Cambridge IGCSE · thinka-original Practice Paper

2023 Cambridge IGCSE Geography (0460) Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Nov 2023 (V1) Cambridge IGCSE-Style Mock — Geography (0460)

195 marks285 mins2023
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Nov 2023 (V1) Cambridge IGCSE Geography (0460) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

Paper 1 - Geographical Themes

Answer three questions in total, one from each section (Theme 1: Population and settlement, Theme 2: The natural environment, Theme 3: Economic development).
18 Question · 66 marks
Question 1 · short-response
3 marks
Explain three push factors that cause people to migrate from Less Economically Developed Countries (LEDCs) to More Economically Developed Countries (MEDCs).
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Three push factors are:
1. Economic: A lack of employment opportunities, underemployment, or extremely low wages in the home country, making it difficult to sustain a basic standard of living.
2. Environmental: Natural disasters such as severe droughts, desertification, or flooding that destroy agricultural livelihoods and food security.
3. Social/Political: Political instability, civil war, corruption, or persecution of minority groups, which threatens personal safety and freedom.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each distinct, valid push factor explained (up to 3 marks):
- Lack of employment / low wages / poverty (1)
- Natural disasters / crop failure / drought / famine (1)
- War / civil conflict / political instability / persecution (1)
- Poor access to basic services such as education or healthcare (1)

Note: Do not credit pull factors (e.g., 'better jobs in MEDCs') unless framed clearly as a lack/deficit in the origin country.
Question 2 · short-response
3 marks
State and explain three processes by which a river transports its load downstream.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Traction: Large, heavy boulders and rocks are rolled along the river bed by the force of the flowing water.
2. Saltation: Small pebbles and coarse sand grains are bounced along the river bed in a leap-frog motion as water velocity fluctuates.
3. Suspension: Very fine, light particles such as silt and clay are held up and carried within the body of the water flow without touching the bed.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for naming and explaining each transport process (up to 3 marks):
- Traction: rolling/sliding of large stones/boulders on the river bed (1)
- Saltation: bouncing/hopping of small stones/pebbles along the river bed (1)
- Suspension: light material/silt/clay carried/floating within the water flow (1)
- Solution: dissolved minerals/soluble materials carried invisibly in chemical form (1)
Question 3 · short-response
3 marks
Suggest three economic benefits that the growth of international tourism can bring to local populations in LEDCs.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Direct and Indirect Employment: Tourism creates jobs for local people in hotels, restaurants, transportation, and as tour guides.
2. Multiplier Effect: Local businesses (such as farmers, craft makers, and shopkeepers) earn more income by supplying goods and services to tourists and tourism businesses.
3. Infrastructure Improvement: Tourism revenue can lead to better local infrastructure, such as roads, clean water supply, and airports, which improves the local economy and living standards.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid economic benefit suggested (up to 3 marks):
- Direct job creation (e.g., hotel staff, tour guides, drivers) (1)
- Indirect jobs / selling local crafts / souvenirs / food to tourists (1)
- The multiplier effect / money circulating in the local economy (1)
- Improved infrastructure funded by tourism taxes (e.g., roads, electricity, water) (1)
- Foreign currency earnings for the nation/region (1)

Note: Reject general social benefits (e.g., 'cultural exchange') unless directly linked to economic gain.
Question 4 · short-response
3 marks
Explain three reasons why many communities continue to live in close proximity to active volcanoes.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Highly Fertile Soils: Weathered volcanic ash and lava release rich nutrients into the surrounding soil, resulting in high agricultural yields.
2. Tourism Opportunities: Volcanic landscapes attract visitors, creating local jobs and business opportunities in hotels, tours, and selling souvenirs.
3. Geothermal Energy: Volcanic areas can harness heat from under the ground to produce cheap, clean, renewable geothermal electricity for local households and industry.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each explained reason (up to 3 marks):
- Fertile soils / high crop yields / productive farming (1)
- Geothermal energy / cheap electricity / heating (1)
- Tourist industry / job opportunities / income from visitors attracted to scenery (1)
- Mining / extraction of valuable minerals like sulfur, building stones, or diamonds (1)
- Inertia / poverty / lack of choice / family ties (1)
Question 5 · short-response
3 marks
Describe three key characteristics of a nucleated rural settlement pattern.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Clustered Layout: Buildings, houses, and community services are grouped closely together rather than being spread out.
2. Focal Point: The settlement typically develops around a central feature, such as a church, junction, defensive fort, or water source.
3. Surrounding Open Space: The compact settlement is immediately surrounded by large areas of agricultural fields, pastures, or woodland.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each descriptive point (up to 3 marks):
- Houses/buildings clustered or grouped closely together (1)
- Settlement has a compact/circular shape (1)
- Focused around a central hub/crossroads/church/well/defensive site (1)
- Surrounding area consists of open farmland/pasture with few isolated dwellings (1)
Question 6 · short-response
3 marks
Explain three disadvantages of relying on wind power as a primary source of renewable energy.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Intermittency and Unreliability: Wind is unpredictable; turbines do not generate electricity when wind speeds are too low or dangerously high.
2. Visual Intrusion: Wind farms require large open spaces and are often located on high ridges or coastlines, spoiling the natural beauty of the landscape.
3. Noise Pollution: The mechanical parts of the turbines and the rotation of the massive blades generate low-frequency hums that can disturb nearby residents.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each explained disadvantage (up to 3 marks):
- Intermittent / unreliable / dependent on weather conditions (1)
- Visual pollution / spoils scenic views / scenic landscapes (1)
- Noise pollution / disturbs local residents living nearby (1)
- Negative impact on wildlife / birds / bats killed by rotating blades (1)
- High initial cost of construction and installation of turbines / offshore infrastructure (1)
- Large areas of land required to generate significant power output (1)
Question 7 · short-response
3 marks
Explain why some weather instruments, such as maximum-minimum thermometers, are kept inside a Stevenson Screen.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Shade Temperature: It shields thermometers from direct solar radiation, ensuring they measure actual air temperature in the shade, rather than absorbing direct heat from the sun.
2. Protection from Weather: It protects delicate instruments from wind, rain, and snow, which could damage them or wet the sensors and cause inaccurate readings due to evaporative cooling.
3. Air Flow: The slatted/louvered sides allow air to circulate freely, ensuring the instruments respond to changes in the ambient air temperature.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each explained reason (up to 3 marks):
- To protect instruments from direct sunlight / solar radiation / to measure shade temperature (1)
- To protect instruments from rain/wind/snow which would alter readings (1)
- Louvers/slats allow free flow of air so ambient air temperature is recorded (1)
- White colour reflects heat, preventing the screen itself from heating up (1)
- Kept off the ground (usually 1.25m) to avoid ground radiation/ground temperatures (1)
- Protection from animals/vandalism/theft/tampering (1)
Question 8 · short-response
3 marks
Describe three impacts of global warming on the natural environment.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. Rising Sea Levels: Rising temperatures melt glaciers and continental ice sheets, causing thermal expansion of oceans and rising sea levels.
2. Ecosystem Disruption: Habitats shift or shrink, leading to a loss of biodiversity as species that cannot adapt or migrate face extinction.
3. Extreme Weather: Increased heat energy in the atmosphere leads to more frequent and intense drought periods, heatwaves, and severe storms.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each descriptive point (up to 3 marks):
- Melting of glaciers / polar ice caps (1)
- Rising sea levels / flooding of low-lying coastal marshes/wetlands (1)
- Coral reef bleaching / acidification of oceans (1)
- Shift in climatic belts / expansion of deserts (1)
- Loss of habitats / extinction of vulnerable species (1)
- Increased frequency/severity of extreme weather events (e.g., storms, droughts, forest fires) (1)

