Cambridge IGCSE · thinka-original Practice Paper

2023 Cambridge IGCSE Geography (0460) Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Jun 2023 (V3) Cambridge IGCSE-Style Mock — Geography (0460)

195 marks285 mins2023

An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2023 (V3) Cambridge IGCSE Geography (0460) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

Paper 13: Geographical Themes

Answer three questions in total, one from each section (Population and Settlement, The Natural Environment, and Economic Development).

6 Question · 75 marks

Question 1 · structured

18 marks

1 (a) Population change occurs due to natural processes and migration.
(i) Define the term natural population decrease. [1]
(ii) Explain how birth rate is calculated. [2]
(iii) Suggest three reasons why death rates have fallen in many LEDCs. [3]
(iv) Describe four problems caused by overpopulation in rural areas of LEDCs. [4]

(b) The Demographic Transition Model (DTM) shows changes in birth and death rates over time.
(i) Imagine a country with a birth rate of 10 per 1000 and a death rate of 10 per 1000. Identify the stage of the DTM this country is likely in, and explain why. [3]
(ii) Explain how social and economic factors can lead to a decrease in birth rates. [5]

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Worked solution

(a)(i) Natural population decrease occurs when the death rate of a country is higher than its birth rate, excluding migration.
(ii) Birth rate is calculated as the number of live births per 1000 people of the population in a year.
(iii) Death rates have fallen due to: 1. Improvements in healthcare and medical technology (e.g., vaccinations, hospitals). 2. Better sanitation and cleaner water supplies. 3. Improved food security, diet, and nutrition.
(iv) Problems caused by overpopulation in rural areas include: 1. Pressure on land/overcultivation leading to soil erosion. 2. Deforestation for fuelwood and housing. 3. High rates of unemployment or underemployment. 4. Severe pressure on local schools, clinics, and basic infrastructure.
(b)(i) Stage 4 or Stage 5. Both birth rate and death rate are low and equal, indicating zero population growth or population stabilization, which is characteristic of Stage 4 (or Stage 5 if decreasing further).
(ii) 1. Increased female education and career opportunities lead women to marry and have children later in life. 2. Rising cost of raising children (education, housing) makes larger families less affordable. 3. Access to family planning, contraception, and sex education. 4. Shift from agricultural to industrial/service economy means children are no longer needed as labor on farms. 5. Government policies (e.g., anti-natalist policies/incentives) encourage smaller families.

Marking scheme

(a)(i) 1 mark for stating that death rates are higher than birth rates (excluding migration).
(ii) 1 mark for 'number of live births', 1 mark for 'per 1000 (of the population) per year/annum'.
(iii) 3 marks for three distinct reasons:
- Improvements in healthcare/vaccines/medicines (1)
- Improved access to clean water/sanitation (1)
- Better diet/nutrition/food supply (1)
- Lower infant mortality (1)
- Peace/absence of war (1)
(iv) 4 marks for four distinct problems:
- Land fragmentation/plots too small (1)
- Overcultivation/soil exhaustion (1)
- Deforestation/destruction of habitats (1)
- Unemployment/underemployment (1)
- Overcrowding/pressure on schools/hospitals (1)
- Water shortage/pollution (1)
(b)(i) 1 mark for identifying Stage 4 (or 5).
2 marks for explanation: low birth rate and low death rate (1) resulting in a stable or zero population growth (1).
(b)(ii) 5 marks (up to 5 @ 1 mark or development):
- Increased focus on careers/education for women (1) -> delaying marriage/childbearing (dev) (1)
- Rising costs of bringing up children/education (1) -> families choose to have fewer children (dev) (1)
- Availability and knowledge of family planning/contraceptives (1)
- Mechanisation of farming/urbanisation (1) -> children no longer needed for farm labor (dev) (1)
- Pensions/old-age support (1) -> parents don't need children to care for them in old age (dev) (1)
- Anti-natalist policies/family size limits (1)

Question 2 · structured

18 marks

2 (a) Marine processes continually shape coastlines through wave action.
(i) State one characteristic of a destructive wave. [1]
(ii) Explain how the process of hydraulic action erodes cliffs. [2]
(iii) Describe three differences between constructive and destructive waves. [3]
(iv) Describe how a wave-cut platform is formed. [4]

(b) Coastal spit formation is a result of deposition.
(i) Explain how longshore drift transports material along a beach. [3]
(ii) Explain how a coastal spit is formed and develops over time. [5]

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Worked solution

(a)(i) Destructive waves have a stronger backwash than swash (or high frequency, short wavelength, high height).
(ii) Hydraulic action erodes cliffs when waves trap air in cracks in the cliff face. As the wave crashes, the air is compressed, expanding the crack and causing the rock to shatter over time.
(iii) Differences: 1. Constructive waves have a stronger swash than backwash, whereas destructive waves have a stronger backwash than swash. 2. Constructive waves are low in height with long wavelengths, while destructive waves are high in height with short wavelengths. 3. Constructive waves have a lower frequency (6-8 per minute) compared to destructive waves (10-14 per minute).
(iv) 1. Marine erosion (corrasion/hydraulic action) attacks the base of the cliff between high and low tide marks. 2. This forms a wave-cut notch. 3. Over time, the notch deepens, leaving the cliff above unsupported. 4. The cliff collapses, and as the process repeats, the cliff retreats inland, leaving a flat rock platform called a wave-cut platform.
(b)(i) 1. Prevailing wind blows waves onto the beach at an oblique angle. 2. Swash carries sediment up the beach at this angle. 3. Backwash pulls sediment straight back down the beach at a right angle (90 degrees) due to gravity, resulting in a zig-zag movement of material along the coast.
(ii) 1. Longshore drift moves sediment along the coastline. 2. When the coastline changes direction (e.g., at an estuary or bay), waves lose energy and deposit sediment in the shallower, sheltered water. 3. This build-up of sediment continues, projecting out into the sea to form a spit. 4. Prevailing wind or secondary wind directions can curve the end of the spit (forming a hook/hooked end). 5. Behind the spit, in the calm, sheltered water, a salt marsh develops.

