Cambridge IGCSE · thinka-original Practice Paper

2024 Cambridge IGCSE Geography (0460) Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Nov 2024 (V1) Cambridge IGCSE-Style Mock — Geography (0460)

195 marks285 mins2024
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Nov 2024 (V1) Cambridge IGCSE Geography (0460) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

Paper 11 Geographical Themes

Answer three questions in total, one from each section (Theme 1: Population and Settlement, Theme 2: The Natural Environment, Theme 3: Economic Development).
33 Question · 96 marks
Question 1 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
In a rapid-growing city of an LEDC, a new informal settlement is established on a steep hill slope. During the monsoon season, this area faces severe hazards. State the primary physical hazard faced by this settlement and suggest one management strategy to reduce this risk.
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Worked solution

Primary Physical Hazard: Landslides, mudslides, or slope collapse due to saturated, unstable soil. Management Strategy: Planting vegetation/trees on the slope (afforestation) to bind the soil, building retaining walls, or constructing proper drainage channels to divert heavy rainwater.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for correctly identifying landslides, mudslides, or mass movement. Award 0.5 marks for a logical and practical management strategy (e.g., retaining walls, terracing, planting vegetation/afforestation, improved drainage channels).
Question 2 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
A climate graph of a tropical rainforest station shows an annual rainfall of 2800 mm and a constant temperature around 27°C throughout the year. Explain why tropical rainforests have high annual rainfall, and state the term used to describe rainfall caused by intense daily heating.
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Worked solution

High Annual Rainfall Explanation: Intense, direct solar heating causes rapid evaporation from water bodies and rapid transpiration from dense tropical vegetation (evapotranspiration). The warm, moist air rises, cools, and condenses to form heavy clouds and rain daily. Term: Convectional rainfall.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for explaining the process of high evapotranspiration, rising air, cooling, and condensation. Award 0.5 marks for stating 'Convectional' rainfall.
Question 3 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
A river flows over a vertical step of resistant granite overlying softer shale. Name the landform created at this step and state the erosional process that forms a deep basin at its base.
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Worked solution

Landform: A waterfall. Erosional Process: Hydraulic action (the force of water trapping air in cracks and weakening the rock) or abrasion/corrasion (the wearing away of the river bed by load carried in the water) creates the deep plunge pool at the base.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying the waterfall. Award 0.5 marks for naming hydraulic action or abrasion (corrasion) as the key erosional process forming the plunge pool.
Question 4 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
Along a coastline, longshore drift transports beach material until the shoreline abruptly changes direction, leading to deposition. State the name of the depositional landform that extends out across an estuary from the headland, and explain how the spit's curved end is formed.
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Worked solution

Landform: A spit (or sand spit). Curved End Formation: The curved or hooked end is created when waves are refracted around the tip of the spit, or when temporary/seasonal changes in the prevailing wind and wave direction carry material further inward.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying the spit. Award 0.5 marks for explaining that the curved end is caused by wave refraction or changes in the wind/wave direction.
Question 5 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
Country X has an HDI value of 0.450 and Country Y has an HDI value of 0.890. Classify each country's level of development based on these values, and identify which country is likely to have a lower infant mortality rate.
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Worked solution

Classification: Country X is classified as Low Human Development, while Country Y is classified as Very High Human Development. Infant Mortality Rate: Country Y is highly likely to have a lower infant mortality rate because of its superior healthcare facilities, access to vaccines, clean water, and higher education levels.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for classifying both countries correctly (0.5 marks for Country X as low and 0.5 marks for Country Y as high/very high development). Award 0.5 marks for identifying Country Y as having the lower infant mortality rate.
Question 6 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
Eco-tourism is growing rapidly in fragile natural areas. Describe how eco-tourism differs from mass tourism, and suggest one way eco-tourism benefits local communities economically.
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Worked solution

Difference: Eco-tourism is small-scale, educational, and managed sustainably to minimize environmental impact, whereas mass tourism is large-scale, high-density, and often causes substantial environmental pressure. Economic Benefit: It provides direct employment and business opportunities for locals (e.g., local guides, guesthouses, handicraft sellers) rather than profits leaking to large multinational corporations.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for contrasting the environmental focus or scale of eco-tourism versus mass tourism. Award 0.5 marks for identifying a valid economic benefit for local people (e.g., job creation, local sourcing, funding for community development).
Question 7 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
A population pyramid with a very wide base and a rapidly tapering top represents a specific type of population structure. Identify the demographic stage of this population and explain what the wide base indicates about the country's birth rate.
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Worked solution

Demographic Stage: Stage 2 of the Demographic Transition Model (expanding, typical of an LEDC with a youthful population). Wide Base Explanation: The wide base indicates a high birth rate, meaning a large proportion of the population consists of young children and dependents.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying Stage 2 (or LEDC / expanding population pyramid). Award 0.5 marks for explaining that the wide base represents a high birth rate.
Question 8 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
At a destructive plate boundary, oceanic crust is subducted beneath continental crust. State the name of the deep feature formed where the oceanic plate begins to descend, and explain why earthquakes occur at this zone.
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Worked solution

Deep Feature: A deep ocean trench. Why Earthquakes Occur: As the oceanic plate descends under the continental plate, high friction causes the plates to become locked. Stress and pressure build up over time until the rocks suddenly slip, releasing massive energy as seismic waves.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for naming 'deep ocean trench' or 'subduction trench'. Award 0.5 marks for explaining that earthquakes are caused by friction, sticking plates, and the sudden release of built-up pressure/stress.
Question 9 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
Study the following statistics showing the dependency ratios of three hypothetical countries: Country X: 35%, Country Y: 55%, Country Z: 75%. (i) Identify which country has the highest proportion of its population in the working-age group (economically active). [0.5] (ii) State two potential economic challenges faced by Country Z due to its dependency ratio. [1.0]
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Worked solution

(i) A lower dependency ratio means fewer dependents (young and old) relative to the working-age population. Thus, Country X (35%) has the highest proportion of economically active citizens. (ii) Country Z (75%) has a high dependent population relative to workers, leading to increased government spending on services like healthcare and pensions, and a smaller labor force which reduces tax revenues.

Marking scheme

(i) 0.5 marks for Country X. (ii) 1.0 mark (2 points at 0.5 marks each) for stating challenges: High public spending on pensions/healthcare/elderly services, smaller workforce/shortage of labor, lower income tax revenue, or higher tax burden on workers.
Question 10 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
In many rapidly growing cities in Less Economically Developed Countries (LEDCs), high rates of rural-to-urban migration lead to the growth of informal settlements. (i) Name one specific informal settlement you have studied. [0.5] (ii) Describe two distinct physical characteristics of the housing typically found in these informal settlements. [1.0]
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Worked solution

(i) Accept any studied informal settlement, such as Dharavi in Mumbai, Kibera in Nairobi, or Rocinha in Rio de Janeiro. (ii) Housing is built using scrap or non-durable materials due to poverty, and limited space results in extremely high density where dwellings are packed together, often sharing walls.

Marking scheme

(i) 0.5 marks for a valid named example of an informal settlement. Do not accept general country or city names alone unless a specific settlement is named. (ii) 1.0 mark (2 points at 0.5 marks each) for describing characteristics: Built from scrap/makeshift/corrugated iron materials, small/single-room size, densely packed/crowded, or structurally unstable.
Question 11 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
A river's load is transported downstream through several distinct processes. (i) Identify the transport process where small, fine particles are carried along within the main body of the river water without touching the river bed. [0.5] (ii) Describe the difference between 'traction' and 'saltation' as river transport processes. [1.0]
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Worked solution

(i) Suspension is the process where fine materials like silt are carried in the water flow. (ii) In traction, the largest boulders roll along the bed because they are too heavy to lift. In saltation, small pebbles bounce along the river bed as they are briefly picked up and dropped by the turbulent water.

