Cambridge IGCSE · thinka-original Practice Paper

2026 Cambridge IGCSE Physics (0625) Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Jun 2026 (V1) Cambridge IGCSE-Style Mock — Physics (0625)

80 marks75 mins2026
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jun 2026 (V1) Cambridge IGCSE Physics (0625) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

Section A: Core Mechanics & Thermal Physics

Answer all structured questions in the spaces provided. Show all working and state appropriate units.
5 Question · 38 marks
Question 1 · structured
8 marks
(a) (i) Define momentum.

(ii) State whether momentum is a scalar quantity or a vector quantity.

(b) A trolley of mass \(1.2\text{ kg}\) moves along a smooth horizontal surface with a velocity of \(4.5\text{ m/s}\). It collides with a stationary block of mass \(0.80\text{ kg}\). After the collision, the trolley and block stick together and continue moving in the same direction.

(i) Calculate the velocity of the combined trolley and block immediately after the collision.

(ii) The collision takes place over a time interval of \(0.075\text{ s}\). Calculate the magnitude of the average resultant force exerted on the block during the collision.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) Momentum is defined as the product of mass and velocity (or \(p = mv\), where \(m\) is mass and \(v\) is velocity).
(ii) Momentum is a vector quantity.

(b) (i) By conservation of linear momentum:
Total momentum before collision = Total momentum after collision
\(m_1 u_1 + m_2 u_2 = (m_1 + m_2) v\)
\((1.2\text{ kg} \times 4.5\text{ m/s}) + (0.80\text{ kg} \times 0) = (1.2\text{ kg} + 0.80\text{ kg}) v\)
\(5.4 = 2.0 v\)
\(v = \frac{5.4}{2.0} = 2.7\text{ m/s}\)

(ii) Resultant force is the rate of change of momentum:
\(F = \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t} = \frac{m(v - u)}{\Delta t}\)
For the block:
\(\Delta p = 0.80 \times (2.7 - 0) = 2.16\text{ kg m/s}\)
\(F = \frac{2.16\text{ N s}}{0.075\text{ s}} = 28.8\text{ N} \approx 29\text{ N}\)

Marking scheme

(a) (i) mass \(\times\) velocity OR \(p = mv\) with symbols defined [B1]
(ii) vector [B1]

(b) (i) \(p = mv\) used OR \(1.2 \times 4.5\) OR \(5.4\text{ (kg m/s)}\) seen [C1]
\((1.2 + 0.80)v = 5.4\) OR \(v = \frac{5.4}{2.0}\) [C1]
\(v = 2.7\text{ m/s}\) [A1]

(ii) \(F = \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t}\) OR \(F = ma\) AND \(a = \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t}\) [C1]
\(\Delta p = 0.80 \times 2.7\text{ (= 2.16)}\) OR \(a = \frac{2.7}{0.075}\text{ (= 36)}\) [C1]
\(F = 28.8\text{ N}\) OR \(29\text{ N}\) [A1]
Question 2 · structured
8 marks
(a) State the principle of conservation of energy.

(b) An electric motor is used to lift a crate of mass \(65\text{ kg}\) vertically upwards through a height of \(3.2\text{ m}\) at constant speed. The gravitational field strength \(g = 9.8\text{ N/kg}\).

(i) Calculate the increase in gravitational potential energy of the crate.

(ii) The motor has a useful mechanical power output of \(450\text{ W}\). Calculate the time taken to lift the crate through \(3.2\text{ m}\).

(iii) The overall efficiency of the motor system is \(72\%\). Calculate the total electrical power input to the motor.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred from one store to another (or total energy in a closed system remains constant).

(b) (i) \(\Delta E_{\text{p}} = mg\Delta h\)
\(\Delta E_{\text{p}} = 65\text{ kg} \times 9.8\text{ N/kg} \times 3.2\text{ m} = 2038.4\text{ J} \approx 2040\text{ J}\) (or \(2.04\text{ kJ}\))

(ii) \(P = \frac{W}{t} = \frac{\Delta E}{t}\)
\(t = \frac{\Delta E_{\text{p}}}{P} = \frac{2038.4\text{ J}}{450\text{ W}} = 4.5298\text{ s} \approx 4.53\text{ s}\)

(iii) \(\text{Efficiency} = \frac{\text{useful power output}}{\text{total power input}} \times 100\%\)
\(0.72 = \frac{450}{\text{Power}_{\text{in}}}\)
\(\text{Power}_{\text{in}} = \frac{450}{0.72} = 625\text{ W}\)

