Cambridge IGCSE · thinka-original Practice Paper

2024 Cambridge IGCSE Geography (0460) Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Jun 2024 (V2) Cambridge IGCSE-Style Mock — Geography (0460)

195 marks285 mins2024
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2024 (V2) Cambridge IGCSE Geography (0460) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

Paper 1 Geographical Themes (P12)

Answer three questions in total, one from each section (Section A: Theme 1, Section B: Theme 2, Section C: Theme 3).
27 Question · 105 marks
Question 1 · Structured Short Answer
3 marks
Describe three ways in which a country can reduce its birth rate.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Countries can successfully lower their birth rates by deploying key social and policy measures. This includes educating young people about family planning, making modern contraception affordable and accessible, and ensuring girls remain in secondary education and have paths to professional careers, which naturally delays marriage and childbearing.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid method described up to 3:
- Sex education / education on family planning / awareness campaigns (1 mark)
- Free or subsidized distribution of contraceptives / family planning clinics (1 mark)
- Enhancing female literacy / keeping girls in school / female career opportunities (1 mark)
- Raising the legal minimum age for marriage (1 mark)
- Anti-natalist policies (e.g., financial penalties or rewards for smaller families) (1 mark)
Question 2 · Structured Short Answer
2 marks
Identify two push factors that cause people to migrate from rural areas to urban areas in LEDCs.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Rural areas in Less Economically Developed Countries often suffer from severe push factors that drive outward migration. Primary among these are the lack of formal, well-paying job opportunities (forcing reliance on unpredictable farming) and poor access to critical services, such as healthcare clinics or schools.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid push factor identified up to 2:
- Low agricultural yields / crop failure / drought (1 mark)
- Unemployment / lack of job opportunities / extremely low wages (1 mark)
- Inadequate healthcare facilities / medical clinics (1 mark)
- Lack of educational facilities / schools (1 mark)
- Poor infrastructure / lack of electricity or piped water (1 mark)
- Natural disasters / local conflict / safety concerns (1 mark)
Note: Do not credit pull factors (e.g., 'better jobs' or 'good schools').
Question 3 · Structured Short Answer
3 marks
Describe three characteristics of a nucleated settlement pattern.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A nucleated settlement pattern is defined by buildings being grouped closely together rather than spread out. This grouping typically develops around a key physical or social focal point, such as a crossroads, a bridge, a church, or a water source, with the cluster of homes surrounded by open rural fields or farmland.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid characteristic described up to 3:
- Houses / buildings are grouped or clustered close together (1 mark)
- Centered around a focal point (e.g., crossroads, church, water source, bridge) (1 mark)
- Surrounded by open space / farmland / undeveloped countryside (1 mark)
- High building density in the core area (1 mark)
- Roads converge on the center of the settlement (1 mark)
Question 4 · Structured Short Answer
2 marks
Suggest two environmental problems caused by rapid urbanisation in LEDC cities.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Unregulated, rapid urbanisation in LEDCs frequently results in serious environmental degradation. Municipalities cannot keep pace with infrastructure, leading to massive water pollution as untreated sewage and chemicals enter local rivers, while increased traffic and unregulated factories release pollutants that cause severe air pollution and smog.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid environmental problem suggested up to 2:
- Air pollution / smog from increased vehicle exhaust and factory emissions (1 mark)
- Water pollution / contamination of rivers from untreated domestic sewage and industrial waste (1 mark)
- Visual pollution / land contamination from uncollected garbage and solid waste heaps (1 mark)
- Loss of biodiversity / habitat destruction due to outward urban sprawl (1 mark)
- Noise pollution from heavy traffic and industrial zones (1 mark)
Note: Do not credit socio-economic problems like housing shortages, crime, or unemployment.
Question 5 · Structured Short Answer
3 marks
Explain how a river transports its load through the processes of saltation, traction, and suspension.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Rivers carry material downstream using different transport modes based on the size of the load. Saltation involves small pebbles and coarse sand bouncing along the river bed. Traction involves heavy rocks and boulders being rolled or dragged along the bed because they are too heavy to lift. Suspension occurs when fine silt and clay particles are kept suspended within the turbulent flow of the water.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each clear process explanation up to 3:
- Traction: Large stones / boulders are rolled, dragged, or pushed along the river bed (1 mark)
- Saltation: Medium-sized pebbles, gravel, or sand grains bounce or hop along the river bed (1 mark)
- Suspension: Light, fine particles of silt and clay are carried or float within the water flow (1 mark)
Question 6 · Structured Short Answer
2 marks
Contrast the characteristics of constructive and destructive waves.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Constructive waves build up beaches because their strong swash deposits sand and sediment, while their weak backwash lacks the energy to pull material back into the sea. In contrast, destructive waves erode beaches because they have a weak swash and a powerful backwash that drags sediment away into the ocean.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid point of contrast up to 2:
- Swash/backwash relationship: Constructive has strong swash and weak backwash, whereas destructive has weak swash and strong backwash (1 mark)
- Wave action: Constructive waves deposit sediment / build beaches, whereas destructive waves erode sediment / destroy beaches (1 mark)
- Wave height and frequency: Constructive waves are low in height / have a lower frequency, whereas destructive waves are high / have a higher frequency (1 mark)
Note: The contrast must be clear to gain full credit.
Question 7 · Structured Short Answer
3 marks
Describe three human inputs required for a commercial arable farming system.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Commercial arable farming relies heavily on human inputs to maximize crop yields and generate profit. These inputs include capital or financial investment to fund operations, chemical applications such as fertilizers and pesticides to boost fertility and control pests, and advanced machinery like tractors and harvesters to maintain high efficiency over large crop areas.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid human input described up to 3:
- Capital / money / financial investment (1 mark)
- Chemical fertilizers / pesticides / herbicides (1 mark)
- Farm machinery / tractors / seed drills / combines (1 mark)
- Skilled labor / farm managers / machine operators (1 mark)
- High-yielding variety (HYV) seeds / genetically modified (GM) seeds (1 mark)
- Transport infrastructure / storage silos / irrigation systems (1 mark)
Note: Do not credit natural or physical inputs such as rainfall, soils, temperature, or relief.
Question 8 · Structured Short Answer
2 marks
Suggest two benefits of constructing a multi-purpose dam on a river.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Building a multi-purpose dam on a major river provides significant developmental advantages. Firstly, it allows for the generation of clean, renewable hydroelectric power (HEP). Secondly, it creates a massive reservoir that ensures a reliable, year-round water supply for household drinking water, manufacturing, and farming irrigation.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid benefit suggested up to 2:
- Generation of renewable hydroelectric power (HEP) (1 mark)
- Flood control / regulation of river flow downstream (1 mark)
- Water storage / reservoir creation for domestic / industrial / agricultural supply (1 mark)
- Recreational opportunities / tourism development (e.g., boating, water sports, fishing) (1 mark)
- Job creation during both construction and long-term maintenance of the dam (1 mark)
Question 9 · structured_short_answer
3 marks
Study the list below, which shows reasons why people migrate internationally.
A: To escape a civil war
B: To seek better-paid employment
C: To join family members who have already moved
D: To escape a volcanic eruption

(i) Identify one push factor from the list that is a human cause.
(ii) Explain the difference between voluntary migration and forced migration, using examples from the list to support your answer.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Part (i):
The push factor from the list that is a human cause is escaping a civil war (A).

Part (ii):
Voluntary migration involves a choice made by free will, typically for economic opportunities or social reasons (e.g., seeking better-paid employment [B] or joining family [C]). Forced migration occurs when people have no choice but to flee their homes due to direct threats to their safety or survival (e.g., escaping a civil war [A] or escaping a volcanic eruption [D]).

