
- Brain blood flow remains relatively constant in absolute terms but represents a lower overall percentage during exercise [1].

(d) Award [1] per valid function of the conducting airways, up to [3]:
- Low-resistance pathway for airflow [1].
- Warms the air [1].
- Humidifies/moistens the air [1].
- Filters/cleans the air (mucus/cilia) [1].
Question 4 · Short Answer
14 marks
(a) Distinguish between vector and scalar quantities, providing one example of each used in biomechanical analysis. [3]

(b) Explain how Newton's three laws of motion apply to an athlete accelerating out of starting blocks in a sprint race. [6]

(c) Classify the three types of levers found in the human body, providing an anatomical example of a movement for each class. [5]
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Worked solution

(a) A scalar quantity has magnitude (size) only, whereas a vector quantity has both magnitude and a specific direction. For example, mass or speed is a scalar quantity, whereas velocity, acceleration, or force is a vector quantity.

(b) Newton's laws apply as follows:
- Newton's First Law (Law of Inertia): An object remains at rest unless acted upon by an external force. The sprinter remains stationary in the starting blocks until they exert a net external force through muscular contraction to overcome their state of inertia.
- Newton's Second Law (Law of Acceleration): The rate of change of momentum is proportional to the applied force and occurs in the direction of the force (\(F = ma\)). The acceleration of the sprinter out of the blocks is directly proportional to the force they exert against the blocks, in the forward direction.
- Newton's Third Law (Law of Action and Reaction): For every action force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force. As the sprinter pushes backward and downward against the starting blocks (action force), the blocks exert an equal and opposite force forward and upward against the sprinter (reaction force), driving them forward.

(c) Levers are classified based on the relative positions of the fulcrum (pivot), the effort (force), and the load (resistance):
- First-class lever: The fulcrum lies between the effort and the load. Example: Nodding the head (atlanto-occipital joint acts as the fulcrum, the head weight is the load, and the neck extensor muscles provide the effort).
- Second-class lever: The load lies between the fulcrum and the effort. Example: Standing on tiptoes (metatarsophalangeal joint is the fulcrum, the body weight acting through the foot is the load, and the gastrocnemius/soleus contraction is the effort).
- Third-class lever: The effort lies between the fulcrum and the load. Example: Elbow flexion (elbow joint is the fulcrum, the insertion of the biceps brachii tendon is the effort, and the weight of the forearm/hand is the load).

Marking scheme

(a) Award [1] for distinguishing definition (scalar has magnitude only, vector has magnitude and direction).
- Award [1] for a correct scalar example (e.g., speed, mass, distance).
- Award [1] for a correct vector example (e.g., velocity, force, acceleration, displacement).

(b) Award up to [2] per law clearly explained in context (total [6]):
- Newton's 1st Law: Athlete remains at rest until a force is exerted [1]; muscular contraction provides the external force to overcome inertia [1].
- Newton's 2nd Law: Explains relationship \(F=ma\) [1]; greater force exerted against the blocks results in greater acceleration out of the blocks [1].
- Newton's 3rd Law: Action-reaction pair [1]; pushing backward against the blocks (action) results in the blocks pushing the runner forward (reaction) [1].

(c) Award marks for lever classification and matching anatomical examples, up to [5]:
- Award [1] for describing/defining first-class lever (Fulcrum in middle) AND [1] for a correct matching example (e.g., extension/flexion of the neck at atlanto-occipital joint).
- Award [1] for describing/defining second-class lever (Load in middle) AND [1] for a correct matching example (e.g., plantar flexion of the ankle when standing on tiptoes).
- Award [1] for describing/defining third-class lever (Effort in middle) AND [1] for a correct matching example (e.g., elbow flexion using biceps brachii).
- Max [3] marks for lever descriptions, Max [2] marks for valid anatomical examples.

