An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2024 Cambridge OCR GCSE Gateway Science - Physics A - J249 paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.
Paper J249/03 Section A
Answer all questions. You should spend a maximum of 30 minutes on this section.
15 Question · 15 marks
Question 1 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A toy car accelerates uniformly from rest to \(12\text{ m/s}\) in \(4\text{ s}\). It then travels at this constant speed for a further \(6\text{ s}\). What is the total distance travelled by the toy car?
A.48 m
B.72 m
C.96 m
D.120 m
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Worked solution
The motion is split into two phases: 1. Acceleration phase: The average speed is \(\frac{0 + 12}{2} = 6\text{ m/s}\). The distance travelled is \(6\text{ m/s} \times 4\text{ s} = 24\text{ m}\). 2. Constant speed phase: The distance travelled is \(12\text{ m/s} \times 6\text{ s} = 72\text{ m}\).
[1 mark] C - 96 m is the correct calculation of total area under the velocity-time graph.
Question 2 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A water wave passes from deep water into shallow water, causing its speed to decrease. What happens to its frequency and wavelength?
A.The frequency decreases and the wavelength remains constant.
B.The frequency remains constant and the wavelength decreases.
C.The frequency increases and the wavelength increases.
D.The frequency remains constant and the wavelength increases.
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Worked solution
When a wave enters a different medium (or different depth of water), its frequency remains constant because it is determined solely by the source of the wave. Since wave speed \(v = f \lambda\), a decrease in speed \(v\) must result in a proportional decrease in wavelength \(\lambda\).
Marking scheme
[1 mark] B - Correctly identifies that frequency remains constant and wavelength decreases.
Question 3 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A thermistor is connected in series with a fixed resistor and a constant direct current (d.c.) voltage source. If the temperature of the thermistor increases, what happens to its resistance and the potential difference across the fixed resistor?
A.Thermistor resistance increases, potential difference across fixed resistor increases.
B.Thermistor resistance decreases, potential difference across fixed resistor decreases.
C.Thermistor resistance decreases, potential difference across fixed resistor increases.
D.Thermistor resistance increases, potential difference across fixed resistor decreases.
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Worked solution
A thermistor is a negative temperature coefficient (NTC) resistor, meaning its resistance decreases as temperature increases. As its resistance decreases, it takes a smaller share of the total potential difference. Because the total potential difference from the source is constant, the potential difference across the fixed resistor must increase.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] C - Correctly identifies the inverse relationship between temperature and thermistor resistance, and the resulting change in the potential divider distribution.
Question 4 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
Electrical power is transmitted through the National Grid at very high voltages. What is the primary reason for doing this?
A.To increase the current in the cables, allowing electrical energy to travel faster.
B.To reduce the current in the cables, which decreases energy losses as heat.
C.To ensure that the step-down transformers at the consumer end can operate at high efficiency.
D.To reduce the electrical resistance of the long-distance transmission cables.
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Worked solution
For a given transmission power \(P = I V\), increasing the voltage \(V\) reduces the current \(I\). The power wasted as thermal energy in the transmission cables is given by \(P_{\text{loss}} = I^2 R\). Therefore, reducing the current dramatically decreases energy wasted as heat, making the National Grid highly efficient.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] B - Correctly identifies that high voltage reduces current to minimize thermal energy loss.
Question 5 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A spring with a spring constant of \(150\text{ N/m}\) is stretched by \(0.20\text{ m}\). Calculate the elastic potential energy stored in the spring.
A.3.0 J
B.15 J
C.30 J
D.60 J
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Worked solution
The formula for elastic potential energy is: \(E_e = \frac{1}{2} k e^2\)
[1 mark] A - Correct calculation of elastic potential energy using \(E_e = \frac{1}{2} k e^2\).
Question 6 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A diver is swimming at a depth of \(15\text{ m}\) in a fresh-water lake. The density of fresh water is \(1000\text{ kg/m}^3\), and the gravitational field strength \(g = 10\text{ N/kg}\). What is the pressure exerted on the diver by the water only?
A.1.5 kPa
B.15 kPa
C.150 kPa
D.1500 kPa
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Worked solution
The formula for pressure in a liquid column is: \(p = h \rho g\)
[1 mark] C - Correctly calculates pressure using \(p = h \rho g\) and converts pascals (Pa) to kilopascals (kPa).
Question 7 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A student tests a radioactive source. The radiation emitted can pass through several centimetres of air and a sheet of paper, but is completely blocked by a sheet of aluminium a few millimetres thick. Which type of radiation is being emitted?
A.Alpha particles
B.Beta particles
C.Gamma rays
D.Neutrons
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Worked solution
Beta particles (fast-moving electrons) have medium penetrating power. They can easily pass through air and paper but are stopped by a thin sheet of metal such as aluminium. Alpha particles would be stopped by paper, and gamma rays would pass straight through the aluminium.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] B - Correctly identifies beta particles as the radiation stopped by aluminium but not paper.
Question 8 · Multiple Choice
1 marks
A current-carrying wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field. Which of the following changes would NOT increase the magnetic force acting on the wire?
A.Increasing the current in the wire.
B.Using a stronger permanent magnet.
C.Placing the wire parallel to the magnetic field lines.
D.Increasing the length of the wire inside the magnetic field.
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Worked solution
The force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by \(F = B I L\) when the wire is perpendicular to the field. If the wire is placed parallel to the magnetic field lines, the force acting on it drops to zero. Therefore, this change does not increase the force.
Marking scheme
[1 mark] C - Correctly identifies that placing the wire parallel to the field lines reduces the force to zero instead of increasing it.
Question 9 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A resistor of \( 6.0\ \Omega \) and a resistor of \( 4.0\ \Omega \) are connected in series with a \( 12\text{ V} \) battery. What is the current flowing through the \( 6.0\ \Omega \) resistor?
A.\( 0.50\text{ A} \)
B.\( 1.2\text{ A} \)
C.\( 2.0\text{ A} \)
D.\( 3.0\text{ A} \)
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Worked solution
In a series circuit, the total resistance is the sum of the individual resistances: \( R_{\text{total}} = 6.0\ \Omega + 4.0\ \Omega = 10.0\ \Omega \). The total current from the battery is found using Ohm's Law: \( I = \frac{V}{R} = \frac{12\text{ V}}{10.0\ \Omega} = 1.2\text{ A} \). Since current is the same at all points in a series circuit, the current through the \( 6.0\ \Omega \) resistor is also \( 1.2\text{ A} \).
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option B.
Question 10 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A spring has an unstretched length of \( 12.0\text{ cm} \). When a force of \( 3.0\text{ N} \) is applied, its length increases to \( 18.0\text{ cm} \). Assuming the spring does not exceed its limit of proportionality, what is the spring constant of the spring?
A.\( 0.50\text{ N/m} \)
B.\( 16.7\text{ N/m} \)
C.\( 50\text{ N/m} \)
D.\( 150\text{ N/m} \)
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Worked solution
First, calculate the extension of the spring: \( x = 18.0\text{ cm} - 12.0\text{ cm} = 6.0\text{ cm} = 0.060\text{ m} \). Next, use Hooke's Law \( F = k x \) to solve for the spring constant \( k \): \( k = \frac{F}{x} = \frac{3.0\text{ N}}{0.060\text{ m}} = 50\text{ N/m} \).
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option C.
Question 11 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An object accelerates uniformly from rest to a speed of \( 25\text{ m/s} \) in a time of \( 5.0\text{ s} \). It then continues to accelerate at the same rate for another \( 3.0\text{ s} \). What is the total distance traveled by the object during the entire \( 8.0\text{ s} \) journey?