Marking scheme

Part (i):
1 mark for correctly identifying A (or 'escaping a civil war').

Part (ii):
1 mark for explaining the difference (voluntary = by choice/free will; forced = no choice/threat to life).
1 mark for using appropriate examples from the list (e.g., B/C for voluntary, A/D for forced).
Question 10 · structured_short_answer
3 marks
Explain three differences between constructive waves and destructive waves.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Constructive waves build up beaches because their swash is stronger than their backwash, meaning they deposit more material than they remove. They also have a low frequency (fewer waves per minute), a low height, and a long wavelength. In contrast, destructive waves erode beaches because their backwash is stronger than their swash, dragging material away. They have a high frequency (more waves per minute), are taller, and have a short wavelength.

Marking scheme

3 @ 1 mark for each clear difference identified:
- Swash vs backwash strength (e.g., constructive swash > backwash; destructive backwash > swash)
- Wave height/frequency (e.g., constructive is low/gentle/low frequency; destructive is high/steep/high frequency)
- Action on beach (e.g., constructive deposits/builds beach; destructive erodes/destroys beach)
Question 11 · structured_short_answer
2 marks
State and explain two ways in which a river transports its load.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Rivers transport material downstream in several ways:
- Traction: Large pebbles and boulders are rolled along the river bed.
- Saltation: Sand-sized particles bounce along the river bed.
- Suspension: Fine silts and clays are held in suspension in the water column and carried along.
- Solution: Dissolved minerals are carried invisibly in solution.

Marking scheme

2 @ 1 mark for identifying and explaining a valid transport method (maximum 2):
- Traction: rolling of large bedload / boulders along the bed.
- Saltation: bouncing of small stones/sand along the bed.
- Suspension: light silt/clay particles carried within the water.
- Solution: dissolved minerals transported chemically in the water.
Question 12 · structured_short_answer
2 marks
Identify and explain one physical input and one human input of an agricultural system.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Agricultural systems rely on both physical and human inputs.
- A physical input is a natural factor, such as precipitation, soil, or temperature. For example, rainfall provides essential moisture for crop growth.
- A human input is a factor provided by people, such as labor, capital, or seeds. For example, capital (money) is required to purchase advanced machinery or chemical fertilizers.

Marking scheme

1 mark for a valid physical input with explanation (e.g., soil/fertile land for crops to root, rainfall/water for growth, temperature/sunlight for photosynthesis).
1 mark for a valid human input with explanation (e.g., labor to plant/harvest crops, capital to buy machinery/fertilizer, fertilizers to improve soil nutrients).
Question 13 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions
4 marks
Explain how push factors in rural areas of Less Economically Developed Countries (LEDCs) can lead to rapid rural-to-urban migration.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In rural areas of LEDCs, agricultural output is often vulnerable to erratic rainfall and pests, leading to low yields and food insecurity. The lack of mechanisation and modern techniques results in hard physical labor with low financial returns, driving people to search for better jobs. Additionally, rural regions typically suffer from a severe deficit of essential services; schools are often basic with limited resources, and clinics may be far away and poorly equipped. Natural disasters like droughts or floods can completely destroy livelihoods overnight, forcing families to move to urban centers in search of survival and stability.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each push factor clearly explained (maximum 4 marks): Low agricultural yields / food insecurity due to pests/drought (1 mark); Lack of job opportunities / low wages / dependence on primary farming (1 mark); Poorly equipped schools / limited access to education (1 mark); Inadequate healthcare services / lack of doctors or clinics (1 mark); Livelihoods vulnerable to natural disasters (e.g., floods, droughts) (1 mark). Note: Do not credit pull factors unless explicitly linked back to the rural deficiency.
Question 14 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions
5 marks
Explain why birth rates remain high in many Less Economically Developed Countries (LEDCs).
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In many LEDCs, birth rates remain elevated due to several interlinked socioeconomic factors. High infant mortality rates prompt parents to have more children to ensure that some survive into adulthood. Children are also seen as economic assets who can work on agricultural lands or earn wages to support the household. Furthermore, there is often a lack of education regarding family planning and restricted access to affordable contraception. Cultural and religious beliefs often encourage large family structures, and the absence of government-supported pensions means parents rely on their children for care and financial security in their old age.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each explained reason (maximum 5 marks): High infant mortality rates (having more children to ensure survival) (1 mark); Need for farm labor / children acting as economic assets (1 mark); Lack of access to or education about contraception / family planning (1 mark); Cultural or religious opposition to artificial contraception (1 mark); Traditional status of women / early marriage leading to longer childbearing years (1 mark); Lack of state pension systems (relying on offspring for security in old age) (1 mark).
Question 15 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions
4 marks
Describe the environmental and social challenges caused by the growth of informal settlements (squatter settlements) in LEDC cities.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The rapid growth of informal settlements poses critical challenges. Socially, the absence of clean drinking water and modern sewage infrastructure leads to the rapid spread of waterborne pathogens, causing diseases like cholera. Overcrowded shelters constructed from flammable scrap materials create high fire hazards, while high unemployment rates can lead to increased crime and gang activity. Environmentally, the lack of municipal waste management results in heavy littering and contamination of local rivers, and settlements built on steep, unstable hillsides are extremely vulnerable to fatal landslides during heavy rains.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each distinct challenge described (maximum 4 marks): Outbreaks of waterborne diseases / cholera due to poor sanitation or lack of sewage disposal (1 mark); High crime rates / safety concerns from lack of formal policing (1 mark); Environmental pollution / river contamination due to uncollected household waste (1 mark); High risk of fires spreading rapidly through poorly spaced, wooden structures (1 mark); Risk of landslides destroying homes built on steep, unstable terrain (1 mark); Overcrowding / lack of privacy in densely packed housing (1 mark).
Question 16 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions
5 marks
Explain how waves erode a cliff face through the processes of hydraulic action and abrasion.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Wave erosion operates through distinct physical processes. Hydraulic action occurs when powerful waves strike a cliff face, trapping and compressing air within joints and cracks in the rock. As the wave retreats, this compressed air expands explosively, putting intense pressure on the surrounding rock, which widens the cracks and causes pieces of rock to break off. Abrasion, or corrasion, happens when waves carry loose boulders, pebbles, and sand, flinging them with high energy against the base of the cliff. This abrasive action acts like sandpaper, continuously scraping, grinding, and wearing away the cliff face.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each detailed point of explanation (maximum 5 marks). Max 3 marks for hydraulic action: Waves trap air inside cracks/joints in the cliff face (1 mark); This air is heavily compressed as the wave hits (1 mark); The sudden release/expansion of air when the wave retreats shatters/weakens the rock (1 mark). Max 3 marks for abrasion: Waves carry sediment / pebbles / rocks (1 mark); This sediment is hurled / thrown against the base of the cliff (1 mark); The impact grinds / scrapes / wears away the rock surface (1 mark).
Question 17 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions
4 marks
Explain how human activities can increase the risk of river flooding within a drainage basin.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Human modifications within a drainage basin significantly escalate flood risk. Urbanisation replaces natural soils and vegetation with impermeable concrete and tarmac, preventing rainwater from infiltrating the ground. This drastically increases the volume and speed of overland flow, directing water rapidly into storm drains and rivers. Additionally, deforestation removes the forest canopy, which otherwise intercepts heavy rainfall, and eliminates root systems that absorb soil moisture. Without trees, less water is transpired, the soil becomes saturated faster, and surface runoff increases, rapidly raising river discharge.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each human activity and its linked effect on flood risk (maximum 4 marks): Urbanisation / building of roads/buildings (1 mark) creates impermeable surfaces that prevent infiltration and increase surface runoff (1 mark); Deforestation / cutting down trees (1 mark) reduces interception and transpiration, leading to rapid water movement into rivers (1 mark); Poor drainage design / narrow storm drains (1 mark) which cannot cope with runoff, backing up water into streets/rivers (1 mark); River channelisation / artificial levees downstream (1 mark) which can increase water speed and transfer flooding problems further downstream (1 mark).
Question 18 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions
5 marks
Explain why people choose to live in areas at risk from volcanic eruptions.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Despite the severe risks, volcanic slopes attract large populations. Volcanic ash and weathered lava release rich minerals like potassium and phosphorus into the soil, creating highly fertile agricultural land that yields abundant crops. Geothermal heat from underground volcanic activity can be harnessed to produce cheap, renewable electricity and heating. Tourism also thrives around dramatic volcanic landscapes, generating substantial employment in hotels, guiding, and restaurants. Furthermore, volcanoes often contain valuable mineral deposits like sulfur, copper, and gold, attracting mining operations. Lastly, many residents cannot afford the high costs of moving, or have strong ancestral ties to the land.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each explained reason (maximum 5 marks): Weathered volcanic ash creates highly fertile soil, leading to high agricultural yields (1 mark); Geothermal energy provides cheap / clean electricity and heating for local communities (1 mark); Volcanic scenery attracts tourists, creating jobs in hospitality and guiding (1 mark); Mining opportunities are available due to rich deposits of sulfur / precious metals / diamonds (1 mark); Poverty / lack of money prevents people from relocating to safer regions (1 mark); Family heritage / emotional ties to the area make residents reluctant to leave (1 mark).
Question 19 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions
4 marks
Explain how physical factors, other than climate change, can cause food shortages in a region.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Food shortages can be triggered by sudden or ongoing physical events. Prolonged droughts dry out soils, leaving crops without the necessary water to mature. Conversely, sudden severe flooding can submerge vast agricultural areas, drowning root systems and causing crops to rot. Biotic factors, such as infestations of pests like desert locusts or crop diseases (e.g., potato blight), can devastate fields of healthy crops in a matter of days. Additionally, intense wind or water erosion can strip away the nutrient-rich topsoil, leaving the remaining land infertile and incapable of supporting future harvests.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each physical factor clearly explained (maximum 4 marks): Prolonged droughts reduce water availability for crop irrigation, leading to crop failure (1 mark); Flooding drowns crops / waterlogs soils / rots root systems before harvest (1 mark); Pest infestations (e.g., locusts) or plant diseases destroy standing crops (1 mark); Severe soil erosion by wind or water washes away the fertile topsoil layer, rendering land unproductive (1 mark); Volcanic eruptions can coat fields in toxic ash, blocking sunlight and killing crops (1 mark).
Question 20 · Descriptive/Explanatory Questions
5 marks
Explain how human and economic factors influence the location of high-tech industries.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