Marking scheme

(a)(i) 1 mark for: stronger backwash than swash / high frequency / steep wave gradient / high energy.
(ii) 2 marks: Air is trapped in cracks by waves (1); the compressed air puts pressure on the rock/forces the crack to widen and shatter (1).
(iii) 3 marks for three comparative points (must be comparative):
- Constructive: swash > backwash vs Destructive: backwash > swash (1)
- Constructive: low height/long wavelength vs Destructive: high height/short wavelength (1)
- Constructive: low frequency (approx 6-9/min) vs Destructive: high frequency (approx 11-15/min) (1)
- Constructive: deposits material vs Destructive: erodes/removes material (1)
(a)(iv) 4 marks for four distinct stages:
- Wave erosion attacks the base of the cliff (between high/low tide) (1)
- A wave-cut notch is formed (1)
- The overhanging cliff collapses due to gravity/lack of support (1)
- The cliff retreats/moves backwards (1)
- A flat, rocky platform is left behind at the base (wave-cut platform) (1)
(b)(i) 3 marks:
- Waves approach the beach at an angle/due to prevailing wind (1)
- Swash carries material up the beach at an angle (1)
- Backwash pulls material straight down the beach under gravity/at 90 degrees (1)
- Resulting in a zig-zag movement along the shoreline (1)
(b)(ii) 5 marks (up to 5 @ 1 mark or development):
- Longshore drift transports sediment along the beach (1)
- Coastline changes direction/bends/reaches an estuary (1)
- Deposition occurs in shallow/sheltered water where wave energy decreases (1)
- Sediment builds up above sea level, extending out into the sea/forming a ridge (1)
- Short-term changes in wind direction curve the end of the spit (forming a hook) (1)
- Silt/mud is deposited in the sheltered water behind the spit, forming a salt marsh (1)

Question 3 · structured

18 marks

3 (a) Energy is essential for economic development but has environmental consequences.
(i) Define the term non-renewable energy resource. [1]
(ii) Identify two examples of fossil fuels. [2]
(iii) Suggest three advantages of using solar power rather than coal for electricity generation. [3]
(iv) Describe the environmental impacts of extracting and transporting crude oil. [4]

(b) Global energy demand is rising rapidly.
(i) Explain why the global consumption of energy is increasing. [3]
(ii) Explain how a country can reduce its dependence on fossil fuels. [5]

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Worked solution

(a)(i) A non-renewable energy resource is a finite resource that cannot be replaced once it is used up (or takes millions of years to form).
(ii) Coal, oil (or crude oil/petroleum), natural gas. (Any two)
(iii) Advantages of solar power over coal: 1. Solar is renewable and will not run out, unlike coal. 2. It does not emit carbon dioxide or greenhouse gases during operation, reducing global warming. 3. It does not produce air pollutants (e.g., sulfur dioxide) that cause acid rain and respiratory issues.
(iv) Environmental impacts: 1. Oil spills during transport (e.g., tanker leaks) coat marine wildlife and disrupt aquatic ecosystems. 2. Land clearance and habitat destruction to build drilling rigs/pipelines. 3. Contamination of soils and local water supplies from drilling wastes/refinery runoff. 4. Visual pollution of natural landscapes due to industrial infrastructure.
(b)(i) Consumption is increasing due to: 1. Rapidly growing global population. 2. Industrialisation and economic development in emerging economies (e.g., China, India). 3. Rising living standards and increased ownership of energy-dependent goods (appliances, cars).
(ii) Reducing dependence on fossil fuels can be achieved by: 1. Investing in renewable energy infrastructure (e.g., wind farms, solar fields, HEP plants). 2. Subsidising renewable energy or offering tax incentives for electric vehicles and solar panels. 3. Implementing energy efficiency policies, such as introducing building regulations for insulation or promoting energy-saving appliances. 4. Developing nuclear power as an alternative base-load electricity source. 5. Educating the public and implementing carbon taxes to discourage fossil fuel use.

Marking scheme

(a)(i) 1 mark for: finite/will run out / cannot be replaced or regenerated once used.
(ii) 2 marks for any two: coal, crude oil (or petroleum), natural gas (or peat/oil shale).
(iii) 3 marks for three distinct advantages (must compare to coal):
- Solar is renewable/infinite vs coal is finite (1)
- Solar does not emit greenhouse gases/carbon dioxide during use vs coal does (1)
- Solar does not produce sulfur dioxide/acid rain/smoke/smog vs coal does (1)
- No mining required, reducing land scarring/destruction (1)
- Lower running/operational costs once installed (1)
(a)(iv) 4 marks for four distinct impacts:
- Oil spills kill marine life/birds/damage beaches (1)
- Deforestation/habitat loss for drilling sites or pipelines (1)
- Water pollution from drilling fluids/leaks (1)
- Soil contamination around extraction sites (1)
- Air pollution/flaring of natural gas releases toxic emissions (1)
(b)(i) 3 marks:
- Growing global population leads to more consumers (1)
- Industrialisation/economic development in LEDCs/emerging nations (1)
- Rising standards of living/wealth/middle-class expansion (1)
- Increased use of technology/appliances/vehicles (1)
(b)(ii) 5 marks (up to 5 @ 1 mark or development):
- Build more renewable energy stations (wind, solar, HEP) (1) -> to replace fossil-fueled power plants (dev) (1)
- Financial incentives/subsidies for green energy/electric vehicles (1) -> making them cheaper than fossil fuel alternatives (dev) (1)
- Introduce carbon taxes/emission laws on industries (1) -> forcing companies to transition to cleaner energy (dev) (1)
- Promote energy conservation/energy-efficient building standards (1)
- Invest in nuclear energy for continuous baseload power (1)
- Public education campaigns to reduce domestic electricity use (1)

Question 4 · essay

7 marks

For a named urban area you have studied, describe and explain the strategies used to regenerate a run-down area.

