Cambridge IGCSE · thinka-original Practice Paper

2023 Cambridge IGCSE Geography (0460) Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Nov 2023 (V2) Cambridge IGCSE-Style Mock — Geography (0460)

195 marks285 mins2023

An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Nov 2023 (V2) Cambridge IGCSE Geography (0460) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

Paper 12: Geographical Themes

Answer three questions in total, one from each section (Population and Settlement, The Natural Environment, Economic Development).

27 Question · 97 marks

Question 1 · short_answer

2.5 marks

Study Table 1.1, which shows birth rates and death rates for Country X in 2022.

Table 1.1
- Birth rate: 18.2 per 1000
- Death rate: 6.4 per 1000

Using the data in Table 1.1, calculate the rate of natural increase of Country X in 2022. You must show your calculations and state your final answer as a percentage.

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Worked solution

First, calculate the natural increase per 1000:
Natural Increase Rate = Birth Rate - Death Rate
Natural Increase Rate = 18.2 - 6.4 = 11.8 per 1000.

To convert this to a percentage:
11.8 / 10 = 1.18%.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct subtraction showing the natural increase rate is 11.8 per 1000.
1 mark for converting to a percentage (1.18%).
0.5 marks for showing the correct unit (%).

Question 2 · short_answer

2.5 marks

Identify one physical push factor and one economic pull factor that typically cause international migration from Less Economically Developed Countries (LEDCs) to More Economically Developed Countries (MEDCs).

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Worked solution

Physical push factors include natural hazards, drought, volcanic eruptions, or climate change causing crop failure. Economic pull factors include higher wages, job availability, better standard of living, and employment opportunities in industries or services.

Marking scheme

1 mark for a valid physical push factor (e.g., drought, flooding, volcanic eruption, desertification). [REJECT: lack of jobs, low pay (economic)].
1 mark for a valid economic pull factor (e.g., higher salaries, more job opportunities, career advancement).
0.5 marks for clear distinction/correct classification of both.

Question 3 · short_answer

2.5 marks

State two differences between the river channel shape in the upper course and the lower course of a river.

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Worked solution

In the upper course, the river channel is narrow and shallow due to vertical erosion dominating. In the lower course, the channel is wide and deep due to lateral erosion and a high volume of water.

Marking scheme

1 mark for upper course description (narrow/shallow/steep-sided).
1 mark for lower course description (wide/deep/gently sloping sides).
0.5 marks for direct comparison/contrast.

Question 4 · short_answer

2.5 marks

Define the coastal erosion process of hydraulic action and explain how it differs from abrasion.

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Worked solution

Hydraulic action involves the sheer force of water and the compression of air in cracks, whereas abrasion involves physical impacts and scraping of the rock face by sediment carried by waves.

Marking scheme

1 mark for defining hydraulic action (force of waves/compression of air in cracks).
1 mark for defining abrasion (sandpapering effect/rocks thrown against cliff).
0.5 marks for clearly highlighting the difference (force of water/air vs. wear by carried sediment).

Question 5 · short_answer

2.5 marks

State two features of a Stevenson Screen that ensure weather instruments inside record accurate temperature measurements, and explain how each feature works.

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Worked solution

The Stevenson Screen is painted white to reflect direct solar radiation, preventing the box from absorbing heat. The louvred sides allow ambient air to flow freely through the screen, ensuring that instruments measure air temperature rather than stagnant, heated air inside the box.

Marking scheme

1 mark each for two identified features (up to 2 marks).
0.5 marks for explaining how at least one of these features prevents false temperature readings (e.g., preventing heat absorption or keeping air at ambient temperature).

Question 6 · short_answer

2.5 marks

Describe two adaptations of plants in the tropical rainforest climate and explain how each adaptation helps them survive in this environment.

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Worked solution

Rainforest plants have drip tips on their leaves to shed water quickly, which prevents leaf rot and mold growth in the humid climate. Buttress roots provide a massive, wide base to anchor extremely tall trees in shallow, nutrient-poor tropical soils.

Marking scheme

1 mark for first adaptation + explanation (e.g., drip tips to shed water / prevent rot).
1 mark for second adaptation + explanation (e.g., buttress roots for stability in shallow soils).
0.5 marks for linking adaptations directly to specific rainforest climate/soil conditions (heavy rainfall or poor soils).

Question 7 · short_answer

2.5 marks

Study Table 5.1, which displays development indicators for three countries.

Table 5.1
- Country A: GDP per capita $45,000, Life expectancy 82 years, Infant mortality rate 3 per 1000.
- Country B: GDP per capita $12,000, Life expectancy 73 years, Infant mortality rate 12 per 1000.
- Country C: GDP per capita $1,200, Life expectancy 54 years, Infant mortality rate 65 per 1000.

Identify which country is the most developed and explain how the infant mortality rate indicator reflects its high level of development.

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Worked solution

Country A is the most developed because it has the highest GDP per capita, longest life expectancy, and lowest infant mortality. A low infant mortality rate indicates well-funded healthcare systems, easy access to clean drinking water, high levels of sanitation, and widely available neonatal care.

Marking scheme

0.5 marks for identifying Country A as the most developed.
1 mark for explaining what a low infant mortality rate indicates (advanced medical facilities, vaccination programs, clean water).
1 mark for linking this directly to a high level of development (investment of national wealth into public services and healthcare infrastructure).

Question 8 · short_answer

2.5 marks

Describe the mechanism of the greenhouse effect and explain how human activities have enhanced it, leading to global warming.

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Worked solution

The greenhouse effect is a natural process where greenhouse gases (like carbon dioxide and methane) in the atmosphere trap outgoing longwave radiation from the Earth's surface, keeping the planet warm. Human activities, such as burning fossil fuels and deforestation, increase the concentration of these gases, trapping more heat and causing global temperatures to rise.

Marking scheme

1 mark for describing the natural greenhouse effect (shortwave solar radiation enters, longwave infrared is absorbed/trapped by gases).
1 mark for explaining the human enhancement (burning fossil fuels/deforestation increases greenhouse gas concentrations).
0.5 marks for explaining the resulting temperature rise (more heat trapped = global warming).

Question 9 · Short Answer & Data Interpretation

2.5 marks

Study the following data showing demographic indicators for Country A (an LEDC) between 2000 and 2020:
- Year 2000: Birth Rate = 38 per 1000, Death Rate = 14 per 1000
- Year 2020: Birth Rate = 29 per 1000, Death Rate = 8 per 1000

(i) Calculate the rate of natural increase for Country A in 2020. Show your calculation.
(ii) State one reason why the death rate fell between 2000 and 2020.

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Worked solution

To find the rate of natural increase in 2020:
$$\text{Natural Increase} = \text{Birth Rate} - \text{Death Rate}$$
$$\text{Natural Increase} = 29 - 8 = 21 \text{ per } 1000 \text{ (or } 2.1\%\text{)}$$

Reasons for falling death rates in LEDCs include improved healthcare infrastructure, expanded immunization campaigns, access to safe drinking water, and improved sanitary conditions.

Marking scheme

(i) [1.5 marks total]:
- 0.5 marks for showing the correct working (e.g., 29 - 8).
- 1.0 mark for the correct final value with correct unit (21 per 1000 or 2.1%).