Paper 2 Section B

Answer any two extended-response questions from the choice of four.
2 Question · 40 marks
Question 1 · Extended Response
20 marks
(a) Describe six chronic cardiovascular adaptations that occur as a result of prolonged, systematic endurance training. [6] (b) Explain the phenomenon of cardiovascular drift during prolonged, submaximal exercise in a hot, humid environment. [6] (c) Discuss the physiological factors that limit maximal oxygen uptake (\(VO_2\text{max}\)) in healthy human subjects. [8]
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Worked solution

(a) Chronic cardiovascular adaptations to endurance training include: (1) Increased left ventricular volume (eccentric hypertrophy), which increases stroke volume. (2) Decreased resting and submaximal heart rate (bradycardia) due to increased parasympathetic/vagal tone and increased stroke volume. (3) Increased maximal cardiac output during maximal exercise, primarily driven by the increase in maximal stroke volume. (4) Increased blood plasma volume, which enhances venous return and stroke volume via the Frank-Starling mechanism. (5) Increased capillarization of skeletal muscle, improving oxygen delivery and diffusion to active muscle fibers. (6) Increased arteriovenous oxygen difference (\(a-vO_2\) diff) due to enhanced oxygen extraction by muscles. (b) Cardiovascular drift is characterized by a gradual decrease in stroke volume and a parallel increase in heart rate during prolonged, steady-state exercise, particularly in hot environments: (1) Prolonged exercise leads to dehydration and increased sweating to regulate body temperature. (2) Sweat loss reduces blood plasma volume, leading to increased blood viscosity and reduced venous return. (3) Active vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels occurs to direct blood to the skin for cooling, further reducing venous return to the heart. (4) According to the Frank-Starling law, reduced venous return decreases end-diastolic volume and thus decreases stroke volume. (5) To maintain a constant cardiac output (since Cardiac Output = Stroke Volume \(\times\) Heart Rate), the heart rate must progressively increase. (c) Physiological factors limiting \(VO_2\text{max}\) can be divided into central and peripheral factors: (1) Cardiac output (central factor): The maximal stroke volume and the heart's ability to pump large volumes of oxygenated blood is a primary limitation. (2) Pulmonary system (central factor): Oxygen diffusion capacity at the lungs and alveolar ventilation, though rarely limiting in healthy untrained individuals, can limit elite athletes who experience exercise-induced arterial hypoxemia. (3) Oxygen carrying capacity of the blood (central factor): Hemoglobin concentration and total red blood cell volume determine how much oxygen can be transported. (4) Skeletal muscle capillarization (peripheral factor): The capillary density around muscle fibers limits the surface area and time available for oxygen diffusion from blood into the muscle. (5) Mitochondrial density and oxidative enzyme activity (peripheral factor): The capacity of the muscle cells to utilize oxygen to produce ATP via aerobic pathways.

Marking scheme

Part (a) [6 marks max]: Award 1 mark per valid adaptation described up to 6 marks. • Increased left ventricular volume / cardiac hypertrophy. • Increased stroke volume at rest, submaximal, and maximal exercise. • Decreased resting and submaximal heart rate (bradycardia). • Increased capillarization of skeletal muscle. • Increased plasma volume. • Increased arterio-venous oxygen difference (\(a-vO_2\) diff). • Increased maximal cardiac output. Part (b) [6 marks max]: Award 1 mark for each point explained up to 6 marks. • Cardiovascular drift is the gradual increase in heart rate and decrease in stroke volume over time during prolonged steady-state exercise. • Sweating occurs to facilitate heat loss/thermoregulation. • Sweat loss leads to a reduction in blood plasma volume. • Reductions in plasma volume increase blood viscosity and decrease venous return. • Skin blood flow increases (vasodilation) to dissipate heat, further reducing central venous pressure and venous return. • Decreased venous return reduces end-diastolic volume and stroke volume (Frank-Starling mechanism). • To maintain cardiac output (\(Q = \text{HR} \times \text{SV}\)), heart rate must increase to compensate for the falling stroke volume. Part (c) [8 marks max]: Award 1 mark for each discussion point up to 8 marks (allocate up to 4 marks for central factors and 4 marks for peripheral factors). Central limitations: • Cardiac output (\(Q\)) / Stroke Volume (\(SV\)): The heart's ability to pump blood is the primary limiting factor for most individuals. • Hemoglobin concentration / Red blood cell mass: Determines the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. • Pulmonary diffusion capacity: Alveolar-capillary diffusion can limit elite endurance athletes due to rapid transit times. Peripheral limitations: • Capillary density: Limits the rate of oxygen extraction and diffusion into the muscle tissue. • Mitochondrial density/volume: Limits the rate at which oxygen can be utilized in the electron transport chain. • Myoglobin concentration: Limits the transport of oxygen within the muscle cell. • Oxidative enzymes (e.g., SDH): Affect the rate of aerobic metabolism.
Question 2 · Extended Response
20 marks
(a) Explain how Newton's three laws of motion apply to a sprinter accelerating out of the starting blocks. [6] (b) Outline the factors that influence the flight path of a projectile in sport. [6] (c) Describe how the Bernoulli principle explains the curved flight path of a spinning ball in flight (Magnus effect). [8]
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Worked solution