Note: Reject impacts on humans (e.g., 'crops dying', 'destroys houses') unless framed strictly within the context of the natural environment.
Question 9 · structured_short_response
3 marks
Describe three ways in which a country's government can attempt to reduce the rate of rural-to-urban migration.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Governments can reduce rural-to-urban migration by: 1) Improving infrastructure and basic services (such as healthcare and secondary education) in rural settlements to increase quality of life. 2) Providing agricultural subsidies or financial loans to small-scale farmers to boost rural incomes. 3) Setting up industrial zones or regional towns (growth poles) outside major cities to redirect migration away from primate cities.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid method described, up to a maximum of 3 marks. Acceptable points: Provide reliable electricity/clean piped water in villages (1 mark); Build and equip secondary schools, clinics, or hospitals in rural areas (1 mark); Offer agricultural grants or low-interest loans to farmers (1 mark); Decentralise industries or encourage factories to locate in rural regions (1 mark); Improve transport networks (roads/railways) connecting rural areas with regional hubs (1 mark).
Question 10 · structured_short_response
3 marks
Explain why high-order services, such as universities or specialist hospitals, have a large threshold population and range.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

High-order services require a large threshold population because they are highly specialised and expensive to construct and maintain, requiring a massive population base to remain economically viable and profitable. They have a large range because they offer rare, high-quality services that are not used on a daily basis, meaning consumers are willing to travel long distances to access them.

Marking scheme

Award marks as follows: 1 mark for explaining threshold population in context of high-order services (e.g., high setup/maintenance costs require a massive customer base to make a profit). 1 mark for explaining range in context of high-order services (e.g., consumers travel far because the service is rare/specialised). 1 mark for linking the low frequency of use to the need for a wider catchment area (e.g., since services are not needed daily, they must draw from a larger geographical area to find enough users).
Question 11 · structured_short_response
3 marks
Describe three physical features of a composite volcano (stratovolcano).
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A composite volcano is characterised by: 1) A steep-sided, cone-shaped profile with a relatively narrow base. 2) Alternating layers of lava and solidified volcanic ash from successive eruptions. 3) Viscous, sticky lava (often andesitic) that does not flow easily, leading to a prominent crater at the summit.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each correct physical feature described, up to a maximum of 3 marks. Acceptable points: Steep-sided slopes / conical shape / symmetrical cone (1 mark); Composed of alternating layers of lava and ash/pyroclastics (1 mark); Viscous / thick / sticky / acidic / andesitic lava (1 mark); Crater at the summit / caldera (1 mark); Secondary / parasitic cones on the flanks (1 mark).
Question 12 · structured_short_response
3 marks
Explain how a river transports its load by saltation, traction, and suspension.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1) Saltation: Small pebbles and coarse sand particles are bounced or hopped along the river bed by the hydraulic force of the water. 2) Traction: Large boulders and rocks are rolled or pushed along the river bed by the energy of the current. 3) Suspension: Fine, light particles of silt and clay are carried and floated within the main body of the flowing water without touching the bed.

Marking scheme

Award marks as follows: 1 mark for explaining saltation (bouncing/hopping of medium-sized sediment/pebbles along the river bed). 1 mark for explaining traction (rolling/sliding of heavy boulders/coarse rocks along the river bed). 1 mark for explaining suspension (carrying/floating of light, fine particles/clay/silt within the water flow).
Question 13 · structured_short_response
3 marks
Suggest three disadvantages of generating electricity using nuclear power.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The disadvantages of nuclear power include: 1) Extremely high capital costs for constructing and subsequently decommissioning power stations. 2) Risks of catastrophic environmental contamination from radioactive leaks or reactor core meltdowns. 3) The unresolved challenge of safely storing highly hazardous radioactive waste, which remains dangerous for thousands of years.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid disadvantage suggested, up to a maximum of 3 marks. Acceptable points: High cost of building power plants / high decommissioning costs (1 mark); Risk of nuclear accidents / radiation leaks / meltdown (e.g. Chernobyl/Fukushima) (1 mark); Difficulty of safe, long-term disposal of radioactive waste (1 mark); Non-renewable fuel source / uranium is a finite resource (1 mark); Thermal pollution of water bodies used for cooling systems (1 mark); Risk of nuclear proliferation / target for terrorism (1 mark).
Question 14 · structured_short_response
3 marks
State three ways in which the development of tourist facilities can lead to environmental degradation in a coastal area.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Tourist development degrades coastal environments by: 1) Destroying natural habitats, such as sand dunes or mangrove swamps, to clear land for resorts and coastal roads. 2) Causing water pollution through the discharge of untreated sewage or chemical waste from hotels into the sea. 3) Physically damaging offshore coral reefs due to boat anchors, tourist trampling, or marine activities.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid way tourist facilities degrade the coastal environment, up to a maximum of 3 marks. Acceptable points: Destruction/clearance of sand dunes, coastal forests, or mangroves for building resorts/infrastructure (1 mark); Water pollution from sewage discharge / greywater from hotels into the sea (1 mark); Coral reef damage from boat anchors, diving, snorkeling, or water sports (1 mark); Littering / plastic pollution left on beaches by tourists (1 mark); Noise/light pollution disturbing coastal wildlife or nesting marine turtles (1 mark); Depletion of local freshwater aquifers to supply hotels/pools/golf courses (1 mark).
Question 15 · structured_short_response
3 marks
Explain how industrial economic activities contribute to the formation of acid rain.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Industrial activities, such as burning fossil fuels in factories and coal-fired power stations, release pollutant gases like sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides into the atmosphere. These gases rise and react with water vapour, oxygen, and other atmospheric elements to form weak sulfuric and nitric acids. This acidic water vapour condenses to form clouds and eventually falls back to the Earth's surface as acid precipitation.