High-tech industries depend heavily on specific locational advantages. They require a highly educated, skilled workforce, which is why they locate near prestigious universities and research institutions to easily recruit graduates. Since high-tech products are lightweight but highly valuable, proximity to international airports and major motorways is vital for rapid global distribution. Governments often offer attractive economic incentives, such as tax breaks or purpose-built science parks, to draw these businesses. Additionally, firms often choose clean, attractive greenfield environments to draw in high-income professional staff, and they cluster together (agglomeration) to share ideas and research.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each human/economic factor clearly explained (maximum 5 marks): Proximity to universities / research institutes to recruit highly skilled labor / graduates (1 mark); Good transport infrastructure (e.g., motorways, international airports) for rapid business travel and shipping of valuable, lightweight goods (1 mark); Government incentives / tax breaks / subsidies / enterprise zones to reduce startup costs (1 mark); Attractive / pleasant greenfield environments to attract and retain highly paid professionals (1 mark); Agglomeration / clustering near similar firms to facilitate the exchange of ideas and access to shared suppliers (1 mark).
Question 21 · Descriptive/Explanatory
5 marks
Explain the strategies a country with a declining population can use to increase its birth rate.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Countries facing a decline in population often introduce pro-natalist policies to encourage couples to have more children. These strategies include: 1. Financial incentives: Direct cash payments or monthly child allowances to help offset the cost of raising children. 2. Subsidised childcare: Setting up free or low-cost state nurseries so parents can return to work. 3. Parental leave: Offering generous paid maternity and paternity leave to make it easier for both parents to balance work and family life. 4. Tax benefits: Reducing income tax rates for families based on the number of children they have. 5. Infrastructure: Developing affordable family-sized housing and providing free public education to reduce the financial burden on larger families.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid strategy explained, up to a maximum of 5 marks. Ideas include: - Direct cash handouts / child benefits to reduce the cost of raising children (1 mark) - Subsidised / free nursery or childcare places to allow parents to return to work (1 mark) - Long / well-paid maternity or paternity leave to support new parents (1 mark) - Tax incentives or exemptions for families with multiple children (1 mark) - Provision of affordable family housing / priority access to state housing (1 mark) - Free education / subsidised schooling (1 mark) - Promoting family values through media campaigns / advertising (1 mark)
Question 22 · Descriptive/Explanatory
4 marks
Explain how a river transports its load.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A river transports material downstream using four distinct processes depending on the size and weight of the load: 1. Traction: The heaviest materials, such as large boulders and rocks, are rolled or pushed along the river bed by the force of the water. 2. Saltation: Medium-sized pebbles and sand grains are bounced along the river bed in a leap-frog motion. 3. Suspension: Fine, light particles of silt and clay are suspended and carried along within the main body of the flowing water. 4. Solution: Soluble minerals, such as calcium carbonate, are dissolved in the water and transported chemically in a completely invisible manner.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each named transport process with an accurate explanation, up to a maximum of 4 marks. - Traction: large stones / boulders rolled along the river bed (1 mark) - Saltation: smaller pebbles / sand grains bounced along the river bed (1 mark) - Suspension: fine sediment / silt / clay carried within the water flow (1 mark) - Solution: dissolved minerals transported chemically in the water (1 mark)
Question 23 · Descriptive/Explanatory
5 marks
Explain how human factors can cause food shortages in LEDCs.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Several human and socio-economic factors contribute to food shortages in Less Economically Developed Countries (LEDCs): 1. War and conflict: Ongoing civil wars disrupt farming activities, destroy standing crops, and prevent the distribution of food aid to needy regions. 2. Poverty: Poor farmers cannot afford essential inputs like high-yield seeds, chemical fertilisers, or modern irrigation equipment, leading to low crop yields. 3. Poor transport infrastructure: Inadequate road and rail networks mean that food produced in rural areas cannot reach urban markets quickly, causing much of it to spoil. 4. Overpopulation: Rapid population growth can cause the demand for food to exceed the capacity of local agriculture. 5. Focus on export crops: Governments or private landowners may prioritize growing non-food cash crops (like tobacco or cotton) for export to gain foreign currency, reducing the land available for domestic food production.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid human factor explained, up to a maximum of 5 marks. - War / civil conflict: destroys crops, prevents farming, disrupts food distribution (1 mark) - Poverty / lack of money: farmers cannot afford fertilisers, high-yield seeds, or irrigation (1 mark) - Poor transport / infrastructure: food rots on roads before reaching markets (1 mark) - Rapid population growth: demand exceeds local food supply (1 mark) - Focus on cash crops: land is used to grow crops for export rather than food for local consumption (1 mark) - Poor storage facilities: crops are ruined by pests, insects, or mould (1 mark) - Political corruption / government mismanagement: failure to distribute food aid or support farmers (1 mark)
Question 24 · Descriptive/Explanatory
4 marks
Describe the characteristics of squatter settlements in LEDC cities.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Squatter settlements, also known as slums or shantytowns, are unplanned residential areas with the following characteristics: 1. Poor building materials: Dwellings are constructed using whatever cheap or discarded materials are available, such as corrugated iron, timber, plastic sheeting, and cardboard. 2. Lack of basic services: There is typically no clean piped water, electricity, refuse collection, or proper sewage disposal, leading to open sewers and poor hygiene. 3. Overcrowding and high density: Houses are built extremely close together with narrow, winding dirt paths, and many family members often share a single small room. 4. Marginal locations: Because they are illegal and built on unoccupied land, they are often located in hazardous areas such as steep, landslide-prone hillsides, polluted industrial zones, or floodplains.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid characteristic described, up to a maximum of 4 marks. - Houses built of temporary / scrap materials, e.g., corrugated iron, plastic, wood (1 mark) - Lack of basic services / utilities, e.g., no piped water, sewage systems, or electricity (1 mark) - High population / housing density / overcrowding (1 mark) - Unplanned layout / narrow, unpaved streets (1 mark) - Located on hazardous / marginal land, e.g., steep slopes, floodplains (1 mark) - High rates of disease / poor sanitation / open sewers (1 mark) - Informal employment is dominant / high unemployment (1 mark)
Question 25 · Case Study
7 marks
For a named country you have studied, explain why it has a high birth rate.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In Niger, a country in West Africa, the birth rate remains exceptionally high at around 46 births per 1000 people. One major cause is the dominant agrarian economy, where children are viewed as economic assets to assist families with subsistence farming and livestock herding. Additionally, infant mortality rates are high (around 44 deaths per 1000 live births), prompting families to have more children to guarantee that some survive to support parents in old age. Cultural traditions also play a significant role, with early marriages being commonplace; many girls marry before the age of 18, which extends their reproductive window. Finally, there is limited access to family planning and modern contraception, particularly in remote rural regions like Maradi, where social and religious norms strongly favor large families.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1–3 marks): Simple statements explaining why a country has a high birth rate.
- E.g., they need children to work; lack of family planning; high infant mortality.

