An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Nov 2025 (V1) Cambridge IGCSE Geography (0460) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.
Paper 11 Section A
Answer exactly ONE question from this section. Consists of Question 1 (Population) and Question 2 (Settlements). Each features structured sub-parts and an extended case study essay.
6 Question · 21 marks
Question 1 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
Suggest reasons why death rates have decreased in many developing countries in recent decades.
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Worked solution
Death rates in developing countries have declined rapidly as a result of multiple socio-economic and infrastructural developments: 1. Improved medical care: Construction of clinics, availability of trained doctors, and widespread vaccination programmes reducing fatal childhood illnesses. 2. Sanitation and clean water: Investment in sewage infrastructure and treated drinking water reduces water-borne diseases such as cholera and dysentery. 3. Nutritional improvements: More reliable farming techniques and food distribution lower malnutrition. 4. Education: Greater awareness of basic hygiene and prenatal/postnatal care.
Marking scheme
Award up to 2.5 marks for valid distinct points or developed explanations (1 mark per basic idea, 0.5 to 1 mark for valid development): - Improved healthcare / more clinics / doctors / hospitals; - Access to vaccinations / immunisation / antibiotics / modern medicines; - Better sanitation / clean piped water supply / sewage disposal (reduces cholera/typhoid); - Improved nutrition / more reliable food supply / reduced famine; - Health education / awareness of hygiene / prenatal care; - Better disaster response / international aid. Note: Do not accept vague answers like 'better life' or 'more money'.
Question 2 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
Describe the negative impacts of large-scale emigration on the country that migrants leave (origin country).
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Worked solution
When large numbers of people emigrate, the country of origin often faces significant demographic and economic challenges: 1. Loss of skilled workforce ('brain drain'): Qualified professionals (e.g. healthcare workers, teachers, engineers) migrate abroad, reducing the quality of public services and economic innovation. 2. Demographic imbalance: Because migrants are typically young working-age adults, the remaining population has a higher dependency ratio (dominated by the elderly and young children). 3. Labour shortages: Key primary and secondary industries may suffer from a lack of workforce, leading to lower domestic productivity. 4. Social disruption: Family units may be fractured when parents move abroad, leaving children behind with relatives.
Marking scheme
Award up to 2.5 marks for valid negative impacts (1 mark for a basic point, 0.5–1 mark for appropriate development): - Loss of skilled / qualified workforce / 'brain drain' (e.g. doctors, nurses, engineers); - High dependency ratio / ageing population left behind; - Shortage of working-age population / labour deficit in farming/industry; - Closure of local services/schools due to depopulation; - Social division / family separation / emotional distress on families; - Agricultural land abandoned / decline in domestic food output. Note: Do not credit positive impacts such as remittances.
Question 3 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
Explain the relationship between the population size of a settlement and the number and order of services it provides.
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Worked solution
In settlement hierarchy theory, there is a direct positive correlation between settlement size and service provision: 1. Direct relationship: As settlement population increases, the total number of services provided also increases. 2. Order of services: Small settlements (e.g. hamlets, villages) only have sufficient threshold population to support low-order, convenience goods (such as post offices and primary schools) with small ranges. 3. High-order services: Large settlements (e.g. cities, conurbations) possess the threshold population required to support specialised, high-order services (such as universities, regional hospitals, and luxury retail) that have very large ranges and draw people from wide areas.
Marking scheme
Award up to 2.5 marks for explanatory points showing understanding of settlement hierarchy concepts: - Positive correlation / larger settlements have more services (1); - Larger settlements have high-order / specialised services (e.g. universities, large hospitals) (1); - Small settlements only offer low-order / convenience services (e.g. corner shop, primary school) (1); - Reference to threshold population / larger population needed to make high-order services viable (1); - Reference to sphere of influence / range / people travel further for high-order goods (1). (Max 2.5 marks overall).
Question 4 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
Describe the problems caused by traffic congestion in the Central Business District (CBD) of an urban area.
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Worked solution
Heavy traffic congestion in the CBD leads to various economic, environmental, and social problems: 1. Atmospheric and noise pollution: Idling engines release greenhouse gases and particulate matter ( ext{NO}_x, ext{PM}_{2.5}), worsening respiratory health and increasing noise levels. 2. Economic loss: Delays in transporting freight and commuters waste productive working hours and consume extra fuel. 3. Emergency access issues: Gridlocked streets delay ambulances, fire engines, and police from reaching emergencies promptly. 4. Social/health impacts: Commuter stress, road rage, and elevated risk of vehicle-pedestrian collisions.
Marking scheme
Award up to 2.5 marks for identified problems caused by traffic congestion (1 mark per discrete point, 0.5–1 mark for development): - Atmospheric pollution / exhaust emissions / smog / respiratory issues; - Noise pollution / disturbance to shoppers/workers; - Economic delays / time wasted in gridlock / reduced productivity; - Fuel wastage / financial cost to drivers and delivery companies; - Delays to emergency service vehicles (ambulances/fire engines); - Road rage / increased commuter stress; - Increased risk of pedestrian accidents/collisions. Note: Must focus on problems caused by congestion in the CBD, not causes of congestion.
Question 5 · Resource Interpretation
4 marks
Study Fig. 1.1, which shows population data for four countries in 2023.
Fig. 1.1 | Country | Birth rate (per 1000) | Death rate (per 1000) | Infant mortality rate (per 1000 live births) | Life expectancy (years) | | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | | Country A | 38.2 | 11.4 | 54.0 | 58 | | Country B | 21.5 | 7.1 | 18.2 | 71 | | Country C | 14.3 | 9.0 | 5.8 | 79 | | Country D | 8.6 | 10.8 | 3.1 | 83 |
Using Fig. 1.1 only, compare the demographic characteristics of Country A and Country D. You must refer to statistics in your answer.
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Worked solution
To compare the demographic characteristics of Country A and Country D effectively: 1. Birth rate: State that Country A is higher (38.2 per 1000) than Country D (8.6 per 1000). 2. Death rate / Natural change: State that Country A has a higher death rate (11.4 per 1000 vs 10.8 per 1000), or that Country A has natural increase (birth rate > death rate) while Country D has natural decrease (death rate > birth rate). 3. Infant mortality rate: State that Country A is much higher (54.0 per 1000) compared to Country D (3.1 per 1000). 4. Life expectancy: State that Country D is higher / Country A is lower (83 years vs 58 years). Include precise comparative data with units for full credit.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark per valid comparative point (up to 4 marks total): - Country A has a higher birth rate / Country D has a lower birth rate; - Country A has a higher death rate / Country D has a lower death rate; - Country A has natural population increase / growth whereas Country D has natural decrease / decline; - Country A has a higher infant mortality rate / Country D has a lower infant mortality rate; - Country D has a longer life expectancy / Country A has a shorter life expectancy;
Reserve 1 mark for paired comparative statistics (including units). Maximum 3 marks if no statistical comparison is given.
Question 6 · extended_writing
7 marks
For a named urban area you have studied, describe the problems caused by rapid population growth and explain the strategies used to manage these problems.
Name of urban area: ........................................................
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Worked solution
A complete Level 3 answer requires: 1. A clearly identified, appropriate urban area (e.g. Rio de Janeiro, Mumbai, Cairo, Nairobi). 2. Developed statements describing the problems caused by rapid population growth (e.g. housing shortages, sanitation/health hazards, traffic congestion, environmental degradation). 3. Developed statements explaining the management strategies adopted to resolve or mitigate these problems (e.g. site and service upgrading, public transit investments, self-help housing schemes). 4. Authentic place-specific details such as named locations/favelas/slums, named transport corridors, specific project names, and accurate statistics/dates.
Example Breakdown: - Problems: Overcrowding in Rocinha on steep hillsides leading to landslide hazards; open sewage leading to water-borne diseases; congestion on the Linha Vermelha. - Management: Favela-Bairro project providing piped water, retaining walls, and paved access; Teleférico do Alemão cable car connecting Complexo do Alemão to rail links in 16 minutes; TransOeste BRT lines taking cars off congested routes.
Marking scheme
Level 1 (1–3 marks) - 1 mark for each simple statement describing a problem or strategy. - Candidates give basic, general, or generic points without elaboration. e.g. There is traffic congestion; people live in slums; the government builds new houses; they widened roads. (1 mark for 1 simple statement; 2 marks for 2 simple statements; 3 marks for 3 or more simple statements).