Marking scheme

(i) 0.5 marks for 'Suspension'. (ii) 1.0 mark (2 points at 0.5 marks each) for comparing: Traction involves rolling/sliding of large stones on the bed; Saltation involves bouncing/hopping of smaller sediment.
Question 12 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
Spits are depositional coastal landforms that develop where the coastline changes direction. (i) Identify the primary process of coastal transportation responsible for moving sediment along the coastline to form a spit. [0.5] (ii) State two conditions required for a spit to develop. [1.0]
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Worked solution

(i) Longshore drift moves sand along the beach. (ii) Spits require a change in coastline shape (like a bay or river estuary) where waves lose energy in the shallower, sheltered water, causing them to deposit their sediment load.

Marking scheme

(i) 0.5 marks for 'Longshore drift'. (ii) 1.0 mark (2 points at 0.5 marks each) for stating conditions: Change in coastline direction/shape, shallow water, sheltered area/low wave energy, or abundant supply of sediment.
Question 13 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
Volcanoes occur at different plate boundaries. (i) Name the type of plate boundary where tectonic plates pull apart, allowing magma to rise to the surface and form shield volcanoes. [0.5] (ii) State two features of a shield volcano. [1.0]
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Worked solution

(i) Tectonic plates pull apart at divergent boundaries, allowing basaltic magma to escape. (ii) Shield volcanoes have gentle slopes because the fluid basaltic lava flows long distances before cooling. This creates a wide, flat profile.

Marking scheme

(i) 0.5 marks for 'Divergent' or 'Constructive' plate boundary. (ii) 1.0 mark (2 points at 0.5 marks each) for features: Wide base, gently sloping sides, constructed of basaltic/runny/fluid lava, or non-explosive/effusive eruptions.
Question 14 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index used to measure development. (i) Identify one demographic indicator included in the calculation of HDI. [0.5] (ii) Explain why using a composite index like HDI is a more accurate measure of development than using a single economic indicator like GDP per capita. [1.0]
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Worked solution

(i) HDI uses life expectancy at birth to measure the health dimension of development. (ii) GDP per capita only measures average income, which can hide extreme inequalities and ignores human development. HDI combines wealth with schooling years and life expectancy, representing actual living standards more accurately.

Marking scheme

(i) 0.5 marks for 'Life expectancy at birth' (or 'life expectancy'). (ii) 1.0 mark (2 points at 0.5 marks each) for explanation: HDI includes social factors (education and health) which reflect quality of life directly; GDP per capita fails to show income inequality or access to essential public services.
Question 15 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
Farming can be classified as intensive or extensive, and subsistence or commercial. (i) Identify the term used to describe farming where the primary focus is producing food to feed the farmer’s own family, with little or no surplus for sale. [0.5] (ii) Describe two characteristics of intensive commercial farming. [1.0]
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Worked solution

(i) Subsistence farming is designed to feed the household directly. (ii) Intensive commercial farms maximize output per unit area using high-tech machinery, chemical fertilizers, and modern techniques, selling all produce for profit.

Marking scheme

(i) 0.5 marks for 'Subsistence' (farming). (ii) 1.0 mark (2 points at 0.5 marks each) for characteristics: High yields per unit area/hectare, high inputs of capital/machinery/fertilizer, small land area relative to output, or commercial/market-oriented.
Question 16 · Short Answer
1.5 marks
Many coastal areas rely heavily on the tourism industry for economic growth. (i) Identify one seasonal employment opportunity created by tourism in a coastal destination. [0.5] (ii) State two environmental problems that can be caused by rapid, unplanned tourism development along a coastline. [1.0]
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Worked solution

(i) Lifeguarding is a typical seasonal coastal job that peaks during the summer tourist season. (ii) Rapid development of hotels can destroy fragile coastal dunes or mangroves, and the increased population of tourists can generate sewage that pollutes the seawater.

Marking scheme

(i) 0.5 marks for any valid seasonal coastal tourist job (e.g., lifeguard, beach vendor, water sports instructor, seasonal hotel staff). (ii) 1.0 mark (2 points at 0.5 marks each) for environmental problems: Water/sewage pollution, beach litter, destruction of coastal habitats (mangroves, dunes), or damage to marine life (e.g., coral reefs).
Question 17 · short_answer
1.5 marks
State one natural cause of food shortages and explain how this cause leads to a reduction in crop yield.
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Worked solution

Drought (1 mark) prevents photosynthesis and crop growth, leading to wilting and death of the plants, which reduces the crop yield (0.5 marks).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a valid natural cause of food shortages (e.g., drought, flooding, pests). Award 0.5 marks for explaining the mechanism that causes the reduction in crop yield.
Question 18 · short_answer
1.5 marks
Identify one social push factor of rural-to-urban migration in Less Economically Developed Countries (LEDCs) and briefly describe its impact on the remaining rural population.
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Worked solution

Poor healthcare facilities (1 mark) leaves the remaining population, particularly vulnerable groups like the elderly, without local medical treatment options (0.5 marks).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying a valid social push factor (e.g., poor healthcare, lack of educational facilities, high crime rates). Award 0.5 marks for describing a logical impact on the remaining rural population.
Question 19 · Structured Explanation
4 marks
Explain why death rates have fallen in many Less Economically Developed Countries (LEDCs) in recent decades.
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Worked solution

Improvements in healthcare, such as the introduction of vaccinations and new clinics, have reduced infectious diseases. Clean water access and modern sanitation have decreased water-borne illnesses like cholera. Better farming techniques and import systems have improved food security, reducing famine. Lastly, education programs have increased awareness about hygiene and infant care.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid explanation, up to 4 marks. Points include: - Improvements in healthcare / hospitals / clinics / more doctors (1) - Vaccination programs / treatment of diseases (1) - Provision of clean, piped water / improved sanitation systems (1) - Improved food supply / nutritional education (1) - Education on hygiene and healthy lifestyles (1) - Implementation of pensions or elderly care (1)
Question 20 · Structured Explanation
4 marks
Explain how rapid urbanisation can lead to air and water pollution in cities within Less Economically Developed Countries (LEDCs).
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Worked solution

As cities grow rapidly, the number of vehicles increases, causing traffic congestion and high emissions of exhaust fumes. Industrial factories are built close to residential areas, releasing smoke and toxic gases. On the water side, rapid growth outpaces sewage infrastructure, leading to untreated domestic sewage entering local rivers. In addition, illegal industrial waste dumping and runoff from informal waste sites contaminate urban water supplies.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid explanation, up to 4 marks (Max 3 on air or water pollution alone). Points include: Air pollution: - High traffic volume / congestion leads to vehicle emissions (1) - Industrial factories release smoke / particulate matter / gases (1) - Burning of domestic waste / wood / coal for fuel (1) Water pollution: - Lack of sewage treatment / infrastructure leads to untreated sewage in rivers (1) - Industrial effluents / toxic waste dumped directly into water bodies (1) - Runoff from open landfills / trash piles contaminating groundwater (1)
Question 21 · Structured Explanation
4 marks
Explain how a river transports its load using four different processes.
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Worked solution

Traction involves heavy boulders and rocks rolling along the river bed during high energy flows. Saltation occurs when smaller pebbles and gravel are bounced along the bed. Suspension is the process where fine silts and clays are suspended in the flow of water without touching the bed. Solution is when soluble minerals are dissolved in the river water and carried chemically.