Marking scheme

Award marks as follows: 1 mark for identifying the source: combustion of fossil fuels (coal, oil, gas) in factories/power stations. 1 mark for naming the pollutant gases released: sulfur dioxide and/or nitrogen oxides. 1 mark for explaining the chemical reaction/precipitation: gases react/mix with water vapour in the atmosphere to form sulfuric/nitric acid, which falls as rain/snow.
Question 16 · extended_writing
7 marks
For a named country you have studied, explain the push and pull factors which have led to a high rate of international emigration.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Case Study: Mexico (migrating to the USA)

Push Factors:
- High rates of unemployment and underemployment, particularly in rural states like Michoacán and Guerrero, where agricultural wages are extremely low (around $5–10 USD per day).
- High levels of crime and gang-related violence associated with drug cartels in cities like Ciudad Juárez and Tijuana make families feel unsafe.
- Frequent natural hazards, such as severe droughts in northern Mexico, lead to crop failures and a lack of secure food supplies.

Pull Factors:
- The prospect of much higher wages in the USA, where even low-skilled jobs in agriculture, construction, and hospitality in states like California or Texas pay the US federal minimum wage, which is significantly higher than average Mexican wages.
- Better access to services, including well-funded public schools and state-of-the-art healthcare facilities, offering a better standard of living for migrants' children.
- Family reunification, as many migrants already have established networks of relatives in cities like Chicago and Los Angeles, who can offer initial housing, financial support, and help finding employment.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1–3 marks): Simple statements explaining push and/or pull factors.
- e.g., Push factors include lack of jobs and high crime rates. Pull factors include better wages and schools.

Level 2 (4–6 marks): Developed statements explaining push and/or pull factors.
- e.g., Push factors include high unemployment in rural agricultural regions of Mexico, meaning families cannot earn enough to afford basic food. Pull factors include much higher minimum wages in US industries like construction, allowing migrants to earn enough to send remittances home.
- Note: Max 5 marks if no named or inappropriate example.

Level 3 (7 marks): Explains both push and pull factors with at least three developed statements, including place-specific details (e.g., named regions like Michoacán, or specific destination cities like Chicago, or accurate statistics).
Question 17 · extended_writing
7 marks
For a named river you have studied, explain the causes of flooding.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Case Study: River Ganges (Bangladesh / India)

Causes of Flooding:
- Heavy seasonal monsoon rainfall: During the summer monsoon (June to September), massive amounts of precipitation fall over the Ganges basin, rapidly saturating the soil and generating enormous surface runoff into the river channel.
- Snowmelt from the Himalayas: Rising spring and summer temperatures cause glaciers and snowfields in the Himalayan headwaters to melt, coinciding with the monsoons and drastically increasing the volume of water entering the upper tributaries.
- Extensive deforestation: Widespread logging for agriculture and fuelwood in the Nepalese hills has removed forest cover, reducing interception and evapotranspiration rates. This allows rain to wash directly into the tributaries, carrying silt that blocks the channel and reduces its capacity.
- Low-lying topography and human modification: In Bangladesh, the river flows across a very flat delta. The construction of artificial levees along parts of the river has prevented natural overflow, causing silt to build up on the riverbed, raising the river channel height above the surrounding floodplains.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1–3 marks): Simple statements identifying causes of flooding.
- e.g., It floods because of heavy rain, snow melting from mountains, and cutting down trees.

Level 2 (4–6 marks): Developed statements explaining how physical and/or human factors cause the river to flood.
- e.g., Rapid snowmelt in the Himalayas during spring increases the volume of water in the river tributaries, which exceeds the carrying capacity of the channel downstream. Deforestation on steep slopes reduces interception, meaning rainwater reaches the river much faster, leading to a higher peak discharge.
- Note: Max 5 marks if no named or inappropriate example.

Level 3 (7 marks): Explains causes of flooding with at least three developed statements, including place-specific details (e.g., named tributaries, seasonal monsoonal patterns, specific locations such as the delta in Bangladesh or the Nepalese hills, or relevant statistics).
Question 18 · extended_writing
7 marks
For a named tourist area you have studied, explain how tourism has been managed to ensure it is sustainable.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Case Study: Galapagos Islands, Ecuador

Management Strategies:
- Capping visitor numbers: The Galapagos National Park Directorate limits the number of tourists allowed to visit the archipelago annually and restricts the size of cruise vessels to a maximum of 100 passengers to prevent overcrowding and reduce soil erosion on delicate volcanic trails.
- Mandatory licensed guides: All tourists are legally required to be accompanied by a licensed naturalist guide when visiting designated land sites. These guides enforce strict rules, such as keeping a mandatory 2-meter distance from endemic wildlife like the marine iguanas and giant tortoises.
- Strict biosecurity controls: Biosecurity checkpoints at airports in Quito and Guayaquil, as well as on the islands (operated by the Galapagos Biosecurity Agency), inspect all luggage to prevent the introduction of invasive non-native species, which threaten the unique ecosystem.
- Eco-taxation: Every international visitor must pay a $100 USD entry fee. This money is directly reinvested into conservation research managed by the Charles Darwin Research Station and helps fund park rangers.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1–3 marks): Simple statements describing tourist management strategies.
- e.g., They limit the number of tourists, use guides, and charge an entry fee to protect the animals.