Level 2 (4–6 marks): Developed explanation of the causes of high birth rates with a named country.
- E.g., many families rely on subsistence agriculture, so children are needed as free labor to work on farms; high infant mortality causes parents to have more children to ensure some survive to adulthood to look after them in old age.

Level 3 (7 marks): Comprehensive explanation with three or more developed points, including place-specific details for a named country (such as specific statistics, named rural regions, or cultural practices in Niger).
Question 26 · Case Study
7 marks
For a named volcanic eruption you have studied, explain the causes and describe the effects on people.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The eruption of Mount Pinatubo in the Philippines in June 1991 was caused by the subduction of the oceanic Philippine Mobile Belt underneath the Eurasian Plate at a destructive plate boundary. The sinking crust melted, creating a highly viscous dacitic magma that trapped gases and built up extreme pressure until a violent plinian eruption occurred. The effects on people were devastating, resulting in over 800 deaths, mostly from collapsing roofs weighed down by heavy, wet volcanic ash when Typhoon Yunya collided with the eruption cloud. Volcanic mudflows (lahars) swept down river valleys, destroying villages and agricultural land. Tens of thousands of indigenous Aeta people were permanently displaced from their ancestral homes on the slopes of the volcano, experiencing severe disruption to their livelihoods in resettlement camps.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1–3 marks): Simple statements explaining the cause or describing the effects of a volcanic eruption.
- E.g., plates collided; volcanic ash fell; roofs collapsed; people died.

Level 2 (4–6 marks): Developed explanation of the volcanic cause and description of the effects on people, with a named volcano.
- E.g., the subduction of the oceanic plate created viscous magma that blocked the volcanic vent, building up explosive pressure; heavy volcanic ash mixed with typhoon rains, causing roofs of homes to collapse and kill residents.

Level 3 (7 marks): Detailed, comprehensive explanation and description with three or more developed points, including place-specific details of the named volcanic eruption (e.g., subduction zone details, Typhoon Yunya, Aeta people, specific death toll of over 800).
Question 27 · Case Study
7 marks
For a named area you have studied where tourism is important, explain how it has led to both positive and negative impacts on the local people.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In Zanzibar, Tanzania, the expansion of international tourism has had a mixture of positive and negative socio-economic impacts on local people. Positively, tourism has generated vital direct employment for local communities in coastal resorts, such as Breezes Beach Club in Bwejuu, as well as indirect jobs for local boat operators and Spice Farm tour guides. This income has funded infrastructural upgrades, including the tarmac road linking Stone Town to the east coast. Negatively, the high water consumption of luxury hotels has depleted local freshwater aquifers, causing severe water shortages for domestic use and farming in villages like Kiwengwa. Cultural friction has also developed, as tourist behavior and dress clash with the conservative values of the predominantly Muslim local population, while some beach areas have been privatized, restricting local fishermen's access.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1–3 marks): Simple statements describing positive or negative impacts of tourism on local people.
- E.g., tourists bring money and jobs; it causes water shortages; local culture is threatened.

Level 2 (4–6 marks): Developed explanation of both positive and negative impacts with a named area.
- E.g., tourism creates employment opportunities in hotels, raising incomes and living standards; however, hotels use vast amounts of water, leading to shortages for local farmers who cannot grow their crops.

Level 3 (7 marks): Comprehensive, balanced explanation of both positive and negative impacts with at least three developed points (including at least one positive and one negative), including place-specific details for a named destination (e.g., Zanzibar, Breezes Beach Club, Kiwengwa, Stone Town).

Ready to test yourself?

Turn these notes into exam-style practice. Get unlimited AI questions on this topic with instant marking and explanations.

Practice This Topic

Paper 2 Geographical Skills (P22)

Answer all questions. You must use the 1:25000 survey map extract provided to complete the first question.
6 Question · 60 marks
Question 1 · Mapwork and Topography Analysis
20 marks

Question 1: Mapwork (Glencree Valley, Ireland)

Study the 1:25000 survey map extract of the Glencree Valley area, Ireland. Using the map extract, answer the following questions.

(a) Fig. 1.1 shows a simplified sketch outline of several features in the north-east portion of the map extract (grid squares 4481 and 4581).

Using the map extract, identify the following features shown on Fig. 1.1:

  • (i) The name of the primary river running through valley A. [1]
  • (ii) The nature of linear transport feature B. [1]
  • (iii) The type of woodland shown at C. [1]
  • (iv) The height above sea level of the spot height at D. [1]

(b) Study the two 1 km square areas: Square 4180 (Ballymore) and Square 4381 (Clonree). Complete the comparison table below by placing a tick (✓) in the correct box for each row to indicate where the feature is found. Use only one tick for each row.

FeatureOnly in Square 4180 (Ballymore)Only in Square 4381 (Clonree)In both of these squaresIn neither of these squaresCaravan camping siteDeciduous forestNational primary roadRelief is mostly flat (slope < 5°)Public telephone facility

[5]


(c) Locate the single-track railway line running across the valley floor from west to east.

  • (i) What is the distance along the railway line from the western margin of the map extract to Glencree railway station (at grid reference 412803)? Give your answer in metres. [1]
  • (ii) Measure the grid bearing from where the railway line intersects the western edge of the map to the centre of Glencree railway station. [1]
  • (iii) Give the six-figure grid reference of the level crossing where the R115 regional road crosses the railway, situated approximately 400m west of the station. [1]

(d) Fig. 1.4 represents a cross-section along northing line 82, from 400820 to 430820, through Lough Dan.

  • (i) Identify the predominant vegetation type at point X (412820). [1]
  • (ii) Describe the physical characteristics of the valley slopes along this cross-section. [2]

(e) Examine the nucleated settlement of Glencree village (grid square 4180).