(a) Newton's laws of motion applied to a sprinter: (1) Newton's First Law (Law of Inertia) states that an object remains at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force. The sprinter remains stationary in the blocks until they exert a muscular force to overcome their inertia and initiate motion. (2) Newton's Second Law (Law of Acceleration) states that the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force acting on it and inversely proportional to its mass (\(F = ma\)). To maximize acceleration, the sprinter must apply a large force against the blocks in the desired direction of travel. A sprinter with less mass requires less force to achieve the same acceleration. (3) Newton's Third Law (Law of Action-Reaction) states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. The sprinter pushes backward and downward against the starting blocks (action force), and the blocks push forward and upward against the sprinter's feet with equal magnitude (reaction force), propelling them forward. (b) Factors influencing the flight path of a projectile: (1) Projection speed: The initial velocity of release. It is the most important factor in determining horizontal distance; higher speed increases both height and distance. (2) Projection angle: The angle of release relative to the horizontal. The optimal angle for maximum distance is \(45^\circ\) if release and landing heights are equal; it is less than \(45^\circ\) if release height is higher than landing height (e.g., shot put). (3) Projection height: The vertical height at which the projectile is released relative to the ground. A higher release height increases flight time and therefore horizontal distance. (4) Gravity: Accelerates the projectile downwards at \(9.81 \text{ m/s}^2\), pulling it back to earth and creating a parabolic trajectory. (5) Air resistance (aerodynamic factors): Forces such as drag and lift that can alter the flight path depending on the projectile's shape, surface texture, and spin. (c) Applying the Bernoulli principle (Magnus effect) to a spinning ball: (1) The Bernoulli principle states that fluid pressure is inversely proportional to fluid velocity. (2) When a ball spins in flight, it drags a boundary layer of air around with it due to friction. (3) On one side of the spinning ball, the surface of the ball is moving in the same direction as the oncoming airflow, which accelerates the air speed on that side. (4) On the opposite side, the surface of the ball is moving against the oncoming airflow, which decelerates the air speed. (5) According to Bernoulli's principle, the high-velocity side experiences a reduction in fluid pressure (low pressure zone). (6) The low-velocity side experiences an increase in fluid pressure (high pressure zone). (7) This pressure differential creates a pressure gradient, generating a net force (Magnus force) acting from the high-pressure side to the low-pressure side. (8) This force causes the flight path of the ball to curve or drift in the direction of the low-pressure side (e.g., topspin causes downward curvature, backspin causes upward lift, sidespin causes lateral curving).

Marking scheme

Part (a) [6 marks max]: Award up to 2 marks per law applied correctly. • Newton's First Law: Sprinter remains stationary in the blocks until an unbalanced muscular force is applied (1 mark). Mention of overcoming inertia to start moving (1 mark). • Newton's Second Law: Acceleration is proportional to force applied and inversely proportional to mass (1 mark). To accelerate faster, the sprinter must apply a greater force against the blocks (1 mark). • Newton's Third Law: Action-reaction force pairs (1 mark). Sprinter pushes back/down on the blocks, blocks push forward/up on the sprinter with equal force (1 mark). Part (b) [6 marks max]: Award 1 mark per outline point up to 6 marks. • Speed of release: High speed increases distance/height (1 mark). • Angle of release: Determines trajectory shape; optimal is ~\(45^\circ\) for equal heights (1 mark). • Height of release: Higher release point increases flight time/distance (1 mark). • Gravity: Constantly acts downwards, pulling the projectile to the ground (1 mark). • Air resistance / Drag: Slows down the horizontal velocity of the projectile (1 mark). • Spin / Lift forces: Magnus force can alter the ideal parabolic curve (1 mark). Part (c) [8 marks max]: Award 1 mark for each point explained up to 8 marks. • Bernoulli's principle states that high velocity fluid flow is associated with low pressure, and vice versa (1 mark). • A spinning ball carries a boundary layer of air with it due to surface friction (1 mark). • On the side where the spin is in the same direction as oncoming air, velocity increases (1 mark). • On the opposite side where spin opposes oncoming air, velocity decreases (1 mark). • High velocity side creates a region of low pressure (1 mark). • Low velocity side creates a region of high pressure (1 mark). • A pressure differential/gradient is established across the ball (1 mark). • This creates a net force (Magnus force) acting from high to low pressure (1 mark). • This force deflects/curves the ball from its normal parabolic flight path (1 mark).