Level 2 (4–6 marks): Developed statements explaining how these strategies achieve environmental or economic sustainability.
- e.g., Restricting visitor group sizes and requiring certified naturalists to accompany tours ensures tourists stay on official pathways, which prevents soil compaction and protects vulnerable nesting habitats. Charging an entry tax generates revenue that is directly used to fund local conservation projects and scientific research.
- Note: Max 5 marks if no named or inappropriate example.

Level 3 (7 marks): Explains sustainability management with at least three developed statements, including place-specific details (e.g., named organizations like the Charles Darwin Research Station, specific park fees like the $100 fee, named species, or specific island names).

Ready to test yourself?

Turn these notes into exam-style practice. Get unlimited AI questions on this topic with instant marking and explanations.

Practice This Topic

Paper 2 - Geographical Skills

Answer all questions. Must have calculator, ruler, protractor, and 1:25000 topographic map extract.
7 Question · 80 marks
Question 1 · essay
20 marks
1 Study the map extract for Craigmill, Scotland. The scale is 1:25 000.

(a) Fig. 1.1 shows some of the features around Craigmill Forest in the map extract. Using the map extract, identify the following features shown in Fig. 1.1:
(i) the type of road at A
(ii) feature B
(iii) feature C
(iv) the land use at D
(v) the height above sea level of the spot height (survey height) at E.

(b) Study the secondary road which runs east from the crossroads at F shown on Fig. 1.1.
(i) Give the six-figure grid reference of the crossroads at F.
(ii) What is the distance along the road from the crossroads at F to the bridge at G, shown on Fig. 1.1?
(iii) Measure the bearing from the crossroads at F to the bridge at G.

(c) Describe the relief to the north of the main river valley on the map extract.

(d) Describe the physical (natural) and human features of the coastline shown on the map extract.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) Secondary road / B road
(a)(ii) Church / place of worship with tower
(a)(iii) Picnic site
(a)(iv) Coniferous woodland / coniferous forest
(a)(v) 184 metres

(b)(i) 314826 (accept 314825 to 315827)
(b)(ii) 1650 metres (accept 1600–1700 metres)
(b)(iii) 74 degrees (accept 72–76 degrees)

(c) The relief to the north of the main river valley is characterized by steep-sided, hilly terrain. The land rises to a maximum height of 312 metres, with prominent ridges and spurs. V-shaped valleys are carved into the slopes. The gradient decreases significantly closer to the river valley floor. Most slopes are south or south-east facing.

(d) Physical features include a rocky coastline with pronounced cliffs, headlands, and sheltered sandy bays. A sand spit extends across part of the bay. Human features consist of coastal infrastructure including a pier, a lighthouse on the headland, a coastal footpath, a sea wall/promenade, and a small harbour/dock near the settlement, alongside a caravan park for tourists.

Marking scheme

Part (a) [5 marks]:
- (i) Secondary road / B road (1 mark)
- (ii) Church / place of worship with tower (1 mark)
- (iii) Picnic site (1 mark)
- (iv) Coniferous woodland / forest (1 mark)
- (v) 184 metres (1 mark)

Part (b) [3 marks]:
- (i) 314826 (accept 314825 to 315827) (1 mark)
- (ii) 1650 metres (accept 1600 to 1700 metres) (1 mark)
- (iii) 74 degrees (accept 72 to 76 degrees) (1 mark)

Part (c) [5 marks]:
- Hilly / upland area
- Steep slopes / steep gradient
- Highest point is 312m
- V-shaped valleys
- Gentler slopes near river valley floor
- South / south-east facing slopes
- Ridge / spur
(1 mark per correct descriptive point up to a maximum of 5 marks)

Part (d) [7 marks]:
Physical:
- Cliffs
- Sandy beach / sand
- Headland
- Spit
- Bay
- Rocky shore / rocks
Human:
- Pier
- Lighthouse
- Caravan park
- Footpath / coastal trail
- Sea wall / promenade
- Harbour / dock
(Reserve 3 marks for physical and 3 marks for human features. Max 7 marks total. Responses must be in correct sections.)
Question 2 · string
20 marks
1 Study the map extract for Craigmill, Scotland. The scale is 1:25 000.

(a) Fig. 1.1 shows some of the features around Craigmill Forest in the map extract. Using the map extract, identify the following features shown in Fig. 1.1:
(i) the type of road at A
(ii) feature B
(iii) feature C
(iv) the land use at D
(v) the height above sea level of the spot height (survey height) at E.

(b) Study the secondary road which runs east from the crossroads at F shown on Fig. 1.1.
(i) Give the six-figure grid reference of the crossroads at F.
(ii) What is the distance along the road from the crossroads at F to the bridge at G, shown on Fig. 1.1?
(iii) Measure the bearing from the crossroads at F to the bridge at G.

(c) Describe the relief to the north of the main river valley on the map extract.

(d) Describe the physical (natural) and human features of the coastline shown on the map extract.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Comprehensive analysis details.

Marking scheme

Reserve 3 marks for physical and 3 marks for human features.
Question 3 · Structured thematic skills questions
8 marks
Study Table 1.1, which shows demographic data for a country, Estovia, between 1960 and 2020.

**Table 1.1**

| Year | Birth rate (per 1000) | Death rate (per 1000) |
|---|---|---|
| 1960 | 38 | 24 |
| 1975 | 34 | 16 |
| 1990 | 25 | 9 |
| 2005 | 16 | 6 |
| 2020 | 11 | 6 |

(a) (i) Describe the trend in Estovia's birth rate between 1960 and 2020. Use statistics in your answer.

(ii) Calculate the natural increase rate (as a percentage) for Estovia in 1990. Show your calculations.

(iii) In which 15-year period did Estovia experience the largest drop in its death rate?

(b) Suggest three reasons why a country's birth rate might decline as it develops economically.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i)
Estovia's birth rate decreased continuously from 1960 to 2020. It fell from 38 per 1000 in 1960 to 11 per 1000 in 2020, which is an overall decrease of 27 per 1000.

(a) (ii)
Natural Increase Rate per 1000 = Birth rate - Death rate
For 1990: \( 25 - 9 = 16 \) per 1000.
As a percentage: \( \frac{16}{10} = 1.6\% \).

(a) (iii)
Between 1960 and 1975, the death rate dropped by 8 per 1000 (from 24 to 16).