A.\( 62.5\text{ m} \)
B.\( 120\text{ m} \)
C.\( 160\text{ m} \)
D.\( 200\text{ m} \)
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Worked solution
First, find the constant acceleration: \( a = \frac{v - u}{t} = \frac{25\text{ m/s} - 0\text{ m/s}}{5.0\text{ s}} = 5.0\text{ m/s}^2 \). The total time of travel is \( t = 5.0\text{ s} + 3.0\text{ s} = 8.0\text{ s} \). Using the distance equation starting from rest: \( s = ut + \frac{1}{2}at^2 \), with \( u = 0 \), we get \( s = \frac{1}{2} \times 5.0\text{ m/s}^2 \times (8.0\text{ s})^2 = 2.5 \times 64 = 160\text{ m} \).
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option C.
Question 12 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A metal cylinder has a mass of \( 540\text{ g} \) and a volume of \( 200\text{ cm}^3 \). What is the density of this metal in SI units?
A.\( 2.7\text{ kg/m}^3 \)
B.\( 27\text{ kg/m}^3 \)
C.\( 270\text{ kg/m}^3 \)
D.\( 2700\text{ kg/m}^3 \)
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How much energy is required to completely melt \( 0.40\text{ kg} \) of ice at \( 0\text{ }^\circ\text{C} \)? (The specific latent heat of fusion of ice is \( 3.34 \times 10^5\text{ J/kg} \)).
A.\( 133.6\text{ kJ} \)
B.\( 835.0\text{ kJ} \)
C.\( 133600\text{ kJ} \)
D.\( 835000\text{ kJ} \)
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Worked solution
Use the formula for change of state: \( E = mL \), where \( m = 0.40\text{ kg} \) and \( L = 3.34 \times 10^5\text{ J/kg} \). Calculating this gives: \( E = 0.40 \times 3.34 \times 10^5 = 1.336 \times 10^5\text{ J} = 133.6\text{ kJ} \).
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option A.
Question 14 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An electric motor takes in \( 250\text{ W} \) of electrical power. It transfers \( 150\text{ W} \) of this power as useful mechanical power. What is the efficiency of the motor, and how much power is wasted as thermal energy?
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Worked solution
First, find efficiency: \( \text{Efficiency} = \frac{\text{Useful power output}}{\text{Total power input}} = \frac{150\text{ W}}{250\text{ W}} = 0.60 \). Next, find the wasted power: \( \text{Wasted power} = \text{Total power input} - \text{Useful power output} = 250\text{ W} - 150\text{ W} = 100\text{ W} \).
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option B.
Question 15 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A small crane lifts a crate with a weight of \( 1200\text{ N} \) vertically through a height of \( 6.0\text{ m} \) in a time of \( 8.0\text{ s} \). What is the work done on the crate by the crane?
A.\( 150\text{ J} \)
B.\( 960\text{ J} \)
C.\( 7200\text{ J} \)
D.\( 57600\text{ J} \)
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Worked solution
Work done is calculated using the formula: \( W = F \times d \). In this case, the force needed to lift the crate is equal to its weight, \( 1200\text{ N} \), and the distance moved is \( 6.0\text{ m} \). Therefore, \( W = 1200\text{ N} \times 6.0\text{ m} = 7200\text{ J} \) (or \( 7.2\text{ kJ} \)). Note that the time of \( 8.0\text{ s} \) is not used because work done is independent of the time taken.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option C.
Paper J249/03 Section B
Answer all questions. Supported with working where appropriate.
8 Question · 75 marks
Question 1 · Structured and Calculation Questions
9.375 marks
A cyclist of mass 75 kg accelerates from rest to a velocity of 12 m/s in a time of 8.0 s.
(a) Calculate the acceleration of the cyclist.
(b) Calculate the resultant force acting on the cyclist to cause this acceleration.
(c) Calculate the distance travelled by the cyclist during these 8.0 s, assuming the acceleration is uniform.
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Part (a) [3 marks total]: - Recall and substitution of acceleration formula: \(a = \frac{v-u}{t}\) [1 mark] - Correct calculation: 1.5 [1 mark] - Correct unit: \(\text{m/s}^2\) [1 mark]
Part (b) [3 marks total]: - Recall and substitution of force formula: \(F = m \times a\) [1 mark] - Correct calculation using their value from (a): \(75 \times 1.5 = 112.5\) [1 mark] (Allow ecf from part a) - Correct unit: N [1 mark]
Part (c) [3.375 marks total]: - Recall and substitution into distance formula: \(s = ut + \frac{1}{2}at^2\) or \(s = \frac{u+v}{2}t\) [1.375 marks] - Correct calculation: 48 [1 mark] - Correct unit: m [1 mark]
Question 2 · Structured and Calculation Questions
9.375 marks
A research ship uses a sonar system to measure the depth of the ocean. The ship emits a pulse of ultrasound with a frequency of 40,000 Hz. The pulse travels through the water, reflects off the sea bed, and is detected by the ship's receiver 1.6 seconds after transmission. The speed of sound in seawater is 1500 m/s.
(a) Calculate the depth of the sea bed below the ship.
(b) Calculate the wavelength of the ultrasound wave in seawater.
(c) State why ultrasound is used instead of normal audible sound for sonar systems.
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Worked solution
(a) The total time taken for the sound pulse to go to the sea bed and back is 1.6 s. Therefore, the time taken to travel to the sea bed is: \(t = \frac{1.6}{2} = 0.8\text{ s}\) Depth is calculated as: \(\text{distance} = \text{speed} \times \text{time}\) \(d = 1500\text{ m/s} \times 0.8\text{ s} = 1200\text{ m}\)
(b) The wave equation is: \(v = f \lambda\) Rearranging for wavelength (\(\lambda\)): \(\lambda = \frac{v}{f}\) \(\lambda = \frac{1500}{40000} = 0.0375\text{ m}\) (or 3.75 cm)
(c) Ultrasound waves have a much higher frequency, and therefore a much shorter wavelength, than audible sound. This means they experience less diffraction (spreading out) and can form narrow, well-defined beams that provide higher resolution imaging of underwater features.
Marking scheme
Part (a) [3 marks total]: - Realisation that time must be halved (0.8 s) [1 mark] - Correct equation used: \(d = v \times t\) [1 mark] - Correct calculation: 1200 m [1 mark]
Part (b) [3.375 marks total]: - Rearrangement of wave equation: \(\lambda = \frac{v}{f}\) [1.375 marks] - Substitution of values: \(\lambda = \frac{1500}{40000}\) [1 mark] - Correct calculation with units: 0.0375 m [1 mark]
Part (c) [3 marks total]: - Explicit mention of high frequency / short wavelength [1 mark] - Connects short wavelength to less diffraction / narrow beam [1 mark] - Connects to clearer image / better resolution / accurate measurement [1 mark]
Question 3 · Structured and Calculation Questions
9.375 marks
A student sets up a circuit with a 12 V d.c. power supply, a fixed resistor \(R_1\) of resistance 8.0 \(\Omega\), and two identical resistors \(R_2\) and \(R_3\) connected in parallel with each other. The parallel combination is connected in series with \(R_1\). Each of the parallel resistors has a resistance of 12 \(\Omega\).
(a) Calculate the total equivalent resistance of the entire circuit.
(b) Calculate the total current flowing from the power supply.
(c) Calculate the potential difference across the resistor \(R_1\).
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Worked solution
(a) First, calculate the equivalent resistance of the parallel branch (\(R_p\)): \(\frac{1}{R_p} = \frac{1}{R_2} + \frac{1}{R_3} = \frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{12} = \frac{2}{12} = \frac{1}{6}\) So, \(R_p = 6.0\ \Omega\). Now add the series resistor \(R_1\): \(R_{\text{total}} = R_1 + R_p = 8.0\ \Omega + 6.0\ \Omega = 14.0\ \Omega\).