Marking scheme

Award up to 4 marks. For each process, 1 mark is awarded for naming and explaining it. - Traction: rolling of large stones/boulders along the river bed (1) - Saltation: bouncing/hopping of pebbles/gravel along the river bed (1) - Suspension: fine sand/silt/clay carried/held up within the flowing water (1) - Solution: dissolved minerals/chemical load carried invisibly in the water (1)
Question 22 · Structured Explanation
4 marks
Explain how longshore drift moves sediment along a beach.
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Worked solution

The prevailing wind causes waves to approach the beach at an angle. The swash of these waves carries sediment up the beach at this same angle. As the water retreats, gravity pulls the backwash directly down the beach at a right angle (90 degrees). This repeating process of swash and backwash moves the sediment in a zig-zag movement along the coastline.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid explanation, up to 4 marks. Points include: - Prevailing winds blow waves toward the coast at an oblique angle (1) - The swash carries beach material up the beach at an angle (1) - The backwash returns down the beach at a right angle / 90 degrees / under gravity (1) - This repeating action moves material along the coast in a zig-zag pattern (1)
Question 23 · Structured Explanation
4 marks
Explain why many people continue to live in areas at risk from volcanic eruptions.
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Worked solution

Volcanic eruptions yield mineral-rich ash, which breaks down over time to create highly fertile soils ideal for agriculture and farming. Geothermal energy can be harvested from hot rocks near the surface to produce cheap, renewable electricity. Volcanism also concentrates valuable minerals like sulfur, diamonds, and copper, which creates mining jobs. Additionally, active or dormant volcanic landscapes attract tourists, supporting local businesses such as hotels, guiding, and restaurants.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid explanation, up to 4 marks. Points include: - Fertile soils / high crop yields / good for farming (1) - Geothermal energy provides cheap / renewable electricity or heating (1) - Opportunities for mineral mining / e.g. sulfur / copper / precious stones (1) - Tourism creates employment opportunities / e.g. hotels / guides (1) - Family ties / cannot afford to move / risk is perceived as low (1)
Question 24 · Structured Explanation
4 marks
Explain how human factors can lead to food shortages in developing countries.
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Worked solution

War and political conflict disrupt farming activities and destroy crops, livestock, and infrastructure. Poor transport networks prevent agricultural products from being distributed efficiently from rural farms to urban markets. A lack of capital prevents farmers from buying essential high-yield seeds, fertilisers, or modern machinery. Additionally, high population growth can outpace the local food supply, leading to overcultivation and soil degradation.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid explanation, up to 4 marks. Points include: - War / civil conflict destroys crops / farms / transport links (1) - Inadequate roads / poor transport networks prevent food distribution (1) - Lack of capital / poverty prevents purchase of seeds / fertilisers / machinery (1) - High population growth rates outstrip food supply / lead to overcultivation (1) - Lack of agricultural education / training in modern techniques (1) - Government policies that prioritize cash crops over staple food crops (1)
Question 25 · Structured Explanation
4 marks
Explain why the Human Development Index (HDI) is a more effective measure of development than Gross National Income (GNI) per capita alone.
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Worked solution

GNI per capita is purely economic and does not indicate how wealth is distributed or spent. HDI is a composite index that balances GNI with social indicators like health and education. It includes life expectancy, reflecting access to healthcare and nutrition. It also includes expected and mean years of schooling, reflecting educational access and literacy, offering a comprehensive view of quality of life.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid explanation, up to 4 marks. Points include: - GNI per capita is a single economic indicator / average that hides inequalities (1) - GNI does not show how wealth is spent on welfare (1) - HDI is a composite index that combines economic and social elements (1) - HDI includes life expectancy, which reflects healthcare quality (1) - HDI includes education indicators / schooling years, which reflect literacy (1) - HDI provides a more balanced and realistic picture of quality of life (1)
Question 26 · Structured Explanation
4 marks
Explain how tourism can create both positive and negative economic impacts for local populations.
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Worked solution

Tourism generates positive impacts by creating direct jobs in hotels and restaurants, and indirect jobs in handicrafts and transportation. It also brings foreign currency, which boosts the local economy through the multiplier effect. However, negative impacts occur because tourism jobs are often seasonal and poorly paid. Inflation can drive up the cost of local food, housing, and goods, and economic leakage means profits often flow out of the country to foreign-owned TNCs.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid explanation, up to 4 marks (Max 3 on positive or negative alone). Points include: Positive: - Direct employment in hotels / restaurants / transport (1) - Indirect employment in local crafts / farming (1) - Multiplier effect / local businesses benefit from tourist spending (1) - Inward investment / tax revenues spent on local infrastructure (1) Negative: - Seasonal employment leads to periods of low income (1) - Inflation / cost of living / local land prices rise (1) - Economic leakage to foreign-owned tour operators / TNCs (1) - Domination of low-wage / low-skilled positions for locals (1)
Question 27 · Structured Explanation
4 marks
Explain how a large influx of international migrants can cause social and economic challenges for the host country.
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Worked solution

An influx of international migrants can place significant pressure on public services like healthcare, schools, and public transport, leading to longer wait times and overcrowding. There may be increased competition for affordable housing, which can drive up rental prices and property costs, making it harder for low-income residents. In the labor market, an oversupply of labor can lead to increased competition for low-skilled jobs and potentially drive down wages. Additionally, cultural differences and language barriers may initially lead to social friction or integration challenges within local communities.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid explanation point up to a maximum of 4 marks: - Pressure on public services (e.g., healthcare, education, transport) leading to overcrowding / strain (1 mark); - Increased demand for housing leading to shortages / rising rental or purchase costs (1 mark); - Labor market competition, which may depress wages for low-skilled native workers (1 mark); - Social friction / integration difficulties / cultural or language barriers (1 mark); - Government costs for integration, language support, or welfare services (1 mark)
Question 28 · Structured Explanation
4 marks
Explain why rivers deposit their load at different points along their course.
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Worked solution

Rivers deposit their load when they experience a decrease in velocity and energy, rendering them unable to transport sediment further. This reduction in velocity occurs when the river's gradient flattens out, particularly as it exits steep upland areas and enters flatter lowland plains. It also happens when the river enters a standing body of water, such as a lake or the sea, where the forward current is halted. Furthermore, a decrease in the volume of river water—due to drought, high rates of evaporation, or human extraction—reduces the river's capacity to carry sediment. Finally, when a river overflows its banks and spills onto a wide floodplain, the dramatic increase in friction from the land rapidly slows the water down, triggering widespread deposition.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid explanation point up to a maximum of 4 marks: - Reduction in river velocity / loss of kinetic energy (1 mark); - Decrease in channel gradient / river entering flatter lowland areas (1 mark); - River entering a standing body of water such as a lake or the sea, halting flow (1 mark); - Decrease in water volume due to dry season / high evaporation / human abstraction (1 mark); - Increased friction when the river overflows its banks onto the floodplain (1 mark); - Increase in the size or volume of the sediment load exceeding the river's capacity (1 mark)
Question 29 · Structured Explanation
4 marks
Explain why the Human Development Index (HDI) is considered a more comprehensive measure of development than Gross National Income (GNI) per capita alone.
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Worked solution