(b)
1. Increased availability and use of contraception and family planning.
2. Women achieving higher levels of education and pursuing careers, delaying marriage and childbearing.
3. Falling infant mortality rates mean families do not need to have many children to ensure some survive.
4. Increased cost of raising children in urban/industrialised societies.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) [2 marks]
- 1 mark for describing the overall decline/decrease trend.
- 1 mark for supporting statistics with years and rates (e.g., 38 per 1000 in 1960 to 11 per 1000 in 2020 / decrease of 27 per 1000).

(a) (ii) [2 marks]
- 1 mark for correct method: \( \text{Birth Rate} - \text{Death Rate} = 25 - 9 = 16 \text{ per 1000} \).
- 1 mark for correct final percentage: \( 1.6\% \) (must include \% symbol).

(a) (iii) [1 mark]
- 1 mark for: 1960–1975 (or 1960 to 1975).

(b) [3 marks]
3 marks for three distinct reasons, such as:
- Access to contraception/family planning (1)
- Female empowerment/education/careers (1)
- Urbanisation/less need for children for agricultural labour (1)
- High cost of children/education (1)
- Decline in infant mortality rate (1)
- Government policies/anti-natalist campaigns (1)
Question 4 · Structured thematic skills questions
8 marks
Students carried out a geography fieldwork investigation on how a river's channel characteristics changed downstream. They collected measurements at three different sites and recorded the results in Table 2.1.

**Table 2.1**

| Site | Channel Width (m) | Average Depth (m) | Velocity (m/s) |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 (Upper Course) | 1.2 | 0.15 | 0.40 |
| 2 (Middle Course) | 4.5 | 0.45 | 0.65 |
| 3 (Lower Course) | 12.0 | 1.10 | 0.85 |

(a) (i) Describe the change downstream in channel width and average depth from Site 1 to Site 3.

(ii) Calculate the cross-sectional area of the river channel at Site 2. Show your calculations and state the unit of measurement.
(Formula: \( \text{cross-sectional area} = \text{channel width} \times \text{average depth} \))

(b) Calculate the river's discharge at Site 1. Show your calculations and state the unit of measurement.
(Formula: \( \text{discharge} = \text{cross-sectional area} \times \text{velocity} \))

(c) Explain why a river's average velocity typically increases downstream.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i)
Both channel width and average depth increase downstream. Width increases from 1.2 m to 12.0 m, while average depth increases from 0.15 m to 1.10 m.

(a) (ii)
Area = \( 4.5 \text{ m} \times 0.45 \text{ m} = 2.025 \text{ m}^2 \) (or square metres).

(b)
First, calculate cross-sectional area at Site 1:
Area = \( 1.2 \text{ m} \times 0.15 \text{ m} = 0.18 \text{ m}^2 \).
Then, calculate discharge:
Discharge = \( 0.18 \text{ m}^2 \times 0.40 \text{ m/s} = 0.072 \text{ m}^3/\text{s} \) (or cumecs).

(c)
Downstream, the river has a larger volume of water and is wider and deeper, which reduces hydraulic friction against the riverbed and banks. This makes the flow more efficient, allowing average velocity to increase despite a gentler gradient.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) [2 marks]
- 1 mark for stating that both increase downstream.
- 1 mark for supporting data/statistics comparing Site 1 and Site 3 for width and/or depth.

(a) (ii) [2 marks]
- 1 mark for calculation: \( 4.5 \times 0.45 = 2.025 \) (or 2.03 / 2.0).
- 1 mark for correct unit: \( \text{m}^2 \) or square metres.

(b) [2 marks]
- 1 mark for correct working: \( (1.2 \times 0.15) \times 0.40 = 0.18 \times 0.40 = 0.072 \).
- 1 mark for correct final value with unit: \( 0.072 \text{ m}^3/\text{s} \) or cumecs (cubic metres per second).

(c) [2 marks]
- 1 mark for noting the decrease in channel roughness / reduced friction downstream.
- 1 mark for noting the increased efficiency of the channel / greater volume/depth of water downstream.
Question 5 · Structured thematic skills questions
8 marks
Study Table 3.1, which shows daily weather measurements recorded at a school weather station over a five-day period in June.

**Table 3.1**

| Day | Max Temp (°C) | Min Temp (°C) | Wet-bulb Temp (°C) | Dry-bulb Temp (°C) | Rainfall (mm) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | 22 | 12 | 14 | 17 | 0.0 |
| 2 | 19 | 11 | 13 | 13 | 4.2 |
| 3 | 16 | 9 | 10 | 11 | 12.5 |
| 4 | 18 | 8 | 11 | 14 | 1.5 |
| 5 | 21 | 10 | 13 | 16 | 0.0 |

(a) (i) Identify the day with the highest daily temperature range and calculate this range.

(ii) Identify which day had 100% relative humidity. Explain your choice with reference to the temperature data.

(b) (i) State the name of the instrument used to measure wet-bulb and dry-bulb temperatures.

(ii) Describe the ideal site conditions required for a rain gauge to ensure accurate measurements of daily rainfall.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i)
Day 5. Temperature range = \( 21 - 10 = 11 \)°C.

(a) (ii)
Day 2. The wet-bulb temperature and dry-bulb temperature are exactly the same (13°C), indicating that no evaporation occurred because the surrounding air was fully saturated with moisture.

(b) (i)
Hygrometer (or psychrometer / wet-and-dry-bulb thermometer).

(b) (ii)
1. Placed in an open space, away from trees, buildings, or obstacles that could block rain or cause drops to drip in.
2. Sunk into the ground so that the rim is slightly above the surface (approx 30 cm) to prevent splashes entering the funnel.
3. Placed on a flat, level surface to prevent tilting, which would reduce the effective catching area.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) [2 marks]
- 1 mark for identifying Day 5.
- 1 mark for correct calculation of range: \( 11 \)°C (must include units).

(a) (ii) [2 marks]
- 1 mark for identifying Day 2.
- 1 mark for explanation: Wet-bulb and dry-bulb temperatures are equal / no difference between them (both are 13°C) indicating saturated air.

(b) (i) [1 mark]
- 1 mark for: Hygrometer / psychrometer / wet-and-dry-bulb thermometer.