(ii) [1.0 mark total]:
- 1.0 mark for any valid reason explaining a decline in death rate (e.g., medical advances, improved hygiene, better diet/food security).

Question 10 · Short Answer & Data Interpretation

2.5 marks

Study the list of push factors for rural-to-urban migrants moving from Province X to City Y:
- Crop failure due to drought: 45%
- Lack of secondary schools: 25%
- Low agricultural wages: 20%
- Lack of healthcare facilities: 10%

(i) Identify the most common push factor shown in the data and state its percentage.
(ii) Explain how 'low agricultural wages' act as a push factor.

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Worked solution

(i) According to the data, 'Crop failure due to drought' is the most significant push factor, accounting for 45% of the migrants' decisions.
(ii) Low agricultural wages mean farming families cannot earn enough income to cover essential living costs (food, shelter, education). This financial hardship pushes them away from rural areas toward cities where industrial and service sectors offer higher earning potential.

Marking scheme

(i) [1.0 mark total]:
- 0.5 marks for identifying 'Crop failure due to drought'.
- 0.5 marks for stating '45%'.

(ii) [1.5 marks total]:
- 1.0 mark for explaining that low wages lead to poverty or inability to afford basic needs.
- 0.5 marks for linking this hardship to the decision to seek better-paying opportunities in urban areas.

Question 11 · Short Answer & Data Interpretation

2.5 marks

Study the velocity measurements taken across a river bend:
- Outer bank: 1.2 m/s
- Inner bank: 0.3 m/s

(i) Identify the bank where erosion is most likely to occur and support your answer with the velocity data.
(ii) Name the landform that is typically built up on the opposite bank due to deposition.

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Worked solution

(i) Erosion occurs at the outer bank because the water velocity is much faster (1.2 m/s compared to 0.3 m/s at the inner bank), giving the river more kinetic energy to erode the bank through hydraulic action and abrasion.
(ii) The slower-moving water at the inner bank (0.3 m/s) lacks the energy to transport sediment, leading to deposition that forms a slip-off slope or point bar.

Marking scheme

(i) [1.5 marks total]:
- 0.5 marks for identifying the 'outer bank'.
- 1.0 mark for using the velocity data (1.2 m/s) to explain that higher velocity leads to greater erosional energy.

(ii) [1.0 mark total]:
- 1.0 mark for naming 'slip-off slope' or 'point bar' (do not accept 'floodplain').

Question 12 · Short Answer & Data Interpretation

2.5 marks

Study the rate of coastal retreat measured at three different locations over a one-year period:
- Cliff A (soft clay): 1.8 m/year
- Cliff B (hard granite): 0.1 m/year
- Cliff C (sandstone): 0.9 m/year

(i) State the difference in the rate of retreat between Cliff A and Cliff B. Show your calculation.
(ii) Suggest one reason, other than rock type, why the rate of coastal retreat varies along a coastline.

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Worked solution

(i) The difference in retreat rate is:
$$\text{Difference} = 1.8\text{ m/year} - 0.1\text{ m/year} = 1.7\text{ m/year}$$

(ii) Rates of coastal erosion can also be affected by wave type (destructive vs. constructive waves), coastal orientation (facing prevailing winds), or human interventions such as sea walls and groynes which protect certain areas.

Marking scheme

(i) [1.5 marks total]:
- 0.5 marks for showing the correct calculation structure (1.8 - 0.1).
- 1.0 mark for the correct answer with correct unit (1.7 m/year).

(ii) [1.0 mark total]:
- 1.0 mark for any valid physical or human factor other than rock type (e.g., wave strength, coastal management, jointing/structural weaknesses in the rock).

Question 13 · Short Answer & Data Interpretation

2.5 marks

Study the climate statistics for a weather station in an equatorial region:
- Average annual temperature: 27°C
- Annual temperature range: 2°C
- Total annual rainfall: 2200 mm

(i) Describe the temperature pattern of this station using the data provided.
(ii) Explain why equatorial regions experience high rainfall throughout the year.

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Worked solution

(i) The temperature is consistently high throughout the year, averaging 27°C. The annual range of temperature is exceptionally small (only 2°C), indicating that there are no distinct hot or cold seasons.
(ii) High, direct solar radiation at the equator heats the ground continuously. This warm surface heats the air above, causing it to rise rapidly. As it rises, the moisture-laden air cools and condenses, forming cumulus clouds that produce heavy convectional rain storms.

Marking scheme

(i) [1.5 marks total]:
- 0.5 marks for noting the high average temperature of 27°C.
- 1.0 mark for noting the very narrow temperature range of 2°C, showing little seasonal variation.

(ii) [1.0 mark total]:
- 1.0 mark for explaining the link between high insolation/evaporation and the formation of convectional rainfall.

Question 14 · Short Answer & Data Interpretation

2.5 marks

Study the Human Development Index (HDI) components for Country Y and Country Z:
- Country Y: Life Expectancy = 79.4 years, GNI per capita = $43,000, Mean Years of Schooling = 12.6
- Country Z: Life Expectancy = 54.1 years, GNI per capita = $1,800, Mean Years of Schooling = 4.2

(i) Identify which country has a higher level of development and justify your choice with two pieces of evidence from the table.
(ii) State one limitation of using GNI per capita alone as an indicator of development.

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Worked solution

(i) Country Y is much more developed. This is justified by its higher life expectancy of 79.4 years (indicating better healthcare and living standards compared to Country Z's 54.1 years) and its higher mean years of schooling of 12.6 years (indicating a far more developed education system).
(ii) GNI per capita measures only economic output per person on average. It fails to account for how wealth is distributed within the population (inequality) and ignores health, education, and human rights factors.

Marking scheme

(i) [1.5 marks total]:
- 0.5 marks for identifying Country Y.
- 1.0 mark for citing two correct comparative statistics from the table (e.g., life expectancy, GNI, or schooling years).

(ii) [1.0 mark total]:
- 1.0 mark for identifying a valid limitation of GNI per capita (e.g., hides inequalities, does not measure social development).

Question 15 · Short Answer & Data Interpretation

2.5 marks

Study the energy mix of a country:
- Coal: 40%
- Natural Gas: 30%
- Hydroelectric Power (HEP): 15%
- Nuclear: 10%
- Solar/Wind: 5%

(i) Calculate the total percentage of energy generated from non-renewable fossil fuels in this country.
(ii) State and explain one advantage of increasing the share of renewable energy sources in the energy mix.

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Worked solution

(i) Coal and natural gas are fossil fuels. Thus:
$$\text{Total Fossil Fuels} = 40\% + 30\% = 70\%$$
Note: Nuclear is non-renewable, but it is not a fossil fuel.

(ii) Transitioning to renewable energy sources, such as wind or solar, lowers the carbon footprint of the nation. These technologies generate electricity without emitting carbon dioxide, helping to reduce global warming.

Marking scheme

(i) [1.0 mark total]:
- 1.0 mark for the correct calculation of 70%. (Reject 80% if nuclear was included, as nuclear is not a fossil fuel).

(ii) [1.5 marks total]:
- 0.5 marks for stating a valid advantage (e.g., less air pollution, sustainable/infinite supply, reduces carbon emissions).
- 1.0 mark for explaining the physical mechanism behind the advantage (e.g., no combustion of hydrocarbons prevents greenhouse gases from trapping heat).