(b) Using Ohm's Law (\(V = I R\)): \(I = \frac{V}{R_{\text{total}}} = \frac{12\text{ V}}{14.0\ \Omega} \approx 0.857\text{ A}\) (or 0.86 A to 2 s.f.).
(c) The potential difference across \(R_1\) is: \(V_1 = I \times R_1 = 0.857\text{ A} \times 8.0\ \Omega \approx 6.86\text{ V}\).
Marking scheme
Part (a) [3.375 marks total]: - Correct formula/calculation for the parallel branch: 6.0 \(\Omega\) [1.375 marks] - Summing the series components: \(8.0 + 6.0\) [1 mark] - Correct total resistance: 14.0 \(\Omega\) [1 mark]
Part (b) [3 marks total]: - Recall and substitution into Ohm's Law: \(I = \frac{V}{R}\) [1 mark] - Correct substitution of values using their answer from (a) [1 mark] - Correct current: 0.86 A (or 0.857 A) [1 mark]
Part (c) [3 marks total]: - Recall and substitution into \(V_1 = I \times R_1\) [1 mark] - Substitution of their current and \(R_1\) resistance [1 mark] - Correct potential difference calculation: 6.86 V [1 mark] (allow ecf from b)
Question 4 · Structured and Calculation Questions
9.375 marks
A wind farm consists of 15 identical wind turbines. Each turbine has a maximum power output of 2.4 MW.
(a) Calculate the total maximum power output of the wind farm in watts, expressing your answer in standard form.
(b) On average, the wind turbines operate at only 30% of their maximum power output over a year. Calculate the average energy produced by the entire wind farm in one day. Give your answer in megajoules (MJ).
(c) Give one environmental advantage and one environmental disadvantage of generating electricity using wind turbines compared to a coal-fired power station.
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Worked solution
(a) Total power output = \(15 \times 2.4\text{ MW} = 36\text{ MW}\). In watts: \(36\text{ MW} = 36 \times 10^6\text{ W} = 3.6 \times 10^7\text{ W}\).
(b) Average power output = \(30\%\text{ of } 36\text{ MW} = 0.30 \times 36 = 10.8\text{ MW} = 1.08 \times 10^7\text{ W}\). Time in 1 day = \(24\text{ hours} \times 3600\text{ seconds/hour} = 86,400\text{ s}\). Average energy produced in 1 day: \(E = P \times t = 10.8\text{ MW} \times 86,400\text{ s} = 933,120\text{ MJ}\) (or \(9.33 \times 10^5\text{ MJ}\)).
(c) Environmental advantage: No carbon dioxide / greenhouse gases emitted during operation (does not contribute to climate change). Environmental disadvantage: Large physical footprint / visual impact / danger to birds and bats.
Marking scheme
Part (a) [3 marks total]: - Correct multiplication of turbines: \(15 \times 2.4 = 36\text{ MW}\) [1 mark] - Unit conversion: MW to W [1 mark] - Correct standard form: \(3.6 \times 10^7\text{ W}\) [1 mark]
Part (b) [3.375 marks total]: - Calculate 30% power: 10.8 MW [1 mark] - Calculate seconds in a day: 86,400 s [1 mark] - Use \(E = P \times t\) to find energy in MJ: 933,120 MJ (or \(9.33 \times 10^5\text{ MJ}\)) [1.375 marks]
Part (c) [3 marks total]: - State a clear environmental advantage (no emission of pollutants/carbon footprint reduction) [1.5 marks] - State a clear environmental disadvantage (visual pollution, noise, local ecosystem disturbance) [1.5 marks]
Question 5 · Structured and Calculation Questions
9.375 marks
A student conducts an experiment to investigate Hooke's Law using a spring. The spring has an unstretched length of 0.12 m. When a load of 6.0 N is suspended from the spring, its length becomes 0.27 m.
(a) Calculate the spring constant of the spring.
(b) Calculate the elastic potential energy stored in the spring when the load of 6.0 N is suspended from it.
(c) State what is meant by the 'limit of proportionality' of a spring.
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Worked solution
(a) First, calculate the extension (\(x\)) of the spring: \(x = \text{stretched length} - \text{unstretched length}\) \(x = 0.27\text{ m} - 0.12\text{ m} = 0.15\text{ m}\) Using Hooke's Law: \(F = k x \implies k = \frac{F}{x}\) \(k = \frac{6.0\text{ N}}{0.15\text{ m}} = 40\text{ N/m}\)
(b) Elastic potential energy is given by: \(E_e = \frac{1}{2} k x^2\) \(E_e = 0.5 \times 40\text{ N/m} \times (0.15\text{ m})^2\) \(E_e = 20 \times 0.0225 = 0.45\text{ J}\) Alternatively, using \(E_e = \frac{1}{2} F x\): \(E_e = 0.5 \times 6.0\text{ N} \times 0.15\text{ m} = 0.45\text{ J}\)
(c) The limit of proportionality is the maximum force that can be applied to the spring such that the extension remains directly proportional to the force applied (i.e., the force-extension graph is a straight line through the origin).
Marking scheme
Part (a) [3.375 marks total]: - Calculate extension: \(0.27 - 0.12 = 0.15\text{ m}\) [1.375 marks] - Recall Hooke's Law and rearrange: \(k = \frac{F}{x}\) [1 mark] - Correct calculation with unit: 40 N/m [1 mark]
Part (b) [3 marks total]: - Recall equation: \(E_e = \frac{1}{2} k x^2\) or \(E_e = \frac{1}{2} F x\) [1 mark] - Correct substitution of values [1 mark] - Correct calculation: 0.45 J [1 mark]
Part (c) [3 marks total]: - Statement that it is the point/limit where force and extension are no longer proportional [2 marks] - Mentioning that it is the end of the linear region of the graph [1 mark]
Question 6 · Structured and Calculation Questions
9.375 marks
A deep-sea diver is at a depth of 45 m below the surface of the sea.
The density of seawater is 1025 kg/m\(^3\). The gravitational field strength \(g = 9.8\text{ N/kg}\). Atmospheric pressure at the surface is \(1.01 \times 10^5\text{ Pa}\).
(a) Calculate the pressure exerted on the diver due to the water column alone.
(b) Calculate the total pressure (including atmospheric pressure) acting on the diver at this depth.
(c) The diver has a watch with a circular glass face of radius 1.8 cm. Calculate the total force exerted by the water and atmosphere on the watch face at this depth.
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Worked solution
(a) Pressure due to a liquid column is: \(p = h \rho g\) \(p = 45\text{ m} \times 1025\text{ kg/m}^3 \times 9.8\text{ N/kg} = 452,025\text{ Pa}\)
(b) Total pressure is the sum of water pressure and atmospheric pressure: \(p_{\text{total}} = p_{\text{water}} + p_{\text{atm}}\) \(p_{\text{total}} = 452,025\text{ Pa} + 101,000\text{ Pa} = 553,025\text{ Pa}\)
(c) First, calculate the area of the circular watch face: \(r = 1.8\text{ cm} = 0.018\text{ m}\) \(A = \pi r^2 = \pi \times (0.018)^2 \approx 1.0179 \times 10^{-3}\text{ m}^2\) Force is given by: \(F = p_{\text{total}} \times A\) \(F = 553,025\text{ Pa} \times 1.0179 \times 10^{-3}\text{ m}^2 \approx 562.9\text{ N}\) (or 563 N to 3 s.f.).