Level 2 (4–6 marks) - Candidates write developed statements that explain how strategies address specific problems or link the causes of problems to their impacts in detail. e.g. Rapid influx of migrants leads to unplanned squatter settlements on steep slopes where lack of drainage causes frequent landslides during heavy rains (dev); the city introduced a cable car system to link isolated favelas on steep slopes directly to the main train line, reducing commute times for workers (dev). (4 marks for 1 developed statement; 5 marks for 2 developed statements; 6 marks for 3 or more developed statements). Note: Maximum 5 marks if no named example is given or if the named example is inappropriate.
Level 3 (7 marks) - Must achieve at least 6 marks in Level 2 (at least 3 developed statements covering both problems and management strategies). - MUST include authentic place-specific details (e.g. specific names of districts/favelas/slums, named infrastructure schemes, specific local transport lines, or accurate local statistics).
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Answer exactly ONE question from this section. Consists of Question 3 (Coasts) and Question 4 (Tectonic Hazards). Includes diagrams, visual resource prompts, and an analytical case study.
8 Question · 32 marks
Question 1 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
Study Fig. 3.1, which shows a cross-section of a tropical coastline with a barrier reef.
State and describe three conditions required for the growth and development of healthy coral reefs.
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Worked solution
Healthy coral reefs require specific environmental conditions to survive and build calcium carbonate structures: 1. Warm water temperatures: Generally between 20°C and 30°C (optimum 23°C–26°C). 2. Shallow water: Mostly within the photic zone (<50–60 m) to ensure sunlight reaches the symbiotic photosynthetic algae (zooxanthellae). 3. Clear, sediment-free water: Silt/turbidity blocks sunlight and smothers polyps. 4. Saline water: Fully marine conditions (32–40 ppt / PSU). 5. Oxygenated water / strong wave action: Waves bring oxygen and plankton for feeding.
Marking scheme
1 mark per valid point (up to max 2.5 marks for 3 distinct developed points): - Warm sea temperatures / optimal 20°C–30°C / average above 18°C; - Shallow water / depths less than 50–60 m / sunlight can penetrate; - Clear / clean / sediment-free / unpolluted water (so sunlight reaches algae / polyps do not suffocate); - Saline / salt water / marine environment (not freshwater / low salinity); - Well-oxygenated water / wave action (to deliver nutrients / plankton); - Solid / hard substrate / rock surface for larvae to attach.
Note: Do not credit vague answers like 'good weather' or 'clean air'.
Question 2 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
Fig. 3.2 is a diagram showing sediment movement along a sandy shoreline.
Explain how the process of longshore drift transports beach material along a coastline.
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Worked solution
Longshore drift operates via the following sequence: 1. Prevailing winds blow across the sea, causing waves to approach and break against the beach at an oblique angle. 2. The swash carries pebbles and sand diagonally up the beach in the direction of the incoming wave. 3. The backwash carries the sediment directly back down the beach slope under the influence of gravity at a right angle (90°) to the shoreline. 4. Over successive wave cycles, material is transported along the coast in a continuous zig-zag path.
Marking scheme
Award credit for the following points: - Prevailing wind dictates wave approach / waves hit the coast at an oblique / acute angle; - Swash moves sediment / material diagonally / at an angle up the beach face; - Backwash returns sediment straight down the beach / at 90° / perpendicular to shoreline due to gravity; - Net movement is a zig-zag trajectory along the beach in the direction of prevailing drift.
Question 3 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
Study Fig. 4.1, a cross-section diagram showing an oceanic plate converging with a continental plate at a destructive plate boundary.
Explain why earthquakes occur at this type of plate boundary.
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Worked solution
Earthquakes at destructive (subduction) boundaries occur through this mechanism: 1. The denser oceanic crust subducts beneath the less dense continental crust. 2. Due to high friction and rough rock surfaces, the plates become stuck / locked along the fault plane/subduction zone. 3. Convection currents in the mantle continue to push the plates, causing enormous pressure and strain energy to accumulate. 4. When the stress exceeds the rock's shear strength, a sudden rupture occurs, releasing energy in the form of seismic shock waves traveling outwards from the focus.
Marking scheme
Award marks for process points: - Subduction occurs / denser oceanic plate is forced under continental plate; - Plates lock / catch / stick due to high friction; - Enormous pressure / tension / strain builds up over time; - Sudden release / slip / fault ruptures when pressure overcomes friction; - Seismic waves / shock waves radiate from the focus / hypocentre.
Question 4 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
Suggest reasons why many people choose to live in areas close to active volcanoes, despite the natural hazards.
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Worked solution
Reasons why populations remain near active volcanoes include: 1. Agriculture: Weathered volcanic ash and lava create fertile, nutrient-rich soils that produce high crop yields. 2. Economic opportunities: Tourism generates jobs (e.g., tour guides, hotels, hot springs) and minerals (e.g., sulfur, pumice, precious metals) can be mined. 3. Geothermal energy: Magma close to the surface enables cheap, sustainable electricity and heating. 4. Social and economic inertia: Families have lived there for generations, or residents cannot afford the cost of purchasing land and relocating elsewhere.
Marking scheme
Award marks for distinct reasons: - Fertile soils / high agricultural productivity / nutrient-rich weathered ash/lava; - Geothermal energy / cheap source of electricity / heating; - Tourism provides jobs / income (e.g. scenic views, hot springs, trekking); - Mining / extraction of valuable minerals / sulfur / building materials (basalt, pumice); - Reluctance to move due to family ties / tradition / ancestral land; - Poverty / lack of financial resources to relocate / cheaper land prices near hazard zones; - Long periods of dormancy lead to perceived low risk / confidence in monitoring and warning systems.
Question 5 · Resource Interpretation
4 marks
Study Fig. 3.1, a diagram showing the formation of a spit along a coastline.
[Fig. 3.1: Diagram showing prevailing wind direction at an angle to the shoreline, zig-zag movement of beach sediment by swash and backwash, sudden turn in the coastline at an estuary mouth, elongated ridge of sand/shingle extending into open water, a curved/hooked tip at the distal end, and a sheltered area of calm water behind the ridge.]
Explain how the processes of longshore drift and deposition have formed the spit shown in Fig. 3.1.
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Worked solution
1. Prevailing winds blow waves onto the beach at an oblique angle, carrying sediment up the beach via swash at this angle. 2. Backwash pulls material straight down the beach slope at a 90° right angle under gravity, producing a net zig-zag movement of sediment along the coast (longshore drift). 3. When the coastline suddenly bends or reaches a river estuary/bay, wave energy drops significantly in the deeper, sheltered water. 4. Sediment is deposited and accumulates outwards across the estuary/bay mouth above sea level. 5. Changes in secondary wind direction or wave refraction cause the end of the spit to curve inwards, forming a recurved lateral/hook, while sheltered waters behind the spit form salt marshes.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark per valid point (up to 4 marks max): - Prevailing winds blow waves onto shore at an oblique angle / swash carries sediment up beach at an angle; - Backwash returns sediment straight down beach at 90° / perpendicular under gravity; - Repeated swash and backwash moves sediment in a zig-zag pattern along the coast (longshore drift); - Coastline changes direction / encounters sheltered water / bay / river mouth; - Reduction in wave energy / water velocity causes deposition of sediment / sand / shingle; - Ridge of deposited material builds above sea level outwards into open water; - Secondary wind / wave refraction causes distal end to curve / form a hook / recurved lateral; - Calm / sheltered water behind the spit allows mud / silt to accumulate to form a salt marsh.
Note: Do not double-credit identical points.
Question 6 · Resource Interpretation
4 marks
Study Fig. 4.1, a diagram showing a destructive (convergent) plate boundary.
[Fig. 4.1: Cross-section diagram showing a dense oceanic plate moving towards and subducting under a continental plate at a deep ocean trench; partial melting in the subduction zone; rising plumes of magma through the overlying continental crust; and a composite stratovolcano erupting on land.]
Using Fig. 4.1, explain how volcanic eruptions are caused at this type of plate boundary.