Question 16 · Short Answer & Data Interpretation

2.5 marks

Human economic activities release significant volumes of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.

(i) Explain how human activities increase the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, referencing one specific gas and its source.
(ii) State one impact of global warming on low-lying coastal areas.

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Worked solution

(i) Human processes like industrialization and transportation burn fossil fuels, which releases large quantities of carbon dioxide ($CO_2$) into the atmosphere. This increases the concentration of greenhouse gases, strengthening the natural greenhouse effect by trapping more outgoing infrared radiation.
(ii) Rising global temperatures melt glaciers and ice caps, leading to thermal expansion of the oceans. This causes sea levels to rise, resulting in the flooding of low-lying coastal plains and the erosion of sandy beaches.

Marking scheme

(i) [1.5 marks total]:
- 0.5 marks for naming a correct gas and human source (e.g., carbon dioxide from burning coal/oil, or methane from intensive cattle ranching/rice farming).
- 1.0 mark for explaining how this gas traps outgoing thermal/longwave radiation, resulting in warming.

(ii) [1.0 mark total]:
- 1.0 mark for stating a valid consequence for coastal zones (e.g., loss of land due to sea-level rise, displacement of coastal populations).

Question 17 · Short Answer

3 marks

Table 1.1 shows selected development indicators for three countries. Country X: GNI per capita 640 USD, Adult literacy rate 68 percent. Country Y: GNI per capita 9020 USD, Adult literacy rate 93 percent. Country Z: GNI per capita 95300 USD, Adult literacy rate 99 percent. Using this information, describe the relationship between GNI per capita and adult literacy rate. Support your answer with statistics.

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Worked solution

The relationship is positive: as GNI per capita increases, the adult literacy rate also increases. To earn full marks, the answer must identify this trend and support it with statistics for at least two countries from the text.

Marking scheme

1 mark for identifying positive relationship (as GNI per capita increases, adult literacy rate increases).
1 mark for correct GNI per capita statistics for two countries (e.g., Country X = 640 USD and Country Y = 9020 USD).
1 mark for corresponding correct literacy rates for those same two countries (e.g., Country X = 68% and Country Y = 93%).

Question 18 · Short Answer

3 marks

Table 2.1 shows river channel measurements at three different sites along a river. Site A (2 km from source): Average Velocity 0.3 m/s, Average Depth 0.2 m. Site B (15 km from source): Average Velocity 0.6 m/s, Average Depth 0.8 m. Site C (42 km from source): Average Velocity 1.1 m/s, Average Depth 1.9 m. Describe the changes in river channel characteristics as distance from the source increases. Refer to both velocity and depth in your answer.

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Worked solution

The trends show that both channel depth and water velocity increase as the river moves downstream (with increasing distance from the source). The explanation must state both trends clearly and use comparative statistics from the provided data to support the description.

Marking scheme

1 mark for stating that average velocity increases downstream / with distance from source.
1 mark for stating that average depth increases downstream / with distance from source.
1 mark for supporting data/use of statistics from at least two sites (e.g., Site A velocity is 0.3 m/s and depth is 0.2 m compared to Site C where velocity is 1.1 m/s and depth is 1.9 m).

Question 19 · Structured Essay

5 marks

Describe the problems that may be faced by international migrants when they first settle in a new country.

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Worked solution

Migrants face multiple barriers upon arrival. The primary issues are linguistic barriers, which limit job opportunities and access to services. Economic struggles lead to housing deprivation, with many living in slums or low-quality rentals. Social exclusion and cultural adjustments, along with the lack of legal status or work permits, create a vulnerable environment for newly arrived international migrants.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid problem described, up to a maximum of 5 marks: - Language barriers/difficulty communicating (1 mark) - Difficulty securing legal employment or being exploited with low wages (1 mark) - Struggle to find affordable or decent housing / living in overcrowded conditions (1 mark) - Discrimination, racism, or xenophobia from the host population (1 mark) - Emotional distress, homesickness, or separation from family/friends (1 mark) - Lack of access to healthcare, education, or social services due to language or legal status (1 mark)

Question 20 · Structured Essay

5 marks

Explain why rapid urbanisation leads to the growth of squatter settlements in many LEDC cities.

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Worked solution

Urban squatter settlements are a direct result of the mismatch between the high speed of population growth and the capacity of municipal authorities to provide affordable housing. Economic factors, such as low wages and high formal housing prices, combined with the presence of unoccupied marginal land, facilitate the rapid expansion of these informal housing areas.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid explanation, up to a maximum of 5 marks: - Rural-to-urban migration is too fast for city planning to keep up (1 mark) - High cost of formal housing/rent which migrants cannot afford (1 mark) - Migrants are forced into low-paid informal sector jobs / have low incomes (1 mark) - Lack of government investment or resources to build public housing (1 mark) - Unused, undesirable, or marginal land (steep slopes, floodplains) is left open for illegal building (1 mark) - Natural increase of population within cities adds to housing pressure (1 mark)

Question 21 · Structured Essay

5 marks

Explain how longshore drift can lead to the formation of a spit along a coastline.

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Worked solution

The formation of a spit requires longshore drift to continuously transport sediment along a coastline. At a sudden bend or river mouth, the reduction in wave energy causes the transported material to be deposited. Continued deposition builds a ridge of sand/shingle extending out into the sea, with a hook or curve forming if waves occasionally approach from a different direction.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid point explaining the process, up to a maximum of 5 marks: - Prevailing winds drive waves toward the beach at an oblique angle (1 mark) - Swash carries sediment up the beach at this oblique angle (1 mark) - Backwash pulls sediment straight back down the beach at a right angle due to gravity (1 mark) - Sediment moves along the coastline in a zig-zag pattern (longshore drift) (1 mark) - Deposition occurs in calmer, shallower water where the coastline changes direction / at a river mouth (1 mark) - Sand and shingle accumulate above sea level to form a ridge/spit (1 mark) - Changing wind or wave directions can curve the end of the spit (1 mark)

Question 22 · Structured Essay

5 marks

Describe the processes by which a river waterfall forms and retreats upstream to create a gorge.

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Worked solution

The key processes in waterfall formation and retreat are differential erosion, undercutting, and collapse. The vertical drop is maintained because the soft rock underneath is worn away faster than the hard cap rock. The retreat of the waterfall upstream over thousands of years carves out a narrow, steep-sided valley known as a gorge.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid descriptive point of the sequence, up to a maximum of 5 marks: - River flows over a band of resistant hard rock overlying less resistant soft rock (1 mark) - Soft rock is eroded more rapidly by hydraulic action or abrasion (1 mark) - Undercutting occurs beneath the hard rock layer, forming an overhang (1 mark) - A deep plunge pool is created at the base of the waterfall (1 mark) - The overhanging hard rock becomes unstable and collapses (1 mark) - Repeated undercutting and collapse causes the waterfall to retreat upstream (1 mark) - A steep-sided gorge is formed in front of the retreating waterfall (1 mark)

Question 23 · Structured Essay

5 marks

Explain why global warming is occurring at an accelerated rate in the modern era.