GNI per capita is a purely economic indicator that measures the average wealth or economic output per person, but it fails to show how that wealth is distributed, often hiding massive inequalities within a nation. In contrast, the Human Development Index (HDI) combines economic data with critical social indicators. By including educational measures, such as the mean and expected years of schooling, HDI reflects the accessibility and quality of education in a country. Additionally, by including life expectancy at birth, HDI serves as an indicator of the overall healthcare quality, nutrition, and sanitation conditions available to the population. This multi-dimensional approach offers a far more accurate representation of human well-being and actual quality of life.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid explanation point up to a maximum of 4 marks: - GNI per capita is purely economic and hides internal inequalities / uneven wealth distribution (1 mark); - HDI is a composite index combining economic indicators with social indicators (1 mark); - HDI measures educational access and literacy through mean/expected years of schooling (1 mark); - HDI measures health and living standards through life expectancy at birth, reflecting healthcare and nutrition (1 mark); - HDI provides a broader focus on human well-being / quality of life rather than just financial wealth (1 mark)
Question 30 · Structured Explanation
4 marks
Explain how vegetation in hot deserts is adapted to survive extremely dry conditions.
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Worked solution

Desert plants have developed multiple specialized physical adaptations to withstand severe aridity. Many species possess extremely long tap roots that penetrate deep into the ground to access permanent water tables. Others have wide-spreading, shallow root systems that quickly capture moisture from brief, light rain showers before it evaporates. Succulent plants, such as cacti, have thick, fleshy stems designed to store large volumes of water during wet spells. To reduce water loss through transpiration, desert vegetation often features thick waxy cuticles on their leaves, or leaves that have been reduced to thin spines, minimizing the surface area exposed to the sun and wind.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for each valid explanation point up to a maximum of 4 marks: - Extremely long tap roots to reach deep underground water tables (1 mark); - Shallow, wide-spreading root systems to capture surface water rapidly from light rain (1 mark); - Succulent / fleshy stems or leaves to store water for use during dry periods (1 mark); - Waxy cuticles / thick skin on leaves to seal in moisture and reduce transpiration (1 mark); - Leaves modified into spines or needles to minimize surface area exposed to evaporation (1 mark); - Ability of seeds to remain dormant for long periods until rainfall triggers germination (1 mark)
Question 31 · essay
7 marks
For a named city in an LEDC you have studied, describe and explain the challenges faced by people living in squatter settlements.
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Worked solution

In Dharavi, Mumbai, residents face major challenges. Houses are built from low-quality materials like timber, corrugated iron, and plastic sheeting. These materials are highly flammable, which means fires can spread rapidly through the densely packed narrow lanes, destroying thousands of homes. Sanitation is extremely poor with up to 1400 people sharing a single toilet. This lack of plumbing means human waste often enters the open drainage channels that run alongside roads, contaminating water pipes and causing frequent outbreaks of water-borne diseases such as cholera and typhoid. Additionally, high rates of unemployment force many residents into the informal sector, working under dangerous conditions for low pay with no job security.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1-3 marks): Simple statements describing challenges (e.g., overcrowding, dirty water, fire risk, unemployment). Level 2 (4-6 marks): Developed statements explaining the causes or effects of these challenges (e.g., houses built of wood and plastic can catch fire easily and destroy large areas; lack of a proper sewage system leads to contamination of drinking water and outbreaks of water-borne diseases like cholera). Level 3 (7 marks): At least three Level 2 points with a named example and place-specific detail (e.g., Dharavi, Kumbharwada area, or specific statistics like 1400 people per toilet).
Question 32 · essay
7 marks
For a named river you have studied, explain how it provides opportunities for the people living in its drainage basin.
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Worked solution

The River Ganges in India provides vital opportunities. Firstly, the fertile alluvial plains, such as the Indo-Gangetic Plain, allow for intensive agriculture, particularly wet rice cultivation, which feeds millions of local residents. Secondly, the river holds immense religious significance for Hindus, attracting millions of pilgrims annually to holy sites like Varanasi, which boosts the local economy through tourism, religious services, and hospitality. Thirdly, the deep river channels in its lower course are used as inland waterways, facilitating the low-cost transport of heavy goods like coal, jute, and agricultural produce to major ports like Kolkata.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1-3 marks): Simple statements identifying opportunities (e.g., fertile soils for farming, tourism/pilgrims, transport of goods). Level 2 (4-6 marks): Developed statements explaining how these opportunities are used (e.g., annual flooding deposits fertile silt on floodplains, allowing intensive cultivation of subsistence crops; large-scale religious pilgrimage to sacred banks provides employment for local market traders and boatmen). Level 3 (7 marks): Three or more Level 2 statements with a named example and place-specific details (e.g., Varanasi, Indo-Gangetic Plain, Kolkata).
Question 33 · essay
7 marks
For a named tourist area you have studied, explain the negative impacts of tourism on the natural environment.
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Worked solution

In the Maldives, rapid resort development and high tourist numbers have led to severe environmental degradation. Firstly, the construction of over-water bungalows and private marinas has directly destroyed fragile coral reef habitats, disrupting local marine ecosystems and reducing biodiversity. Secondly, the sheer volume of solid waste generated by tourists on luxury resort islands has overwhelmed local waste disposal sites, leading to the creation of garbage islands like Thilafushi, where toxic waste is incinerated in the open air, causing air and water pollution. Thirdly, tourist recreational activities, such as recreational diving and boat anchoring, physically damage coral structures, making them more vulnerable to disease and coral bleaching.

Marking scheme

Level 1 (1-3 marks): Simple statements of environmental impacts (e.g., destruction of coral reefs, pollution from waste, damage to habitats). Level 2 (4-6 marks): Developed statements explaining the mechanism or consequence of the impact (e.g., beachfront construction leads to the clearance of natural coastal mangroves, accelerating coastal erosion; dumping of tourist waste leads to marine pollution which poisons fish populations). Level 3 (7 marks): Three or more Level 2 statements with a named example and place-specific details (e.g., Thilafushi waste island, over-water bungalows, Maldivian atolls).

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Paper 21 Geographical Skills

Answer all questions. You must use the 1:25000 topographic map extract, protractor, calculator, and ruler where appropriate.
6 Question · 60 marks
Question 1 · structured
20 marks
### 1 Study the 1:25000 topographic map extract and associated figures for the settlement of Aberdale, Scotland.

**Fig. 1.1** shows simplified features in the northern sector of the map extract, and **Fig. 1.2** shows a cross-section along easting 14.

**(a) Using the map extract, identify the following features shown in Fig. 1.1:**
(i) the type of road at **A** in grid square 1234 [1]
(ii) feature **B** at 131352 [1]
(iii) the height above sea level of the spot height at **C** (145328) [1]
(iv) feature **D** at 128335 [1]
(v) the land use or vegetation type at **E** in grid square 1533 [1]

**(b) Give the six-figure grid reference of the historical monument F shown in Fig. 1.1.** [1]

**(c) Identify three tourist services or facilities located along the coastline.** [3]

**(d) Study the coastline on the southern edge of the map extract:**
(i) What is the distance (in metres) along the coastal path between Sandy Cove (120300) and Rocky Point (135300)?
Choose from: 850m / 1650m / 2150m / 2950m [1]
(ii) What is the compass direction from Sandy Cove to the lighthouse in grid square 1529? [1]

**(e) Study Fig. 1.2, which is a cross-section along easting 14 from northing 310 to northing 330:**
(i) Identify the physical feature at **X** (140318). [1]
(ii) Identify the transport feature at **Y** (140324). [1]
(iii) The cross-section shown in Fig. 1.2 is incomplete. Using information from the map, draw a line on Fig. 1.2 to complete the cross-section to a peak elevation of 145m at northing 328. [1]

**(f) Study the settlement of Aberdale. Describe the site of the settlement and give reasons for its growth.** [6]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

**(a)**
(i) **Secondary road** (or B-road based on conventional key symbols for 1:25000 scale map).
(ii) **Footbridge / Bridge** over the river channel.
(iii) **112 metres** (read directly from spot height marker).
(iv) **Quarry** (or active excavation works).
(v) **Coniferous forest / woodland**.