  • (i) Which of the following factors has most directly influenced the site and growth of this settlement? Select one. (A: Proximity to active peat extraction, B: Bridging point of the Glencree River, C: Protection provided by steep sea cliffs, D: Access to an interstate highway corridor). [1]
  • (ii) Identify which of the following public services is NOT present within grid square 4180 on the map extract. Select one. (A: Post office, B: Place of worship, C: Sports stadium, D: Public telephone). [1]

(f) Analyze grid square 3878 in the south-western quadrant of the map. Which three of the following statements correctly describe the relief and drainage of this square? Select three.

  • 1. The highest elevation in the square exceeds 600 metres.
  • 2. A dendritic pattern of small mountain streams drains to the east.
  • 3. There are extensive areas of active sand dunes.
  • 4. The valley floor contains a wide, flat alluvial floodplain.
  • 5. The terrain is characterized by steep, craggy cliffs and scree slopes.
  • 6. The area contains a small lake or tarn at high elevation.
  • 7. The drainage pattern is entirely artificial, consisting of drainage ditches.

[3]

Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Step-by-step Solution

Part (a)
  • (i) Following the blue flowline labeled in square 4481 reveals the label 'Glencree River'.
  • (ii) The symbol with cross-ties indicates a single-track/narrow-gauge railway line.
  • (iii) The dark green hatch symbol denotes a coniferous forest/plantation.
  • (iv) The spot height marked next to the dot in square 4581 is explicitly labeled 342.
Part (b)
  • Caravan site symbol is located only in square 4180 near Ballymore.
  • Deciduous woodland symbol (light green leafy pattern) is visible in portions of both 4180 and 4381.
  • There are no red/yellow national primary roads on this map extract (only regional R-roads and minor local roads), so 'In neither'.
  • The contours in 4381 are widely spaced, representing flat valley terrain, whereas 4180 has tight contours (steep valley walls).
  • The public telephone symbol (black circle with a phone receiver) is present in both nucleated settlements in both squares.
Part (c)
  • (i) Using a string or ruler edge, measure along the curving line of the railway track from the western border edge to the station symbol. Scaling the measured distance shows it corresponds to exactly 3.25 km, or 3250m (tolerance allowed 3150m to 3350m).
  • (ii) Aligning a protractor center on the intersection point at the western margin and referencing grid north shows a reading of 114 degrees to the station center point.
  • (iii) Locating the crossing symbol 400m west of the station yields coordinates 408 on the Easting scale and 803 on the Northing scale.
Part (d)
  • (i) Point X (412820) falls within the yellow tint zone denoting rough pasture/open heather.
  • (ii) The western slope shows closely spaced contours indicating steep, uniform descent, while the valley basin around Lough Dan is flat before rising gently along spaced contours on the east.
Part (e)
  • (i) The village is centered where the R115 crosses the main river channel via a bridge, highlighting its bridging-point origins (Option B).
  • (ii) There is no circular track or labeled sports stadium symbol in Ballymore, though other services are represented.
Part (f)
  • Analyzing square 3878 reveals contour values rising past 600m in the western portion (Statement 1), blue stream lines flowing downhill to the east (Statement 2), and rock cliff symbols on the upper ridges (Statement 5).

Marking scheme

  • (a)(i) Glencree River [1]
  • (a)(ii) Narrow gauge railway / Single-track railway [1]
  • (a)(iii) Coniferous (plantation / woodland) [1]
  • (a)(iv) 342 (metres) [1]
  • (b) 1 mark per correct row:
    • Row 1: Tick in Column 1 (Only 4180) [1]
    • Row 2: Tick in Column 3 (In both) [1]
    • Row 3: Tick in Column 4 (In neither) [1]
    • Row 4: Tick in Column 2 (Only 4381) [1]
    • Row 5: Tick in Column 3 (In both) [1]
  • (c)(i) 3250m (Allow 3150 to 3350) [1]
  • (c)(ii) 114 degrees (Allow 112 to 116) [1]
  • (c)(iii) 408803 (Allow 407803 to 409803) [1]
  • (d)(i) Gorse / Heather / Heath / Rough pasture [1]
  • (d)(ii) Steep western slope [1]; Gentle eastern slope / flat valley floor [1]
  • (e)(i) B [1]
  • (e)(ii) C [1]
  • (f) Correct choices: 1, 2, 5 (1 mark for each correct selection) [3]
Question 2 · Interpretive Data Questions
8 marks
Study the described information below regarding three grid squares on a 1:25000 scale map of Loch an Eilein, Scotland. Table 1.1: Square 8812 contains coniferous forest, minor road, spot height of 245m, and a footbridge; Square 8912 contains Loch an Eilein (lake), picnic area, and nature trail; Square 9012 contains steep slopes with cliffs, campsite, and contour lines from 300m to 520m. Using this information, answer the following questions: (i) Identify the grid square containing the lake. [1 mark] (ii) Contrast the relief (slopes and elevation) in square 8812 with square 9012. [2 marks] (iii) Name two tourist facilities shown in the described squares. [2 marks] (iv) Calculate the actual distance on the ground in meters if the map distance between the campsite in 9012 and the picnic area in 8912 is 48 mm on the 1:25000 map. Show your calculations. [2 marks] (v) State the general compass direction from the campsite in 9012 to the footbridge in 8812. [1 mark]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(i) Square 8912 is explicitly described as containing Loch an Eilein (the lake). (ii) Square 8812 has a low elevation (245m) and is relatively flat, whereas 9012 has steep slopes with cliffs rising up to 520m. (iii) Picnic area, nature trail, or campsite are acceptable tourist facilities. (iv) Map scale is 1:25000, meaning 1 mm on the map = 25 meters on the ground. \(48\text{ mm} \times 25\text{ m/mm} = 1200\text{ meters}\). (v) Moving from Square 9012 to 8812 is a movement towards the left of the map grid, which is West.

Marking scheme

(i) 1 mark for correct grid square: 8912. (ii) 2 marks: 1 mark for contrast in slopes (steep vs flat), 1 mark for contrast in elevation values. (iii) 2 marks: 1 mark for each identified tourist facility (picnic area, nature trail, or campsite). (iv) 2 marks: 1 mark for correct working (\(48 \times 25\)), 1 mark for correct answer in meters (1200m). (v) 1 mark for correct compass direction: West (or W).
Question 3 · Interpretive Data Questions
8 marks
Study Table 2.1, which shows the population structure of Country X (an LEDC) and Country Y (an MEDC) in 2023. Table 2.1: Age 0-14: Country X (42%), Country Y (16%); Age 15-64: Country X (54%), Country Y (65%); Age 65+: Country X (4%), Country Y (19%). (i) State the percentage of Country Y's population that is in the economically active age range (15-64). [1 mark] (ii) Calculate the total dependency ratio for Country X. Show your calculations. [2 marks] (iii) Describe three differences between the population structures of Country X and Country Y. [3 marks] (iv) Suggest two reasons for the low percentage of the population in the 65+ age group in Country X. [2 marks]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(i) From Table 2.1, the 15-64 cohort for Country Y is 65%. (ii) The formula for dependency ratio is: \(\text{Dependency Ratio} = \frac{\text{Young Dependent (0-14)} + \text{Elderly Dependent (65+)}}{\text{Economically Active (15-64)}} \times 100\). For Country X: \(\frac{42 + 4}{54} \times 100 = \frac{46}{54} \times 100 \approx 85.19\%\). (iii) Direct comparison of the cohorts showing Country X's high youth dependency and Country Y's high elderly dependency. (iv) High death rates and poor access to long-term medical care reduce life expectancy in LEDCs like Country X.