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Worked solution

The acceleration of global warming is primarily driven by the enhanced greenhouse effect. Increased industrialisation, transportation, deforestation, and agricultural expansion have elevated the concentration of greenhouse gases (like carbon dioxide and methane) in the atmosphere. These gases trap a higher proportion of outgoing thermal radiation emitted by the Earth, leading to a rapid rise in global temperatures.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid explanatory point, up to a maximum of 5 marks: - Increased burning of fossil fuels (coal, oil, gas) in power plants and vehicles releases CO2 (1 mark) - Deforestation reduces carbon sinks/photosynthesis, leaving more CO2 in the atmosphere (1 mark) - Agriculture (cattle ranching, rice paddies) releases significant methane (CH4) (1 mark) - Greenhouse gases build up, creating a thicker layer/blanket in the atmosphere (1 mark) - Short-wave solar radiation enters the atmosphere to heat the Earth (1 mark) - Outgoing long-wave infrared radiation/heat is trapped by these gases instead of escaping to space (1 mark)

Question 24 · Structured Essay

5 marks

Explain the disadvantages that a transnational corporation (TNC) may bring to a Less Economically Developed Country (LEDC) where its factories are located.

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Worked solution

The negative impacts of TNCs on LEDCs stem from economic, social, and environmental exploitation. The flight of capital through profit leakage limits local development, while local workforces are often underpaid and subject to substandard safety measures. Weak environmental regulations in host countries are often bypassed, leading to pollution, and the host country remains highly vulnerable to sudden economic disinvestment if the TNC decides to relocate.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid explanation of disadvantage, up to a maximum of 5 marks: - Most profits are sent back to the home country/MEDC (profit leakage) (1 mark) - Local workers are paid low wages / exploited relative to their workload (1 mark) - Working conditions may be unsafe or poorly regulated due to lax local laws (1 mark) - High levels of environmental pollution (air, water, land) due to weak environmental regulations (1 mark) - Competition from the TNC can force local industries to shut down (1 mark) - TNCs are footloose and can easily relocate, causing sudden mass unemployment (1 mark)

Question 25 · essay

7 marks

For a named urban area you have studied, explain the strategies which have been used to improve housing and living conditions in a squatter settlement.

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Worked solution

Case study example: Rocinha squatter settlement in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. Strategies used include: 1. The Favela-Bairro Project (Slum-to-Neighbourhood Scheme) where self-help schemes are deployed. Residents are provided with brick, cement, and wood to replace hazardous wooden houses with sturdy, weather-resistant brick buildings. 2. Site and services schemes where local authorities lay down essential infrastructure including piped water, sewage systems, and electrical grids prior to residents building. 3. Paving and widening of narrow, steep dirt tracks to create paved roads, allowing emergency vehicles such as ambulances and fire engines to access residents. 4. Installing a modern cable car system to connect Rocinha's steep slopes to the city's main public transport network, facilitating access to employment and services.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1-3 marks): Simple statements describing strategies to improve housing or living conditions (e.g., paving roads, building toilets, self-help schemes, providing electricity).

Level 2 (4-6 marks): Developed statements explaining how these strategies improve living conditions (e.g., paving roads allows emergency vehicles like ambulances to reach sick residents quickly; site and service schemes provide clean piped water which prevents the spread of waterborne diseases like cholera).

Level 3 (7 marks): Three or more developed statements with a named urban area and place-specific details (e.g., Rio de Janeiro, Rocinha, referencing the Favela-Bairro Project, spending $300 million to upgrade housing, or the installation of a 3.5km cable car system).

Question 26 · essay

7 marks

For a named volcanic eruption you have studied, explain the causes of the eruption and describe its effects on people and the economy.

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Worked solution

Case study example: Mount Merapi, Indonesia (2010 eruption). Causes of the eruption: 1. Mount Merapi is situated on a destructive plate boundary where the Indo-Australian Plate subducts beneath the Eurasian Plate. 2. The subducting plate melts in the mantle due to intense friction and heat, forming viscous, silica-rich magma. 3. This sticky magma traps volcanic gases under immense pressure until the pressure is explosively released, triggering an eruption. Effects on people and the economy: 1. Pyroclastic flows and volcanic ash caused 353 deaths and displaced over 350,000 residents to temporary camps. 2. Heavy ashfall blanketed agricultural land, burying vegetable crops and rice paddies, leading to immense financial loss for farmers. 3. Local airports, including Yogyakarta airport, were closed for several days due to low visibility and risk of volcanic ash damaging jet engines, heavily disrupting regional trade and tourism.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1-3 marks): Simple statements explaining causes or describing effects (e.g., plates collided, ash covered crops, people died, flights were cancelled).

Level 2 (4-6 marks): Developed statements explaining causes or effects (e.g., subduction of the Indo-Australian plate led to melting of rock into high-viscosity magma which blocked the volcanic vent; volcanic ash smothered rice crops which ruined the harvest and caused severe financial losses for local farmers).

Level 3 (7 marks): Three or more developed statements with a named volcanic eruption and place-specific details (e.g., Mount Merapi, 2010, referring to 353 deaths, 350,000 evacuations, Yogyakarta airport closures, or the Gendol river lahars).

Question 27 · essay

7 marks

For a named area you have studied, explain how tourism has damaged the natural environment.

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Worked solution

Case study example: Boracay Island, Philippines. Environmental damage caused by tourism: 1. Rapid and unregulated construction of hotels and resorts led to the clearance of native forests and wetlands, causing severe habitat destruction. 2. Due to inadequate infrastructure, many tourist establishments discharged raw, untreated sewage directly into the surrounding sea, causing severe water pollution. 3. The high nutrient levels from sewage triggered massive green algae blooms along the white-sand beaches, which blocked sunlight and suffocated local coral reefs. 4. Recreational tourist activities, such as boat anchoring, snorkeling, and diving, physically damaged and broke the fragile coral reefs, disrupting marine ecosystems and reducing fish populations.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1-3 marks): Simple statements describing environmental damage (e.g., trees cut down, raw sewage in the sea, corals are broken, algae grew on the beach).

Level 2 (4-6 marks): Developed statements explaining how tourism causes this damage (e.g., raw sewage from hotels is discharged directly into the sea, which increases nutrient levels and causes algae blooms that suffocate coral reefs; boat anchors dropped directly onto coral reefs physically break them, destroying marine habitats).

Level 3 (7 marks): Three or more developed statements with a named area and place-specific details (e.g., Boracay Island, Philippines, referencing the 2018 closure of the island for rehabilitation, coliform bacteria levels exceeding safe limits, or specific beach areas affected like Bulabog Beach).

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Practice This Topic

Paper 22: Geographical Skills

Answer all questions. You must use the 1:25000 survey map of Stewarton, Scotland, to answer Question 1.