**(b)**
**148356** (with acceptable tolerance of \(\pm 0.1\) grid units: eastings `147` to `149`, northings `355` to `357`).

**(c)**
Any three of:
- Caravan site
- Information Centre / Tourist Board
- Picnic site / Viewpoint
- Public toilets
- Boat slipway / Jetty

**(d)**
(i) **2150m** (determined by measuring the curved coastal path using paper/string and matching with scale bar).
(ii) **ESE** (East-Southeast) / **SE** (Southeast).

**(e)**
(i) **River / Stream** (running in the base of the depression).
(ii) **Railway line** (or single track railway).
(iii) **Profile line accurately completed** reaching the peak height of 145m at the correct horizontal position of northing 328.

**(f)**
**Site characteristics (Max 3 marks):**
- Low-lying land (below 20m elevation).
- Gently sloping terrain / flat land on the valley floor.
- Flat coastal terrace or estuary floodplain.
- Located at the mouth / confluence of two rivers.

**Reasons for growth (Max 4 marks):**
- Developed as a bridging point where the river narrows.
- Good accessibility/junction of transport routes (converging rail and road links).
- Sheltered harbor/estuary encouraging fishing and early trade.
- Expansion of tourism due to coastal location and sandy beaches.
- Proximity to forestry (coniferous woodland) and mineral resources (quarry) providing local employment.

Marking scheme

**(a)**
(i) 1 mark for 'Secondary road' / 'B-road'. Reject: 'Main road' / 'Motorway'.
(ii) 1 mark for 'Footbridge' / 'Bridge'.
(iii) 1 mark for '112 metres' (allow 112m / 112).
(iv) 1 mark for 'Quarry' / 'Excavation site'.
(v) 1 mark for 'Coniferous forest' / 'Woodland'.

**(b)**
1 mark for '148356' (Allow 147356 to 149356).

**(c)**
3 @ 1 mark (each distinct service along the coast: Caravan site, Information Centre, Picnic site, etc.).

**(d)**
(i) 1 mark for '2150m'.
(ii) 1 mark for 'ESE' / 'SE' / 'East-Southeast'.

**(e)**
(i) 1 mark for 'River' / 'Stream' / 'Tributary'.
(ii) 1 mark for 'Railway' / 'Railway line'.
(iii) 1 mark for drawing a line completing the curve to a height of 145m (allow tolerance 140m - 150m) at northing 328.

**(f)**
6 @ 1 mark (Reserve 2 marks for site description, 2 marks for reasons for growth).
- Site points: Flat/gently sloping land [1]; Confluence [1]; Low elevation/lowland [1]; Coastal location [1].
- Growth points: Bridging point [1]; Railway/road junction [1]; Harbor/trading post [1]; Tourism growth [1]; Local raw materials/employment [1].
Question 2 · thematic_skills_block
8 marks
(a) Study the table below, which shows population and land area data for three sub-districts in Kuro Valley, an area in East Africa.

| Sub-district | Population (2024) | Land Area ($km^2$) |
|---|---|---|
| North Kuro | 120 400 | 400 |
| Central Kuro | 540 000 | 180 |
| South Kuro | 15 000 | 250 |

(i) Calculate the population density of Central Kuro in people per $km^2$. Show your calculation. [2]

(ii) Identify the sub-district with the lowest population density. [1]

(b) Central Kuro has a high population density, whereas South Kuro is sparsely populated. Suggest reasons for this difference. Refer to factors such as relief and rainfall. [5]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) Population density = Population / Land Area
Central Kuro = 540,000 / 180 = 3000 people per $km^2$.

(a)(ii) South Kuro (15,000 / 250 = 60 people per $km^2$, which is lower than North Kuro's 301 people per $km^2$).

(b) Favourable physical factors in Central Kuro compared to South Kuro include:
- Relief: Central Kuro is flatter and lower, making construction of settlements, transport links, and farming easier. South Kuro has steep mountains which limit development.
- Climate: Central Kuro receives more reliable and higher rainfall, supporting arable farming. South Kuro has dry, arid conditions or is in a rain shadow, making food production difficult.

Marking scheme

1(a)(i)
- Correct calculation process shown (e.g. 540000 / 180) [1 mark]
- Correct answer of 3000 (people per $km^2$) [1 mark]

1(a)(ii)
- South Kuro [1 mark]

1(b) Max 5 marks total:
- Reference to flatter/lower land in Central Kuro [1 mark]
- Flatter land makes building homes/roads/infrastructure easier [1 mark]
- Higher or more reliable rainfall in Central Kuro [1 mark]
- Rainfall allows agriculture/crop growth [1 mark]
- South Kuro has steep slopes/mountains which are hard to build/farm on [1 mark]
- South Kuro has drought/low rainfall/water scarcity [1 mark]
Question 3 · thematic_skills_block
8 marks
(a) Study Fig. 2.1, a block diagram showing a convergent plate boundary at the fictional 'Zelanda Island Arc'.

- Plate A (Oceanic Plate) is moving towards Plate B (Continental Plate).
- Plate A is subducting below Plate B into the mantle.

(i) Identify the type of plate boundary shown in Fig. 2.1. [1]

(ii) State which plate is subducting (Plate A or Plate B) and explain why. [2]

(iii) Name the deep geological feature formed on the ocean floor at the subduction zone. [1]

(b) Explain how tectonic activity at convergent plate boundaries leads to volcanic eruptions. [4]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) Convergent or destructive plate boundary.

(a)(ii) Plate A is subducting because it is an oceanic plate, which is denser and heavier than the continental Plate B.

(a)(iii) Ocean trench / deep-sea trench.

(b) As the oceanic plate subducts, it is forced down into the hotter mantle. Extreme friction, pressure, and geothermal heat cause the plate to melt, forming magma. Water carried down by the subducting plate lowers the melting temperature. Because this magma is hotter and less dense than the surrounding rock, it rises through cracks and fissures in the overlying crust, eventually erupting at the surface to form volcanoes.

Marking scheme

2(a)(i)
- Convergent / destructive plate boundary [1 mark]

2(a)(ii)
- Plate A [1 mark]
- Because oceanic crust is denser/heavier than continental crust [1 mark]

2(a)(iii)
- Trench / ocean trench / deep-sea trench [1 mark]

2(b) Max 4 marks total:
- Subduction of oceanic crust into the mantle [1 mark]
- Melting of crust due to friction/high temperatures [1 mark]
- Magma is formed [1 mark]
- Magma is less dense (than surrounding rock) / rises under pressure [1 mark]
- Magma escapes through cracks/weaknesses in overlying crust [1 mark]
- Explosive eruptions occur at the surface [1 mark]
Question 4 · thematic_skills_block
8 marks
(a) Study the table below, which shows monthly temperature and rainfall data for Oasis Verde, a meteorological station in a hot desert region.

| Month | J | F | M | A | M | J | J | A | S | O | N | D |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Temp (°C) | 16 | 18 | 22 | 26 | 31 | 35 | 38 | 37 | 33 | 28 | 21 | 17 |
| Rain (mm) | 12 | 10 | 8 | 3 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 2 | 5 | 7 | 11 | 15 |

(i) Calculate the annual temperature range for Oasis Verde. Show your calculation. [2]

(ii) Calculate the total annual rainfall for Oasis Verde in mm. [1]

(iii) Identify the driest three-month period (consecutive months) at Oasis Verde. [1]

(b) Explain how hot desert vegetation is adapted to survive the low annual rainfall and high temperatures shown in the data. [4]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) Annual temperature range = Max Temp - Min Temp = 38°C - 16°C = 22°C.

(a)(ii) Total annual rainfall = 12 + 10 + 8 + 3 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 2 + 5 + 7 + 11 + 15 = 73 mm.