Marking scheme

(a) energy cannot be created or destroyed / total energy of an isolated/closed system remains constant / can only be transferred from one store to another [B1]

(b) (i) \((\Delta E_{\text{p}} =) mg\Delta h\) OR \(65 \times 9.8 \times 3.2\) [C1]
\(2040\text{ J}\) OR \(2038\text{ J}\) OR \(2.04\text{ kJ}\) [A1]

(ii) \(P = \frac{E}{t}\) OR \(t = \frac{\Delta E_{\text{p}}}{P}\) OR \(t = \frac{2038.4}{450}\) [C1]
\(t = 4.53\text{ s}\) OR \(4.5\text{ s}\) (ecf from (b)(i)) [A1]

(iii) \(\text{efficiency} = \frac{\text{useful output}}{\text{total input}} (\times 100\%)\) seen or implied [C1]
\(\text{input} = \frac{450}{0.72}\) OR \(\frac{450}{72} \times 100\) [C1]
\(625\text{ W}\) OR \(630\text{ W}\) [A1]
Question 3 · structured
8 marks
(a) Define specific heat capacity.

(b) An electric immersion heater of power rating \(300\text{ W}\) is placed into a well-insulated aluminium calorimeter of mass \(0.45\text{ kg}\) containing \(0.60\text{ kg}\) of an unknown liquid. The initial temperature of the calorimeter and liquid is \(18.0\,^\circ\text{C}\).

The heater is operated for \(4.0\text{ minutes}\). The final steady temperature of the calorimeter and liquid is \(35.5\,^\circ\text{C}\).
The specific heat capacity of aluminium is \(900\text{ J}/(\text{kg}\,^\circ\text{C})\). Assume no thermal energy is lost to the surroundings.

(i) Calculate the total thermal energy supplied by the heater in \(4.0\text{ minutes}\).

(ii) Calculate the thermal energy absorbed by the aluminium calorimeter.

(iii) Determine the specific heat capacity of the liquid.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) The energy required per unit mass to increase the temperature by one unit of temperature (or \(c = \frac{\Delta E}{m\Delta\theta}\) with all terms defined).

(b) (i) \(E = Pt\)
\(t = 4.0 \times 60 = 240\text{ s}\)
\(E = 300\text{ W} \times 240\text{ s} = 72\,000\text{ J} = 72\text{ kJ}\)

(ii) \(\Delta\theta = 35.5\,^\circ\text{C} - 18.0\,^\circ\text{C} = 17.5\,^\circ\text{C}\)
\(E_{\text{Al}} = m_{\text{Al}} c_{\text{Al}} \Delta\theta\)
\(E_{\text{Al}} = 0.45\text{ kg} \times 900\text{ J}/(\text{kg}\,^\circ\text{C}) \times 17.5\,^\circ\text{C} = 7087.5\text{ J} \approx 7090\text{ J}\) (or \(7.09\text{ kJ}\))

(iii) Energy absorbed by the liquid:
\(E_{\text{liq}} = E_{\text{total}} - E_{\text{Al}} = 72\,000\text{ J} - 7087.5\text{ J} = 64\,912.5\text{ J}\)
\(c_{\text{liq}} = \frac{E_{\text{liq}}}{m_{\text{liq}} \Delta\theta} = \frac{64\,912.5}{0.60 \times 17.5} = \frac{64\,912.5}{10.5} = 6182.14\text{ J}/(\text{kg}\,^\circ\text{C}) \approx 6200\text{ J}/(\text{kg}\,^\circ\text{C})\)

Marking scheme

(a) energy required per unit mass [B1]
per unit temperature change / per \(^\circ\text{C}\) / per \(\text{K}\) [B1]

(b) (i) \(t = 240\text{ (s)}\) OR \(E = Pt\) [C1]
\(72\,000\text{ J}\) OR \(72\text{ kJ}\) [A1]

(ii) \(\Delta\theta = 17.5\,(^\circ\text{C})\) seen or used [C1]
\(E_{\text{Al}} = 0.45 \times 900 \times 17.5 = 7090\text{ J}\) OR \(7088\text{ J}\) OR \(7.09\text{ kJ}\) [A1]