6 Question · 60 marks

Question 1 · Map Skills

20 marks

Answer all parts. You must use the 1:25000 survey map of Stewarton, Scotland, to answer this question. (a) Study the area around Cunninghamhead in the south-western part of the map extract. (i) Identify the type of road that runs through grid square 3841. [1] (ii) State the primary land use shown at grid reference 378415. [1] (iii) Identify the physical water feature found at 383424. [1] (iv) What is the elevation above sea level, in metres, of the spot height at grid reference 391418? [1] (b) Find the church with a tower/spire in Stewarton at 418459 and the bridge at Cunninghamhead at 382417. (i) Measure the straight-line distance between these two points in kilometres. [1] (ii) What is the compass direction from the Cunninghamhead bridge to the church in Stewarton? [1] (iii) State the six-figure grid reference for the monument/cairn located near the hilltop at 398431. [1] (c) Identify three tourist or leisure facilities shown on the map extract. [3] (d) Figure 1.2 represents a topographic profile along northing 440 from easting 380 to easting 410. (i) Identify the linear transport feature crossed at 395440. [1] (ii) Identify the water feature crossed at 384440. [1] (iii) Describe the general trend in elevation from west to east along northing 440. [1] (e) Describe and explain the pattern and distribution of the rural settlements shown on the map extract. Do not refer to the towns of Dunlop and Stewarton in your answer. [7]

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Worked solution

(a) (i) Looking at grid square 3841, the road symbol represents an "Other road" or a road generally less than 4m wide. (ii) The green pattern at 378415 represents coniferous trees / coniferous forest. (iii) The blue line at 383424 represents a river, stream, or burn. (iv) The spot height at 391418 shows 135 metres. (b) (i) Measuring with a ruler and using the scale of 1:25000 (4cm to 1km), the distance is 5.5 km. (ii) Looking from Cunninghamhead to Stewarton, the direction is North-east (NE). (iii) The six-figure grid reference is determined by easting 398 and northing 431, giving 398431. (c) Tourist facilities on this map extract include picnic sites, viewpoints, a golf course, the remains of a castle, hotels, caravan sites, and public houses. (d) (i) The railway line crosses northing 440 at easting 395. (ii) A river/burn crosses at easting 384. (iii) The elevation starts lower in the west (approx. 70m) and climbs towards the east (approx. 140m). (e) The rural settlement is dispersed and scattered throughout the countryside, with small farmsteads built primarily on flatter, low-lying ground (below 150m) and along transport routes (roads/tracks) to ensure ease of building and access to markets, whilst avoiding steep slopes and exposed highland areas.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) Other road / road generally less than 4m wide [1 mark]
(ii) Coniferous woodland / coniferous forest [1 mark]
(iii) River / stream / burn / confluence [1 mark]
(iv) 135 (metres) [1 mark]

(b) (i) 5.5 km (allow 5.3 km to 5.7 km) [1 mark]
(ii) North-east / NE (allow NE to ENE, or bearing 45 to 55 degrees) [1 mark]
(iii) 398431 (allow 398430 or 399431) [1 mark]

(c) Award 1 mark for each of three valid tourist facilities: Viewpoint, Picnic site, Castle (remains), Golf course, Public house, Hotel, Caravan site [3 marks]

(d) (i) Railway / railway line / train track [1 mark]
(ii) River / stream / burn [1 mark]
(iii) Elevation generally increases / land rises from west to east [1 mark]

(e) Award up to 7 marks total, with a maximum of 4 marks for description and a maximum of 4 marks for explanation.

Description points:
- Sparsely populated / scattered / dispersed / unevenly distributed [1]
- Farmsteads / hamlets / small clusters [1]
- Mainly on lower slopes / valley floors / below 150m [1]
- Linear arrangement along roads/tracks [1]
- Absent/low density on high hilltops / steep ground [1]

Explanation points:
- Built on gentle slopes/flat land because it is easier to construct on [1]
- Built near roads/tracks to provide access to main towns/services [1]
- Sited near watercourses (burns/rivers) for water supply / irrigation [1]
- Sited on lower elevations to avoid exposure to cold/wind on hilltops / better soil fertility [1]

Question 2 · Structured Skills Questions

8 marks

Answer all questions. You must use the 1:25000 survey map of Stewarton, Scotland, to answer Question 1. (a)(i) Identify the type of road at grid reference 412485. [1 mark] (a)(ii) State the compass direction of Dunlop station (E) to Stewarton station. [1 mark] (a)(iii) Give the six-figure grid reference for the church at Dunlop (Sch is shown on Fig 1.1). [1 mark] (b)(i) Calculate the actual distance along the road from point A to point B if it measures 5.2 cm on the 1:25000 map. Show your calculations. [2 marks] (c) Describe the physical factors (relief, drainage, slope) that have influenced the location of rural settlements shown on this map. [3 marks]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) B road / minor road. (a)(ii) South-South-East (SSE). (a)(iii) 411494 (or acceptable range 411493 to 411495). (b)(i) 5.2 cm multiplied by 0.25 km per cm equals 1.3 km. Calculation: 5.2 * 25000 / 100000 = 1.3 km. (c) Rural settlements are located on gently sloping land to facilitate construction and farming, close to small streams or water bodies (burns) for water supply, and avoid steep uplands above 150m.

Marking scheme

(a)(i) 1 mark for B road / minor road. (a)(ii) 1 mark for South-South-East / SSE (reject SE). (a)(iii) 1 mark for 411494 (allow 411493 - 411495). (b)(i) 1 mark for calculation method (5.2 cm x 0.25 or 5.2 x 25000), 1 mark for correct answer (1.3 km). (c) 1 mark per valid physical factor described: near water sources/burns; gentle slopes/avoiding steep slopes; lower-lying land/below 150m contours. Max 3 marks.

Question 3 · Structured Skills Questions

8 marks

Study Fig. 2.1, a table showing sediment distribution along a coastal spit. (a)(i) State the average sediment size at the spit tip. [1 mark] (a)(ii) Describe how sediment size changes from the mainland anchor point towards the spit tip. [2 marks] (a)(iii) Suggest how wave energy affects this sediment distribution. [1 mark] (b) Explain how spit features are formed by the processes of longshore drift and deposition. [4 marks]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) Fine sand / 0.5 mm. (a)(ii) The sediment size decreases progressively from large pebbles/shingle at the mainland anchor point to fine sand at the tip. (a)(iii) Stronger waves near the mainland anchor deposit larger, heavier particles, while weaker waves near the sheltered tip deposit smaller, lighter sediment. (b) Prevailing winds blow waves at an oblique angle to the coast, carrying sediment up the beach via swash. Backwash pulls sediment down at a right angle under gravity, creating a zig-zag movement (longshore drift). Where the coastline changes direction, wave energy drops, causing deposition of sediment into the open sea, building up the spit over time.

Marking scheme

(a)(i) 1 mark for fine sand / 0.5 mm. (a)(ii) 2 marks for description: overall decrease in size towards tip (1 mark), transition from pebbles to sand (1 mark). (a)(iii) 1 mark for linking high wave energy to heavy particle deposition or low energy to fine particle deposition. (b) 1 mark for waves approaching at an angle (prevailing wind); 1 mark for swash moving sediment up at an angle and backwash moving it down at a right angle; 1 mark for zig-zag pattern / longshore drift; 1 mark for deposition occurring where the coastline bends/water becomes sheltered. Max 4 marks.