(a)(iii) May, June, and July (driest months with 0 mm each).

(b) Desert plants adapt to these extreme conditions by minimizing water loss and maximizing intake:
- Xerophytic adaptations like succulent tissues (e.g. in cacti) to store water.
- Waxy coatings or small needles/spines instead of leaves to reduce transpiration losses.
- Deep taproots to reach deep underground aquifers.
- Extensive horizontal root networks to capture rapid surface runoff from brief rain events.

Marking scheme

3(a)(i)
- Correct calculation process shown (e.g. 38 - 16) [1 mark]
- Correct answer: 22 (°C) [1 mark]

3(a)(ii)
- Correct total: 73 (mm) [1 mark]

3(a)(iii)
- May, June, July / M-J-J [1 mark]

3(b) Max 4 marks total (must describe adaptation and explain how it helps survival):
- Succulent stems/leaves [1 mark] to store water [1 mark]
- Deep roots / taproots [1 mark] to tap deep underground water [1 mark]
- Spines / needles / small leaves [1 mark] to reduce surface area and transpiration [1 mark]
- Waxy cuticle [1 mark] to prevent water evaporating from leaves [1 mark]
- Wide, shallow roots [1 mark] to catch rainwater quickly [1 mark]
Question 5 · thematic_skills_block
8 marks
(a) Study the table below, which lists the main causes of food shortages in Aridat, a country in a dry climatic zone.

| Cause | Percentage Contribution (%) |
|---|---|
| Drought | 42% |
| Conflict / War | 28% |
| Poverty / Lack of Capital | 18% |
| Pests and Disease | 8% |
| Poor Infrastructure / Transport | 4% |

(i) State the single most significant cause of food shortages in Aridat. [1]

(ii) Classify the five causes listed in the table into two groups:
- Natural/Environmental Causes
- Human/Economic/Political Causes [2]

(b) Describe how conflict and war can lead to food shortages. [2]

(c) Suggest three distinct agricultural methods that can be used to increase food production and reduce shortages in dry regions. [3]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) Drought is the primary cause (42%).

(a)(ii) Classification:
- Natural/Environmental: Drought; Pests and Disease.
- Human/Economic/Political: Conflict / War; Poverty / Lack of Capital; Poor Infrastructure / Transport.

(b) Conflict leads to food shortages as farmers are displaced or join armies, resulting in abandoned crops. Military blockades, bombed roads, and destroyed supply chains also prevent food distribution.

(c) Methods to improve yield:
- Irrigation schemes (like trickle/drip irrigation) to provide constant water supply.
- High-Yielding Varieties (HYVs) of crops engineered to be drought-resistant.
- Terracing or windbreaks to conserve soil nutrients and moisture.

Marking scheme

4(a)(i)
- Drought [1 mark]

4(a)(ii)
- All 5 correctly sorted = 2 marks
- 3 or 4 correctly sorted = 1 mark
- Natural/Environmental: Drought; Pests and Disease.
- Human/Economic/Political: Conflict / War; Poverty / Lack of Capital; Poor Infrastructure / Transport.

4(b) Max 2 marks:
- Displaced farmers / forced to flee land [1 mark]
- Destruction of farms, crops, or livestock [1 mark]
- Disrupted transport links/roads preventing distribution [1 mark]
- Theft of food supplies by armed forces [1 mark]

4(c) Any 3 of the following [1 mark each]:
- Irrigation (accept specific types like drip irrigation)
- Drought-resistant crops / genetically modified seeds / HYVs
- Use of chemical/organic fertilizers to increase soil fertility
- Crop rotation / terracing / land reform
- Greenhouses / hydroponics to control water use
Question 6 · thematic_skills_block
8 marks
(a) Study the table below, which shows development indicators for five fictional countries.

| Country | GDP per capita (USD) | Life Expectancy (Years) | Adult Literacy Rate (%) | HDI Value |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Alania | 18 500 | 76.5 | 98.2 | 0.812 |
| Bratia | 2 100 | 58.2 | 64.5 | 0.495 |
| Calida | 42 000 | 81.1 | 99.0 | 0.924 |
| Danika | 8 400 | 71.3 | 89.5 | 0.728 |
| Elira | 12 300 | 62.4 | 92.1 | 0.690 |

(i) Identify the country with the lowest level of human development. [1]

(ii) Explain why Elira has a lower HDI value than Danika, despite having a higher GDP per capita. Refer to data from the table to support your answer. [2]

(iii) Name the three key indicators (components) used to calculate the Human Development Index (HDI). [3]

(b) Suggest why composite measures like the HDI are more useful for assessing a country’s level of development than single economic measures like GDP per capita. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) Bratia (HDI value of 0.495).

(a)(ii) Although Elira has a higher GDP per capita ($12,300 vs $8,400), its life expectancy is significantly lower (62.4 years vs 71.3 years). This strongly affects the health component of the HDI, pulling down its overall score.

(a)(iii) The three components are:
1. Life expectancy at birth (health).
2. Education (mean and expected years of schooling / adult literacy).
3. Standard of living / GNI per capita (income).

(b) GDP per capita is purely economic and can be distorted by high inequality where a small elite holds most wealth. HDI is a composite indicator that reflects essential human services like healthcare and education, indicating how national wealth translates into real quality of life.

Marking scheme

5(a)(i)
- Bratia [1 mark]

5(a)(ii) Max 2 marks:
- Identification that Elira has a lower life expectancy (62.4 years vs 71.3 years) [1 mark]
- Explanation that health/life expectancy is a major component of HDI and offsets the economic advantage [1 mark]

5(a)(iii)
- Life expectancy at birth (or health/longevity) [1 mark]
- Education/Schooling/Literacy rates [1 mark]
- GNI per capita / GDP per capita (or standard of living/income) [1 mark]

5(b) Max 2 marks:
- Economic indicators (GDP per capita) do not show income inequality/distribution [1 mark]
- Composite indicators (like HDI) measure quality of life, e.g. health and literacy [1 mark]
- Wealth does not always result in improved health or education services [1 mark]

Paper 41 Alternative to Coursework

Answer all questions. The paper tests the techniques of geographic investigation, fieldwork data presentation, and critical analysis.
2 Question · 60 marks
Question 1 · multiple_choice
30 marks
### Tianhe Walk Fieldwork Investigation

Students from an international school in Guangzhou, China, conducted a fieldwork investigation at **Tianhe Walk**, a newly developed, pedestrianised urban commercial and entertainment district. The district features a mix of luxury department stores, cafes, green spaces, and recreational facilities, attracting thousands of visitors daily.

The students wanted to investigate the following two hypotheses:

* **Hypothesis 1:** *The main mode of transport used to visit Tianhe Walk depends on the distance travelled by the visitor.*
* **Hypothesis 2:** *Visitors' satisfaction levels with the environment of Tianhe Walk are higher among those who stay longer in the district.*

---

#### Part (a) [6 marks]

**(i)** To collect data for their hypotheses, the students designed a questionnaire to ask visitors. State **three** essential pieces of background information the students should record on the questionnaire sheet (such as date, time, or location) before starting the interview. [3]

**(ii)** Explain why the students should use a **systematic sampling method** (e.g. interviewing every 5th person passing a specific entrance) rather than simply interviewing people who look friendly. [3]

---

#### Part (b) [8 marks]

The students surveyed 100 visitors about the distance they had travelled to reach Tianhe Walk and their primary mode of transport. The results are shown in **Table 1.1**.