(b) (ii) [3 marks]
3 marks for three distinct, well-described points:
- Away from trees/buildings/shelter to prevent blockages/wind shadows (1)
- In an open area at least twice the distance from the nearest obstacle as the obstacle's height (1)
- Partially sunk into the ground/firmly anchored to prevent wind blowing it over (1)
- Rim 30cm above the ground to prevent splash-in (1)
- Placed on grass/non-concrete surface to prevent splashes (1)
Question 6 · Structured thematic skills questions
8 marks
Study Table 4.1, which shows tourist arrivals and direct tourism employment on the island of Zanzara from 2010 to 2022.

**Table 4.1**

| Year | Tourist Arrivals (thousands) | Tourism Employment (number of workers) |
|---|---|---|
| 2010 | 120 | 2400 |
| 2013 | 180 | 3100 |
| 2016 | 250 | 4200 |
| 2019 | 340 | 5500 |
| 2022 | 190 | 3800 |

(a) (i) Describe the trend in tourist arrivals between 2010 and 2019. Use statistics to support your answer.

(ii) Compare the trend in tourist arrivals with the trend in tourism employment between 2019 and 2022.

(iii) Suggest one reason why tourist arrivals might decrease rapidly in a tourist destination over a short period of time.

(b) Explain three positive economic impacts that an increase in tourism can bring to local communities.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i)
Tourist arrivals increased steadily and rapidly between 2010 and 2019, growing from 120,000 arrivals in 2010 to 340,000 arrivals in 2019, an increase of 220,000.

(a) (ii)
Both tourist arrivals and tourism employment decreased between 2019 and 2022. Tourist arrivals decreased from 340,000 to 190,000, while tourism employment decreased from 5,500 to 3,800 workers.

(a) (iii)
An outbreak of disease/pandemic, political instability/civil unrest, natural disasters (such as hurricanes or volcanic eruptions), or a severe global economic recession.

(b)
1. Creates direct and indirect job opportunities (e.g., in hotels, restaurants, and taxis), reducing local unemployment.
2. Generates foreign currency and increases local businesses' revenues through spending on souvenirs, food, and tours.
3. Provides tax revenues for local governments, which can be spent on improving local infrastructure like roads, schools, and hospitals.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) [2 marks]
- 1 mark for describing the overall upward/increasing trend.
- 1 mark for supporting statistics (e.g., 120,000 in 2010 to 340,000 in 2019 / grew by 220,000).

(a) (ii) [2 marks]
- 1 mark for identifying that both decreased/fell between 2019 and 2022.
- 1 mark for comparative data/statistics for both indicators in 2019 and 2022.

(a) (iii) [1 mark]
- 1 mark for any valid reason: e.g., global pandemic / travel bans / natural disaster / war / economic crisis / bad publicity.

(b) [3 marks]
3 marks for three distinct economic benefits, such as:
- Job creation/employment in hotels, restaurants, shops (1)
- Multiplier effect / tourism money spent locally boosts other sectors (1)
- Tax revenue generated for infrastructure development (1)
- Foreign exchange earnings / strengthens national/local economy (1)
- Encourages local entrepreneurship / new businesses (1)
Question 7 · Structured thematic skills questions
8 marks
Study Table 5.1, which shows information about five recent earthquakes (A to E) recorded near a convergent plate boundary.

**Table 5.1**

| Earthquake | Magnitude (Richter Scale) | Depth of Focus (km) | Distance from Plate Boundary (km) |
|---|---|---|---|
| A | 6.2 | 12 | 15 |
| B | 5.8 | 45 | 60 |
| C | 6.5 | 110 | 140 |
| D | 7.1 | 210 | 250 |
| E | 5.5 | 350 | 410 |

(a) (i) Describe the relationship between the depth of focus of the earthquakes and their distance from the plate boundary.

(ii) Explain why Earthquake A is likely to cause more severe ground shaking and damage at its epicentre than Earthquake D, despite having a lower magnitude.

(b) State the difference between the focus and the epicentre of an earthquake.

(c) Explain why earthquakes of a similar magnitude often cause far more deaths and injuries in LEDCs than in MEDCs.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i)
There is a positive relationship/correlation: as the distance from the plate boundary increases, the depth of focus of the earthquakes also increases. For example, at 15 km distance, the depth is 12 km, while at 410 km distance, the depth is 350 km.

(a) (ii)
Earthquake A has a very shallow focus (12 km) compared to Earthquake D, which is very deep (210 km). Seismic waves from Earthquake A travel a much shorter distance to the surface, losing very little energy, resulting in much more severe shaking at the epicentre.

(b)
The focus is the point of origin underground where the rocks fracture and the earthquake is triggered. The epicentre is the point on the Earth's surface directly vertically above the focus.

(c)
LEDCs often have lower building standards and lack earthquake-resistant infrastructure, leading to rapid building collapse. They also typically have poorer emergency services, slower rescue responses, and lack medical facilities to treat survivors quickly.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) [2 marks]
- 1 mark for stating the positive relationship (increasing distance leads to deeper focus).
- 1 mark for supporting data/statistics from Table 5.1 showing two points (e.g. comparing A and E).

(a) (ii) [2 marks]
- 1 mark for stating that Earthquake A is shallow / Earthquake D is deep.
- 1 mark for explanation: seismic waves travel less distance to the surface / lose less energy before reaching the surface in shallow earthquakes.

(b) [2 marks]
- 1 mark for defining Focus: point of fracture/origin underground.
- 1 mark for defining Epicentre: point on surface directly above the focus.

(c) [2 marks]
2 marks for two distinct explanations, such as:
- Buildings in MEDCs are earthquake-proofed / built to strict safety codes, while LEDCs have poorly constructed buildings (1)
- LEDCs have poorer emergency services/rescue response / lack of heavy lifting equipment (1)
- MEDCs have regular earthquake drills / better public education and awareness (1)
- MEDCs have better warning systems / evacuation plans (1)
- Better post-disaster healthcare/hospitals in MEDCs (1)

Paper 4 - Alternative to Coursework

Answer all questions. Focuses on physical and human geography fieldwork techniques, data presentation, and hypothesis testing.
2 Question · 60 marks
Question 1 · structured
30 marks
Students from a school in Wales investigated downstream changes in the River Tywi. They selected 5 fieldwork sites along the river course, from the upper course (Site 1) to the lower course (Site 5).

They decided to test the following hypotheses:
Hypothesis 1: River velocity increases downstream.
Hypothesis 2: Average bedload size decreases downstream.