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Worked solution
1. Convection currents in the mantle push the denser oceanic plate towards the lighter continental plate. 2. The oceanic plate sinks (subducts) beneath the continental crust into the upper mantle at the subduction zone/trench. 3. Friction and high geothermal heat in the mantle melt the subducting plate into magma. 4. Magma is less dense than the surrounding solid rock and contains trapped gases, so it rises through cracks and fractures in the continental crust. 5. Pressure builds until the viscous magma erupts violently at the surface, creating a composite volcano.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark per valid point (up to 4 marks max): - Oceanic and continental plates move towards each other / converge (due to convection currents); - Denser / heavier oceanic plate is subducted / forced downwards beneath lighter / less dense continental plate; - Deep oceanic trench / subduction zone formed where plate descends; - Sinking plate melts due to extreme heat from mantle / friction; - Magma is less dense than surrounding rock so it rises upwards (through fissures / cracks / vents in continental crust); - Magma contains trapped gases / high silica content / high pressure builds up; - Magma erupts explosively / violently at surface (forming composite volcano / stratovolcano).
Note: Credit development marks (dev) where a cause-and-effect relationship is explicitly linked.
Question 7 · extended_response
7 marks
For a named area of coastline you have studied, describe the impacts of coastal erosion on people and the environment, and explain how the coastline is managed.
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Worked solution
Example Case Study: Holderness Coast, East Yorkshire, UK
Impacts of coastal erosion: • Rapid erosion rates of around 1.8 to 2 metres per year occur due to weak, unconsolidated boulder clay cliffs exposed to high-energy destructive waves across the North Sea. • Farmland and residential properties are lost directly into the sea; in villages such as Great Cowden, caravan parks and farms have lost substantial acreage, reducing local income. • Critical transport infrastructure is threatened; sections of the B1242 coastal road are at risk of collapsing, disrupting transport links between coastal settlements. • Habitats such as coastal lagoons, sand dunes, and salt marshes at Spurn Point are at constant risk of breach and destruction, threatening bird nesting sites.
Management strategies: • Hard engineering has been implemented at Hornsea and Withernsea, including massive concrete recurved sea walls and rock revetments to absorb and reflect destructive wave energy, protecting high-value urban properties. • At Mappleton, a £2 million coastal management scheme was installed in 1991, consisting of two large rock groynes and a rock revetment using imported Norwegian granite; the groynes trap sediment transported by longshore drift, creating a wide protective sandy beach. • Soft engineering and 'managed retreat' strategies have been adopted along low-value agricultural stretches, allowing natural processes to operate while focusing capital expenditure strictly on strategic settlements.
Marking scheme
Level 1 (1–3 marks) • 1 mark for each simple, unelaborated statement describing impacts or management strategies. Examples: Cliffs collapse; houses fall into the sea; roads are cut off; sea walls are built; groynes trap sand; rip-rap is placed at the cliff foot.
Level 2 (4–6 marks) • 1 mark for each developed statement linking causes/impacts or explaining how management strategies function. Examples: Rapid undercutting of soft boulder clay cliffs causes cliff failure, threatening properties and forcing residents to relocate; wooden or rock groynes built perpendicular to the shore interrupt longshore drift, accumulating sediment to build up a wider beach that dissipates wave energy before it reaches the cliff face; terminal groyne syndrome deprives downdrift locations of sediment, accelerating erosion further south. (Note: Max 5 marks if no named example or inappropriate example is used).
Level 3 (7 marks) • 3 developed (Level 2) statements covering both impacts and coastal management strategies. • Must include authentic, place-specific detail (e.g. named settlements such as Mappleton/Hornsea/Withernsea, specific infrastructure like the B1242, precise erosion rates ~2 m/yr, or project costs/details such as £2 million rock groynes using Norwegian granite).
Question 8 · extended_response
7 marks
For a named earthquake you have studied, describe the impacts and explain the strategies used to manage the hazard.
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Worked solution
Example Case Study: Port-au-Prince, Haiti Earthquake (January 2010)
Impacts: • The magnitude 7.0 earthquake caused widespread structural collapse across Port-au-Prince due to poorly enforced building codes and dense informal settlements, resulting in over 220,000 deaths and 300,000 injuries. • Key infrastructure was disabled, including the main seaport and the control tower at Toussaint Louverture International Airport, which severely delayed the delivery of international emergency aid and rescue personnel. • Over 1.5 million people were left homeless, forcing displaced populations into crowded temporary tent camps (e.g., Champs de Mars), which triggered a major cholera outbreak that infected hundreds of thousands.
Management Strategies: • Immediate short-term responses relied heavily on international search-and-rescue teams (e.g., from the USA, France, and the UN/MINUSTAH) to extract survivors from collapsed concrete structures. • The World Food Programme (WFP) and NGOs distributed emergency food rations, clean drinking water, and hygiene kits, while field hospitals were established by Médecins Sans Frontières to treat traumatic crush injuries. • Long-term rebuilding initiatives included the development of improved seismic-resistant building guidelines and training for local builders in reinforced masonry, though progress was slowed by political instability and limited funding.
Marking scheme
Level 1 (1–3 marks) • 1 mark for each simple, unelaborated statement describing impacts or management strategies. Examples: Buildings collapsed; many people died; hospitals were damaged; aid workers provided food and water; tents were set up for homeless people.
Level 2 (4–6 marks) • 1 mark for each developed statement linking specific earthquake effects to socio-economic consequences or explaining how emergency/long-term management operated. Examples: The destruction of transport hubs such as the main port and airport runways blocked access for heavy rescue equipment and delayed the distribution of medical supplies; overcrowding and lack of sanitation in temporary displacement camps led to the rapid spread of waterborne diseases like cholera; retrofitting buildings with reinforced concrete frames and cross-bracing helps structures absorb seismic waves and prevents 'pancaking' in future events. (Note: Max 5 marks if no named example or inappropriate example is used).
Level 3 (7 marks) • 3 developed (Level 2) statements covering both impacts and management responses. • Must include authentic, place-specific detail (e.g. named locations like Port-au-Prince/Champs de Mars, magnitude 7.0, specific casualty figures ~220,000 deaths, named organisations like MINUSTAH/WFP).
Paper 11 Section C
Answer exactly ONE question from this section. Consists of Question 5 (Industry/Environment) and Question 6 (Agriculture). Covers economic development themes and requires a case study.
7 Question · 25 marks
Question 1 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
Identify two human inputs required by high-technology industries and explain why highly skilled labour is a key factor influencing their location.
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Worked solution
1. Human inputs for high-technology industries include skilled labour (engineers, programmers, scientists), capital/investment, university research links, and modern telecommunications infrastructure. 2. Highly skilled labour is crucial because high-tech manufacturing and R&D involve sophisticated technology, software development, and precision design rather than manual assembly. Locating in proximity to research universities or affluent science parks allows companies to readily recruit, collaborate with, and retain highly qualified graduates and researchers.
Marking scheme
Award [1 mark] for identifying two correct human inputs (0.5 mark each). • Examples: skilled/educated labour, research scientists, capital/investment, universities/R&D institutions, government grants/subsidies, good transport/telecommunications links.
Award up to [1.5 marks] for explaining why highly skilled labour influences location: • High-tech relies on continuous innovation/R&D/patents/complex product design [0.5 mark]; • Work requires specialized scientific/technological degrees/programming skills [0.5 mark]; • Proximity to universities/science parks allows easy recruitment of top graduates/research collaboration [0.5 mark].
Question 2 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
Describe two differences between subsistence farming and commercial farming, and state one physical input required for crop cultivation.
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Worked solution
1. Main purpose: Subsistence farming is geared towards personal and family consumption with minimal surplus, whereas commercial farming aims to sell produce at market for financial profit. 2. Scale and technology: Subsistence farming typically involves small plots, intensive manual/family labour, and traditional tools; commercial farming typically operates on large land areas with heavy mechanisation, commercial seeds, and chemical fertilisers. 3. Physical inputs: Fertile soil, relief/flat land, rainfall/water, warm temperatures, or sunlight.
Marking scheme
Award [0.5 mark] for naming one valid physical input (e.g., fertile soil, rainfall, flat land/relief, sunlight, temperature). Award [1 mark] for the first distinct contrast between subsistence and commercial farming (e.g., purpose: family consumption vs. profit/market sale). Award [1 mark] for the second distinct contrast (e.g., scale/technology: small scale and manual labour vs. large scale and mechanised/capital-intensive).
Question 3 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
Explain how poor agricultural practices, such as overgrazing and monoculture, lead to soil erosion and degradation.
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Worked solution
1. Overgrazing: Excessive livestock consume grass faster than it can regenerate. Animal hooves compact the ground, reducing water infiltration and exposing bare soil to surface runoff (water erosion) and wind detachment. 2. Monoculture: Growing the same crop continuously year after year depletes the exact same soil nutrients, destroys soil humus and biodiversity, and weakens soil crumb structure, making the loose topsoil highly vulnerable to being carried away by wind or heavy rainfall.