Marking scheme
Part (a) [3 marks total]: - Recall formula: \(p = h \rho g\) [1 mark] - Substitution: \(45 \times 1025 \times 9.8\) [1 mark] - Correct calculation: 452,025 Pa (or \(4.52 \times 10^5\text{ Pa}\)) [1 mark]
Part (b) [3 marks total]: - Realise to add atmospheric pressure [1 mark] - Substitution: \(452,025 + 101,000\) [1 mark] (Allow ecf from part a) - Correct calculation: 553,025 Pa [1 mark]
Part (c) [3.375 marks total]: - Calculate area of circle: \(A = \pi \times (0.018)^2 = 1.018 \times 10^{-3}\text{ m}^2\) [1.375 marks] - Force formula: \(F = p \times A\) [1 mark] - Correct calculation: 563 N [1 mark] (Allow ecf from part b)
Question 7 · Structured and Calculation Questions
9.375 marks
A radioactive isotope of Iodine, Iodine-131 (\(^{131}_{53}\text{I}\)), decays by emitting a beta particle (\(\beta^-\)) to form an isotope of Xenon (Xe).
(a) Write down the nuclear equation for the beta decay of Iodine-131.
(b) A sample of Iodine-131 has an initial activity of 800 Bq. After 24 days, the activity of the sample has decreased to 100 Bq. Calculate the half-life of Iodine-131.
(c) Explain why a radioactive source with a very short half-life (e.g., a few hours) is preferred for medical imaging inside the body.
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Worked solution
(a) In a beta decay, a neutron turns into a proton and an electron (beta particle). The mass number remains unchanged (131), and the atomic number increases by 1 (from 53 to 54). The equation is: \(^{131}_{53}\text{I} \rightarrow ^{131}_{54}\text{Xe} + ^{0}_{-1}\text{e}\)
(b) Work out the number of half-lives that have passed to drop the activity from 800 Bq to 100 Bq: \(800 \rightarrow 400\) (1 half-life) \(400 \rightarrow 200\) (2 half-lives) \(200 \rightarrow 100\) (3 half-lives) So, 3 half-lives equal 24 days. \(1\text{ half-life} = \frac{24\text{ days}}{3} = 8\text{ days}\).
(c) A short half-life means that the isotope decays quickly. This ensures that the concentration of active radioactive atoms inside the patient's body drops rapidly after the medical diagnostic procedure is completed, preventing long-term exposure to harmful ionizing radiation.
Marking scheme
Part (a) [3.375 marks total]: - Correct reactant and product mass numbers (131) [1.375 marks] - Correct atomic number for Xenon (54) [1 mark] - Correct beta particle notation (\(^{0}_{-1}\text{e}\) or \(\beta^-\)) [1 mark]
Part (b) [3 marks total]: - Realise that 3 half-lives have passed [1 mark] - Division of total time by number of half-lives: \(24 / 3\) [1 mark] - Correct answer: 8 days [1 mark]
Part (c) [3 marks total]: - States that it decays quickly / loses activity rapidly [1 mark] - Links this to lower exposure / dose of radiation to the patient [1 mark] - Concludes this minimizes damage to healthy tissues / cells [1 mark]
Question 8 · Structured and Calculation Questions
9.375 marks
A straight copper wire is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of magnetic flux density 0.15 T. The length of the wire in the magnetic field is 8.0 cm. A current of 2.5 A is passed through the wire.
(a) Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire.
(b) State the name of the rule used to determine the direction of this force, and describe what each of the fingers/thumb represents in this rule.
(c) Explain how the magnetic force on the wire would change if: (i) the current in the wire was doubled, (ii) the wire was rotated so that it was parallel to the magnetic field.
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Worked solution
(a) Force on a conductor is given by: \(F = B I L\) Given: \(B = 0.15\text{ T}\) \(I = 2.5\text{ A}\) \(L = 8.0\text{ cm} = 0.080\text{ m}\) \(F = 0.15 \times 2.5 \times 0.080 = 0.030\text{ N}\)
(b) The rule is Fleming's Left-Hand Rule. - First finger represents the Magnetic Field (North to South). - Second finger represents the Current (positive to negative). - Thumb represents the Motion/Force.
(c) (i) The force is directly proportional to the current (\(F \propto I\)), so doubling the current doubles the force (to 0.060 N). (ii) If the wire is parallel to the magnetic field lines, the magnetic force acting on it becomes zero, as the motor effect requires a component of the wire perpendicular to the field.
Marking scheme
Part (a) [3.375 marks total]: - Convert length to meters: 0.080 m [1 mark] - Substitution into \(F = B I L\): \(0.15 \times 2.5 \times 0.080\) [1.375 marks] - Correct calculation: 0.030 N (or 0.03 N) [1 mark]
Part (b) [3 marks total]: - Correctly name Fleming's Left-Hand Rule [1 mark] - Correctly state what the first finger and second finger represent [1 mark] - Correctly state what the thumb represents [1 mark]
Part (c) [3 marks total]: - (i) Correctly states force doubles [1.5 marks] - (ii) Correctly states force becomes zero [1.5 marks]
Paper J249/04 Section A
Answer all questions. You should spend a maximum of 30 minutes on this section.
15 Question · 15 marks
Question 1 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A water wave has a speed of \(1.5\text{ m/s}\) and a wavelength of \(3.0\text{ m}\) in deep water. It enters shallow water where its speed is reduced to \(0.5\text{ m/s}\). What are the frequency and wavelength of the wave in the shallow water?
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Worked solution
1. First, calculate the frequency of the wave in deep water using the wave equation: \(f = \frac{v}{\lambda} = \frac{1.5\text{ m/s}}{3.0\text{ m}} = 0.5\text{ Hz}\). 2. When a wave enters a different medium (from deep to shallow water), its frequency remains constant. Therefore, the frequency in shallow water is also \(0.5\text{ Hz}\). 3. Next, calculate the new wavelength in the shallow water using the same wave equation rearranged: \(\lambda = \frac{v}{f} = \frac{0.5\text{ m/s}}{0.5\text{ Hz}} = 1.0\text{ m}\).
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct answer A. - Reject other options because frequency must remain constant at \(0.5\text{ Hz}\), and the wavelength must decrease proportionally to the wave speed to \(1.0\text{ m}\).
Question 2 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A sample of a radioactive isotope has an initial activity of \(800\text{ Bq}\). After a time of \(12\text{ hours}\), its activity has fallen to \(50\text{ Bq}\). What is the half-life of this isotope?
A.\(1.5\text{ hours}\)
B.\(3.0\text{ hours}\)
C.\(4.0\text{ hours}\)
D.\(6.0\text{ hours}\)
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Worked solution
1. Determine how many half-lives have passed to reduce the activity from \(800\text{ Bq}\) to \(50\text{ Bq}\): \(800\text{ Bq} \xrightarrow{\text{1 half-life}} 400\text{ Bq} \xrightarrow{\text{2 half-lives}} 200\text{ Bq} \xrightarrow{\text{3 half-lives}} 100\text{ Bq} \xrightarrow{\text{4 half-lives}} 50\text{ Bq}\). 2. This represents exactly 4 half-lives. 3. Divide the total time by the number of half-lives to find the length of one half-life: \(\text{Half-life} = \frac{12\text{ hours}}{4} = 3.0\text{ hours}\).
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct answer B. - Award 1 mark for calculating the correct half-life of 3.0 hours based on 4 half-life cycles.
Question 3 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A step-up transformer at a power station increases the potential difference from \(25\text{ kV}\) to \(400\text{ kV}\) before transmitting electrical power across the National Grid. What is the primary physics reason for this increase in potential difference?
A.To decrease the current in the transmission cables, thereby reducing energy transfer to the surroundings as thermal energy.
B.To increase the electrical resistance of the transmission cables, limiting charge flow.