**Table 1.1: Distance travelled and primary mode of transport of 100 visitors**

| Distance Travelled | Walking / Bicycle | Public Transport (Metro/Bus) | Private Car / Taxi | Total |
| :--- | :---: | :---: | :---: | :---: |
| **Less than 2 km** | 18 | 4 | 2 | 24 |
| **2 km to 10 km** | 2 | 28 | 12 | 42 |
| **More than 10 km** | 0 | 14 | 20 | 34 |
| **Total** | 20 | 46 | 34 | 100 |

**(i)** Using the data in **Table 1.1**, describe how a student would complete a divided bar graph to represent the primary transport modes for visitors travelling **'More than 10 km'**. [2]

**(ii)** To what extent do the results in **Table 1.1** support **Hypothesis 1**: *The main mode of transport used to visit Tianhe Walk depends on the distance travelled by the visitor*? Support your conclusion with evidence from **Table 1.1**. [4]

**(iii)** Suggest **two** reasons why public transport (such as the Metro/subway) is a highly popular mode of transport for visitors travelling between 2 km and 10 km to commercial centers in large Chinese cities. [2]

---

#### Part (c) [8 marks]

The students also asked visitors how long they planned to stay at Tianhe Walk and to rate their satisfaction with the district's environmental quality (on a scale of 1 to 5, where 1 is very poor and 5 is excellent). The average satisfaction scores are shown in **Table 1.2**.

**Table 1.2: Length of stay and average environmental satisfaction score**

| Length of Stay | Number of Visitors | Average Environmental Satisfaction Score (out of 5) |
| :--- | :---: | :---: |
| **Under 1 hour** | 15 | 3.1 |
| **1 to 3 hours** | 55 | 4.2 |
| **Over 3 hours** | 30 | 4.6 |

**(i)** Describe how the students would display the data in **Table 1.2** using a bar chart. [2]

**(ii)** Do the results in **Table 1.2** support **Hypothesis 2**: *Visitors' satisfaction levels with the environment of Tianhe Walk are higher among those who stay longer in the district*? Explain your decision using data from **Table 1.2**. [3]

**(iii)** Suggest **three** features of a pedestrianised commercial centre, such as Tianhe Walk, that would make it attractive to visitors staying for a long time (over 3 hours). [3]

---

#### Part (d) [8 marks]

As an extension to their fieldwork, the students decided to investigate the environmental quality of the commercial center themselves using a bi-polar environmental quality assessment sheet at four different locations (Sites A, B, C, and D) within Tianhe Walk.

**(i)** Suggest a hypothesis that the students could test using their own environmental quality assessment. [1]

**(ii)** Design a bi-polar environmental quality scorecard that the students could use. Your scorecard must include **three** environmental categories and a rating scale from -2 to +2. [3]

**(iii)** Describe how the students would carry out this environmental survey at the four sites to ensure their results are reliable and safe. [4]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

### Model Answer Outline

#### Part (a)
**(i)** The students should record: 1. Date of investigation. 2. Time/time period of data collection. 3. Name of the entrance/gate or location within the commercial district.
**(ii)** Systematic sampling avoids bias because the students do not choose respondents based on appearance (e.g., age, friendliness). This ensures the sample is representative of all shopper demographics. It is also straightforward to execute systematically in busy environments.

#### Part (b)
**(i)** Draw a single bar of length corresponding to 34 units (representing the 34 total visitors). Divide the bar into two sections: 14 units for Public Transport and 20 units for Private Car/Taxi (there are 0 walkers). Apply distinct shading to each section matching the graph's key.
**(ii)** The results strongly support Hypothesis 1. Shoppers travelling short distances (under 2 km) predominantly walk or cycle (18 out of 24, or 75%). For intermediate distances (2-10 km), public transport is the primary mode (28 out of 42, or 66.7%). For long distances (over 10 km), private car or taxi becomes the dominant mode (20 out of 34, or 58.8%).
**(iii)** 1. Guangzhou city centers suffer from high traffic congestion and parking is expensive. 2. The Metro/subway network is highly efficient, rapid, clean, and directly connects to shopping complexes.

#### Part (c)
**(i)** Label the horizontal (X) axis with the three 'Length of Stay' categories. Label the vertical (Y) axis with 'Average Environmental Satisfaction Score' from 0 to 5. Plot three separate bars: 'Under 1 hour' at 3.1, '1 to 3 hours' at 4.2, and 'Over 3 hours' at 4.6.
**(ii)** Yes, the hypothesis is supported. As the length of stay increases, the satisfaction scores progressively increase. Visitors staying under 1 hour scored it 3.1, rising to 4.2 for 1-3 hours, and peaking at 4.6 for stays over 3 hours.
**(iii)** 1. Presence of comfortable public seating, benches, and shaded green plazas. 2. Safe pedestrian-only pathways free of traffic and vehicle emissions. 3. Abundance of dining/cafeteria options and entertainment facilities (e.g. cinemas, exhibition spaces).

#### Part (d)
**(i)** *Hypothesis:* 'Environmental quality is significantly higher in the central garden square than near the taxi rank/parking structures.'
**(ii)** scorecard layout:
* Litter: Clean (+2) to Littered (-2)
* Noise: Peaceful (+2) to Very Noisy (-2)
* Aesthetic: Attractive (+2) to Unattractive (-2)
**(iii)** To ensure reliability: Students should take scores at the same sites at multiple times of the day and average the results. To ensure safety: Students must work in pairs or small groups, stay within designated public boundaries, and have clear emergency contact details.

Marking scheme

#### Part (a)
**(i)** 1 mark per valid parameter (Max 3 marks):
* Date (1)
* Time of day / hour block (1)
* Specific survey entrance / site name (1)
* Weather conditions (1)

**(ii)** 1 mark per point explained (Max 3 marks):
* Eliminates selection bias / objective (1)
* Results are more representative of the actual population of shoppers (1)
* Easy/practical to manage systematically in high-density areas (1)

#### Part (b)
**(i)** 1 mark for correct proportions/divisions, 1 mark for correct shading (Max 2 marks):
* Divides bar correctly into 14 public transport and 20 private vehicle units (1)
* Shading matches key (with no walking segment) (1)

**(ii)** 1 mark for stating support, 3 marks for evidence (Max 4 marks):
* Support: Stating the hypothesis is fully supported / true (1)
* Evidence: Walking is dominant under 2km (18/24) (1)
* Evidence: Public transport is dominant between 2-10km (28/42) (1)
* Evidence: Car/taxi is dominant over 10km (20/34) (1)
*(Note: Must include comparative statistics for full marks)*

**(iii)** 1 mark per reason (Max 2 marks):
* Avoids road traffic jams / congestion in CBD (1)
* High parking costs or lack of parking space near malls (1)
* Excellent city metro system integration with underground exits into commercial sites (1)

#### Part (c)
**(i)** 1 mark for axes labelling, 1 mark for correct bars (Max 2 marks):
* Correctly labels X and Y axes (1)
* Plots bars accurately at 3.1, 4.2, and 4.6 (1)

**(ii)** 1 mark for statement, 2 marks for data explanation (Max 3 marks):
* States support / positive correlation (1)
* Mentions shortest stay (under 1 hr) has lowest satisfaction (3.1) (1)
* Mentions longest stay (over 3 hrs) has highest satisfaction (4.6) (1)

**(iii)** 1 mark per feature (Max 3 marks):
* Outdoor seating/shade/benches (1)
* Air-conditioned indoor malls/cafes (1)
* Pedestrian safety (no cars) (1)
* Entertainment venues/cinemas (1)

#### Part (d)
**(i)** 1 mark for a testable, clear environmental hypothesis. (1)

**(ii)** 1 mark per element (Max 3 marks):
* 3 appropriate categories (e.g. noise, litter, air quality) (1)
* Clear bi-polar opposites defined (e.g. quiet/noisy) (1)
* Scale ranging from -2 to +2 shown clearly (1)

**(iii)** 2 marks for reliability, 2 marks for safety (Max 4 marks):
* Reliability: Multiple students score/average, repeat at different hours, standardise criteria (2)
* Safety: Work in pairs/groups, wear bright jackets near traffic, keep away from curb edges, carry mobile phones (2)
Question 2 · structured
30 marks
Students from a school in Dorset, UK, carried out geography fieldwork at West Point Bay. The bay experiences active marine processes, and different coastal management strategies have been implemented. The students chose to investigate two main hypotheses:

Hypothesis 1: Groynes along the beach have successfully trapped sediment moving along the shore.
Hypothesis 2: Public opinion on the environmental impact of hard engineering defences is divided between residents and visitors.