Marking scheme
Award up to [1.5 marks] for explaining the mechanism of overgrazing leading to soil erosion: • Stripping of vegetation/grass cover leaves soil bare [0.5 mark]; • Animal hooves compact soil/trample roots [0.5 mark]; • Lack of roots/cover enables wind/rain to wash topsoil away [0.5 mark].
Award up to [1 mark] for explaining monoculture leading to soil degradation: • Same nutrients depleted year after year without replenishment [0.5 mark]; • Breakdown of soil structure/lack of organic humus makes particles easily detached [0.5 mark].
Question 4 · Structured Short Answer
2.5 marks
Explain two ways in which the construction of a large multipurpose dam and reservoir can provide economic benefits to a region, and state one negative environmental impact.
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Worked solution
1. Economic Benefit 1: Irrigation supply enables multi-cropping and higher agricultural yields in dry seasons, increasing farm incomes and regional food security. 2. Economic Benefit 2: Generation of low-cost hydroelectric power (HEP) attracts manufacturing industries, supports urban growth, and reduces energy import costs. 3. Negative Environmental Impact: Inundation of large river valleys causes permanent habitat destruction, disrupts aquatic ecosystems, blocks fish migration, and reduces downstream silt deposition needed for natural soil replenishment.
Marking scheme
Award [1 mark each, max 2 marks] for explaining two distinct economic benefits: • Irrigation/water storage for farming (dev: boosts yields / allows cash crop production); • Hydroelectric power generation (dev: powers industry / lowers electricity costs); • Flood control (dev: protects downstream infrastructure / saves repair costs); • Tourism/recreation or aquaculture (dev: creates local employment/revenue).
Award [0.5 mark] for one negative environmental impact: • Habitat loss / deforestation from flooding valley / loss of biodiversity; • Interruption of fish migration / loss of aquatic breeding grounds; • Silt trapped behind dam causing downstream riverbed erosion / nutrient loss.
Question 5 · Resource Interpretation
4 marks
Study Fig. 5.1, which shows the employment structure of three countries (Country X, Country Y, and Country Z).
**Fig. 5.1** | Country | Primary sector (%) | Secondary sector (%) | Tertiary sector (%) | | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | | Country X | 65 | 15 | 20 | | Country Y | 25 | 35 | 40 | | Country Z | 5 | 21 | 74 |
Using Fig. 5.1 only, compare the employment structure of Country X with Country Z. You must refer to data in your answer.
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Worked solution
To compare the employment structures, evaluate each sector directly between the two named countries: 1. **Primary sector:** Country X is significantly higher than Country Z (65% vs 5%). 2. **Secondary sector:** Country Z is slightly higher than Country X (21% vs 15%). 3. **Tertiary sector:** Country Z is far higher than Country X (74% vs 20%). 4. **Data use:** Provide direct, paired numerical data including percentages (%) for at least one sector comparison to secure the data reserve mark.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark for each valid comparative point (up to max 3 without data): - A higher / greater percentage is employed in the primary sector in Country X than in Country Z (or vice versa); - A lower / smaller percentage is employed in the secondary sector in Country X than in Country Z (or vice versa); - A lower / smaller percentage is employed in the tertiary sector in Country X than in Country Z (or vice versa); - In Country X the primary sector is the largest sector, whereas in Country Z the tertiary sector is the largest sector.
Reserve 1 mark (max 1) for accurate paired comparative data with units (%): - e.g., Primary: Country X is 65% whereas Country Z is 5% / Tertiary: Country X is 20% compared to 74% in Country Z.
Note: Do not credit simply listing numbers for both countries without explicit comparative wording.
Question 6 · Resource Interpretation
4 marks
Study Fig. 6.1, a diagram showing an agricultural system for a commercial wheat farm.
**Fig. 6.1** ``` [INPUTS] • Physical: Gentle relief, deep loam soil, 620 mm annual rainfall • Human / Economic: High-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, GPS-guided tractors, pesticide sprayers, capital investment
[PROCESSES] • Mechanised ploughing and seed drilling • Aerial pesticide and herbicide spraying • Combine harvesting and grain drying
Using Fig. 6.1 and your own knowledge, explain how human and economic inputs help this commercial farm achieve high yields.
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Worked solution
Identify specific human and economic inputs from the diagram and explain their exact role in increasing crop output: - HYV seeds $\rightarrow$ produce more grain per ear / better resistance to lodging or pests. - Chemical fertilisers $\rightarrow$ supply nitrogen/phosphorus/potassium directly to crops, boosting growth rates. - Pesticides/herbicides $\rightarrow$ reduce crop damage and stop weeds from competing for soil nutrients, sunlight, and moisture. - Machinery/GPS technology $\rightarrow$ enables precise planting and rapid harvesting before bad weather spoils crops.
Marking scheme
Award 1 mark per valid explanation (up to 4 marks): - HYV / genetically improved seeds produce larger grain heads / higher output per hectare / greater disease resistance; - Chemical fertilisers supply concentrated nutrients (N/P/K) / accelerate plant growth / maintain soil fertility under continuous cropping; - Herbicides remove weed competition for moisture, light, and nutrients; - Pesticides / fungicides prevent insect damage / reduce disease outbreaks that destroy crops; - GPS-guided tractors ensure uniform sowing / reduce waste of seeds and fuel / allow accurate application of inputs; - Combine harvesters enable fast harvesting at peak ripeness / prevent crop spoiling during wet weather; - Capital investment allows the purchase of modern equipment / high quality inputs to maximize operational efficiency.
Note: Max 1 mark for simple identification of inputs without explaining how they maximize yield.
Question 7 · extended_writing
7 marks
For a named country or area you have studied where food shortages occur, explain the causes of these food shortages. Name of country or area: ...........................................................
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Worked solution
Case Study Example: South Sudan. Causes of food shortages: 1. Physical/Climatic Factors: Prolonged dry spells and erratic rainfall patterns, particularly in northern states like Northern Bahr el Ghazal, lead to crop failure of staple grains such as sorghum and millet. Conversely, intense unseasonal flooding along the Sudd wetland and White Nile destroys standing crops, drowns livestock, and waterlogs fertile soils. 2. Pest Infestations and Diseases: Desert locust swarms and armyworm infestations sweep across rural areas, stripping green foliage and decimating yields before harvests can take place. 3. Human and Political Conflict: Protracted civil conflict and inter-communal violence displace millions of subsistence farmers from their land (e.g. in Unity and Jonglei states), preventing planting and harvesting seasons. Insecurity also disrupts supply routes and market access along major corridors leading from Juba. 4. Economic Factors and Infrastructure: Hyperinflation reduces purchasing power for imported foods, while poor transport infrastructure (few paved roads) leaves rural communities cut off during wet seasons, preventing humanitarian aid delivery and regional food distribution.
Marking scheme
Levels of response marking: Level 1 (1–3 marks): Simple, generic statements describing or listing reasons for food shortages (e.g. drought kills crops; there is war; people cannot afford seeds; locusts eat food). Level 2 (4–6 marks): Developed, linked explanations of causes (e.g. Prolonged drought reduces soil moisture so staple crops like sorghum fail to germinate and wither; armed conflict forces farmers to flee their fields, leaving land uncultivated and disrupting food distribution networks; severe flooding submerges agricultural land and washes away topsoil, destroying harvest yields). Award 4 marks for 1 developed point; 5 marks for 2 developed points; 6 marks for 3 or more developed points. Max 5 marks if no named example or inappropriate example is used. Level 3 (7 marks): Meets Level 2 (3 or more developed statements) AND includes authentic place-specific detail (e.g. named regions/settlements like Jonglei / Upper Nile, named staple crops like sorghum/maize, specific conflict groups, named climate patterns, or local data).
Paper 21 Compulsory Skills
Answer ALL questions. Question 1 targets rigorous map extraction skills. Questions 2-6 test systematic topical units with quantitative tools.
6 Question · 60 marks
Question 1 · Map Extraction Analysis
20 marks
Study the topographic map extract of Glencree and Blackwood Bay (Scale 1:50 000; contour interval 10 metres).