Name of urban area: ...........................................................

Regenerated area: ...........................................................

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Worked solution

### Level 1 (1–3 marks)
* Simple statements describing or explaining regeneration strategies.
* *e.g., They built new train lines; they improved the old docks; they built offices and flats; they planted trees.*

### Level 2 (4–6 marks)
* Developed statements describing and/or explaining how the regeneration strategies improved the area.
* *e.g., The London Docklands Development Corporation (LDDC) created an Enterprise Zone to attract businesses by offering tax relief; they built the Docklands Light Railway (DLR) to improve connectivity to the CBD, reducing travel times for commuters; old derelict warehouses were converted into luxury apartments to attract high-income residents.*

### Level 3 (7 marks)
* Named example, comprehensive description and explanation of regeneration strategies, including place-specific details.
* *e.g., In the London Docklands, the LDDC regenerated the derelict docks. They built Canary Wharf, which now contains high-rise office towers like the One Canada Square, providing over 100,000 financial jobs. To solve the transport bottleneck, they constructed the Docklands Light Railway (DLR) and London City Airport on former dock basins, dramatically improving access. Warehouses in Wapping and Limehouse were converted into high-end apartments, while social housing was built in areas like Beckton, with 24,000 new homes constructed overall.*

Marking scheme

**Level 1 (1-3 marks):**
Simple, generic statements describing/explaining regeneration strategies. No specific location-based facts.

**Level 2 (4-6 marks):**
Developed statements describing and/or explaining regeneration strategies. Includes explanation of *how* or *why* the strategy was implemented and its effects. Must name an appropriate case study.

**Level 3 (7 marks):**
Comprehensive and accurate descriptions and explanations. Response is cohesive, fully addresses both 'describe' and 'explain', and includes rich, place-specific detail (e.g., names of projects, transit lines, statistics, specific locations within the urban area).

Question 5 · essay

7 marks

For a named area of coastline you have studied, describe and explain the strategies used to manage coastal erosion.

Name of coastal area: ...........................................................

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

### Level 1 (1–3 marks)
* Simple statements identifying or briefly explaining coastal management methods.
* *e.g., They built a sea wall; they put wooden barriers on the beach; they dumped big rocks at the cliff base.*

### Level 2 (4–6 marks)
* Developed statements explaining how these strategies work to prevent or reduce coastal erosion.
* *e.g., Rock groynes were built at Mappleton to trap sediment moved by longshore drift, creating a wider beach that absorbs wave energy; a concrete sea wall was built at Hornsea to reflect wave energy back into the sea, preventing it from attacking the soft clay cliffs behind.*

### Level 3 (7 marks)
* Named example, comprehensive description and explanation of at least two strategies, including place-specific details.
* *e.g., On the Holderness Coast, soft boulder clay cliffs erode at 2m per year. At Mappleton, two rock groynes were built using Norwegian granite at a cost of £2 million to trap sediment, successfully protecting the B1242 coastal road. At Hornsea, a 1.86km concrete sea wall was built alongside timber groynes to protect the tourist town, though this has starved areas like Great Cowden further south of sediment, accelerating erosion there.*

Marking scheme

**Level 1 (1-3 marks):**
Simple statements identifying or briefly explaining coastal management methods.

**Level 2 (4-6 marks):**
Developed statements explaining how strategies work to manage erosion (e.g., groynes trapping sediment, sea walls reflecting waves). Must be linked to a named case study.

**Level 3 (7 marks):**
Comprehensive description and explanation of at least two strategies with place-specific details (e.g., names of settlements, cost figures, materials used, impacts along the sediment cell).

Question 6 · essay

7 marks

For a named tourist destination you have studied, describe and explain how tourism is managed to be sustainable.

Name of tourist destination: ...........................................................

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

### Level 1 (1–3 marks)
* Simple statements describing or explaining sustainable tourism measures.
* *e.g., They limit the number of visitors; they charge an entry fee; they use eco-friendly hotels; tourist groups must have a guide.*

### Level 2 (4–6 marks)
* Developed statements explaining how these measures protect the environment or benefit the local community.
* *e.g., Visitors to the national park are restricted to designated trails to prevent soil erosion and avoid disturbing nesting birds; entry fees are used to pay park rangers who control invasive species and protect the local biodiversity; lodges are built from local materials and use solar power to reduce their carbon footprint.*

### Level 3 (7 marks)
* Named example, comprehensive and accurate explanation of sustainable management, with place-specific details.
* *e.g., In the Galapagos Islands, tourism is managed by the Galapagos National Park. Cruise ships are capped at a maximum of 100 passengers to limit congestion at fragile sites, and tourists are only allowed to visit 116 designated areas. Every group must be accompanied by a licensed naturalist guide to ensure rules (like staying 2 meters away from wildlife) are followed. A $100 international visitor fee is charged, with proceeds directly funding conservation efforts and supporting local municipal infrastructure to prevent pollution on inhabited islands like Santa Cruz.*

Marking scheme

**Level 1 (1-3 marks):**
Simple statements describing or explaining sustainable tourism measures.

**Level 2 (4-6 marks):**
Developed statements explaining *how* strategies work to reduce negative impacts or promote positive ones (e.g., fees funding conservation, restrictions preventing environmental degradation). Must name an appropriate case study.

**Level 3 (7 marks):**
Comprehensive and accurate descriptions and explanations of sustainable tourism strategies, containing place-specific details (e.g., actual fee amounts, specific park regulations, named islands/conservation bodies, cruise capacity numbers).

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Practice This Topic

Paper 23: Geographical Skills

Answer all questions. You must use the 1:25000 survey map extract of Cunninghame, Scotland.