(iii) \(E_{\text{liq}} = 72\,000 - 7087.5\text{ (= 64 912.5 J)}\) [C1]
\(c_{\text{liq}} = \frac{64\,912.5}{0.60 \times 17.5} = 6200\text{ J}/(\text{kg}\,^\circ\text{C})\) OR \(6180\text{ J}/(\text{kg}\,^\circ\text{C})\) [A1]
Question 4 · structured
7 marks
(a) Describe the arrangement and motion of particles in a gas compared to a liquid. [2]

(b) A sealed, rigid metal cylinder contains a fixed mass of gas. The cylinder is heated from \(20\ ^\circ\text{C}\) to \(80\ ^\circ\text{C}\).
(i) Explain, in terms of particles, why the pressure exerted by the gas inside the cylinder increases. [3]
(ii) The cylinder does not expand. State what happens to the average distance between the gas particles as the temperature increases. [1]
(iii) State the temperature known as absolute zero in \(^\circ\text{C}\). [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) In a gas, particles are widely separated (randomly spaced far apart) compared to liquid particles which are touching / closely packed. Gas particles move freely and rapidly in random directions, whereas liquid particles slide or roll past one another.

(b)(i) As temperature increases, the internal energy of the gas increases and the gas particles gain kinetic energy (move faster). This causes the particles to collide with the walls of the rigid container more frequently (more collisions per unit time). Furthermore, each collision involves a greater change in momentum, exerting a larger force on the wall. Since pressure is force per unit area (\(p = \frac{F}{A}\)), the pressure increases.

(ii) The mass and volume are constant, so the average separation / distance between particles remains unchanged.

(iii) Absolute zero is \(-273\ ^\circ\text{C}\) (or \(0\text{ K}\)).

Marking scheme

(a) Any two from:
- Arrangement: gas particles are far apart / liquid particles are close together / touching [B1]
- Motion: gas particles move freely / rapidly in all directions / liquid particles slide over each other [B1]

(b)(i)
- Particles have more kinetic energy / move faster [B1]
- Collide with the walls more frequently / more collisions per second [B1]
- Greater force per collision / greater change in momentum per collision [B1]

(b)(ii)
- Stays the same / no change [B1]

(b)(iii)
- \(-273\ ^\circ\text{C}\) [B1]
Question 5 · structured
7 marks
A shallow dish of water is left on a laboratory bench at room temperature. Over time, the water evaporates and the temperature of the remaining liquid drops.

(a) Explain, in terms of particles and their energies, why evaporation causes the temperature of the remaining water to decrease. [3]

(b) State two factors that would increase the rate at which water evaporates from the dish. [2]

(c) Explain, in terms of particle separation, why thermal conduction occurs much more slowly in gases than in solids. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Particles in the liquid have a distribution of kinetic energies. The particles with the highest kinetic energy / highest speeds near the surface overcome the attractive intermolecular forces and escape into the air as vapor. As the most energetic particles leave, the mean (average) kinetic energy of the particles remaining in the liquid decreases. Because temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles, the temperature of the remaining water falls.

(b) Increasing the temperature of the liquid / surroundings, increasing the surface area of the water, increasing air movement (draught/wind) across the surface, or decreasing humidity.

(c) In solids, particles are closely packed and touching, allowing thermal vibrations to pass quickly from particle to neighbouring particle. In gases, particles are widely spaced with large distances between them, so collisions between particles occur much less frequently, resulting in a much slower rate of energy transfer.

Marking scheme

(a)
- Particles have a range of energies / speeds and the most energetic / fastest particles escape from the surface [B1]
- Overcoming intermolecular forces of attraction [B1]
- Average kinetic energy of remaining particles decreases (so temperature decreases) [B1]

(b) Any two valid factors [1 mark each]:
- Higher temperature
- Larger surface area
- Draught / wind / air movement
- Lower humidity / drier air [B2]

(c)
- In solids, particles are closely packed / touching so vibrations / energy transfer occurs directly to neighbours [B1]
- In gases, particles are far apart so collisions between particles are infrequent [B1]

Ready to test yourself?

Turn these notes into exam-style practice. Get unlimited AI questions on this topic with instant marking and explanations.

Practice This Topic

Section B: Waves, Electricity & Space Physics

Answer all structured questions in the spaces provided. Show all working and state appropriate units.
5 Question · 44 marks
Question 1 · structured
9 marks
(a) A ray of monochromatic light in air is incident on the flat surface of a semicircular glass block at an angle of incidence of \(42^\circ\). The refractive index of the glass is \(1.52\).