Marking scheme

(i) 1 mark for stating 65%. (ii) 2 marks: 1 mark for correct formula setup/working, 1 mark for correct final calculation (85.19% or 85.2%). (iii) 3 marks: 1 mark for each described comparison (young dependents, active population, elderly dependents). (iv) 2 marks: 1 mark for each valid reason (e.g., low life expectancy, poor healthcare/sanitation, high incidence of infectious disease).
Question 4 · Interpretive Data Questions
8 marks
Study Table 3.1, which shows monthly temperature and precipitation data for Station Z. Table 3.1: Jan: 26°C, 180mm; Feb: 26°C, 150mm; Mar: 27°C, 120mm; Apr: 28°C, 90mm; May: 28°C, 50mm; Jun: 27°C, 20mm; Jul: 26°C, 10mm; Aug: 26°C, 30mm; Sep: 27°C, 80mm; Oct: 27°C, 140mm; Nov: 26°C, 210mm; Dec: 26°C, 230mm. (i) State the month with the lowest precipitation. [1 mark] (ii) Calculate the annual temperature range for Station Z. Show your calculations. [2 marks] (iii) Calculate the total precipitation for the three driest consecutive months (June to August). [2 marks] (iv) Identify the type of climate shown by this data and give one reason for your choice. [2 marks] (v) State which weather instrument is used to measure precipitation. [1 mark]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(i) July has the lowest value of 10mm. (ii) Annual Temp Range = Maximum Temp - Minimum Temp = \(28^\circ\text{C} - 26^\circ\text{C} = 2^\circ\text{C}\). (iii) Driest months are Jun (20mm), Jul (10mm), and Aug (30mm). Total = \(20 + 10 + 30 = 60\text{ mm}\). (iv) Hot temperatures constant above 25°C all year with low range, and high seasonality of rainfall shows a Tropical/Savanna climate. (v) Precipitation is measured using a standard rain gauge.

Marking scheme

(i) 1 mark for July. (ii) 2 marks: 1 mark for correct formula/working, 1 mark for correct value (2°C). (iii) 2 marks: 1 mark for correct addition, 1 mark for correct total (60mm). (iv) 2 marks: 1 mark for correct identification (Tropical / Savanna / Tropical Wet-Dry), 1 mark for valid justification (low temp range, distinct wet and dry seasons). (v) 1 mark for rain gauge.
Question 5 · Interpretive Data Questions
8 marks
Study Table 4.1, which shows storm hydrograph data for River Calder after a 50mm storm event. Table 4.1: Time (Hours): 0, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18; Rainfall (mm): 25, 25, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0; River Discharge (m³/s): 5, 6, 12, 28, 45, 32, 20, 14, 8, 6. (i) State the hour of peak river discharge. [1 mark] (ii) If the peak of the storm rainfall occurred at Hour 2, calculate the lag time of the river. Show your calculations. [2 marks] (iii) Describe the change in river discharge between Hour 8 and Hour 18. [2 marks] (iv) Suggest three physical characteristics of a drainage basin that would lead to a very short lag time. [3 marks]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(i) The maximum discharge is 45 m³/s which is at Hour 8. (ii) Lag time is calculated as Peak Discharge Time - Peak Rainfall Time = \(8\text{ hours} - 2\text{ hours} = 6\text{ hours}\). (iii) Discharge drops from its peak of 45 down to 6 m³/s, showing a rapid falling limb. (iv) Steep terrain accelerates runoff; impermeable soils prevent infiltration; low vegetation means minimal interception, all shortening lag time.

Marking scheme

(i) 1 mark for Hour 8. (ii) 2 marks: 1 mark for showing correct subtraction (8 - 2), 1 mark for correct answer (6 hours). (iii) 2 marks: 1 mark for recognizing a decrease/falling limb, 1 mark for using data values (45 m³/s to 6 m³/s). (iv) 3 marks: 1 mark for each valid physical factor (e.g., steep slopes, impermeable rock/soil, saturated ground, high drainage density, circular basin shape, lack of forest cover).
Question 6 · Interpretive Data Questions
8 marks
Study Table 5.1, which shows carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions per capita (in tonnes per person) for four countries in 2000 and 2020. Table 5.1: Germany: 10.2 (in 2000), 7.7 (in 2020); China: 2.7 (in 2000), 7.6 (in 2020); India: 0.9 (in 2000), 1.8 (in 2020); USA: 20.1 (in 2000), 14.2 (in 2020). (i) Identify the country that had the largest increase in carbon emissions per capita between 2000 and 2020. [1 mark] (ii) Compare the carbon emissions per capita of India and the USA in 2020. [2 marks] (iii) Describe the general trend in carbon emissions for Germany and the USA over the 20-year period. [2 marks] (iv) Suggest three reasons why economically developed countries like Germany and the USA have reduced their per capita carbon dioxide emissions since 2000. [3 marks]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(i) China's per capita emissions grew from 2.7 to 7.6 tonnes (an increase of 4.9 tonnes). Germany and the USA decreased, and India only increased by 0.9 tonnes. (ii) Direct comparison showing the disparity: India is at 1.8 tonnes per capita vs USA's 14.2 tonnes per capita. (iii) Both countries show a clear downward trend in emissions over this period. (iv) Developed nations have transitioned from coal-fired power plants to wind/solar, introduced energy conservation codes, and outsourced carbon-intensive manufacturing overseas.

Marking scheme

(i) 1 mark for China. (ii) 2 marks: 1 mark for stating that USA is much higher than India, 1 mark for referencing specific statistics from the table (14.2 vs 1.8 tonnes). (iii) 2 marks: 1 mark for stating that both decreased, 1 mark for supporting with numbers for at least one country. (iv) 3 marks: 1 mark for each valid reason (e.g., transition to renewable energy sources, energy efficiency legislation, industrial decline/deindustrialisation, adoption of electric vehicles, international climate treaties).

Paper 4 Alternative to Coursework (P42)

Answer all questions. Complete the graphs and calculations using the data provided in the insert.
2 Question · 60 marks
Question 1 · written
30 marks
Answer all questions. Complete the graphs and calculations using the data provided in the insert (scenario description below).

### **Question 1**

Students from a school in Wales conducted a river fieldwork investigation on the River Conwy. They wanted to investigate how river channel characteristics change from the source downstream. They chose four sites along the river: Site 1 (1.5 km downstream), Site 2 (5.0 km downstream), Site 3 (12.0 km downstream), and Site 4 (22.0 km downstream).

They investigated two hypotheses:
* **Hypothesis 1:** *River velocity increases as distance downstream increases.*
* **Hypothesis 2:** *Bedload pebbles become rounder and smaller as distance downstream increases.*

**Table 1.1: Average results of river velocity measurements**
* Site 1 (1.5 km downstream): 0.22 m/s
* Site 2 (5.0 km downstream): 0.45 m/s
* Site 3 (12.0 km downstream): 0.58 m/s
* Site 4 (22.0 km downstream): 0.72 m/s

**Table 1.2: Average bedload size and roundness**
*(Power's Scale of Roundness: 1 = Very Angular, 6 = Well Rounded)*
* Site 1: Average pebble diameter = 18.5 cm; Average roundness score = 1.8
* Site 2: Average pebble diameter = 11.2 cm; Average roundness score = 2.9
* Site 3: Average pebble diameter = 6.4 cm; Average roundness score = 4.2
* Site 4: Average pebble diameter = 2.1 cm; Average roundness score = 5.4

**(a) (i)** Identify one potential safety hazard when conducting fieldwork in a river channel, and explain how the students can manage this risk. [2]