6 Question · 60 marks

Question 1 · structured

20 marks

Question 1

Answer all parts of this question. You must use the 1:25000 survey map extract of Cunninghame, Scotland.

(a) Study the north-western section of the map extract. Identify the following features:

the class of public road passing through grid square 2164
the primary vegetation or land cover at grid reference 212635
the physical feature or coastal landform in grid square 2062
the height above sea level in metres of the triangulation pillar (trig point) in grid square 2263
the name of the farm building or residence located at 218642
the name of the stream flowing south-westwards through grid square 2264

[6 marks]

(b) State the six-digit grid location of the building at High Craighead.

[1 mark]

(c) Identify two distinct outdoor recreation or leisure facilities shown in the northern half of the map extract.

[2 marks]

(d) Focus on the upland area in grid squares 2463 and 2464. Which four of the following statements about this specific area are true? Select the four correct options.

The terrain slopes downward towards the west
There is an active railway line crossing the squares
Coniferous forestry is the dominant vegetation type
The elevation does not exceed 150 metres
There are several secondary roads
A major river flows from south to north
There are no buildings or structures
A footpath provides access across the hills
The land is completely flat
There are areas of marsh or bog

[4 marks]

(e) Describe the natural characteristics of the coastal zone, including its shape and physical terrain, in the western part of the map extract.

[7 marks]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)

Secondary road / B-road / Road generally less than 4m wide
Non-coniferous woodland / Deciduous trees
Sandy bay / Beach / Tidal sand
184 metres
High Craighead
Glen Burn

(b) 218642 (or accepted range 217642 to 219642)

(c) Any two of: Caravan site, camping site, golf course, viewpoint, picnic site, public park/gardens.

(d) The four true statements are:

The terrain slopes downward towards the west
Coniferous forestry is the dominant vegetation type
There are no buildings or structures
There are areas of marsh or bog

(e) Coastline characteristics description:

Wide sandy beach / sandy shore
Gently sloping terrain towards the marine edge
Flat, low-lying coastal plain
Presence of rocky cliffs / headlands to the north
Tidal mudflats / sand dunes
Curved bay shape / indentation of coastline
Several small streams / burns discharging directly into the sea

Marking scheme

Part (a) [6 marks]
Award 1 mark for each correct identification:
(i) Secondary road / B-road / Road generally less than 4m wide [1]
(ii) Non-coniferous woodland / Deciduous forest [1]
(iii) Sandy beach / Bay / Foreshore sand [1]
(iv) 184 [1]
(v) High Craighead [1]
(vi) Glen Burn [1]

Part (b) [1 mark]
Award 1 mark for 218642 (allow third digit 7, 8 or 9; sixth digit 1, 2 or 3) [1]

Part (c) [2 marks]
Award 1 mark per identified facility (maximum 2):
- Caravan/camping site [1]
- Golf course [1]
- Viewpoint [1]
- Picnic site [1]

Part (d) [4 marks]
Award 1 mark for each correct statement selected (maximum 4):
- The terrain slopes downward towards the west [1]
- Coniferous forestry is the dominant vegetation type [1]
- There are no buildings or structures [1]
- There are areas of marsh or bog [1]

Part (e) [7 marks]
Award 1 mark for each valid descriptive point up to 7 marks:
- Broad sandy beach / shoreline [1]
- Low-lying flat coastal plain / terrain [1]
- Gentle gradient towards the shoreline [1]
- Cliffs / rocky outcrops / steep coastal slopes in northern section [1]
- Curved bay coastline / crescent-shaped shore [1]
- Estuaries / stream outlets where burns meet the sea [1]
- Sand dunes or marshy backshore zones [1]
- Coastal islands / offshore rocks [1]

Question 2 · structured

8 marks

1 Study the 1:25000 survey map extract of Cunninghame, Scotland.

(a) Look at the river Noddsdale Water which flows in the western part of the map.

(i) Identify the general direction of flow of Noddsdale Water as it runs through grid square 2162. [1]

(ii) Name the settlement located at grid reference 213627. [1]

(iii) Identify the feature represented by the abbreviation 'FB' at 213615. [1]

(b) Study Burnt Hill in grid square 2564.

(i) State the height of the highest contour line shown on Burnt Hill. [1]

(ii) Describe the steepness of the slopes of Burnt Hill. [2]

(c) Identify two tourist or leisure facilities shown in the southwest quadrant of the map extract (west of Easting 23, south of Northing 63). [2]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) By following the decreasing height coordinates and downhill slope contours, Noddsdale Water flows in a South / Southwest direction.

(ii) The settlement at 213627 is Middleton.

(iii) 'FB' stands for Footbridge.

(b) (i) The highest contour line surrounding the peak of Burnt Hill is the 480m contour line.

(ii) The slopes are very steep on the western side of Burnt Hill (where the contour lines are packed very close together), while the eastern slopes are much gentler and more spaced out.

(c) Features include the Picnic site (represented by the picnic table symbol) and the Caravan site (represented by the caravan symbol) in the southwest area of the map.

Marking scheme

(a)(i) South / South-West / SSW [1]
(a)(ii) Middleton [1]
(a)(iii) Footbridge [1]
(b)(i) 480 (metres) [1]
(b)(ii) 1 mark for identifying steep slopes on the western/northwestern side; 1 mark for identifying gentler slopes on the eastern side. [2]
(c) Any two from: Picnic site, Caravan site, Parking, Viewpoint. [2]

Question 3 · structured

8 marks

2 Study Fig. 2.1, which shows the proportion of urban population living in informal (squatter) settlements in four cities in an LEDC.

CityTotal Urban Population (Millions)Percentage living in Squatter Settlements (%)City P4.215City Q6.835City R1.555City S9.122

(a) (i) Identify the city with the largest absolute number of people living in squatter settlements. Show your working. [2]

(b) Describe three typical characteristics of the housing structure in squatter settlements. [3]

(c) Suggest three environmental problems that are caused by the rapid growth of squatter settlements on steep slopes. [3]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) Calculating the absolute populations: City P = 4.2 * 0.15 = 0.63 million; City Q = 6.8 * 0.35 = 2.38 million; City R = 1.5 * 0.55 = 0.825 million; City S = 9.1 * 0.22 = 2.002 million. City Q has the largest absolute number (2.38 million).