C.To increase the physical speed at which electromagnetic waves travel through the cables.
D.To ensure that the frequency of the alternating current is safely scaled up for long-distance transport.
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Worked solution
According to the power equation \(P = I \times V\), increasing the potential difference (\(V\)) for a constant transmitted power (\(P\)) significantly decreases the current (\(I\)) flowing through the transmission lines. Since the power lost as thermal energy in the cables is given by \(P_{\text{loss}} = I^2 R\), reducing the current drastically minimizes energy dissipation to the surroundings, making transmission much more efficient.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct answer A. - Reject option B because increasing the potential difference does not increase the physical resistance of the wire. - Reject option C because electrical signal propagation speed remains essentially constant. - Reject option D because the frequency of the alternating current is kept constant across the grid (at \(50\text{ Hz}\) in the UK).
Question 4 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A car accelerates along a flat, straight road. The driving force is provided by the engine. Which of the following describes the Newton's third law interaction partner force to the backward force exerted by the car's tyres on the road surface?
A.The forward friction force exerted by the road on the tyres.
B.The air resistance force opposing the forward motion of the car.
C.The downward gravitational pull of the Earth on the car.
D.The upward normal contact force of the road on the tyres.
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Worked solution
According to Newton's Third Law, if object A exerts a force on object B, then object B must exert an equal and opposite force on object A of the same type. In this interaction, the tyres (A) push backward on the road surface (B) with a frictional force. The third-law pair is the forward frictional force that the road surface (B) exerts on the tyres (A).
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct answer A. - Reject options B, C, and D as they do not represent the equal, opposite, and same-type force acting on the interacting bodies.
Question 5 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A submarine dives from a depth of \(10\text{ m}\) to a depth of \(45\text{ m}\) in fresh water. The density of water is \(1000\text{ kg/m}^3\) and the gravitational field strength is \(10\text{ N/kg}\). What is the increase in fluid pressure experienced by the submarine?
A.\(100\text{ kPa}\)
B.\(250\text{ kPa}\)
C.\(350\text{ kPa}\)
D.\(450\text{ kPa}\)
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Worked solution
1. Calculate the change in depth: \(\Delta h = 45\text{ m} - 10\text{ m} = 35\text{ m}\). 2. Use the fluid pressure equation: \(\Delta p = \rho g \Delta h\). 3. Substitute the values: \(\Delta p = 1000\text{ kg/m}^3 \times 10\text{ N/kg} \times 35\text{ m} = 350,000\text{ Pa}\). 4. Convert the answer to kilopascals: \(350,000\text{ Pa} = 350\text{ kPa}\).
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct answer C. - Reject A: calculated using 10 m depth. - Reject B: calculated using 35 m depth but miscalculated. - Reject D: calculated using total depth of 45 m (\(450\text{ kPa}\)).
Question 6 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which of the following modifications to a simple AC generator (alternator) would result in the maximum output potential difference being exactly doubled?
A.Doubling both the speed of rotation and the number of turns on the coil.
B.Doubling the speed of rotation and doubling the magnetic field strength.
C.Doubling the speed of rotation and keeping all other factors constant.
D.Halving the number of turns on the coil and doubling the speed of rotation.
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Worked solution
The maximum induced potential difference (electromotive force) in an AC generator is directly proportional to the strength of the magnetic field, the number of turns in the coil, the cross-sectional area of the coil, and the angular frequency (speed) of rotation. Doubling the speed of rotation while keeping all other parameters constant will exactly double the rate of change of magnetic flux linkage, thereby doubling the maximum induced potential difference.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct answer C. - Reject A and B because these modifications would quadruple the maximum potential difference. - Reject D because halving the turns and doubling the speed of rotation would keep the maximum potential difference the same.
Question 7 · multiple_choice
1 marks
How does the observation of red-shift from distant galaxies support the Big Bang theory?
A.It shows that light from more distant galaxies is shifted to longer wavelengths, indicating that the Universe is expanding.
B.It shows that light from nearby galaxies is shifted to shorter wavelengths, indicating that the Universe is contracting.
C.It shows that all galaxies are moving at the same constant speed relative to the Earth, indicating a static universe.
D.It shows that light from distant galaxies is shifted to shorter wavelengths, indicating they are moving towards us.
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Worked solution
Light from distant galaxies is shifted towards the red end of the spectrum (red-shift), which indicates that they are moving away from us. Observations show that more distant galaxies have a greater red-shift, meaning they are receding faster. This proportional relationship indicates that the space between galaxies is expanding, suggesting that the entire Universe began expanding outward from a single, highly dense point in the past (the Big Bang).
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct answer A. - Reject B because a larger red-shift for closer galaxies is not observed and would suggest contraction. - Reject C because red-shift is not uniform for all galaxies. - Reject D because distant galaxies exhibit red-shift, not blue-shift.
Question 8 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which of the following statements correctly compares Ultraviolet (UV) radiation and Microwaves?
A.UV radiation has a shorter wavelength and a higher frequency than Microwaves.
B.UV radiation has a longer wavelength and a lower frequency than Microwaves.
C.UV radiation travels faster in a vacuum than Microwaves.
D.UV radiation has lower photon energy than Microwaves.
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Worked solution
In the electromagnetic spectrum, ordered by decreasing wavelength and increasing frequency: Radio waves, Microwaves, Infrared, Visible light, Ultraviolet, X-rays, Gamma rays. Therefore, Ultraviolet radiation lies at a higher-frequency, shorter-wavelength region of the spectrum compared to Microwaves. Both waves travel at the same speed (the speed of light) in a vacuum.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct answer A. - Reject B because UV has a shorter wavelength and higher frequency than microwaves. - Reject C because all electromagnetic waves travel at the same speed in a vacuum. - Reject D because higher frequency means UV photons carry higher energy than microwave photons.
Question 9 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A water wave travels from deep water into shallow water. What happens to its speed, wavelength, and frequency?
A.Speed decreases, wavelength decreases, frequency remains unchanged.
B.Speed decreases, wavelength increases, frequency remains unchanged.
C.Speed increases, wavelength decreases, frequency increases.
D.Speed decreases, wavelength decreases, frequency decreases.
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Worked solution
When a wave travels from deep water to shallow water, it slows down due to interaction with the seabed. Since the frequency of the wave is determined solely by the source, it remains constant. Using the wave equation v = f * lambda, if the speed decreases and the frequency remains constant, the wavelength must also decrease.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option a.
Question 10 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A radioactive source emits radiation that can pass through a sheet of paper but is stopped by a few millimetres of aluminium. What type of radiation is emitted, and what change does its emission cause to the nucleus of the atom?
A.Alpha radiation; the proton number decreases by 2.
B.Beta-minus radiation; the proton number increases by 1.
C.Gamma radiation; the proton number remains unchanged.
D.Beta-minus radiation; the mass number decreases by 1.
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Worked solution
The radiation described is beta-minus radiation because it passes through paper but is stopped by a few millimetres of aluminium. During beta-minus decay, a neutron in the nucleus decays into a proton and an electron (the beta particle). The conversion of a neutron to a proton increases the atomic (proton) number by 1, while the overall mass number remains unchanged.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option b.
Question 11 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A householder is choosing between solar PV panels and a wind turbine to generate electricity. Both systems have an efficiency of 15% and receive 120,000 kJ of energy from their environment over a day. Which of the following is the correct calculation for the useful energy transferred in kWh over this day? (1 kWh = 3.6 MJ)
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Worked solution
To find the useful energy: 1. Convert total input energy to Joules: 120,000 kJ = 120,000 * 10^3 J = 1.2 * 10^8 J. 2. Calculate the useful energy output: 0.15 * 1.2 * 10^8 J = 1.8 * 10^7 J. 3. Convert to kWh: 1.8 * 10^7 J / 3.6 * 10^6 J/kWh = 5.0 kWh. This is represented by the formula in option a.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option a.