**(ii)** Name the instrument that is commonly used to measure river velocity electronically. [1]

**(b) (i)** Describe a systematic sampling method the students could use to select 20 bedload pebbles from the river bed at each site. [3]

**(ii)** Describe how the students would measure the diameter of the selected pebbles and assess their roundness using a visual roundness chart. [3]

**(c) (i)** Use the data in Table 1.1 to complete a scatter graph by plotting the velocity for Site 3 (12.0 km downstream, 0.58 m/s). [2]

**(ii)** What conclusion would the students draw regarding Hypothesis 1? Support your answer with evidence from Table 1.1. [4]

**(d) (i)** Complete a pie chart for Site 4 bedload shape using the following percentage distribution data: *Very Angular / Angular = 5%*, *Sub-Angular = 10%*, *Sub-Rounded = 15%*, *Rounded / Well Rounded = 70%*. [2]

**(ii)** Explain the natural physical processes that cause bedload to become smaller and rounder downstream. [3]

**(e) (i)** State three limitations or weaknesses of using the float method (e.g., timing a floating object over 10 meters) to measure river velocity. [3]

**(ii)** Suggest three ways the students could improve the accuracy and reliability of their velocity measurements if they repeated the fieldwork. [3]

**(f)** Describe how the students could measure the cross-sectional area of the river channel to calculate total river discharge. [4]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

**(a) (i)** Hazard: Slippery rocks on the riverbed / Deep, fast-flowing water.
Management: Wear sturdy, non-slip wading boots / Avoid entering water deeper than knee height / Check local weather forecasts and river levels prior to departure.

**(ii)** Flowmeter / Digital impeller.

**(b) (i)** Use a transect tape stretched across the river channel from bank to bank. Select a pebble at regular intervals (e.g., every 50 cm) along the tape. At each interval, reach down blindly with your index finger and select the first pebble that your finger touches to avoid personal bias.

**(ii)** Use a calliper or a standard ruler to measure the longest axis of each pebble in millimetres/centimetres. To assess roundness, visually compare each pebble's profile with a standard visual reference scale (Power's Scale of Roundness) from 1 (Very Angular) to 6 (Well Rounded) and record the matching category.

**(c) (i)** On the scatter graph, the point should be plotted precisely at coordinate (12.0, 0.58), where the horizontal axis represents 'Distance downstream (km)' and the vertical axis represents 'Velocity (m/s)'.

**(ii)** The conclusion is that **Hypothesis 1 is correct/supported**. Velocity consistently increases downstream as the distance from the source increases. For example, at Site 1 (1.5 km downstream) the velocity is 0.22 m/s, which rises to 0.58 m/s at Site 3 (12.0 km downstream) and reaches its maximum of 0.72 m/s at Site 4 (22.0 km downstream).

**(d) (i)** The pie chart sectors must be divided accurately according to the percentage values converted to degrees: 5% = 18°, 10% = 36°, 15% = 54°, and 70% = 252°. Sectors must be drawn in the sequence of the key and shaded appropriately.

**(ii)** The key physical processes are:
- **Attrition:** Bedload particles collide with one another as they are transported, chipping off sharp corners and smoothing the surfaces.
- **Abrasion:** Particles scrape and grind against the rocky river bed and banks, wearing away the load.
- **Corrosion/Solution:** Soluble minerals in the bedload rocks are dissolved by weak acids in the water, reducing rock size over time.

**(e) (i)** Limitations of float method:
- The float only measures the surface velocity, which is faster than the velocity at the bed or sides due to friction.
- The float can get caught in turbulence, eddies, or surface vegetation/debris.
- Human error when starting and stopping the stopwatch manually.

**(e) (ii)** Improvements:
- Repeat the float test 3 to 5 times at each site and calculate a mean average.
- Use a professional flowmeter held at 60% of the river depth for a standard average velocity reading.
- Increase the timing distance (e.g., to 15 or 20 meters) to reduce timing errors.

**(f)** Stretch a tape measure taut across the surface of the channel from bank to bank to measure total width. At regular horizontal intervals (e.g., every 50 cm), lower a vertical measuring rod/meter rule to the riverbed to record depth. Average these depth readings and multiply the average depth by the total width to calculate the cross-sectional area.

Marking scheme

**(a) (i)**
- 1 mark for identifying a valid hazard (e.g., slippery bed, cold water, deep pools, fast currents).
- 1 mark for a corresponding appropriate management strategy.

**(ii)**
- 1 mark for flowmeter, flow probe, or digital impeller (Reject: 'stopwatch' or 'meter rule').

**(b) (i)**
- 1 mark for stretching a tape across the river (transect line).
- 1 mark for sampling at regular/fixed intervals (e.g., every 50 cm).
- 1 mark for avoiding bias (e.g., selecting the pebble at the tip of the boot / 'blind' selection).

**(b) (ii)**
- 1 mark for measuring the longest axis (diameter) using a calliper, pebble meter, or ruler.
- 1 mark for comparing shape with a standard roundness chart / Power's Scale.
- 1 mark for recording category value (1 to 6) and calculating average.

**(c) (i)**
- 1 mark for plotting correctly on the horizontal axis at 12.0 km.
- 1 mark for plotting correctly on the vertical axis at 0.58 m/s.

**(c) (ii)**
- 1 mark for stating that Hypothesis 1 is supported / accepted / true.
- 1 mark for stating that velocity increases downstream.
- 2 marks for supporting paired data comparisons (must include distance and velocity for at least two sites with correct units).

**(d) (i)**
- 1 mark for correct angle boundaries (allow +/- 1 degree tolerance).
- 1 mark for matching shading to the correct key labels.

**(d) (ii)**
- 1 mark for Attrition: particles knocking against each other and rounding off.
- 1 mark for Abrasion: particles rubbing against the bed/banks.
- 1 mark for Solution/Corrosion: soluble rock components dissolving in water.

**(e) (i)**
- 1 mark for float measuring surface speed only (ignores bed/bank friction).
- 1 mark for float getting blocked by rocks, weeds, or debris.
- 1 mark for wind interference affecting surface movement.
- 1 mark for human reaction time errors with stopwatches.
*(Max 3 marks)*

**(e) (ii)**
- 1 mark for repeating the test multiple times and calculating a mean.
- 1 mark for using an electronic flowmeter/propeller.
- 1 mark for measuring in the center of the flow (thalweg) to avoid eddy currents.
*(Max 3 marks)*

**(f)**
- 1 mark for measuring total channel width using a horizontal tape measure.
- 1 mark for taking vertical depth measurements at regular intervals.
- 1 mark for calculating cross-sectional area using formula (width x average depth).
- 1 mark for detail (e.g., keeping tape measure taut, ensuring meter rule is vertical and touches river bed without sinking into silt).
Question 2 · written
30 marks
Answer all questions. Complete the graphs and calculations using the data provided in the insert (scenario description below).

### **Question 2**

Students in Cape Town, South Africa, carried out urban fieldwork to compare living conditions and environmental quality in two residential areas: Rondebosch (a high-income, formal suburb) and Khayelitsha (a low-income suburb with a high proportion of informal housing).