(b) Typical housing characteristics include: Constructed of scrap/makeshift materials (e.g., corrugated iron, wood, plastic sheets); extremely high density/congested houses built right next to each other; often single-storey with low-pitched or flat roofs.

(c) Environmental problems include landslide risks due to slope destabilization; deforestation and loss of natural habitat from clearing vegetation; and severe water pollution from untreated raw sewage and waste runoff into local streams.

Marking scheme

(a)(i) City Q [1 mark]; Working showing correct calculation of population for City Q (2.38 million) or comparison [1 mark]. [2]
(b) 1 mark for each of three described points: Made of temporary/scrap/non-durable materials; flat/low pitch roofs; single-storey/precarious foundations; high density/narrow walkways/crowded layout. [3]
(c) 1 mark for each of three environmental issues: Soil erosion/landslides; Deforestation/removal of trees; Water pollution/dumping of waste in rivers; Loss of biodiversity; Visual pollution. [3]

Question 4 · structured

8 marks

3 Study the table below, which shows daily weather observations at a weather station over five consecutive days.

DayMaximum Temperature (°C)Minimum Temperature (°C)Rainfall (mm)Cloud Cover (Oktas)Relative Humidity (%)Day 11880.0255Day 215116.5788Day 313912.0895Day 41671.5470Day 521100.0145

(a) (i) Calculate the diurnal temperature range for Day 5. [1]

(ii) Describe the relationship between Cloud Cover and Rainfall shown in the table. [2]

(iii) Explain how a hygrometer is used to determine Relative Humidity. [2]

(b) Describe the daily weather conditions on Day 3 using the data in the table. [3]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) Diurnal temperature range on Day 5 is maximum temp minus minimum temp: 21°C - 10°C = 11°C.

(ii) There is a clear positive relationship: as cloud cover increases, rainfall also increases. For example, Day 3 has the highest cloud cover (8 oktas) and highest rainfall (12.0 mm), while Days 1 and 5 have low cloud cover (1-2 oktas) and 0.0 mm rainfall.

(iii) A wet-and-dry bulb hygrometer consists of two thermometers. The dry-bulb measures actual air temperature, while the wet-bulb bulb is cooled by evaporation. The difference between the two temperatures (wet-bulb depression) is calculated and compared on a relative humidity chart to find the percentage.

(b) On Day 3, weather conditions were cool with a maximum temperature of only 13°C and a minimum of 9°C. It was extremely wet with 12.0 mm of rainfall under a completely overcast sky (8 oktas cloud cover). The air was highly saturated with a relative humidity of 95%.

Marking scheme

(a)(i) 11 (°C) [1]
(a)(ii) Positive relationship/correlation (as cloud cover increases, rainfall increases) [1 mark]; Supporting data comparison (e.g., Day 3 with 8 oktas has 12mm vs Day 5 with 1 okta and 0mm) [1 mark]. [2]
(a)(iii) 1 mark for noting dry-bulb and wet-bulb thermometers; 1 mark for explaining that the temperature difference is compared on a relative humidity table/chart. [2]
(b) Any three from: Cool maximum temperature (13°C); High minimum temperature (9°C); Heavy rainfall (12.0 mm); Fully overcast/complete cloud cover (8 oktas); Very high relative humidity (95%). [3]

Question 5 · structured

8 marks

4 Study the table below, which lists development indicators for four different countries in Africa.

CountryGNI per capita (US$)Life Expectancy at Birth (years)Adult Literacy Rate (%)Access to Safe Water (% of population)Country A980544842Country B3,400657268Country C1,250585550Country D7,200718985

(a) (i) Identify the country that is the most developed overall according to all four indicators. [1]

(ii) Using only evidence from the table, compare Country B and Country C. Do not use statistics in your answer. [2]

(iii) Identify one economic indicator and one social indicator from the table. [2]

(b) Explain why using a single indicator, such as GNI per capita, is less reliable for measuring development than using a composite index like the Human Development Index (HDI). [3]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) Country D is the most developed overall as it has the highest GNI per capita ($7,200), life expectancy (71 years), adult literacy (89%), and access to safe water (85%).

(ii) Country B is more developed than Country C. It has a higher GNI per capita, longer life expectancy, higher literacy rate, and a greater percentage of the population with access to safe water.

(iii) Economic indicator: GNI per capita. Social indicator: Life Expectancy, Adult Literacy, or Access to Safe Water.

(b) A single indicator like GNI per capita only measures economic output and average wealth; it ignores quality of life, health, and education. It can also hide severe internal inequalities, showing a high average even if most people are impoverished, whereas the HDI is a composite index combining health, education, and income for a balanced evaluation.

Marking scheme

(a)(i) Country D [1]
(a)(ii) Country B has a higher GNI per capita / is wealthier than Country C [1 mark]; Country B has a higher life expectancy / higher literacy rate / better access to safe water than Country C [1 mark]. (Note: Reject any answers using statistics). [2]
(a)(iii) Economic: GNI per capita [1 mark]; Social: Life Expectancy / Adult Literacy / Access to Safe Water [1 mark]. [2]
(b) Single indicators fail to reflect broader aspects of life/development (e.g. healthcare, education) [1 mark]; Single averages like GNI per capita hide massive income inequalities [1 mark]; HDI is multidimensional/combines three different key indicators to provide a complete picture [1 mark]. [3]

Question 6 · structured

8 marks

5 Study Fig. 5.1, which is a diagram showing the cross-section of a river channel at a bend.

XYBank A (Inner Bend)Bank B (Outer Bend)

(a) (i) Identify which letter, X or Y, represents the location of the fastest-flowing water (thalweg). [1]

(ii) Name the feature formed by deposition on the inner bend of the river at Bank A. [1]

(iii) Contrast the processes occurring at the outer bend (Bank B) with those occurring at the inner bend (Bank A). [2]

(b) (i) Explain how hydraulic action and abrasion erode the river bed and banks. [2]

(ii) Suggest two physical factors (other than human actions) that can increase the risk of a river flooding. [2]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) Point Y represents the fastest-flowing water (thalweg) near the outer bend of the river.