Question 12 · multiple_choice
1 marks
The light spectra from four different distant galaxies, A, B, C, and D, are observed from Earth. The redshift (change in wavelength divided by original wavelength) for a specific absorption line is measured for each galaxy: Galaxy A has a redshift of 0.015, Galaxy B has 0.045, Galaxy C has 0.030, and Galaxy D has 0.005. Which galaxy is moving away from Earth at the highest speed, and what does this indicate about its relative distance from Earth?
A.Galaxy D; it is the closest galaxy to Earth.
B.Galaxy B; it is the closest galaxy to Earth.
C.Galaxy B; it is the furthest galaxy from Earth.
D.Galaxy A; it is the furthest galaxy from Earth.
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Worked solution
Redshift is directly proportional to the recessional speed of a galaxy. Since Galaxy B has the highest redshift (0.045), it is moving away at the greatest speed. According to Hubble's Law, the recessional velocity of a distant galaxy is directly proportional to its distance from Earth. Thus, the fastest-moving galaxy (B) is also the furthest away.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option c.
Question 13 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A technician uses a radioactive source to test for cracks in a thick steel pipe by measuring the radiation that passes through it. Why is a gamma-emitting source chosen for this task instead of an alpha-emitting source?
A.Gamma radiation has a much shorter half-life than alpha radiation.
B.Gamma radiation is more ionizing than alpha radiation and therefore easier to detect after passing through the steel.
C.Gamma radiation has high penetrating power and can pass through steel, whereas alpha radiation would be completely absorbed.
D.Gamma radiation is deflected by magnetic fields within the steel, helping to map the crack's location.
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Worked solution
Alpha particles have very low penetrating power and are stopped by a sheet of paper or a few centimetres of air, so they cannot pass through steel. Gamma radiation is highly penetrating and can pass through several centimetres of steel, allowing a detector on the opposite side to measure the transmitted intensity and identify cracks.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option c.
Question 14 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which of the following lists electromagnetic waves in order of increasing frequency?
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Worked solution
The electromagnetic spectrum in order of increasing frequency (and decreasing wavelength) is: radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X-rays, and gamma rays. Option a lists radio waves, infrared, ultraviolet, and gamma rays, which is in the correct order.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option a.
Question 15 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A ray of light in air is incident on the flat surface of a glass block at an angle of incidence of 35 degrees. The angle of refraction inside the glass is 22 degrees. What is the refractive index of the glass, and what happens to the speed of light as it enters the glass?
A.Refractive index = 0.65; speed of light increases.
B.Refractive index = 1.53; speed of light decreases.
C.Refractive index = 1.53; speed of light increases.
D.Refractive index = 0.65; speed of light decreases.
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Worked solution
Using Snell's Law, the refractive index n = sin(i) / sin(r) = sin(35) / sin(22) = 0.574 / 0.375 = 1.53. Since the refractive index of glass is higher than that of air (n = 1.00), light travels slower in the glass block, meaning the speed of light decreases.
Marking scheme
1 mark for the correct option b.
Paper J249/04 Section B
Answer all questions. Supported with working where appropriate.
7 Question · 74.9 marks
Question 1 · Structured and Calculation Questions
10.7 marks
A student carries out an experiment using a trolley on a ramp to investigate motion. The trolley starts from rest and accelerates down a constant slope, passing through two light gates.
(a) Describe how light gates and a data logger can be used to measure the acceleration of the trolley as it moves down the slope. [4 marks]
(b) A trolley of mass \(0.80\text{ kg}\) is released. It passes through Light Gate 1 at \(1.5\text{ m/s}\) and Light Gate 2 at \(3.5\text{ m/s}\). The light gates are positioned \(1.25\text{ m}\) apart.
(i) Calculate the acceleration of the trolley between the two light gates. [3 marks]
(ii) Calculate the resultant force acting on the trolley as it accelerates down the ramp. [3.7 marks]
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Worked solution
(a) To measure acceleration: 1. A card of a known length is attached to the top of the trolley. 2. When the trolley passes through a light gate, the card interrupts the light beam. 3. The data logger measures the time duration for which the beam is blocked at each gate, allowing it to calculate the initial velocity \(u\) at Light Gate 1 and final velocity \(v\) at Light Gate 2 using \(\text{velocity} = \frac{\text{length of card}}{\text{time}}\). 4. The data logger also measures the total time interval \(t\) taken for the trolley to travel from the first light gate to the second light gate, and computes the acceleration using \(a = \frac{v - u}{t}\).
(b)(i) Use the equation of motion: \(v^2 - u^2 = 2as\) Rearrange to solve for acceleration \(a\): \(a = \frac{v^2 - u^2}{2s}\) Substitute the given values: \(a = \frac{3.5^2 - 1.5^2}{2 \times 1.25}\) \(a = \frac{12.25 - 2.25}{2.5}\) \(a = \frac{10}{2.5} = 4.0\text{ m/s}^2\).
(b)(ii) Use Newton's second law: \(F = ma\) Substitute mass \(m = 0.80\text{ kg}\) and acceleration \(a = 4.0\text{ m/s}^2\): \(F = 0.80 \times 4.0 = 3.2\text{ N}\).
Marking scheme
Part (a) [4 marks]: - Card of known length attached to trolley [1] - Light gates measure the duration the beam is interrupted [1] - Velocities at each gate are calculated using velocity = length of card / time [1] - Acceleration calculated from the change in velocity divided by the time taken between the two light gates [1]
Part (b)(i) [3 marks]: - Correct selection and rearrangement of formula: \(a = \frac{v^2 - u^2}{2s}\) [1] - Correct substitution: \(a = \frac{3.5^2 - 1.5^2}{2.5}\) [1] - Correct final answer: \(4.0\text{ m/s}^2\) [1]
Part (b)(ii) [3.7 marks]: - Correct formula: \(F = ma\) [1] - Correct substitution: \(F = 0.80 \times 4.0\) [1] - Correct final calculated answer with unit: \(3.2\text{ N}\) [1.7]
Question 2 · Structured and Calculation Questions
10.7 marks
A student sets up a ripple tank to investigate the properties of water waves.
(a) Explain how the student can use a wooden bar connected to a variable frequency vibration generator and a strobe light to measure the wavelength of water waves. [4 marks]
(b) The vibration generator is set to a frequency of \(15\text{ Hz}\). The wave speed of the water waves in the tank is observed to be \(0.36\text{ m/s}\).
(i) Calculate the wavelength of the waves in centimeters. [3 marks]
(ii) As the wave moves into a shallower region of water, its speed decreases to \(0.24\text{ m/s}\). Explain what happens to the wavelength and the frequency of the wave as a result of this transition. [3.7 marks]
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Worked solution
(a) To measure wavelength: 1. Switch on the vibration generator to produce continuous straight waves. 2. Adjust the frequency of the strobe light until the waves appear to be stationary. 3. Place a metre ruler alongside the wave pattern on the screen below the tank. 4. Measure the distance across a large, clear number of wavefronts (e.g., 10 waves) and divide this total distance by the number of waves to find the wavelength of a single wave.
(b)(i) Use the wave equation: \(v = f \lambda\) Rearrange to solve for wavelength \(\lambda\): \(\lambda = \frac{v}{f}\) Substitute the given values: \(\lambda = \frac{0.36}{15} = 0.024\text{ m}\) Convert to centimeters: \(0.024\text{ m} \times 100 = 2.4\text{ cm}\).