(a) (i) Identify two safety precautions students should take when conducting fieldwork in a river. [2]
(ii) Explain why it is important to select sites that are accessible and safe. [1]

(b) (i) Describe a fieldwork method using a float to measure river velocity. [4]
(ii) Suggest one limitation of using a float to measure velocity and how it can be improved. [2]

(c) (i) Describe how students would measure the size of a piece of bedload (pebble) at each site. [3]
(ii) Explain how students can ensure that their bedload sampling is unbiased and representative. [2]

(d) The students recorded the following data at the 5 sites:
- Site 1: Distance from source = 2 km, Average Velocity = 0.25 m/s, Average Pebble Size = 12.4 cm
- Site 2: Distance from source = 6 km, Average Velocity = 0.38 m/s, Average Pebble Size = 9.2 cm
- Site 3: Distance from source = 12 km, Average Velocity = 0.45 m/s, Average Pebble Size = 6.5 cm
- Site 4: Distance from source = 20 km, Average Velocity = 0.42 m/s, Average Pebble Size = 4.1 cm
- Site 5: Distance from source = 28 km, Average Velocity = 0.58 m/s, Average Pebble Size = 1.8 cm

(i) What conclusion should the students make about Hypothesis 1: River velocity increases downstream? Support your answer with evidence from the data. [3]
(ii) What conclusion should the students make about Hypothesis 2: Average bedload size decreases downstream? Support your answer with evidence from the data. [3]

(e) (i) Explain why river velocity generally increases downstream. [4]
(ii) Explain why bedload size decreases downstream. [3]

(f) Suggest how the students could extend their investigation to study how the roundness of the bedload changes downstream. [3]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) Expected answers include: wearing strong/waterproof boots or waders; checking weather forecasts beforehand to avoid high water/flooding; staying in groups; staying close to the bank/avoiding deep water; using a ranging pole to test depth before stepping. (ii) Safe and accessible sites ensure that students can reach the riverbed easily without risking falls from steep cliffs or getting trapped on private/inaccessible land.

(b) (i) Method using float: 1. Measure a fixed distance (e.g., 10 meters) along the river bank using a tape measure. 2. Mark the start and end points with ranging poles. 3. Release a float (e.g., an orange or tennis ball) slightly upstream of the start line. 4. Use a stopwatch to time how long it takes for the float to travel from the start line to the end line. 5. Repeat the test across different parts of the channel (left, center, right) and calculate the average. (ii) Float only measures surface velocity/can be affected by wind. Improvement: Use a flowmeter (impeller) submerged at 0.6 of the depth for greater accuracy, or repeat the float test multiple times to get a more reliable average.

(c) (i) Pebble measurement: 1. Use a ruler or calliper. 2. Measure the longest axis (A-axis) of the pebble in centimeters or millimeters. 3. Record the measurement. (ii) Unbiased sampling: Use random sampling (e.g., generating coordinates) or systematic sampling (e.g., choosing a pebble every 50 cm across the river transect), rather than visually selecting pebbles which might bias results towards larger, more colorful, or smoother ones.

(d) (i) Hypothesis 1 is generally true/mostly correct. The velocity increases from 0.25 m/s at Site 1 to 0.58 m/s at Site 5. However, there is an anomaly between Site 3 (0.45 m/s) and Site 4 (0.42 m/s) where velocity slightly decreases. (ii) Hypothesis 2 is completely true. The average pebble size decreases consistently downstream from 12.4 cm at Site 1 to 1.8 cm at Site 5, with no anomalies.

(e) (i) Downstream, there is an increase in discharge from joining tributaries; less friction with the river bed and banks as the channel becomes wider, deeper, and smoother; and water is more concentrated, requiring less energy to overcome channel resistance. (ii) Bedload size decreases downstream due to attrition (particles colliding and breaking into smaller pieces) and hydraulic action/abrasion wearing away the sediment over distance.

(f) Students could use a Power's Scale of Roundness (visual chart) to classify pebble shapes from very angular (Class 1) to well-rounded (Class 6). At each site, they would categorize a sample of 20-30 pebbles and calculate an average roundness index score to see if roundness increases downstream.

Marking scheme

Total Marks: 30

(a) (i) [2 marks] 1 mark per valid precaution (max 2). Accept: waders, checking forecast, stay in groups, check depth with pole. Reject: generic 'be careful'.
(ii) [1 mark] 1 mark for linking accessibility to safety/efficiency of data collection.

(b) (i) [4 marks] 1 mark for measuring fixed distance; 1 mark for marking start/end with poles; 1 mark for timing with stopwatch; 1 mark for repeating and calculating average.
(ii) [2 marks] 1 mark for limitation (e.g., wind influence, surface-only measurement); 1 mark for matching improvement (e.g., flowmeter, repeating trials).

(c) (i) [3 marks] 1 mark for tool (ruler/calliper); 1 mark for action (measuring longest/A-axis); 1 mark for units (cm/mm).
(ii) [2 marks] 1 mark for identifying sampling method (systematic/random); 1 mark for explanation (avoiding picking largest/subjective selection).

(d) (i) [3 marks] 1 mark for decision (Partly/Generally true); 1 mark for supporting data (0.25 m/s at Site 1 to 0.58 m/s at Site 5); 1 mark for identifying the anomaly (Site 3 to Site 4 decrease).
(ii) [3 marks] 1 mark for decision (True); 1 mark for supporting data (12.4 cm at Site 1 to 1.8 cm at Site 5); 1 mark for stating there are no anomalies/consistent trend.

(e) (i) [4 marks] 1 mark per explanation point (max 4): tribute input increases volume/discharge; less friction; smoother/deeper channel; gravity/slope momentum.
(ii) [3 marks] 1 mark for attrition concept; 1 mark for abrasion/hydraulic action concept; 1 mark for explanation of progressive wear over distance.

(f) [3 marks] 1 mark for naming Cailleux/Powers roundness scale; 1 mark for visual comparison method; 1 mark for sampling/averaging roundness score per site.
Question 2 · structured
30 marks
Two students carried out a geography investigation in a coastal holiday resort in Mallorca, Spain, during the high summer season. They wanted to study tourist characteristics and the environmental impacts of tourism.