Paper 3 Options

Answer all questions from two of the options provided.
2 Question · 50 marks
Question 1 · Option-specific Short Answer & Data Response
25 marks
Option B: Psychology of Sport

An investigation was conducted to compare the effects of different motivational profiles on athletic performance and cognitive anxiety levels during a high-pressure competition. Twenty collegiate track and field athletes were divided into two groups:
- Group A: High Intrinsic Motivation, Low Extrinsic Motivation
- Group B: Low Intrinsic Motivation, High Extrinsic Motivation

The table below shows their mean performance scores (measured as a percentage of their personal best, where 100% represents matching their personal best) and cognitive anxiety levels (measured via CSAI-2R, score range 9 to 36, where higher scores indicate higher anxiety) during a low-pressure practice session and a high-pressure competition final.

Group A (High Intrinsic): Practice Performance = 98.2% (SD = 1.1); Final Performance = 101.4% (SD = 1.3); Practice Cognitive Anxiety = 12.4 (SD = 1.5); Final Cognitive Anxiety = 18.2 (SD = 2.1).
Group B (High Extrinsic): Practice Performance = 97.5% (SD = 1.2); Final Performance = 94.1% (SD = 1.9); Practice Cognitive Anxiety = 14.1 (SD = 1.8); Final Cognitive Anxiety = 29.5 (SD = 3.2).

(a) (i) Calculate the difference in mean performance score (%) for Group B between the practice and the final. [1]
(a) (ii) Describe the relationship between cognitive anxiety and athletic performance for Group B as they transition from practice to the competition final. [1]
(b) Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation in sport. [3]
(c) Discuss how McClelland’s Achievement Motivation Theory (Need to Achieve vs. Need to Avoid Failure) explains the differences in performance under pressure between Group A and Group B. [6]
(d) Explain the Catastrophe Theory of arousal and performance, referencing how high cognitive anxiety affects performance when physiological arousal continues to rise. [6]
(e) Discuss how attribution theory can be applied to explain how Group B athletes might attribute their decline in final performance, using Weiner's classification dimensions (stability, locus of causality, and locus of control). [8]
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Worked solution

(a) (i) Difference = 97.5% - 94.1% = 3.4% (or -3.4%). (a) (ii) An inverse/negative relationship is observed: as cognitive anxiety increases, performance decreases. (b) Intrinsic motivation is driven by internal rewards (e.g., self-satisfaction, love of the game) whereas extrinsic motivation is driven by external rewards (e.g., trophies, money, praise). Intrinsic is more sustainable. (c) McClelland's theory proposes two motives: Need to Achieve (nAch) and Need to Avoid Failure (nAF). Group A has high nAch, meaning they seek challenges and thrive under pressure, leading to improved performance. Group B has high nAF, meaning they fear failure, leading to high anxiety and performance decline. (d) Catastrophe theory predicts that when cognitive anxiety is high, physiological arousal beyond an optimal point causes a sudden, catastrophic drop in performance. Group B's high anxiety made them vulnerable to this. (e) Weiner's attribution theory includes stability, causality, and control. Group B might attribute failure to external, unstable, or uncontrollable factors (self-serving bias) to protect self-esteem, or internal, stable, uncontrollable factors, leading to learned helplessness.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) Award [1] for 3.4% or -3.4%. (a) (ii) Award [1] for describing a negative/inverse relationship (or stating performance decreases as anxiety increases). (b) Award [1] for defining intrinsic motivation; [1] for defining extrinsic motivation; [1] for distinguishing their impact on long-term participation or pressure. (c) Award up to [6]: [1] for identifying nAch and nAF; [2] for linking Group A to high nAch/seeking challenges/improving performance; [2] for linking Group B to high nAF/fear of failure/decline under pressure; [1] for depth/coherence of discussion. (d) Award up to [6]: [1] for explaining interaction of cognitive anxiety and physiological arousal; [1] for stating low cognitive anxiety results in inverted-U; [1] for stating high cognitive anxiety leads to sudden catastrophe drop; [1] for stating this drop is non-linear/sudden; [1] for stating recovery requires a major reduction in arousal; [1] for linking to the data (Group B's high cognitive anxiety). (e) Award up to [8]: [1] for naming Weiner's three dimensions; [2] for explaining stability (stable vs unstable) with sports examples; [2] for explaining locus of causality (internal vs external) with sports examples; [2] for explaining locus of control (controllable vs uncontrollable) with sports examples; [1] for applying this to Group B's performance drop (e.g., protecting ego via self-serving bias or experiencing learned helplessness).
Question 2 · Option-specific Short Answer & Data Response
25 marks
Option B: Psychology of Sport

A sports psychologist conducted a study evaluating the efficacy of a 6-week psychological skills training (PST) program on ten elite basketball players. The program focused on reducing competitive state anxiety and improving free-throw performance under pressure. The interventions included progressive muscle relaxation (PMR), positive self-talk, and mental imagery.