(b)(ii) 1. The frequency remains constant at \(15\text{ Hz}\) because the frequency is determined solely by the source (the vibration generator). 2. Since the wave speed decreases and frequency is constant, the wavelength must decrease: \(\lambda = \frac{v}{f}\). 3. New wavelength: \(\lambda = \frac{0.24}{15} = 0.016\text{ m} = 1.6\text{ cm}\).
Marking scheme
Part (a) [4 marks]: - Use a strobe light to freeze the motion of the waves (adjust frequency to match) [1] - Place a ruler alongside the wave projection [1] - Measure across multiple wavefronts (e.g., 10 waves) to minimize error [1] - Divide total measured distance by the number of wavefronts to find the wavelength of a single wave [1]
Part (b)(i) [3 marks]: - Correct rearrangement of wave equation: \(\lambda = \frac{v}{f}\) [1] - Correct calculation: \(0.024\text{ m}\) [1] - Correct unit conversion to \(2.4\text{ cm}\) [1]
Part (b)(ii) [3.7 marks]: - State that frequency remains unchanged / constant because it depends on the source [1] - State that wavelength decreases [1] - Calculate the new wavelength as \(1.6\text{ cm}\) (or \(0.016\text{ m}\)) [1.7]
Question 3 · Structured and Calculation Questions
10.7 marks
A student builds a electrical circuit to investigate resistors in different configurations.
(a) The student sets up a series circuit with a \(12\text{ V}\) d.c. power supply, a fixed \(30\ \Omega\) resistor, and a variable resistor. Explain how the potential difference across the \(30\ \Omega\) resistor changes as the resistance of the variable resistor is increased from \(0\ \Omega\) to \(60\ \Omega\). [4 marks]
(b) In a second configuration, the student connects a \(40\ \Omega\) resistor and a \(60\ \Omega\) resistor in parallel across the same \(12\text{ V}\) power supply.
(i) Calculate the total equivalent resistance of this parallel combination. [3.7 marks]
(ii) Calculate the total current drawn from the power supply. [3 marks]
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Worked solution
(a) When the resistance of the variable resistor increases: 1. The total resistance of the series circuit increases (\(R_{\text{total}} = R_{\text{fixed}} + R_{\text{variable}}\)). 2. Since potential difference remains constant, the total current in the circuit decreases according to \(I = \frac{V}{R_{\text{total}}}\). 3. Because the current decreases, the potential difference across the fixed \(30\ \Omega\) resistor decreases, according to \(V = IR\). 4. Quantitatively: when variable resistance is \(0\ \Omega\), current is \(\frac{12}{30} = 0.4\text{ A}\) and PD is \(12\text{ V}\). When variable resistance is \(60\ \Omega\), total resistance is \(90\ \Omega\), current is \(\frac{12}{90} = 0.133\text{ A}\), and PD is \(0.133 \times 30 = 4.0\text{ V}\). Thus, the PD across the fixed resistor decreases from \(12\text{ V}\) to \(4\text{ V}\).
(b)(i) For two resistors connected in parallel, the total resistance \(R_p\) is given by: \(\frac{1}{R_p} = \frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2} = \frac{1}{40} + \frac{1}{60}\) Find a common denominator (120): \(\frac{1}{R_p} = \frac{3}{120} + \frac{2}{120} = \frac{5}{120}\) Reciprocate both sides: \(R_p = \frac{120}{5} = 24\ \Omega\).
(b)(ii) Use Ohm's Law: \(I = \frac{V}{R_p}\) Substitute the given values: \(I = \frac{12\text{ V}}{24\ \Omega} = 0.50\text{ A}\).
Marking scheme
Part (a) [4 marks]: - As variable resistance increases, total resistance in the circuit increases [1] - This causes total current in the circuit to decrease [1] - Since current decreases, potential difference across the fixed \(30\ \Omega\) resistor decreases [1] - Mentions correct limit values (decreases from \(12\text{ V}\) to \(4\text{ V}\)) [1]
Part (b)(i) [3.7 marks]: - Use of parallel resistance formula: \(\frac{1}{R_p} = \frac{1}{40} + \frac{1}{60}\) [1] - Correct calculation of fraction: \(\frac{1}{R_p} = \frac{5}{120}\) [1] - Final calculated resistance value with unit: \(24\ \Omega\) [1.7]
Part (b)(ii) [3 marks]: - Correct equation: \(I = \frac{V}{R}\) [1] - Correct substitution of values: \(I = \frac{12}{24}\) [1] - Correct final current with unit: \(0.50\text{ A}\) (or \(0.5\text{ A}\)) [1]
Question 4 · Structured and Calculation Questions
10.7 marks
A small isolated coastal community is looking at options to power its grid using renewable energy sources.
(a) Explain the difference between reliable (dependable) and non-reliable renewable energy resources, using wind power and hydroelectric power as examples. [4 marks]
(b) The community installs a wind turbine with a maximum rated capacity of \(2.5\text{ MW}\). Over a typical one-week period, the average electrical power output of the turbine is measured to be \(600\text{ kW}\).
(i) Calculate the capacity factor (the average power output as a percentage of the maximum rated capacity) of the wind turbine during this week. [3.7 marks]
(ii) Calculate the total electrical energy generated by the wind turbine during this one-week period. Give your answer in megajoules (MJ). [3 marks]
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Worked solution
(a) 1. A reliable energy resource is one that can generate electricity continuously on demand regardless of weather conditions (e.g., hydroelectric power, where water release from a reservoir can be precisely controlled to meet electricity demand). 2. A non-reliable (intermittent) resource cannot generate electricity on demand because it depends on unpredictable environmental factors (e.g., wind power, which only produces energy when the wind is blowing at sufficient speeds).
(b)(i) Ensure units are consistent: Maximum capacity = \(2.5\text{ MW} = 2500\text{ kW}\) Average power = \(600\text{ kW}\) Capacity factor = \(\left(\frac{\text{Average power}}{\text{Maximum capacity}}\right) \times 100\) \(\text{Capacity factor} = \left(\frac{600}{2500}\right) \times 100 = 0.24 \times 100 = 24\%\).
(b)(ii) Calculate total time in seconds for one week: \(t = 7\text{ days} \times 24\text{ hours/day} \times 3600\text{ seconds/hour} = 604,800\text{ seconds}\) Calculate energy using \(E = P \times t\) (where average power is \(600\text{ kW} = 600,000\text{ W}\)): \(E = 600,000\text{ W} \times 604,800\text{ s} = 362,880,000,000\text{ Joules}\) Convert Joules to Megajoules (MJ) by dividing by \(1,000,000\): \(E = 362,880\text{ MJ}\) (or \(3.6288 \times 10^5\text{ MJ}\)).
Marking scheme
Part (a) [4 marks]: - Definition of reliable: can produce energy consistently/on demand [1] - Example: Hydroelectric can store water to release when needed [1] - Definition of non-reliable: dependent on weather/environmental factors [1] - Example: Wind turbine output depends on wind speeds which are unpredictable [1]
Part (b)(i) [3.7 marks]: - Convert units so they are consistent (e.g., \(2.5\text{ MW} = 2500\text{ kW}\)) [1] - Use correct ratio: \(\frac{600}{2500}\) [1] - Correct final percentage: \(24\%\) [1.7]
Part (b)(ii) [3 marks]: - Calculate total seconds in one week: \(604,800\text{ s}\) [1] - Use \(E = P \times t\) with consistent units [1] - Correct final calculated value: \(362,880\text{ MJ}\) [1]
Question 5 · Structured and Calculation Questions
10.7 marks
A physics laboratory is testing the characteristics of a helical steel spring.