Question 4 · Structured Skills Questions

8 marks

Study Fig. 3.1, a wind rose diagram showing annual wind speed and direction. (a)(i) Identify the prevailing wind direction shown in Fig. 3.1. [1 mark] (a)(ii) State the percentage of time the wind blows from the North (N) with speeds between 5 and 8 m/s. [2 marks] (a)(iii) Identify the wind speed range that occurs most frequently from the South-West (SW). [1 mark] (b) Siting is critical for collecting accurate weather data. Explain why a Stevenson Screen must be placed: (i) in an open space, (ii) on a grass surface. [4 marks]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) South-West (SW). (a)(ii) 4.5 percent (allow 4.3 to 4.7 percent). (a)(iii) 3-5 m/s (blue segment). (b)(i) A Stevenson Screen must be placed in an open space, away from buildings and trees, so that air circulates freely and wind/sunlight is not blocked. This prevents buildings from radiating heat or casting artificial shade onto the thermometer. (b)(ii) It must be placed on grass rather than concrete to avoid the absorption and subsequent reflection/radiation of heat from hard artificial surfaces, which would artificially raise temperature readings.

Marking scheme

(a)(i) 1 mark for South-West / SW. (a)(ii) 2 marks for correct reading (accept 4.3% to 4.7%). (a)(iii) 1 mark for 3-5 m/s. (b) 2 marks for explaining open space: free air circulation (1), avoids shadow/building heat radiation (1). 2 marks for explaining grass surface: avoids absorption/reflection of heat (1), concrete radiates too much heat (1). Max 4 marks.

Question 5 · Structured Skills Questions

8 marks

Study Fig. 4.1, which shows population pyramids for Country A (an LEDC) and Country B (an MEDC). (a)(i) Identify which country has a higher birth rate and describe how the pyramid shape shows this. [2 marks] (a)(ii) State the proportion of the population aged over 65 in Country B compared to Country A. [1 mark] (a)(iii) State how the economically active population group (15-64 years) differs between the two countries. [1 mark] (b) Explain why Country B has a rapidly aging population structure and suggest two economic impacts of this trend. [4 marks]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) Country A has a higher birth rate because it has a very wide base, indicating a large proportion of young children. (a)(ii) Country B has a significantly higher proportion of elderly dependents aged over 65 than Country A. (a)(iii) Country B has a larger percentage of its population in the middle economically active age groups, creating a more barrel-shaped pyramid, whereas Country A has a rapidly tapering shape with fewer working-age adults. (b) Country B's aging population is caused by low birth rates (due to contraception and career-focused women) and high life expectancy (due to advanced healthcare). Economic impacts include increased government spending on pensions/healthcare, and a shortage of active workers.

Marking scheme

(a)(i) 1 mark for Country A, 1 mark for explaining wide base / larger proportion of children. (a)(ii) 1 mark for noting Country B has a larger/higher proportion over 65. (a)(iii) 1 mark for comparing economically active group: Country B has a more stable/higher proportion of adults, Country A's declines rapidly. (b) 1 mark for explaining causes of aging (low birth rates / high life expectancy); 1 mark for each economic impact (labor shortages (1), high cost of pensions/healthcare (1), increased taxation on working population (1)). Max 4 marks.

Question 6 · Structured Skills Questions

8 marks

Study Table 5.1, which shows greenhouse gas emissions (in million metric tonnes of CO2 equivalents) from industrial activities between 2010 and 2022. (a)(i) Identify the year with the highest recorded industrial emissions. [1 mark] (a)(ii) Describe the trend in industrial emissions between 2010 and 2022. [2 marks] (a)(iii) Calculate the percentage increase in emissions from 2010 to 2022. [1 mark] (b) Explain how the release of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases from industrial processes causes global warming. [4 marks]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) 2022. (a)(ii) There is an overall upward trend where emissions steadily increase from 2010 to 2022, with a slight temporary dip or levelling off in 2020. (a)(iii) 25 percent increase (e.g., from 4000 to 5000 million tonnes: (5000-4000)/4000 * 100 = 25%). (b) Burning fossil fuels and industrial manufacturing release carbon dioxide and methane, which build up in the atmosphere, forming a thick layer. Short-wave solar radiation passes through this layer to warm the Earth. However, the outgoing long-wave infrared radiation reflected from the Earth's surface is trapped by these greenhouse gases and reflected back to Earth, heating up the global temperature.

Marking scheme

(a)(i) 1 mark for 2022. (a)(ii) 2 marks for describing trend: overall increase/growth (1 mark), mention of temporary dip/fluctuation in 2020 (1 mark). (a)(iii) 1 mark for correct calculation (e.g., 25% or matching calculation from data). (b) 1 mark for identifying greenhouse gases building up/forming a layer; 1 mark for noting that short-wave radiation passes through; 1 mark for explaining that outgoing long-wave radiation is absorbed/trapped; 1 mark for stating heat is reflected back to Earth's surface. Max 4 marks.

Paper 42: Alternative to Coursework

Answer all questions. The paper tests your knowledge of fieldwork techniques and data analysis.

2 Question · 60 marks

Question 1 · Fieldwork Analysis (Coastal Processes)

30 marks

### Sheringham Beach Fieldwork Investigation

Students from a local school investigated coastal processes and the impact of beach management at Sheringham Beach. They selected two sites for their study:
- **Site A**: Located on the updrift (west) side of a newly constructed wooden groyne.
- **Site B**: Located on the downdrift (east) side of the groyne.

They investigated two main hypotheses:
- **Hypothesis 1**: *The beach profile on the updrift side of the groyne (Site A) is steeper than on the downdrift side (Site B).*
- **Hypothesis 2**: *The average pebble size decreases along the beach from west to east due to longshore drift.*

---

#### **(a)** Fieldwork Hazards and Safety
**(i)** Identify **two** potential physical hazards when conducting fieldwork on a shingle/pebble beach and suggest **one** sensible safety precaution that students should take to reduce the risk of each hazard. (4 marks)

#### **(b)** Beach Profile Methodology
**(i)** Describe how the students would use a tape measure, ranging poles, and a clinometer to measure a beach profile along a transect. (5 marks)

#### **(c)** Analyzing Beach Profiles
To test **Hypothesis 1**, the students measured the slope angle at 2-metre intervals from the low-water mark to the back of the beach. Their results are shown in **Table 1.1** below.

##### **Table 1.1: Slope Angle Measurements (degrees)**
| Distance Interval (m) | Site A (Updrift Side) | Site B (Downdrift Side) |
| :--- | :--- | :--- |
| 0–2 m | $ 8^\circ $ | $ 4^\circ $ |
| 2–4 m | $ 11^\circ $ | $ 5^\circ $ |
| 4–6 m | $ 9^\circ $ | $ 5^\circ $ |
| 6–8 m | $ 6^\circ $ | $ 3^\circ $ |
| 8–10 m | $ 4^\circ $ | $ 2^\circ $ |

**(i)** Calculate the average slope angle for **Site A**. You must show your working. (2 marks)

**(ii)** What conclusion can be drawn regarding **Hypothesis 1**: *The beach profile on the updrift side of the groyne (Site A) is steeper than on the downdrift side (Site B)*? Support your decision with specific data from **Table 1.1**. (4 marks)

#### **(d)** Sediment Sampling Design
To investigate **Hypothesis 2**, the students collected pebble samples along a 100-metre transect starting from the west (0m) to the east (100m).

**(i)** The students chose to collect a pebble every 10 metres along the transect (systematic sampling) rather than choosing pebbles randomly. Explain **two** advantages of using systematic sampling instead of random sampling for this investigation. (3 marks)

#### **(e)** Pebble Size Analysis
At each 10-metre interval, the students measured the long axis of 10 random pebbles. The average pebble sizes (in mm) are shown in **Table 1.2**.