They selected five sites in Rondebosch (Sites R1 to R5) and five sites in Khayelitsha (Sites K1 to K5) to investigate two hypotheses:
* **Hypothesis 1:** *The overall environmental quality is significantly lower in Khayelitsha than in Rondebosch.*
* **Hypothesis 2:** *The percentage of residents who live in informal housing decreases as distance from the nearest public transit hub increases.*

**Table 2.1: Environmental Quality Survey (EQS) scores**
*(Range: -10 to +10, where -10 is extremely poor and +10 is excellent)*
* **Rondebosch:** R1 = +8, R2 = +7, R3 = +9, R4 = +6, R5 = +8 (Average = +7.6)
* **Khayelitsha:** K1 = -4, K2 = -6, K3 = -3, K4 = -5, K5 = -7 (Average = -5.0)

**Table 2.2: Housing type and distance from transit hub in Khayelitsha**
* Site K1 (50 m from hub): Informal housing = 85%, Formal housing = 15%
* Site K2 (200 m from hub): Informal housing = 60%, Formal housing = 40%
* Site K3 (500 m from hub): Informal housing = 45%, Formal housing = 55%
* Site K4 (1000 m from hub): Informal housing = 20%, Formal housing = 80%
* Site K5 (2000 m from hub): Informal housing = 10%, Formal housing = 90%

**(a) (i)** Define the term *informal housing* (squatter settlements). [2]

**(ii)** Describe how the students would carry out an Environmental Quality Survey (EQS) at each site. [4]

**(b) (i)** Complete a bar graph to show the average EQS scores for Rondebosch (+7.6) and Khayelitsha (-5.0). [2]

**(ii)** To what extent does the fieldwork data support Hypothesis 1? Cite specific data from Table 2.1 in your response. [4]

**(c) (i)** The students wanted to interview residents using a questionnaire. Describe how they could use systematic sampling to choose 20 households in each suburb. [3]

**(ii)** State two advantages and one disadvantage of using questionnaires to collect data on living conditions. [3]

**(d) (i)** Complete a divided bar graph for housing types at Site K3 using the data in Table 2.2 (*Informal housing = 45%*, *Formal housing = 55%*). [2]

**(ii)** What conclusion can be drawn regarding Hypothesis 2? Support your answer with data from Table 2.2. [4]

**(e)** Suggest three ways in which city authorities can improve living conditions in informal settlements. [3]

**(f)** Explain how the students could extend their study to investigate how access to services (such as clean water and electricity) differs between the two suburbs. [3]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

**(a) (i)** Informal housing refers to unplanned, self-built shelters constructed from non-standard/scrap materials (such as corrugated iron, timber, or plastic sheeting). These settlements typically lack legal land tenure, building safety compliance, and access to basic utility services like clean piped water, sewerage systems, and electricity.

**(a) (ii)** The students would first design a standardized scoring matrix evaluating specific environmental factors (e.g., litter, noise levels, quality of roads, green spaces, and air quality). Each factor is rated on a bipolar scale from -2 (negative/poor) to +2 (positive/good). At each of the 5 selected sites within both suburbs, the students spend 10-15 minutes observing the area, reach a group consensus to assign a score for each category, and then calculate the total sum for each site.

**(b) (i)** The bar graph must show two distinct vertical bars. The bar for Rondebosch should rise to +7.6 on the vertical scale. The bar for Khayelitsha must extend downward below the zero line to -5.0 on the vertical scale.

**(b) (ii)** **Hypothesis 1 is fully supported**. The data shows a stark difference in environmental quality between the two suburbs. Rondebosch has a positive average EQS score of +7.6, with individual site scores ranging from +6 (Site R4) to +9 (Site R3). In contrast, Khayelitsha has a negative average score of -5.0, with individual scores ranging from -3 (Site K3) to -7 (Site K5). There is no overlap in scores between the two areas.

**(c) (i)** Choose a starting house on a street randomly (e.g., house number 3). Decide on a fixed sampling interval, such as choosing every 5th or 10th household along the street layout. Walk systematically along the streets of the suburb and knock on the door of only the selected intervals until 20 households have been interviewed.

**(c) (ii)**
- **Advantages:** Allows direct collection of primary, up-to-date data directly reflecting residents' opinions; standardizes responses so they can easily be displayed in graphs.
- **Disadvantage:** Low response rates / residents may refuse to participate or supply dishonest answers due to privacy concerns.

**(d) (i)** The divided bar should have a total length representing 100%. A dividing line must be plotted precisely at 45%. The first segment (0% to 45%) represents informal housing, and the second segment (45% to 100%) represents formal housing. Shading or patterns must match the provided key.

**(d) (ii)** **Hypothesis 2 is correct/supported**. As the distance from the nearest public transit hub increases, the percentage of informal housing systematically decreases. For instance, at 50 m from the hub (Site K1), informal housing stands at 85%. This decreases to 45% at 500 m (Site K3) and falls to its lowest level of 10% at a distance of 2000 m (Site K5).

**(e)** City authorities can improve conditions by:
- Setting up site-and-service schemes that install paved roads, clean water mains, and electricity meters.
- Upgrading sanitation by constructing communal flush toilet blocks.
- Providing legal land titles to residents, giving them security of tenure and encouraging self-help home improvements.

**(f)** Students could design a simple survey question asking residents their main source of drinking water and electricity. They could administer this to a representative sample of households in both suburbs. Finally, they could compile and compare the percentages using divided bar charts or comparative pie charts.

Marking scheme

**(a) (i)**
- 1 mark for self-built / poorly constructed dwellings / scrap materials used.
- 1 mark for lacking planning permission / illegal occupancy / lack of basic utilities (water, sanitation, power).

**(a) (ii)**
- 1 mark for choosing specific categories to evaluate (e.g. litter, noise, road condition, air pollution).
- 1 mark for using a bipolar scoring scale (e.g. -2 to +2 / -5 to +5).
- 1 mark for conducting observations directly at the designated fieldwork locations.
- 1 mark for calculating a total composite score/sum for each site.

**(b) (i)**
- 1 mark for drawing the Rondebosch bar accurately at +7.6.
- 1 mark for drawing the Khayelitsha bar accurately downward at -5.0.

**(b) (ii)**
- 1 mark for stating that the hypothesis is fully supported.
- 1 mark for citing Rondebosch's high positive average (+7.6) vs. Khayelitsha's negative average (-5.0).
- 1 mark for contrasting range data (e.g., Rondebosch scores are all positive +6 to +9, while Khayelitsha scores are all negative -3 to -7).
- 1 mark for comparing specific sites (e.g., comparing R3 (+9) to K5 (-7)).

**(c) (i)**
- 1 mark for selecting a random starting point.
- 1 mark for using a regular/fixed pattern or interval (e.g. every 5th house).
- 1 mark for systematically walking down the streets to complete the survey.

**(c) (ii)**
- 1 mark for each advantage (e.g., primary data, directly records views/opinions, standard questions).
- 1 mark for a disadvantage (e.g., bias, refusal to answer, language barriers, time-consuming).
*(Max 3 marks)*

**(d) (i)**
- 1 mark for plotting the division line correctly at 45%.
- 1 mark for applying correct shading/key to both segments.

**(d) (ii)**
- 1 mark for stating that Hypothesis 2 is supported/correct.
- 1 mark for indicating the negative relationship (as distance increases, informal housing decreases).
- 2 marks for paired distance and percentage data from Table 2.2 (e.g., at 50 m informal is 85% but at 2000 m it is only 10%).

**(e)**
- 1 mark for supplying piped clean water / sewerage lines.
- 1 mark for offering security of tenure / legal land ownership certificates.
- 1 mark for assisting with low-cost building materials / self-help schemes.
- 1 mark for providing public trash collection services.
*(Max 3 marks)*

**(f)**
- 1 mark for preparing questionnaire questions on water/electricity access.
- 1 mark for asking a sample of residents in both Rondebosch and Khayelitsha.
- 1 mark for presenting/comparing the percentage of service access using charts.

Wondering how well you actually know this?

thinka is an AI practice app for IGCSE & IB students: unlimited questions, instant auto-marking, and detailed step-by-step solutions. 100,000+ students use it to confirm they actually know it, not just think they do.

Want more questions like this? Practice unlimited on thinka, instant answers included.

Start Practicing Free