(a) State Hooke's Law and explain the difference between elastic deformation and plastic deformation. [4 marks]
(b) The steel spring has an unstretched length of \(12.0\text{ cm}\). When a load of \(6.0\text{ N}\) is suspended from the spring, its total length increases to \(27.0\text{ cm}\).
(i) Calculate the spring constant \(k\) of the spring in \(\text{N/m}\). [3.7 marks]
(ii) Calculate the elastic potential energy stored in the spring when it is stretched to \(27.0\text{ cm}\). [3 marks]
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Worked solution
(a) Hooke's Law states that the extension of an elastic object is directly proportional to the force applied to it, provided the limit of proportionality is not exceeded (\(F = kx\)). - Elastic deformation: The object returns to its original length and shape when the deforming force is removed. - Plastic deformation: The object is permanently deformed and does not return to its original shape when the force is removed.
(b)(i) First calculate extension \(x\): \(x = \text{stretched length} - \text{unstretched length} = 27.0\text{ cm} - 12.0\text{ cm} = 15.0\text{ cm}\) Convert extension to metres: \(x = 15.0 \div 100 = 0.15\text{ m}\) Use Hooke's Law \(F = kx\) to solve for \(k\): \(k = \frac{F}{x} = \frac{6.0\text{ N}}{0.15\text{ m}} = 40\text{ N/m}\).
(b)(ii) Use the formula for elastic potential energy: \(E_e = \frac{1}{2} k x^2\) Substitute the values \(k = 40\text{ N/m}\) and \(x = 0.15\text{ m}\): \(E_e = 0.5 \times 40 \times (0.15)^2\) \(E_e = 20 \times 0.0225 = 0.45\text{ J}\).
Marking scheme
Part (a) [4 marks]: - Statement of Hooke's Law: Extension is proportional to force [1] - Condition: Provided limit of proportionality is not exceeded [1] - Elastic deformation: returns to original shape when force is removed [1] - Plastic deformation: remains permanently deformed when force is removed [1]
Part (b)(i) [3.7 marks]: - Correct extension calculated: \(15.0\text{ cm}\) or \(0.15\text{ m}\) [1] - Correct rearrangement: \(k = \frac{F}{x}\) [1] - Correct final spring constant with unit: \(40\text{ N/m}\) [1.7]
Part (b)(ii) [3 marks]: - Correct formula: \(E_e = \frac{1}{2} k x^2\) [1] - Correct substitution of values: \(0.5 \times 40 \times 0.15^2\) [1] - Correct final energy value with unit: \(0.45\text{ J}\) [1]
Question 6 · Structured and Calculation Questions
10.7 marks
Atmospheric pressure and hydrostatic pressure both play vital roles in the physics of fluids.
(a) Explain why atmospheric pressure decreases as the height above the Earth's surface increases. [4 marks]
(b) An undersea exploration vehicle is operating in seawater. The density of seawater is \(1025\text{ kg/m}^3\). Take the gravitational field strength \(g = 10\text{ N/kg}\).
(i) Calculate the pressure exerted by the seawater on the vehicle at a depth of \(150\text{ m}\). [3.7 marks]
(ii) Given that the atmospheric pressure at sea level is \(101,000\text{ Pa}\), calculate the total absolute pressure experienced by the vehicle at this depth. [3 marks]
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Worked solution
(a) Atmospheric pressure is created by air molecules colliding with surfaces. 1. As altitude increases, the density of the air decreases, meaning there are fewer air molecules per unit volume. 2. This results in fewer collisions per second with surfaces, producing less pressure. 3. Furthermore, at higher altitudes, there is a smaller weight of air above pushing down on the column of air below.
(b)(i) Use the equation for fluid pressure: \(p = h \rho g\) Substitute depth \(h = 150\text{ m}\), density \(\rho = 1025\text{ kg/m}^3\), and \(g = 10\text{ N/kg}\): \(p = 150 \times 1025 \times 10\) \(p = 1,537,500\text{ Pa}\) (or \(1.5375\text{ MPa}\)).
(b)(ii) The total absolute pressure is the sum of the hydrostatic pressure and the atmospheric pressure: \(p_{\text{total}} = p_{\text{hydrostatic}} + p_{\text{atmospheric}}\) \(p_{\text{total}} = 1,537,500\text{ Pa} + 101,000\text{ Pa}\) \(p_{\text{total}} = 1,638,500\text{ Pa}\) (or \(1.6385\text{ MPa}\)).
Marking scheme
Part (a) [4 marks]: - Pressure is due to collisions of air particles with surfaces [1] - Density of air decreases as altitude increases [1] - Fewer particles per unit volume leads to fewer collisions [1] - There is less weight of air acting downwards from above [1]
Part (b)(i) [3.7 marks]: - Correct formula used: \(p = h \rho g\) [1] - Correct substitution of values: \(150 \times 1025 \times 10\) [1] - Correct final calculated pressure with unit: \(1,537,500\text{ Pa}\) [1.7]
Part (b)(ii) [3 marks]: - Recognize that total pressure is the sum of hydrostatic and atmospheric pressure [1] - Correct addition: \(1,537,500 + 101,000\) [1] - Correct total absolute pressure with unit: \(1,638,500\text{ Pa}\) [1]
Question 7 · Structured and Calculation Questions
10.7 marks
Radioactive isotopes emit ionizing radiation as they decay to become more stable.
(a) Compare alpha (\(\alpha\)), beta (\(\beta\)), and gamma (\(\gamma\)) radiation in terms of their ionizing power and their relative penetrating abilities. [4 marks]
(b) Carbon-14 is a radioactive isotope of carbon with a half-life of \(5730\text{ years}\). A sample of ancient wood is found to have a Carbon-14 activity that is only \(12.5\%\) of the activity found in living trees today.
(i) Calculate the approximate age of the sample of ancient wood. [3.7 marks]
(ii) Carbon-14 (\(^{14}_{6}\text{C}\)) decays into Nitrogen-14 (\(^{14}_{7}\text{N}\)) by emitting a beta-minus particle. Write down the complete balanced nuclear equation for this decay. [3 marks]
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Worked solution
(a) - Ionizing power: Alpha has the highest ionizing power, beta has moderate ionizing power, and gamma has the lowest ionizing power. - Penetrating power: Gamma has the highest penetrating power (requires thick lead/concrete to stop it), beta has moderate penetrating power (stopped by a thin sheet of aluminium), and alpha has the lowest penetrating power (stopped by a sheet of paper or skin).
(b)(i) Determine the number of half-lives that have elapsed: - Start at \(100\%\) activity. - After 1 half-life: \(50\%\) - After 2 half-lives: \(25\%\) - After 3 half-lives: \(12.5\%\) So, exactly 3 half-lives have passed. Calculate the age: \(\text{Age} = 3 \times 5730\text{ years} = 17,190\text{ years}\).
(b)(ii) In beta-minus decay, a neutron decays into a proton and an electron. The electron is emitted as a beta particle (represented as \(^{0}_{-1}\text{e}\) or \(^{0}_{-1}\beta\)). The balanced nuclear equation is: \(^{14}_{6}\text{C} \rightarrow ^{14}_{7}\text{N} + ^{0}_{-1}\text{e}\)
Marking scheme
Part (a) [4 marks]: - Alpha has the highest ionizing power and lowest penetrating power (stopped by paper) [1] - Beta has medium ionizing power and medium penetrating power (stopped by aluminium) [1] - Gamma has the lowest ionizing power and highest penetrating power (stopped by lead/concrete) [1] - Clear comparative terminology used correctly [1]
Part (b)(i) [3.7 marks]: - Determine that \(12.5\%\) represents 3 half-lives [1] - Multiplies half-life by 3: \(3 \times 5730\) [1] - Correct age: \(17,190\text{ years}\) [1.7]
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