(ii) The inner bend (Bank A) features deposition that forms a slip-off slope or point bar.

(iii) The outer bend (Bank B) undergoes active lateral erosion because water flow is fast and possesses high energy, whereas the inner bend (Bank A) undergoes deposition because water flows slowly and loses energy.

(b) (i) Hydraulic action involves the shear force of moving water trapping air inside cracks in the river bank, compressing it until the bank fractures. Abrasion occurs when the river's bedload (pebbles, sand) scrapes and grinds against the channel bed and banks, physically wearing them down.

(ii) Physical factors increasing flood risk include prolonged heavy rainfall (saturating the soil), steep slopes in the drainage basin (which decrease lag time), and impermeable geology/rocks (preventing infiltration and increasing surface runoff).

Marking scheme

(a)(i) Y [1]
(a)(ii) Slip-off slope / point bar [1]
(a)(iii) Bank B (outer bend) is dominated by erosion/fast water velocity [1 mark], while Bank A (inner bend) is dominated by deposition/slow water velocity [1 mark]. [2]
(b)(i) Hydraulic action: force of water compresses air in cracks/fractures the rock [1 mark]; Abrasion: bedload drags along and scrapes/wears away bed or banks [1 mark]. [2]
(b)(ii) Any two physical factors: Steep slope/valley gradients; Impermeable bedrock; Saturated soils (prior rainfall); Heavy/prolonged precipitation; Sudden snowmelt. [2]

Paper 43: Alternative to Coursework

Answer all questions. Complete all graph plotting and data interpretation tasks.

2 Question · 60 marks

Question 1 · subjective

30 marks

Students from a school in South Wales carried out fieldwork at two local beaches: Abervale Beach (unmanaged, backed by sand dunes) and Castle Cove (managed, backed by a seawall and groynes). They wanted to investigate the differences in beach profiles and beach sediment (pebble) characteristics.

They tested the following hypotheses:
**Hypothesis 1:** *The managed beach has a steeper overall profile than the unmanaged beach.*
**Hypothesis 2:** *Average pebble size increases with distance from the low water mark.*

**(a)**
(i) Identify one potential safety hazard of working near the shoreline and suggest how the students could manage this risk. [2]
(ii) Suggest why the students should check the local tide tables before starting their fieldwork. [1]

**(b)** Describe how the students would measure the beach profile along a transect line from the low water mark to the back of the beach. You should refer to the equipment they would use. [5]

**(c)** The students recorded the beach slope angles (in degrees) at Castle Cove as shown in Table 1.1 below:

**Table 1.1: Slope Angles at Castle Cove**
| Distance from low water mark (m) | Slope angle (degrees) |
|---|---|
| 0 | 3 |
| 4 | 5 |
| 8 | 8 |
| 12 | 11 |
| 16 | 6 |
| 20 | 2 |

(i) On an imaginary grid of Distance (x-axis) vs. Slope Angle (y-axis), explain how a student would plot the slope angle of $11^\circ$ at 12 m distance. [1]
(ii) Plotting the final measurement, what would be the coordinates $(x, y)$ for the remaining slope angle of $2^\circ$ at 20 m distance? [1]
(iii) State the total horizontal length of the transect at Castle Cove. [1]
(iv) Identify the steepest segment of the beach at Castle Cove by giving its distance interval (e.g., 0–4 m). [1]

**(d)** Study Fig. 1.1, which shows the completed beach profiles for both Abervale Beach (unmanaged, average angle of $4.5^\circ$) and Castle Cove (managed, average angle of $5.3^\circ$).

(i) Do the results support **Hypothesis 1:** *The managed beach has a steeper overall profile than the unmanaged beach*? Support your conclusion with data from the profiles. [3]
(ii) Suggest one human reason why a managed beach backed by a seawall may have a steeper profile than an unmanaged beach. [1]

**(e)** At Abervale Beach, the students selected 30 pebbles at 5-metre intervals along their transect to investigate **Hypothesis 2**.
(i) Describe how the students could measure the size (long axis) and shape (roundness) of the pebbles. [3]
(ii) Suggest one advantage of using a vernier caliper rather than a standard ruler to measure pebble diameter. [1]

**(f)** The results of their average pebble measurements are shown in Table 1.2.

**Table 1.2: Average Pebble Diameter at Abervale Beach**
| Distance from low water mark (m) | Average Pebble Diameter (mm) |
|---|---|
| 5 | 12 |
| 10 | 18 |
| 15 | 24 |
| 20 | 38 |
| 25 | 42 |

(i) Plot the average pebble diameter for 20 m (38 mm) as a coordinate $(x, y)$. [1]
(ii) Describe the mathematical relationship shown between the distance from the low water mark and pebble diameter in Table 1.2. [1]
(iii) Explain the physical process of wave action that causes this pattern of sediment sorting along a beach profile. [1]

**(g)** To what extent does the data support **Hypothesis 2**: *Average pebble size increases with distance from the low water mark*? Use data from Table 1.2 to support your conclusion. [4]

**(h)** Suggest three ways the students could have improved the reliability of their pebble sampling method. [3]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

**(a)**
(i) Hazard: Slippery rocks/pebbles or sudden high waves/swept out to sea.
Management: Wear sturdy, non-slip footwear (such as boots with grip) and work in groups of at least three so someone can call for help if an accident occurs.
(ii) To avoid getting stranded/trapped by the rising tide against the cliffs/seawall.