##### **Table 1.2: Average Pebble Size Along the Transect**
| Distance along Transect (m) | 10 | 20 | 30 | 40 | 50 | 60 | 70 | 80 | 90 | 100 |
| :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- |
| **Average Pebble Size (mm)** | 58 | 52 | 49 | 47 | 51 | 42 | 38 | 35 | 31 | 28 |

**(i)** Describe the trend in average pebble size along the transect from 10m to 100m. You must use statistics from **Table 1.2** to support your description. (3 marks)

**(ii)** State whether these results support **Hypothesis 2**: *The average pebble size decreases along the beach from west to east*. Explain your decision, identifying any anomalies. (3 marks)

#### **(f)** Fieldwork Extension
**(i)** Suggest how the students could measure the rate and direction of longshore drift as an extension activity during their visit to Sheringham Beach. (6 marks)

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

### Step-by-Step Solution

#### **(a) Fieldwork Hazards and Safety**
* **Tripping/Slipping**: Rocky/shingle beaches are unstable. Students must wear closed-toe, high-grip footwear.
* **Cold/Wet weather**: Coastal environments are exposed. Students should wear windproof/waterproof clothing.
* **Tidal danger**: Incoming tides can cut off beaches. Fieldwork must be planned to coincide with low tide, and students must check the local tide schedule.

#### **(b) Beach Profile Methodology**
1. Define a straight-line transect from the shoreline to the back of the beach (cliffs/dunes).
2. Place a tape measure along this line.
3. Position ranging poles at breaks of slope.
4. Align the clinometer at a matching height on both poles (e.g., eye level) and read the angle.
5. Record both the angle and distance.

#### **(c) Analyzing Beach Profiles**
* **Site A Average**: $ \frac{8 + 11 + 9 + 6 + 4}{5} = \frac{38}{5} = 7.6^\circ $.
* **Site B Average**: $ \frac{4 + 5 + 5 + 3 + 2}{5} = \frac{19}{5} = 3.8^\circ $.
* **Hypothesis Conclusion**: Hypothesis 1 is fully supported because Site A's average slope is twice as steep ($ 7.6^\circ $) as Site B's ($ 3.8^\circ $), and every paired segment is steeper (e.g., $ 11^\circ $ vs $ 5^\circ $ at 2-4m).

#### **(d) Sediment Sampling Design**
* Systematic sampling at fixed intervals (e.g., every 10m) ensures that the entire length of the beach is sampled unbiasedly. Random sampling could group all samples in one area by chance, missing the spatial gradient along the beach.

#### **(e) Pebble Size Analysis**
* The pebble size drops consistently from west (58mm) to east (28mm). However, a minor anomaly occurs at 50m where the pebble size increases to 51mm, perhaps due to a localized rockfall or a strong wave. Thus, the hypothesis is **generally true**.

#### **(f) Fieldwork Extension (Longshore Drift)**
1. Throw an eco-friendly floating object (such as an orange) into the swash zone.
2. Let it drift for 5 minutes.
3. Measure the linear distance it travelled parallel to the beach using a tape measure.
4. The direction it travelled tells us the direction of longshore drift.
5. Repeating this several times provides a mean speed (distance/time).

Marking scheme

### Detailed Mark Scheme Breakdown (Total: 30 Marks)

#### **(a) Hazards and Safety (Max 4)**
- 1 mark for identifying a valid hazard (up to 2).
- 1 mark for matching a realistic precaution (up to 2).
- *Acceptable hazards*: Slippery rocks, cold exposure, incoming tides, cliff collapse.
- *Reject*: Generic precautions like "stay safe" or "listen to the teacher."

#### **(b) Beach Profile Methodology (Max 5)**
- 1 mark: Lay out tape measure perpendicular to coast / along transect line.
- 1 mark: Place ranging poles at breaks of slope / change of angle.
- 1 mark: Keep poles vertical / push equal depth into sand.
- 1 mark: Hold clinometer at matched height/eye level on the poles.
- 1 mark: Measure distance between poles with tape measure.

#### **(c) Analyzing Beach Profiles (Max 6)**
- **(i)** (2 marks):
- 1 mark for correct working shown: $ (8 + 11 + 9 + 6 + 4) / 5 $ or total $ 38 / 5 $.
- 1 mark for correct calculation: $ 7.6^\circ $.
- **(ii)** (4 marks):
- 1 mark for stating the hypothesis is **completely true / correct**.
- 1 mark for comparing overall averages (Site A $ 7.6^\circ $ vs Site B $ 3.8^\circ $).
- 1 mark for comparing maximum slope angles (Site A $ 11^\circ $ vs Site B $ 5^\circ $).
- 1 mark for stating that Site A is steeper at all measured points (or providing a comparative data point, e.g., at 0-2m Site A is $ 8^\circ $ whereas Site B is only $ 4^\circ $).

#### **(d) Sediment Sampling Design (Max 3)**
- 1 mark: Systematic sampling avoids bias/subjectivity in selecting sample sites.
- 1 mark: It ensures even/equal coverage across the whole 100m distance.
- 1 mark: Faster/easier to carry out on an active beach than plotting random coordinates.

#### **(e) Pebble Size Analysis (Max 6)**
- **(i)** (3 marks):
- 1 mark: Size decreases from west (10m) to east (100m).
- 1 mark: Specific data reference, e.g., size drops from 58mm to 28mm.
- 1 mark: Correct calculation of overall drop (30mm decrease).
- **(ii)** (3 marks):
- 1 mark: Stating the hypothesis is **generally / mostly true**.
- 1 mark: Citing the anomaly at 50m (where size increases to 51mm from 47mm at 40m).
- 1 mark: Explaining that despite the anomaly, the overall pattern is a clear decrease.

#### **(f) Fieldwork Extension (Max 6)**
- 1 mark: Use of a float object (e.g., orange/cork).
- 1 mark: Measure a fixed distance along the beach (e.g., 10m) OR measure distance travelled over a fixed time (e.g., 5 mins).
- 1 mark: Use stopwatch to record time taken.
- 1 mark: Determine direction of movement using a compass or landmark.
- 1 mark: Repeat the process multiple times (minimum 3 times) to get an average.
- 1 mark: Conduct the test at different times / different locations on the beach.

Question 2 · practical

30 marks

Question 1

Students in a rural village near a large sandstone quarry investigated its environmental and economic impacts on the local community. They wanted to test the following hypotheses:

Hypothesis 1: The quarry creates more negative environmental problems than positive economic benefits for the local village.

Hypothesis 2: The level of noise pollution decreases significantly as distance from the quarry increases.

(a) (i) Identify which employment sector quarrying belongs to. [1]

(a) (ii) Suggest two safety precautions the students should take before commencing fieldwork near the active quarry site. [2]

(b) (i) To investigate Hypothesis 1, the students designed a questionnaire for residents. Identify three features of a well-designed, reliable questionnaire. [3]

(b) (ii) The students gathered 80 completed questionnaires. The results for the perceived benefits and problems are shown in Table 1.1 below.