The table below displays the mean somatic anxiety levels (measured via the CSAI-2D somatic subscale, score range 9 to 36, where higher scores indicate greater physical anxiety) and the percentage of successful free throws during high-stress game situations pre- and post-intervention.

- Somatic Anxiety Score (9-36): Pre-Intervention = 25.8 (SD = 2.4); Post-Intervention = 14.2 (SD = 1.6)
- Free-Throw Success Rate (%): Pre-Intervention = 62.4% (SD = 5.1%); Post-Intervention = 78.6% (SD = 3.8%)

(a) (i) Describe the changes in somatic anxiety and free-throw success rate after the 6-week intervention. [2]
(a) (ii) State three physical symptoms of somatic anxiety that the basketball players may have experienced before the intervention. [3]
(b) Distinguish between cognitive and somatic anxiety reduction techniques, providing one example of each. [4]
(c) Explain how Progressive Muscle Relaxation (PMR) works to alleviate somatic anxiety in athletes. [4]
(d) Evaluate the use of goal-setting (specifically comparing outcome, performance, and process goals) as a psychological skill to enhance performance and manage anxiety. [6]
(e) Discuss how Bandura's self-efficacy theory explains the improvement in free-throw performance, identifying the four sources of self-efficacy. [6]
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Worked solution

(a) (i) Somatic anxiety decreased from 25.8 to 14.2 (by 11.6 points). Free-throw success rate increased from 62.4% to 78.6% (by 16.2 percentage points). (a) (ii) Physical symptoms include: increased heart rate/palpitations, muscle tension/stiffness, and heavy sweating. (b) Cognitive techniques focus on the mind (e.g., positive self-talk, imagery) to reduce worry. Somatic techniques focus on physiological responses (e.g., PMR, deep breathing) to reduce muscle tension. (c) PMR works by systematically tensing and relaxing muscle groups, enabling athletes to detect tension and activate the parasympathetic nervous system, reducing physiological arousal. (d) Outcome goals (e.g., winning) are uncontrollable and increase anxiety. Performance goals (e.g., achieving 80% success) and process goals (e.g., standard shooting technique) are highly controllable, focus attention, and lower state anxiety. (e) Bandura's theory proposes four sources: performance accomplishments (successful past free throws), vicarious experiences (watching peers succeed), verbal persuasion (coach encouragement), and physiological states (interpreting low anxiety as readiness). All four were optimized by the PST program, enhancing self-efficacy and performance.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) Award [1] for describing the somatic anxiety decrease with values; [1] for describing the free-throw success rate increase with values. (a) (ii) Award [1] per valid somatic symptom of anxiety, up to [3] (e.g., muscle tension, sweating, elevated heart rate, nausea, dry mouth). (b) Award [1] for explaining cognitive techniques; [1] for a cognitive example (e.g., self-talk); [1] for explaining somatic techniques; [1] for a somatic example (e.g., PMR). (c) Award up to [4]: [1] for systematic tensing and relaxing of muscle groups; [1] for developing awareness of tension vs. relaxation; [1] for triggering the parasympathetic response (lowering heart rate/blood pressure); [1] for explaining how physical relaxation calms the mind (somatic-cognitive connection). (d) Award up to [6]: [2] for evaluating outcome goals (benefits vs. high anxiety/lack of control); [2] for evaluating performance and process goals (high controllability, focus on self, reduction of anxiety); [2] for recommending a balanced goal-setting strategy (e.g., goal staircase). (e) Award up to [6]: [1] for defining self-efficacy; [4] for identifying and explaining each of the four sources (performance accomplishments, vicarious experiences, verbal persuasion, physiological/emotional states); [1] for explicitly linking these sources to the basketball scenario (e.g., PMR improving physiological state interpretation, increased practice success boosting performance accomplishments).

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