(a) (i) Identify the type of natural vegetation found at grid reference 342 786. [1] (ii) State the 6-figure grid reference of the post office in the settlement of Highfield. [1] (iii) Measure the straight-line distance, in metres, between the church with a tower at 324 761 and the trigonometrical station at 368 794. [1] (iv) State the compass direction and whole degree bearing from the church at 324 761 to the trigonometrical station at 368 794. [2]
(b) Fig. 1.1 is a cross-section along northing 770 from easting 310 to easting 360. [Cross-section profile provided with labelled letter markers A, B, and C] Identify the features labelled A, B, and C on Fig. 1.1: [3] • Feature A at 318 770 • Feature B at 336 770 • Feature C at 352 770
(c) Describe the physical characteristics of the River Avon and its valley between easting 300 and easting 350. [4]
(d) Compare the coastal features and coastal protection found in the northern coastal section (north of northing 800) with the southern coastal section (south of northing 750). [4]
(e) Describe the site and situation of the settlement at Port Rowan (grid square 3876). [4]
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Worked solution
1 (a) (i) Reading the symbol key at 342 786 reveals coniferous plantation. (ii) Locate the 'P' symbol at Highfield: Easting 374, Northing 812 gives 374 812. (iii) Map measurement between (324, 761) and (368, 794) = 11.0 cm. At 1:50 000 scale (1 cm = 500 m), 11.0 × 500 m = 5500 m. (iv) Direction from 324 761 to 368 794 is North-east (or ENE); Protractor bearing = 053° (range 051°–055°).
1 (b) Intersecting cross-section points along northing 770: • A (318 770): Steep valley side / gorge / escarpment where contours are tightly packed. • B (336 770): River Avon / floodplain / marshland at the valley floor (lowest elevation ~30 m). • C (352 770): Hill summit / ridge crest (elevation > 180 m).
1 (c) Physical drainage/valley characteristics: • River flows generally eastwards / south-eastwards. • Meanders / winding river channel. • Presence of small tributaries entering from higher ground. • Wide, flat valley floor / floodplain in lower section. • Valley sides become steeper / interlocking spurs in the western section. • Width of river channel varies (wider downstream).
1 (d) Comparison of northern vs. southern coastal sections: • Northern coast: high relief / steep cliffs vs. Southern coast: flat / low-lying relief / <10 m. • Northern coast: rocky headlands / wave-cut platforms vs. Southern coast: sand spit / mudflats / saltmarsh. • Northern coast: narrow beaches vs. Southern coast: broad sandy beach / dunes. • Northern coast: natural / undefended vs. Southern coast: artificial defences present (sea wall / groynes).
1 (e) Site and situation of Port Rowan (3876): • Site: Built on flat / gently sloping land adjacent to the coast (<20 m). • Site: Located at the mouth / estuary of a river / sheltered bay. • Situation: Coastal port access to sheltered marine waters (Blackwood Bay). • Situation: Focus of transport routes (junction of A-class road and coastal distributor route). • Situation: Positioned in a gap between rising coastal hills allowing inland access.
Marking scheme
1 (a) (i) Coniferous woodland / coniferous plantation / coniferous trees; [1] (ii) 374812 (accept 373811 to 375813); [1] (iii) 5500 m (accept 5400 to 5600 m); [1] (iv) North-east / NE / ENE (1 mark); 053° (accept 051° to 055°) (1 mark). [2]
1 (b) One mark per correct identification: • A: Steep slope / scarp / valley side / cliff / gorge; • B: River Avon / valley bottom / floodplain / marsh; • C: Hilltop / hill crest / ridge / summit / plateau. [3]
1 (c) Max 4 marks (1 mark per point): • Flows west to east / south-east (allow compass direction of flow); • Meandering / winding / curving channel; • Tributaries join the main channel / dendritic pattern; • Floodplain / flat valley floor / wide valley bottom; • Steep valley sides in west / gentle valley slopes in east; • Oxbow lake / marshy ground on floodplain; • River widens downstream / towards east. [4]
1 (d) Max 4 marks. Reserve 1 mark for coastal features and 1 mark for coastal protection. Paired comparative points or explicit comparison required: • Northern coast has steep cliffs / high relief whereas southern coast is low-lying / flat; • Northern coast has rocky headlands / wave-cut platform whereas southern coast has sand spit / bar / mudflats / salt marsh; • Northern coast has narrow beaches whereas southern coast has wide / broad sandy beach; • Northern coast has no coastal protection / natural coastline whereas southern coast has sea wall / groynes / rock armour. [4]
1 (e) Max 4 marks (reserve 1 mark for site and 1 mark for situation): • Site: Low elevation / land below 20 m / gentle / flat land; • Site: At the coast / coastal margin / along bay shoreline; • Site: At river mouth / estuary; • Site: Dry point above marsh / well-drained land; • Situation: Sheltered bay / natural harbour / Blackwood Bay; • Situation: Route centre / junction of roads (A-road and minor roads); • Situation: Gap between coastal ridges / hills allowing access inland. [4]
Question 2 · Structured Short Answer & Data Interpretation
8 marks
Study Fig. 1.1, a topographical map extract of the Port Kelvin area at a scale of 1:50 000 with a contour interval of 10 metres.
(a) (i) State the six-figure grid reference of the lighthouse on Cape Kelvin. [1] (ii) State the compass direction from the church with a tower at 342618 to the triangulation pillar at 378645. [1]
(b) (i) Measure the straight-line distance, in kilometres, between Kelvin Junction railway station at 330600 and Dunmore station at 380600. [1] (ii) The spot height at 350620 is 180 m and the river bank at 350640 is at an elevation of 20 m. The horizontal ground distance between these two points is 1600 m. Calculate the average gradient between the two points. Show your working. [2]
(c) Describe the physical features of the coastline shown between grid references 370630 and 390660. [3]
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Worked solution
(a) (i) Easting = 38, tenth = 6; Northing = 65, tenth = 4. The 6-figure grid reference is 386654 (acceptable range: 385653 to 387655). (ii) Moving from 342618 to 378645 involves moving east and north, which gives North-east (NE) or East-North-East (ENE). (b) (i) The map distance between eastings 330 and 380 along northing 600 is 10.0 cm. At 1:50 000 scale, 1 cm = 0.5 km, so \(10.0 \text{ cm} \times 0.5 \text{ km/cm} = 5.0 \text{ km}\). (ii) Vertical difference \(= 180\text{ m} - 20\text{ m} = 160\text{ m}\). Horizontal distance \(= 1600\text{ m}\). Gradient \(= \frac{\text{Vertical Rise}}{\text{Horizontal Distance}} = \frac{160}{1600} = \frac{1}{10}\) (or 1 in 10 / 1:10 / 10%). (c) Identifying 3 distinct physical coastal features from the map: steep cliffs, headlands, bays/inlets, wave-cut platforms, or sandy beaches.
Marking scheme
(a) (i) 386654 (allow 385653 to 387655) [1] (a) (ii) North-east / NE / East-North-East / ENE [1] (b) (i) 5.0 km (allow 4.9 to 5.1 km) [1] (b) (ii) 1 mark for correct calculation method (160 / 1600 or 180 - 20 / 1600); 1 mark for correct final gradient of 1 in 10 / 1:10 / 0.1 / 10% [2] (c) Award 1 mark for each valid physical coastal feature (max 3): - Cliffs / steep coastal slopes; - Headland(s); - Bay(s) / cove(s); - Wave-cut platform / rocky foreshore / rocks; - Sandy beach / sand spit; - Irregular / indented coastline. [3]
Question 3 · Structured Short Answer & Data Interpretation
8 marks
Study Fig. 2.1, which shows monthly temperature and precipitation data for Station Y, and Table 2.1, which records daily wind directions observed over a 30-day period.
Fig. 2.1 Summary: - January: 26 °C, 210 mm - February: 27 °C, 190 mm - March: 27 °C, 160 mm - April: 26 °C, 90 mm - May: 24 °C, 40 mm - June: 22 °C, 15 mm - July: 21 °C, 10 mm - August: 22 °C, 15 mm - September: 23 °C, 35 mm - October: 25 °C, 80 mm - November: 26 °C, 140 mm - December: 26 °C, 185 mm
(a) (i) Identify the month with the highest precipitation and state the amount of rainfall recorded in that month. [2] (ii) Calculate the annual temperature range for Station Y. [1]
(b) (i) Using Table 2.1, state the prevailing wind direction at Station Y. [1] (ii) Name the weather instrument used to determine wind direction and describe how it works. [2]
(c) Describe two siting conditions required for a Stevenson screen to obtain reliable temperature readings. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) (i) The highest precipitation bar is in January at 210 mm. (ii) Annual temperature range = Maximum monthly temperature \(27^\circ\text{C}\) (Feb/Mar) minus Minimum monthly temperature \(21^\circ\text{C}\) (July) \(= 6^\circ\text{C}\). (b) (i) The direction with the highest frequency of days is South-East (14 days). (ii) The instrument is a wind vane. The tail fin has a larger surface area than the pointer, so wind pushes the tail away and the pointer/arrow points towards the direction from which the wind is blowing. (c) Siting rules: placed on grass to prevent ground reflection/absorption heat; in an open area at least twice the height of nearby obstacles to prevent obstruction/shade; painted white with louvered sides and placed 1.25 to 1.5 m above ground.