Perceived Benefits
Number of Answers
Perceived Problems
Number of Answers

Provides local jobs
32
Heavy traffic / truck noise
41

Sponsors the village hall
15
Dust on windows and cars
34

Improves local roads
8
Damage to natural landscape
25

Total Benefit Answers
55
Total Problem Answers
100

Describe how the students would complete a divided bar graph to display the benefits of the quarry based on the proportions: Provides local jobs (32), Sponsors the village hall (15), and Improves local roads (8) out of a total of 55 answers. [3]

(b) (iii) What conclusion should the students make regarding Hypothesis 1? Support your answer with evidence and data from Table 1.1. [4]

(c) (i) To investigate Hypothesis 2, the students used a decibel meter app on their mobile phones to measure noise levels at 5 different sites at varying distances from the quarry entrance. Explain how they could ensure their noise measurements were reliable and consistent. [3]

(c) (ii) The noise measurements (in decibels, dB) recorded at different distances (meters, m) are shown in Table 1.2.

Site
Distance from Quarry (m)
Noise Level (dB)

A
50
78

B
150
68

C
300
58

D
500
44

E
800
42

Describe where a student would plot the data point for Site D (500m, 44 dB) on a scatter graph where the x-axis represents distance (0 to 1000m) and the y-axis represents noise level (0 to 90 dB). [1]

(c) (iii) Describe the appearance of a line of best fit drawn on a scatter graph of the data in Table 1.2. [1]

(c) (iv) Does the data in Table 1.2 support Hypothesis 2: The level of noise pollution decreases significantly as distance from the quarry increases? Support your decision with data. [3]

(d) Suggest two ways the quarry owners could reduce the negative environmental impacts (such as noise and dust) on the local village. [4]

(e) The quarry is expected to close in 5 years. Suggest three ways the disused quarry site could be redeveloped to benefit the local community. [5]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i)
Primary sector.

(a) (ii)
1. Wear high-visibility clothing and safety helmets/boots.
2. Keep a safe distance from unstable quarry faces/cliffs and heavy machinery/haul vehicles.

(b) (i)
1. Includes a brief introduction explaining the purpose of the study to the respondent.
2. Uses clear, simple, and unambiguous language that is easy to understand.
3. Offers a mix of closed questions (for easy graphing) and open questions (for detailed opinions).

(b) (ii)
To complete a divided bar graph for a total scale representing 55 answers:
1. The first section ("Provides local jobs") starts at 0 and ends at 32.
2. The second section ("Sponsors the village hall") spans from 32 to 47 (32 + 15).
3. The third section ("Improves local roads") spans from 47 to 55 (47 + 8).
Each section should be shaded differently according to a key.

(b) (iii)
- The hypothesis is true/supported.
- There are significantly more perceived problems (100 responses) than perceived benefits (55 responses).
- The most common single concern is "Heavy traffic / truck noise" with 41 responses, which is higher than the top benefit "Provides local jobs" with 32 responses.
- Over 64% of all registered responses are negative environmental problems (100 out of 155 total responses).

(c) (i)
1. Hold the mobile phone at the exact same height/position (e.g., chest level) at each location.
2. Take readings at the exact same time of day (to avoid changes in ambient wind/village traffic noise).
3. Calibrate the app before testing and take multiple readings at each site to calculate an average.

(c) (ii)
The point should be plotted precisely at the intersection of 500m on the horizontal axis (distance) and 44 dB on the vertical axis (noise level).

(c) (iii)
A straight line sloping downwards from the top-left (high decibels, short distance) towards the bottom-right (low decibels, long distance).

(c) (iv)
- Yes, the hypothesis is supported.
- At 50m from the quarry (Site A), the noise level is very high at 78 dB.
- At 800m from the quarry (Site E), the noise level drops significantly to a quiet level of 42 dB.
- There is a continuous downward trend as distance increases (e.g., Site B at 150m is 68 dB, Site C at 300m is 58 dB).

(d)
- Noise reduction: Erect acoustic fencing/sound barriers or restrict blasting/crushing activities to specific daytime hours only.
- Dust reduction: Spray water on unpaved haul roads to suppress dust, and ensure all loaded transport trucks are covered with tarpaulins.

(e)
- Option 1: Flood the quarry basin to create a recreational lake for watersports, fishing, or a wildlife nature reserve.
- Option 2: Re-grade the steep sandstone walls for rock climbing, ziplining, or an outdoor adventure activity center.
- Option 3: Repurpose the flat quarry floor to build a solar farm/renewable energy installation to power the village community.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) [1 mark]
- Primary (sector).

(a) (ii) [2 marks]
- Wear safety clothing (high-vis vests, hard hats, protective boots) (1)
- Keep clear of cliff edges/quarry faces/slopes (1)
- Be alert to moving heavy vehicles/machinery (1)
- Obtain permission from quarry management/do not enter fenced areas without supervision (1)

(b) (i) [3 marks, any 3 of:]
- Explain the purpose of the study to respondents (1)
- Keep questions simple and unambiguous (1)
- Use a mix of open and closed questions (1)
- Avoid leading or offensive questions (1)
- Keep the questionnaire relatively short (1)

(b) (ii) [3 marks]
- 1 mark for scale conversion / correct segment boundary plotting at 32 (or approx. 58% of bar length).
- 1 mark for plotting second boundary at 47 (or approx. 85% of bar length).
- 1 mark for distinct shading corresponding to a logical key/legend.

(b) (iii) [4 marks]
- 1 mark for decision: Hypothesis is true / supported.
- 1 mark for comparing total problems to total benefits (100 problems vs 55 benefits).
- 1 mark for comparing individual highest values (41 traffic vs 32 jobs).
- 1 mark for proportional/percentage calculations (e.g., 64.5% of responses were problems).

(c) (i) [3 marks]
- Take multiple readings (e.g., 3-5 times) at each site and calculate an average (1)
- Perform all tests at the same time of day to control for extraneous noise (1)
- Hold the phone/device at a standardized height and angle (e.g., chest level, pointing toward quarry) (1)
- Ensure weather conditions (like wind speed) are similar during testing (1)

(c) (ii) [1 mark]
- Accurate plotting at 500m on the x-axis and 44 dB on the y-axis (allow small tolerance).

(c) (iii) [1 mark]
- Negative correlation line drawn descending from top-left to bottom-right, with roughly equal points above and below the line.

(c) (iv) [3 marks]
- 1 mark for decision: Yes / supported.
- 1 mark for paired data showing the overall decrease (e.g., 78 dB at 50m decreases to 42 dB at 800m).
- 1 mark for describing the overall trend (continuous decrease with distance).

(d) [4 marks]
- 1 mark for noise reduction strategy (e.g., building acoustic walls/baffling/restricting blast hours).
- 1 mark for explaining how this noise strategy works.
- 1 mark for dust suppression strategy (e.g., spraying water on roads/covering trucks).
- 1 mark for explaining how this dust strategy works.

(e) [5 marks, max 2 marks for simple lists; 1 mark per well-explained suggestion up to 5 max:]
- Water-based recreation (e.g., flooding the pit for a boating lake, angling, nature reserve) (1) + explanation of community benefit (1)
- Adventure sports park (e.g., rock climbing on cliffs, mountain biking on terraced levels) (1) + explanation of community benefit (1)
- Solar/wind farm on flat sections to provide green energy (1) + explanation of community benefit (1)
- Industrial estate or housing built on reclaimed flat land (1) + explanation of community benefit (1)

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