(a) Before commencing fieldwork on the beach, the students completed a risk assessment for three potential hazards. They scored the probability (1 to 5) and severity (1 to 5) of each risk to calculate an overall risk rating (probability \u00d7 severity).

Table 2.1: Risk Assessment of Beach Hazards
- Getting trapped by rising tide: Probability = 2, Severity = 5, Risk Rating = 10
- Slipping on wet seaweed: Probability = 4, Severity = 2, Risk Rating = 8
- Cliff falls/rockfalls: Probability = 2, Severity = 4, Risk Rating = 8

(i) Identify which hazard represents the highest risk score based on the risk rating calculation in Table 2.1.
[1]

(ii) Suggest two different safety precautions the students should take during their fieldwork to minimize risks associated with rising tides and cliff falls.
[2]

(b) To understand how wave energy shapes the beach, the students measured sediment characteristics from the shore inland.

(i) The students sampled one pebble every 2 metres along a straight line perpendicular to the sea. State the name of this sampling method.
[1]

(ii) Describe how the students would measure the size and roundness of each sampled pebble. Refer to equipment they would use.
[3]

(c) Figure 2.2 shows a diagram of the longshore drift process operating at West Point Bay.

(i) Name the process that carries sediment up the beach at an angle determined by the wind.
[1]

(ii) Explain why the backwash of a wave moves sediment directly down the beach slope at a right angle (90\u00b0) to the coastline.
[2]

(d) To test Hypothesis 1: 'Groynes along the beach have successfully trapped sediment moving along the shore', the students measured the height of the beach surface on the east side and west side of three timber groynes (labeled X, Y, and Z).

Table 2.2 shows the results of their measurements:
- Groyne X: East side = 0.45 m, West side = 1.10 m
- Groyne Y: East side = 0.30 m, West side = 0.95 m
- Groyne Z: East side = 0.50 m, West side = 1.25 m
Note: A higher measurement means a larger vertical distance from the top of the groyne to the beach surface (i.e., less sediment).

(i) Complete the bar graph (Figure 2.3) below to show the east side (0.50 m) and west side (1.25 m) measurements for Groyne Z.
[2]

(ii) What conclusion should the students make regarding Hypothesis 1? Support your answer with evidence from Table 2.2, identifying the direction of longshore drift.
[3]

(iii) State two ways the students could improve the accuracy or reliability of their groyne measurements.
[2]

(iv) Describe an alternative fieldwork method the students could use to investigate longshore drift using painted pebbles.
[4]

(e) The students interviewed 100 people (50 local residents and 50 visitors) to test Hypothesis 2: 'Public opinion on the environmental impact of hard engineering defences is divided between residents and visitors'.

They asked the question: 'Do you believe rock armor (rip-rap) is an appropriate method to protect the coastline at West Point Bay?'

Table 2.3: Interview Results
- Residents: Yes = 38 (76%), No = 12 (24%)
- Visitors: Yes = 18 (36%), No = 32 (64%)

(i) Complete the pie chart (Figure 2.4) showing the opinions of the visitors (Yes = 36%, No = 64%).
[2]

(ii) To what extent does the data support Hypothesis 2? Use statistics to support your decision.
[3]

(f) Describe how the students would measure the profile (slope gradient) of West Point Bay beach from the low water mark to the back of the beach. Refer to the equipment they would use.
[4]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) Getting trapped by rising tide (10 rating vs 8 rating for others).
(ii) Check tide times beforehand; remain at a safe distance from cliff base and wear helmets.

(b) (i) Systematic sampling.
(ii) Use sliding callipers to measure the longest axis of the pebble in millimetres. Compare the profile of the pebble visually with a standard Powers' Scale of Roundness to categorize from very angular to well-rounded.

(c) (i) Swash.
(ii) Gravity pulls the water back down the steepest gradient, which is always directly perpendicular to the shoreline.

(d) (i) Draw a bar representing the East side for Groyne Z at 0.50 m, and a second bar representing the West side at 1.25 m.
(ii) Hypothesis 1 is fully supported. There is consistently more sediment on the East side of each groyne (where the vertical measurement to the top of the groyne is lower: e.g. 0.45 m on East vs 1.10 m on West for Groyne X). This indicates that the longshore drift direction is from East to West, and the groynes successfully block/trap this material.
(iii) Take measurements at three different points along each groyne (lower, middle, upper beach) and average them; repeat the study on different days under varying wind conditions.
(iv) Gather 50 pebbles of similar size, paint them with bright water-resistant paint, release them at a marked point in the swash zone, and return after a tidal cycle. Measure the distance and direction traveled by recovered pebbles using a tape measure and compass.

(e) (i) Draw a dividing line at 36% (130 degrees) on the pie chart, shading both segments with matching keys for 'Yes' (36%) and 'No' (64%).
(ii) Strongly supported. Residents overwhelmingly approve of rip-rap (76%), whereas a majority of visitors oppose it (64%), demonstrating a clear division in perspective.

(f) Place ranging poles at points of slope change along a straight transect. Measure distance between them with a tape measure. Align a clinometer at equivalent eye levels on both poles to record the slope angle in degrees. Repeat for each slope change up the beach.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) Getting trapped by rising tide [1]
(ii) Check tide schedules/tables before departure [1]; Keep a safe distance from the cliff base / do not climb cliffs [1].

(b) (i) Systematic sampling [1]
(ii) Measure longest (A-axis) of pebble [1]; Use callipers/ruler [1]; Compare pebble shape with roundness index chart/Power's index [1].

(c) (i) Swash [1]
(ii) Gravity pulls the water down [1]; It moves down the steepest path / shortest distance perpendicular to the shore [1].

(d) (i) Bar for East side of Groyne Z correctly plotted at 0.50 m [1]; Bar for West side of Groyne Z correctly plotted at 1.25 m [1].
(ii) Hypothesis is supported/true [1]; More sediment is trapped on East side of groynes [1]; Evidence showing smaller vertical distances on East side (e.g. 0.45 m East vs 1.10 m West on Groyne X) [1].
(iii) Repeat measurements at multiple locations along each groyne [1]; Conduct measurements on multiple different days/different tidal stages [1].
(iv) Collect and paint a set of pebbles [1]; Place pebbles at marked starting point on the beach [1]; Wait for a tidal cycle/set duration [1]; Locate pebbles and measure distance/direction moved using tape/GPS [1].

(e) (i) Line plotted correctly at 36% on pie chart [1]; Shading of sectors matches key [1].
(ii) Support to a great extent [1]; 76% of residents approve compared to only 36% of visitors [1]; 64% of visitors oppose compared to only 24% of residents [1].

(f) Place ranging poles at changes of slope [1]; Measure ground distance with tape measure [1]; Use clinometer to target identical markers on ranging poles [1]; Read angle of slope in degrees [1]; Repeat up the profile to the back of the beach [1].

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