Marking scheme
(a) (i) January (1 mark); 210 mm (1 mark). [2] (a) (ii) 6 °C (unit required) [1] (b) (i) South-East / SE [1] (b) (ii) Wind vane / weather vane (1 mark); Explanation: Wind blows against the large fin/tail which rotates the arrow so the point indicates the direction the wind is coming from (1 mark). [2] (c) Award 1 mark each for any two valid siting factors (max 2): - Placed over short grass / not over concrete/tarmac; - In an open area / away from trees / buildings / artificial heat sources; - Away from shadows / direct shade; - Door opens away from the sun / opens north in northern hemisphere. [2]
Question 4 · Structured Short Answer & Data Interpretation
8 marks
Study Fig. 3.1, which shows the population structure of Country P (a low-income country) and Country Q (a high-income country).
Country P: Wide base (0-4 years: 14%), steeply tapering sides, narrow top (65+ years: 4%). Country Q: Narrow base (0-4 years: 4%), straight vertical sides in middle ages (15-64 years: 66%), wide top (65+ years: 22%).
(a) (i) Identify the type of dependency that is highest in Country P. [1] (ii) State the percentage of the population aged 65 and over in Country Q. [1]
(b) Compare the demographic characteristics of Country P and Country Q. Refer to data from Fig. 3.1 in your answer. [3]
(c) Suggest two reasons for the difference in birth rates between Country P and Country Q. [2]
(d) State one problem that governments in countries like Country Q may face as a result of their population structure. [1]
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Worked solution
(a) (i) In Country P, the broad base shows a high proportion of children (youth dependency). (ii) In Country Q, the proportion aged 65+ is 22%. (b) Comparative statements with paired statistics: Country P has a high birth rate/young population (14% aged 0-4) whereas Country Q has a low birth rate (4% aged 0-4). Country Q has a significantly higher elderly population (22% aged 65+) compared to Country P (4%). Country Q shows higher life expectancy with a broader top. (c) Reasons: Contraception availability, higher cost of raising children in high-income countries, later marriage ages, women working in careers in Country Q versus need for farm labour and higher infant mortality in Country P. (d) Economic burden of pensions/care homes, shrinking workforce, increased tax burden on working population.
Marking scheme
(a) (i) Youth dependency / young dependents / child dependency [1] (a) (ii) 22% [1] (b) Award 1 mark for each comparative point (up to 3 marks). Must compare both countries to score full marks; at least one mark reserved for accurate comparative data quote: - Country P has a wider base / higher birth rate than Country Q (e.g. 14% vs 4% in 0-4 age group); - Country P has a narrower apex / lower life expectancy than Country Q; - Country Q has a higher elderly dependency / more people over 65 (22% in Q vs 4% in P); - Country Q has a more rectangular / cylindrical shape whereas P is triangular / pyramid-shaped. [3] (c) Award 1 mark each for two valid explanations of birth rate differences (max 2): - Greater availability/affordability of contraception / family planning in Country Q; - More women pursue higher education / careers / marry later in Country Q; - Children needed as farm labour / security in old age in Country P; - Higher infant mortality rate in Country P causes parents to have more children; - High cost of raising children / housing in Country Q. [2] (d) Award 1 mark for one valid problem (max 1): - Increased cost of pensions / state retirement funding; - Higher demand / costs for healthcare / care homes / geriatric services; - Labour shortage / decline in tax base / fewer economically active workers. [1]
Question 5 · Structured Short Answer & Data Interpretation
8 marks
Study Fig. 4.1, a diagram showing a coastal landscape with longshore drift, a spit, and coastal management structures.
Fig. 4.1 shows: - Prevailing wind approaching from the South-West at an angle of 45° to the coast. - Swash carrying sediment at an angle onto the beach and backwash dragging sediment directly down the beach at 90°. - A spit extending across an estuary from West to East with a recurved end. - A salt marsh sheltered behind the spit. - A series of wooden groynes installed along the updrift beach.
(a) (i) State the direction of longshore drift shown in Fig. 4.1. [1] (ii) Identify the feature that has developed in the sheltered water behind the spit. [1]
(b) Explain the process of longshore drift which transports material along the coastline. [3]
(c) Suggest why the distal end of the spit is curved/recurved. [1]
(d) Explain how wooden groynes protect the beach from erosion and state one negative impact of groynes further down the coast. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) (i) Sediment moves from West to East (or towards the East) along the coastline. (ii) Behind the sheltered area of the spit, fine silt accumulates to form a salt marsh. (b) Longshore drift process: Prevailing winds blow waves obliquely towards the shore. The swash carries pebbles/sand up the beach at the same angle. The backwash carries the material straight back down the slope under gravity at 90°. Over time, this repeating zig-zag motion moves sediment along the coast. (c) The curved end occurs when secondary winds or storm waves blow from a different direction, or due to wave refraction around the estuary mouth. (d) Groynes trap sediment moving along the beach, maintaining a wide sandy buffer that absorbs wave energy before it reaches the cliffs/coastline. However, by stopping sediment transport, areas downdrift receive no sand replenishment, leading to accelerated coastal erosion (terminal groyne syndrome).
Marking scheme
(a) (i) West to East / Eastwards / SW to NE [1] (a) (ii) Salt marsh / mudflat / sheltered lagoon [1] (b) Award marks for sequential explanation (max 3): - Waves approach beach at an oblique angle / determined by prevailing wind (1 mark); - Swash moves sediment up the beach at an angle (1 mark); - Backwash moves sediment down the beach at a right angle / 90° under gravity (1 mark); - Zig-zag movement of sediment along the coast (1 mark). [3] (c) Award 1 mark for: Changes in prevailing wind direction / secondary wind direction / wave refraction around the spit end / river currents preventing extension. [1] (d) Award 1 mark for protection mechanism + 1 mark for downdrift impact: - Protection: Traps sediment / builds up wide beach which absorbs / dissipates wave energy (1 mark); - Negative impact: Starves downdrift beaches of sediment / increases erosion further down the coast (1 mark). [2]
Question 6 · Structured Short Answer & Data Interpretation
8 marks
Study Fig. 5.1, an industrial systems diagram for an automotive assembly plant located at Amberley Industrial Park.
(a) (i) Using Fig. 5.1, classify the inputs by stating one physical input and one human/economic input. [2] (ii) State one output from the factory that is a waste product. [1]
(b) Explain two reasons why Amberley Industrial Park is a suitable location for this car assembly plant. [3]
(c) Describe two ways the management of the car plant could reduce its negative impacts on the local natural environment. [2]
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Worked solution
(a) (i) Physical input: Land (flat terrain, 40 ha). Human/economic inputs: Steel panels, batteries, labor (1 200 workers), capital, electricity, robots. (ii) Waste products include metal scrap, industrial wastewater, or exhaust emissions. (b) Suitability: 1. Flat land (40 hectares) provides ample space for single-storey assembly lines, storage of parts, and completed vehicles. 2. A large labor supply (1 200 workers) is required for operations. 3. Power supply (electricity grid) is essential to operate heavy machinery and automated robotic welders. (c) Mitigation: 1. Recycle scrap metal to minimize landfill waste. 2. Install on-site water treatment plants to purify wastewater before releasing it. 3. Use exhaust filters and switch to renewable electricity sources.