**(b)**
- Identify the starting point at the low water mark.
- Lay out a tape measure perpendicular to the shoreline (along the transect line).
- Place ranging poles vertically at every change of slope (or at fixed intervals, e.g., 2m or 5m).
- Ensure ranging poles are pushed to equal depths/inserted vertically.
- Hold a clinometer at a marked/fixed height on the first ranging pole and sight the same height on the next ranging pole.
- Read and record the angle of slope in degrees.
- Measure and record the distance between the two poles using the tape measure.
- Repeat this process for each section up to the back of the beach.

**(c)**
(i) Plot a point at 12 on the horizontal axis (Distance in metres) and 11 on the vertical axis (Slope angle in degrees).
(ii) $(20, 2)$
(iii) 20 m
(iv) 12–16 m (where the angle is $11^\circ$)

**(d)**
(i) Yes/Supports Hypothesis 1.
- The overall average slope angle is steeper at Castle Cove (managed) at $5.3^\circ$ compared to Abervale Beach (unmanaged) at $4.5^\circ$.
- Castle Cove reached a maximum steeper slope segment of $11^\circ$ whereas Abervale Beach's maximum segment was gentler (e.g., $8^\circ$).
- Castle Cove has steeper individual segment angles at intermediate distances (e.g., $11^\circ$ at 12m compared to $6^\circ$ at 12m on the unmanaged beach).
(ii) Seawalls reflect wave energy, scouring away fine sand and leaving only steep, coarse shingle; or artificial replenishment of beach material by coastal managers increases the steepness.

**(e)**
(i) Size: Measure the longest axis (length) of each pebble using a caliper/ruler in millimetres.
Shape: Compare the pebble to a Power's Scale of Roundness/visual chart to classify its roundness from very angular to well-rounded (giving a score from 1 to 6).
(ii) Calipers fit tightly around the exact curved edges of the pebble, reducing parallax error and giving a more accurate reading than a flat ruler.

**(f)**
(i) $(20, 38)$
(ii) There is a strong positive correlation (as distance from the low water mark increases, the average pebble diameter increases).
(iii) Stronger storm waves (high energy) carry large pebbles up to the back of the beach (swash) but the weaker backwash only has enough energy to carry smaller sediment back down, leaving larger pebbles at the back.

**(g)**
- The hypothesis is completely true/fully supported.
- As distance from the low water mark increases from 5 m to 25 m, the average pebble diameter increases progressively from 12 mm to 42 mm.
- There are no anomalies in the table; size increases at every successive interval (e.g., 12 mm at 5 m, 18 mm at 10 m, 24 mm at 15 m, 38 mm at 20 m, 42 mm at 25 m).

**(h)**
1. Increase the sample size at each site (e.g., measure 50 or 100 pebbles instead of 30).
2. Use a systematic sampling method (e.g., selecting every 10th pebble using a grid/quadrat) to eliminate bias.
3. Measure multiple transects across different parts of the beach and calculate an overall average.

Marking scheme

**(a)**
(i) 1 mark for hazard, 1 mark for corresponding management.
*Accept:* cold/hypothermia -> wear waterproof clothing; sharp stones -> wear thick gloves/closed-toe shoes.
(ii) 1 mark for identifying safety related to high tide / avoiding getting cut off.

**(b)**
5 @ 1 mark (max 5):
- Tape measure laid along transect line [1]
- Ranging poles placed at breaks of slope [1]
- Keep poles vertical [1]
- Mark poles at same height / use sight line [1]
- Use clinometer to measure angle [1]
- Read angle in degrees [1]
- Record distance between poles with tape [1]

**(c)**
(i) 1 mark for correctly explaining plotting on x=12, y=11.
(ii) 1 mark for $(20, 2)$.
(iii) 1 mark for 20 m.
(iv) 1 mark for 12–16 m interval (allow 12m to 16m).

**(d)**
(i) 3 @ 1 mark (1 mark reserve for decision / support):
- Agreement/Support stated [1]
- Managed average angle $5.3^\circ$ vs Unmanaged average $4.5^\circ$ [1]
- Maximum segment at Castle Cove is steeper ($11^\circ$) than Abervale [1]
(ii) 1 mark for explanation of wave reflection/scour or beach nourishment.

**(e)**
(i) 3 @ 1 mark:
- Measure longest axis [1]
- Use caliper/ruler in mm [1]
- Compare with visual roundness chart/Power's index [1]
(ii) 1 mark for greater accuracy/precision/fits around irregular shapes.

**(f)**
(i) 1 mark for coordinate $(20, 38)$.
(ii) 1 mark for positive correlation / direct relationship.
(iii) 1 mark for explaining high energy swash carrying large material up, while weak backwash leaves it behind.

**(g)**
4 @ 1 mark (1 mark reserve for stating it is fully supported / completely true):
- Correct hypothesis decision (fully supported) [1]
- Paired data comparing two distances (e.g., 12 mm at 5 m vs 42 mm at 25 m) [1]
- Stating that size increases at every step/no anomalies [1]
- Stating the overall increase is 30 mm over 20 m [1]

**(h)**
3 @ 1 mark:
- Measure more pebbles at each site [1]
- Use a quadrat / random number generator to select pebbles to avoid bias [1]
- Carry out more transects / repeat on different days/locations [1]

Question 2 · Fieldwork Structured Question (Urban)

30 marks

### Urban Fieldwork: Environmental Quality and Traffic Flow

Students in Sheffield, UK, conducted fieldwork to compare the Environmental Quality Index (EQI) and traffic flow (pedestrian and vehicle count) at three locations with different primary land uses:

* **Location X**: Central Business District (primarily commercial and retail)
* **Location Y**: Inner-city residential area
* **Location Z**: Outer suburbs industrial estate

They tested the following two hypotheses:

* **Hypothesis 1**: *The Central Business District (Location X) has the highest pedestrian count but the lowest environmental quality.*
* **Hypothesis 2**: *There is a negative correlation between vehicle flow and environmental quality.*

---

**(a)**

**(i)** Before starting their fieldwork, the students completed a risk assessment. Identify one potential hazard of conducting fieldwork near busy city roads and suggest how they could manage this risk. [2]

**(ii)** Distinguish between primary and secondary data, and give one example of each type of data used in this urban fieldwork project. [2]

**(b)** To measure environmental quality, the students conducted an Environmental Quality Survey (EQS) using a bi-polar analysis.