They decided to test the following hypotheses:
Hypothesis 1: Tourists' main reasons for visiting the resort differ between younger (under 40) and older (40 and over) age groups.
Hypothesis 2: The level of litter decreases with distance away from the main beachfront.

(a) (i) The students designed a questionnaire to ask tourists about their reasons for visiting. State three rules of designing an effective questionnaire. [3]

(b) (i) The students decided to sample 50 tourists. Describe how they could use systematic sampling to select tourists to interview. [2]
(ii) Give one advantage and one disadvantage of using systematic sampling for this questionnaire. [2]

(c) The students recorded the reasons for visiting from two age groups (Under 40 and 40 & Over):
- Under 40 (25 tourists): Beach/Sunbathing = 12, Nightlife = 8, Water sports = 4, Historic sights = 1
- 40 & Over (25 tourists): Beach/Sunbathing = 6, Nightlife = 1, Water sports = 3, Historic sights = 15

(i) Describe the differences in reasons for visiting between the two age groups. [3]
(ii) Based on this evidence, what conclusion should the students reach regarding Hypothesis 1? Support your decision with data from both age groups. [3]

(d) (i) To investigate Hypothesis 2, the students conducted a litter survey. They set up 5 transects starting from the main beach (0m) up to 200m away, measuring litter count in a 1m² quadrat every 50 meters. Describe how they would carry out this litter survey. [4]

(e) The results of the litter count survey are shown below:
- Average Litter Count per quadrat:
- 0m (beachfront): 18.2 items
- 50m: 12.0 items
- 100m: 7.6 items
- 150m: 3.8 items
- 200m: 1.2 items

(i) What conclusion should the students make about Hypothesis 2? Support your decision with average litter count statistics. [3]
(ii) Suggest three reasons why litter levels are higher closer to the beach. [3]

(f) (i) State two other negative environmental impacts of tourism in a coastal resort, besides litter. [2]
(ii) Suggest how the local government could manage the environmental impacts of tourism in this resort. [5]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) Questionnaire design rules: keep questions short and simple; avoid leading questions; use a mix of closed and open questions; include age ranges rather than asking for exact ages; ask for permission and keep responses anonymous.

(b) (i) Systematic sampling method: The students would stand at a fixed location (e.g., the resort entrance or promenade) and select every nth person (e.g., every 5th or 10th person) who passes by to complete the questionnaire. (ii) Advantage: It is highly objective and avoids researcher bias. Disadvantage: It may miss certain groups if there is a pattern to who walks past at that specific time, or tourists might refuse to participate, disrupting the interval.

(c) (i) Younger tourists (under 40) are much more interested in nightlife (8 vs 1) and beach/sunbathing (12 vs 6) compared to older tourists. Conversely, older tourists (40 & over) are heavily focused on historic sights (15 vs 1) compared to the younger cohort. Water sports show similar interest levels (4 vs 3). (ii) Hypothesis 1 is true/fully supported. Younger tourists predominantly visit for active leisure and entertainment (12 for beach, 8 for nightlife), whereas older tourists visit for cultural experiences (15 for historic sights). Only 1 older tourist visited for nightlife, compared to 15 for historic sights.

(d) (i) Method for litter survey: 1. Identify 5 representative transect lines extending perpendicular from the beach. 2. Use a tape measure to mark distances of 0m, 50m, 100m, 150m, and 200m along each line. 3. At each interval, place a 1m² quadrat frame on the ground. 4. Count and record all visible pieces of litter within the quadrat. 5. Repeat across all 5 transects to calculate averages.

(e) (i) Hypothesis 2 is completely true. The average litter count decreases systematically as distance from the beach increases: starting at 18.2 items at 0m, dropping to 7.6 items at 100m, and reaching a minimum of 1.2 items at 200m. There are no anomalies. (ii) High density of tourists/footfall near the beach; presence of takeaway food/drink stalls close to the seafront; lack of bins on the sand or bins filling up too quickly; wind blowing loose beach rubbish inland to accumulate near beachfront structures.

(f) (i) Noise pollution from bars/clubs; destruction of sand dunes/habitats; water pollution from sewage or motorboats. (ii) Management strategies: install more rubbish bins and recycling points along the beach; employ regular beach cleaning patrols; introduce fines for littering; restrict high-noise nightlife to specific zones; place protective wooden boardwalks over sand dunes to prevent erosion.

Marking scheme

Total Marks: 30

(a) (i) [3 marks] 1 mark per valid questionnaire rule (max 3). Accept: clear layout, mix of open/closed questions, polite introduction, logical sequence.

(b) (i) [2 marks] 1 mark for choosing a fixed interval (e.g., every 10th person); 1 mark for consistent application/location.
(ii) [2 marks] 1 mark for advantage (unbiased, easy to administer); 1 mark for disadvantage (non-response breaks pattern, missing specific subgroups).

(c) (i) [3 marks] 1 mark for contrasting nightlife; 1 mark for contrasting historic sights; 1 mark for acknowledging similar interest in water sports.
(ii) [3 marks] 1 mark for decision (True/Supported); 1 mark for supporting data of younger group (e.g., 8 nightlife, 12 beach); 1 mark for supporting data of older group (e.g., 15 historic sights, 1 nightlife).

(d) (i) [4 marks] 1 mark for laying out transects perpendicular to beach; 1 mark for measuring set intervals (50m); 1 mark for using a 1m² quadrat; 1 mark for systematically counting and recording count.

(e) (i) [3 marks] 1 mark for decision (True); 1 mark for highest statistic at 0m (18.2 items); 1 mark for lowest statistic at 200m (1.2 items) showing the direct negative relationship.
(ii) [3 marks] 1 mark per valid reason (max 3): high concentration of tourists on beach; beachfront food stalls; overflowing bins; wind accumulation.

(f) (i) [2 marks] 1 mark per alternative impact (max 2): noise, sewage/water pollution, dune destruction, air pollution from traffic.
(ii) [5 marks] 1 mark per realistic strategy up to 5 marks. Must include details of how it protects the coastal environment (e.g., signs, zoning, boardwalks, fines, beach cleanups).

Wondering how well you actually know this?

thinka is an AI practice app for IGCSE & IB students: unlimited questions, instant auto-marking, and detailed step-by-step solutions. 100,000+ students use it to confirm they actually know it, not just think they do.

Want more questions like this? Practice unlimited on thinka, instant answers included.

Start Practicing Free