Marking scheme
(a) (i) Physical input: Flat land / space / site (1 mark); Human/economic input: Assembly workers / steel panels / batteries / robotic equipment / electricity grid connection (1 mark). [2] (a) (ii) Metal scrap / exhaust emissions / wastewater (1 mark). [1] (b) Award 1 mark for each valid reason, with up to 1 development mark for explanation (max 3): - Large area of flat land allows continuous assembly line / easy movement of heavy components / space for expansion (1 + 1 dev); - Availability of large labor pool (1 200 workers) nearby to operate the plant (1 mark); - Reliable electricity supply to power automated machinery / robotic welding (1 mark); - Road / rail access for delivery of heavy parts (steel/batteries) and export of cars (1 mark). [3] (c) Award 1 mark each for two valid environmental mitigation measures (max 2): - Recycle / reuse scrap metal; - Treat / purify wastewater before discharging into local watercourses; - Install catalytic converters / scrubbers / air filters to reduce air pollution / emissions; - Install solar panels / use renewable energy to power the plant; - Plant tree buffer zones around the site to reduce visual / noise pollution. [2]
Paper 41 Alternative to Coursework
Answer ALL questions. Question 1 focuses on urban and socio-economic survey methods. Question 2 tests weather systems, equipment operation, and physical data graphs.
2 Question · 60 marks
Question 1 · structured
30 marks
Students in an urban geography class carried out fieldwork in the market town of Westwick to investigate changes in urban characteristics and retail provision with distance from the town centre.
They investigated two hypotheses: - **Hypothesis 1:** Pedestrian flow and environmental quality decrease continuously as distance from the Market Cross (town centre) increases. - **Hypothesis 2:** The sphere of influence of comparison shopping services is greater than that of convenience shopping services.
**(a)** (i) Define the term *sphere of influence*. [1] (ii) Describe a suitable method the students could use to collect reliable pedestrian count data at each site. [3]
**(b)** (i) The students assessed environmental quality using a bi-polar scoring system across 4 categories (Litter, Traffic Noise, Building Maintenance, Pavement Quality), each scored from -3 (very poor) to +3 (excellent). Suggest two advantages of using a bi-polar recording sheet in fieldwork. [2] (ii) Calculate the mean pedestrian count for the 4 survey sites along the North transect (Sites 2, 3, 4, and 5). Show your working. [3]
**(c)** (i) What conclusion would the students make about **Hypothesis 1: Pedestrian flow and environmental quality decrease continuously as distance from the Market Cross increases**? Support your decision with data from Table 1.1. [4] (ii) Identify the anomaly in the pedestrian count along the North transect and suggest one geographical reason for this anomaly. [2]
**(d)** (i) The students used a questionnaire to gather the data in Table 1.2. Explain how they could choose a *systematic sampling* method to select shoppers to interview. [3] (ii) Do the data in Table 1.2 support **Hypothesis 2: The sphere of influence of comparison shopping services is greater than that of convenience shopping services**? Justify your answer using data from Table 1.2. [4]
**(e)** (i) Suggest three practical difficulties the students might encounter when conducting the questionnaire survey on the streets. [3] (ii) Describe how the students could extend this fieldwork investigation to compare retail provision between the CBD and an out-of-town retail park. [5]
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Worked solution
**(a)(i)** The sphere of influence is the catchment area or geographical area served by a settlement, shop, or commercial service from which it draws its customers.
**(a)(ii)** - Work in pairs to avoid tally errors (one counting, one recording/timing); - Use a mechanical tally clicker or structured tally sheet; - Count simultaneously for an exact fixed period (e.g. 5 minutes using a stopwatch); - Stand safely at an agreed fixed location off the main pedestrian flow so as not to cause an obstruction.
**(b)(i)** - Provides quantifiable/numerical data that can be statistically analysed and graphed; - Allows easy comparison between different sites using a standardized negative-to-positive scale.
**(b)(ii)** - Calculation: Sum of North sites (Sites 2, 3, 4, 5) = 118 + 64 + 88 + 22 = 292. - Mean = 292 / 4 = 73.0 pedestrians per 5 mins.
**(c)(i)** - Decision: The hypothesis is partially true / mostly true but with exceptions (not continuous). - Supporting data for decrease: At Site 1 (0 m), pedestrian count is 142 and EQS is +10. At Site 5 (600 m North), count falls to 22 and EQS falls to -5; at Site 9 (600 m South), count falls to 12 and EQS falls to -7. - Exception/Anomaly: Along the North transect, pedestrian count drops to 64 at 300 m (Site 3) but rises to 88 at 450 m (Site 4), showing it does not decrease continuously.
**(c)(ii)** - Anomaly: Site 4 (450 m North) has a count of 88, which is higher than Site 3 (64 at 300 m). - Geographical reason: Presence of a secondary attraction, transport hub (e.g., bus stop, railway station entrance), car park, popular supermarket, or pedestrian crossing.
**(d)(i)** - Establish a regular numerical interval (e.g., interview every 5th or 10th person passing a fixed line); - Avoid personal bias in selecting participants; - Continue until a predetermined sample quota (e.g., 80 or 100 people) is reached.
**(d)(ii)** - Decision: The hypothesis is supported / true. - Evidence for convenience stores: Majority of shoppers (38 out of 80 = 47.5%) travelled less than 2.0 km; only 2 shoppers travelled 8.0 km or more. - Evidence for comparison stores: Majority of shoppers (56 out of 100 = 56%) travelled 6.0 km or more (29 from 6.0-7.9 km and 27 from 8.0 km or more); only 8 travelled under 2.0 km.
**(e)(i)** - Refusal of people to participate / shoppers being in a rush; - Language barriers or communication difficulties; - Bad weather disrupting paper surveys; - Bias towards certain demographic groups (e.g. elderly or non-working individuals available during weekday mornings).
**(e)(ii)** - Survey both locations on the same day and time of week for fairness; - Conduct a land-use survey mapping store types (chain vs independent, convenience vs comparison); - Measure parking capacity, ease of vehicle access, and public transit links; - Count footfall and administer identical questionnaire questions regarding basket spend, transport mode, and reason for visit.
Marking scheme
**(a)(i)** [1 mark] - Catchment area / area served by a settlement or service / area from which people travel to visit a facility [1].
**(a)(ii)** [3 marks max] - Use of a tally counter / tally chart (1); - Timed duration / standard time interval (e.g. 5 minutes) using a stopwatch (1); - Stand at an agreed fixed location / clear line across pavement (1); - Work in pairs / synchronise counting at same time (1); - Safety consideration e.g. stand out of pedestrian flow (1).
**(b)(i)** [2 marks max] - Produces numerical / quantitative data (1); - Standardises subjective impressions / consistent scoring system (1); - Quick and easy to record / allows immediate calculation of total scores (1); - Enables direct visual / graphical comparison between sites (1).
**(c)(i)** [4 marks] - Reserve 1 mark for conclusion: Partially true / supported overall but not continuous [1] - Data comparison showing overall decline in pedestrian flow with distance (e.g., Site 1 = 142 vs Site 9 = 12) [1] - Data comparison showing overall decline in EQS score with distance (e.g., Site 1 = +10 vs Site 5 = -5 or Site 9 = -7) [1] - Identification of failure to decrease continuously with North data (Site 3 = 64 rising to Site 4 = 88) [1]
**(c)(ii)** [2 marks] - Identification of Site 4 / 450 m North (count = 88) [1] - Valid explanation (e.g. bus stop, secondary shopping node, car park, road crossing, fast food outlet) [1]
**(d)(i)** [3 marks] - Ask every *nth* person (e.g. every 5th or 10th person passing) [1] - Use of a regular / pre-determined numerical interval [1] - Eliminates researcher selection bias [1] - Stop once target total / quota reached [1]
**(d)(ii)** [4 marks] - Reserve 1 mark for agreement with hypothesis [1] - Paired comparative data for short distances (e.g., under 2 km: 38 convenience vs 8 comparison) [1] - Paired comparative data for long distances (e.g., 8 km or more: 27 comparison vs 2 convenience; or 6 km+: 56 comparison vs 7 convenience) [1] - Comparative statement (e.g., convenience shoppers travel short distances while comparison shoppers travel much further) [1]
**(e)(i)** [3 marks] - People refuse to stop / too busy / rushing to work [1] - Unrepresentative sample (e.g. only elderly or unemployed present at 11:00 am) [1] - Language barriers / misunderstandings [1] - Inclement weather spoiling paper sheets [1]
**(e)(ii)** [5 marks max] - Credit 1 mark for each valid methodology idea up to 5 marks: - Classify / record shop types (comparison, convenience, services) at both locations [1]; - Count total number of empty / vacant units [1]; - Compare size / floor space of stores [1]; - Count number of car parking spaces available [1]; - Conduct pedestrian count / footfall survey at both locations at the same time [1]; - Questionnaire on reasons for visit, mode of transport, and money spent [1].
Question 2 · structured
30 marks
A group of geography students investigated local microclimate variations across their school campus and tested the operation of standard weather recording instruments.