**(i)** Describe how the students would carry out a bi-polar environmental quality survey at each of the three locations. [4]

**(ii)** In Location X, the students recorded the following scores for five environmental categories (each scored on a scale from $-2$ to $+2$):

* Noise levels: $-1$
* Litter: $0$
* Air quality (smell/soot): $-1$
* Traffic safety: $-2$
* Attractiveness of buildings: $+1$

Calculate the total EQS score for Location X. [1]

**(c)** To investigate traffic flow, the students conducted pedestrian and vehicle counts.

**(i)** Explain how the students could ensure that their traffic counts were reliable and representative. [3]

**(ii)** Table 1.1 shows the average hourly vehicle counts at the three locations:

| Location | Main Land Use | Average Vehicle Count (vehicles per hour) |
| :--- | :--- | :--- |
| **Location X** | CBD | 450 |
| **Location Y** | Residential | 120 |
| **Location Z** | Industrial | 310 |

Identify which type of graph (other than a table) would be most appropriate to display the average hourly vehicle counts for these three locations, and justify your choice. [2]

**(d)** Table 1.2 shows the final EQS scores (on a scale of $-10$ to $+10$, where $+10$ is the best quality) and the average pedestrian counts (people per 10 minutes) for each location:

| Location | Main Land Use | EQS Score | Average Pedestrian Count (people per 10 mins) |
| :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- |
| **Location X** | CBD | $-3$ | 145 |
| **Location Y** | Residential | $+4$ | 18 |
| **Location Z** | Industrial | $-5$ | 32 |

**(i)** To what extent does the data in Table 1.2 support **Hypothesis 1**: *The Central Business District (Location X) has the highest pedestrian count but the lowest environmental quality*? Support your conclusion with evidence from Table 1.2. [4]

**(ii)** The students decided to plot the EQS scores on a vertical bar chart. On their graph, the $y$-axis ranges from $-10$ to $+10$, with $0$ in the center.
If the bars for Location X ($-3$) and Location Y ($+4$) have been plotted, describe how a student would accurately plot the bar for Location Z ($-5$). [2]

**(iii)** Suggest two reasons why the pedestrian count was highest in Location X (CBD). [2]

**(e)**

**(i)** What is meant by a 'negative correlation' in the context of **Hypothesis 2**: *There is a negative correlation between vehicle flow and environmental quality*? [1]

**(ii)** Based on their findings, the students concluded that **Hypothesis 2** was true. Suggest why urban areas with higher vehicle flows generally have lower environmental quality scores. [4]

**(iii)** Suggest three ways in which city planners could improve the environmental quality of the Central Business District (Location X). [3]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

### Analytical Breakdown of Solutions:

* **For (b)(ii)**: Sum the individual values carefully: $(-1) + 0 + (-1) + (-2) + (+1) = -3$.
* **For (d)(i)**: Analyze the data table systematically. CBD has the maximum pedestrian count ($145 > 32 > 18$), showing the first half of the hypothesis is correct. However, for environmental quality, the scores are $+4$ (Residential), $-3$ (CBD), and $-5$ (Industrial). Since $-5 < -3$, the industrial estate has the lowest environmental quality, meaning the second half of the hypothesis is false. Thus, it is only a partial fit.
* **For (e)(i)**: A negative correlation indicates that variables move in opposite directions; higher vehicle volumes match lower EQS scores.

Marking scheme

**(a)(i)** 1 mark for identifying a valid hazard (e.g., vehicles, getting lost) and 1 mark for a corresponding, logical management strategy (e.g., high-vis clothing, stay in groups).

**(a)(ii)** 1 mark for clear definitions/distinctions between primary and secondary data. 1 mark for providing accurate examples of both from the context.

**(b)(i)** Award 1 mark per valid descriptive point of EQS fieldwork process up to a maximum of [4]. Mention of standardization/bipolar sheets, sampling points, and scoring values is required for full marks.

**(b)(ii)** 1 mark for the correct calculation of $-3$. No half marks.

**(c)(i)** Award 1 mark per valid methodology point up to [3] (e.g., multiple counts, strict timing, synchronized groups, average calculations).

**(c)(ii)** 1 mark for naming 'Bar chart/graph'. 1 mark for a valid justification (e.g., discrete categorical data). Reject 'Line graph' (0 marks for the justification if line graph is chosen).

**(d)(i)** 1 mark for stating that it is 'partially/partly' true (this is a reserved mark; no credit for support if no decision is made). 1 mark for supporting data/comparisons on pedestrian counts. 1 mark for pointing out that Location Z is the lowest environmental quality. 1 mark for paired comparative data quotes.

**(d)(ii)** 1 mark for indicating starting point (axis/zero line). 1 mark for indicating direction (downwards) and value (5 units to $-5$).

**(d)(iii)** Award 1 mark per valid explanation up to [2] (shops/services, employment hubs, transport nodes, pedestrianized infrastructure).

**(e)(i)** 1 mark for stating the inverse relationship (high traffic = low quality).

**(e)(ii)** Award 1 mark per explained physical consequence of traffic up to [4] (exhaust fumes/air quality, engine noise/noise pollution, road danger/safety, aesthetic degradation/visual pollution).

**(e)(iii)** Award 1 mark per viable urban planning solution up to [3] (e.g., pedestrianization, congestion charging, urban greening, public transit enhancements).

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