They formulated two hypotheses: - **Hypothesis 1:** Air temperature is higher and wind speed is lower in sheltered, built-up areas of the campus than in exposed open playing fields. - **Hypothesis 2:** Relative humidity decreases as air temperature increases throughout the day.
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### **Table 2.1: Microclimate data collected across 4 school campus sites at 13:00**
| Site | Description of Site Environment | Surface Type | Mean Air Temperature (°C) | Mean Wind Speed (m/s) | Wind Direction | Cloud Cover (oktas) | | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | | **A** | Concrete courtyard enclosed by three-storey school buildings | Concrete paving | 21.4 | 1.1 | NW | 3 | | **B** | Open grass sports field (50 m from nearest building) | Short grass | 18.2 | 4.8 | W | 3 | | **C** | Tarmac car park adjacent to main road with scattered trees | Dark asphalt / tarmac | 22.8 | 2.3 | WNW | 3 | | **D** | Woodland area under a dense canopy of deciduous trees | Soil / leaf litter | 17.5 | 0.6 | Calm / Variable | 3 |
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### **Table 2.2: Wet-and-dry bulb hygrometer readings and Relative Humidity conversion table at the Weather Station (Site B)**
**(a)** (i) Identify three design features of a Stevenson screen and explain how each feature helps to ensure accurate weather records. [3] (ii) State two instruments kept inside a Stevenson screen. [2]
**(b)** (i) Explain how cloud cover is measured and recorded by weather observers. [2] (ii) Using Table 2.2 and the Relative Humidity Lookup Table: - Determine the value of **X** (Wet Bulb Depression at 14:00). - Determine the value of **Y** (Relative Humidity at 14:00). [3]
**(c)** (i) Describe how students would use a digital anemometer to measure wind speed at each site. [3] (ii) What conclusion would the students reach regarding **Hypothesis 1: Air temperature is higher and wind speed is lower in sheltered, built-up areas of the campus than in exposed open playing fields**? Support your decision with data from Table 2.1 comparing Site A and Site B. [4] (iii) Explain why Site C (tarmac car park) recorded the highest air temperature (22.8 °C) among all survey sites. [3]
**(d)** (i) Explain why the students took three repeat measurements of temperature and wind speed at each site and calculated a mean. [2] (ii) Evaluate the evidence in Table 2.2 to determine whether **Hypothesis 2: Relative humidity decreases as air temperature increases throughout the day** is supported. Quote relevant data in your answer. [4]
**(e)** Plan an investigation to measure differences in precipitation infiltration rates between the woodland (Site D) and the sports field (Site B). In your plan, refer to: - Equipment required; - Fieldwork method; - How data would be recorded and made reliable. [4]
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Worked solution
**(a)(i)** 1. White painted exterior: reflects incoming solar radiation to prevent the screen from heating up internally. 2. Louvre slats (slotted sides): allow free circulation of air around the thermometers while keeping out direct sunlight and rain. 3. Raised on legs (approx. 1.25 to 1.5 m above ground): prevents the instruments from being influenced by ground heat conduction and splashback from rain.
**(b)(i)** - Measured by visual observation dividing the visible sky dome into eighths (oktas); - 0 oktas represents completely clear sky, while 8 oktas represents complete cloud overcast.
**(b)(ii)** - Wet bulb depression X = Dry bulb (20.0 °C) - Wet bulb (15.0 °C) = 5.0 °C. - Using the lookup table for Dry Bulb 20.0 °C and Depression 5.0 °C: Relative Humidity Y = 58%.
**(c)(i)** - Hold the anemometer at arm's length / mount on a pole at a standardised height (e.g., 1.5 m or 2 m) above the ground; - Face the cups/fan directly into the wind flow with no body obstruction; - Allow the cups/impeller to spin for a fixed period (e.g. 1 minute) and record the steady or average reading in m/s (or knots).
**(c)(ii)** - Decision: Hypothesis 1 is supported / true. - Temperature evidence: Built-up Site A had a higher temperature of 21.4 °C compared to the open playing field Site B which was 18.2 °C (a difference of 3.2 °C). - Wind speed evidence: Built-up Site A had a lower wind speed of 1.1 m/s due to sheltering and friction from buildings, whereas open playing field Site B had a wind speed of 4.8 m/s (a difference of 3.7 m/s).
**(c)(iii)** - Dark tarmac/asphalt has a low albedo, meaning it absorbs high amounts of solar radiation rather than reflecting it; - Dense artificial materials have high thermal mass and conduct/store heat effectively during daytime; - Reradiation of longwave thermal heat warms the air immediately above the car park surface.
**(d)(i)** - To reduce the effect of anomalous readings or sudden brief wind gusts; - To increase the accuracy and reliability of the data collected.
**(d)(ii)** - Decision: Hypothesis 2 is supported / true. - At 08:00, when temperature is lowest at 12.0 °C, relative humidity is at its highest at 89%. - As temperature rises to peak at 20.0 °C at 14:00, relative humidity drops to its lowest value of 58%. - When temperature falls back down to 17.0 °C at 17:00, relative humidity increases again to 76%.
**(e)** - Equipment: Infiltration ring (cylinder/pipe), mallet/block of wood, stopwatch, ruler/measuring tape, supply of water (measuring cylinder); - Method: Hammer the infiltration tube evenly into the ground (e.g., 5 cm deep) so water cannot leak from sides; pour a fixed volume of water (e.g. 500 ml) or fill to a set mark; measure the drop in water level every minute for 10 minutes (or time how long it takes for water to completely drain); - Recording & Reliability: Record timings and water levels in a prepared tally/data sheet; repeat test 3 times at each site at different spots and calculate an average infiltration rate.
Marking scheme
**(a)(i)** [3 marks] - 1 mark for feature + explanation (up to 3): - Painted white (1) -> reflects sunlight / prevents solar heating (1); - Louvred / slatted sides (1) -> allows free air flow / ventilation while shielding from direct sun/precipitation (1); - Elevated 1.2 – 1.5 m on legs (1) -> avoids ground heat / radiation / splashback (1); - Double-layered roof / wooden construction (1) -> provides insulation (1); - Door faces North (in Northern Hemisphere) (1) -> prevents direct sunlight entering when opened (1).
**(a)(ii)** [2 marks] - Six's / Maximum-minimum thermometer [1] - Wet and dry bulb hygrometer / psychrometer [1] *(Do not accept barometer, anemometer, or rain gauge)*
**(b)(i)** [2 marks] - Estimate proportion of sky covered by cloud [1] - Measured in oktas / eighths of the sky [1]
**(b)(ii)** [3 marks] - Calculation of depression: 20.0 - 15.0 = 5.0 °C (Value X) [1 mark for value, 1 mark for showing method/unit] - Correct lookup value for Y: 58% [1 mark]
**(c)(i)** [3 marks] - Hold at arm's length / fixed height above ground (1); - Ensure unobstructed by researcher's body (1); - Face cups / impeller into the wind (1); - Read digital display after set duration / take steady reading (1).
**(c)(ii)** [4 marks] - Reserve 1 mark for stating Hypothesis is supported / true [1] - Paired temperature comparison with units: Site A = 21.4 °C vs Site B = 18.2 °C [1] - Paired wind speed comparison with units: Site A = 1.1 m/s vs Site B = 4.8 m/s [1] - Explicit summary statement confirming built-up area is warmer and less windy [1]
**(c)(iii)** [3 marks] - Dark surface / low albedo absorbs more heat/radiation [1] - Tarmac has high thermal capacity / stores heat [1] - Lack of vegetation / no evaporative cooling [1] - Surface radiates heat back to warm the air directly above it [1]
**(d)(ii)** [4 marks] - Reserve 1 mark for decision: Hypothesis 2 is supported [1] - Evidence comparing morning / low temp to high humidity: At 08:00, 12.0 °C has 89% humidity [1] - Evidence comparing peak afternoon / high temp to lowest humidity: At 14:00, 20.0 °C has 58% humidity [1] - Evidence showing pattern reverses as temperature cools (17:00: temp falls to 17.0 °C, humidity rises to 76%) [1]
**(e)** [4 marks max] - 1 mark for equipment: infiltration cylinder/ring, water container, stopwatch, ruler [1] - 1 mark for procedure: drive ring into soil, fill with water, measure drop in water height over time [1] - 1 mark for standardisation: same depth of ring insertion, same initial volume/head of water [1] - 1 mark for reliability: repeat measurements at multiple locations across both sites and calculate average [1]
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