(i) Calculate the angle of refraction \(r\) of the ray inside the glass block. [2]

(ii) Calculate the critical angle \(c\) for the boundary between this glass and air. [2]

(iii) State what happens to the ray inside the glass when the angle of incidence at the glass-air boundary exceeds this critical angle. [1]

(b) An object of height \(2.0\text{ cm}\) is placed \(6.0\text{ cm}\) from the optical centre of a thin converging lens of focal length \(4.0\text{ cm}\).

(i) Describe the paths of two standard rays drawn from the top of the object that are used to locate the image on a ray diagram. [2]

(ii) State two properties of the image formed by the lens in this arrangement. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) Using Snell's law: \(n = \frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\)
\(\sin r = \frac{\sin 42^\circ}{1.52} = \frac{0.6691}{1.52} = 0.4402\)
\(r = \arcsin(0.4402) = 26.1^\circ\)

(a)(ii) Using the critical angle formula: \(\sin c = \frac{1}{n}\)
\(\sin c = \frac{1}{1.52} = 0.6579\)
\(c = \arcsin(0.6579) = 41.1^\circ\)

(a)(iii) Total internal reflection occurs; the ray is completely reflected back into the glass and does not refract into the air.

(b)(i) Ray 1: From the top of the object, draw a ray parallel to the principal axis which refracts through the principal focus \(F\) on the other side of the lens.
Ray 2: Draw a ray from the top of the object passing directly through the optical centre of the lens, which passes straight through undeviated.

(b)(ii) Since the object distance (\(6.0\text{ cm}\)) is between \(f\) (\(4.0\text{ cm}\)) and \(2f\) (\(8.0\text{ cm}\)), the image is: 1. Real, 2. Inverted, 3. Magnified (or enlarged).

Marking scheme

(a)(i) C1: \(n = \frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\) OR \(\sin r = \frac{\sin 42^\circ}{1.52}\)
A1: \(26.1^\circ\) or \(26^\circ\)

(a)(ii) C1: \(\sin c = \frac{1}{n}\) OR \(\sin c = \frac{1}{1.52}\)
A1: \(41.1^\circ\) or \(41^\circ\)

(a)(iii) B1: Total internal reflection / ray is reflected internally (do not accept 'reflection' alone without TIR or description)

(b)(i) B1: Ray parallel to the principal axis refracts through the focal point / principal focus
B1: Ray through the optical centre passes straight through / without deviation

(b)(ii) B2: Any two from: real, inverted, magnified / enlarged / larger than the object [1 mark for each correct property, max 2]
Question 2 · structured
9 marks
(a) An ultrasound scanner uses sound waves of frequency \(3.5\text{ MHz}\) (\(3.5 \times 10^6\text{ Hz}\)) to examine internal body tissues. In soft tissue, the speed of ultrasound is \(1540\text{ m/s}\).

(i) Calculate the wavelength of this ultrasound wave in soft tissue. State the unit. [3]

(ii) A short pulse of ultrasound is emitted by the transducer into the tissue. The pulse reflects off an organ boundary and the echo is detected \(4.8 \times 10^{-5}\text{ s}\) after emission. Calculate the depth of the organ boundary beneath the transducer. [2]

(b) Straight water waves in a ripple tank travel from a deep region into a shallow region across a boundary.

(i) State what happens to the wave speed, wavelength, and frequency of the waves as they enter the shallow region. [2]

(ii) The wave crests approach the boundary at an angle. Explain why the direction of the wave changes as it enters the shallow region. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) Wave speed formula: \(v = f \lambda\)
Rearrange for wavelength: \(\lambda = \frac{v}{f}\)
\(\lambda = \frac{1540}{3.5 \times 10^6} = 4.4 \times 10^{-4}\text{ m}\) (or \(0.44\text{ mm}\))
Unit: \(\text{m}\) or \(\text{mm}\)

(a)(ii) Distance travelled by the pulse: \(d_{\text{total}} = v \times t = 1540 \times 4.8 \times 10^{-5} = 0.07392\text{ m}\)
Since the pulse travels to the organ and back, the depth is half the total distance:
\(\text{depth} = \frac{d_{\text{total}}}{2} = \frac{0.07392}{2} = 0.03696\text{ m} \approx 0.037\text{ m}\) (or \(3.7\text{ cm}\))

(b)(i) Speed decreases; wavelength decreases; frequency remains constant / unchanged.

(b)(ii) One side/part of the wavefront reaches the boundary and enters the shallow region first, slowing down before the remaining part of the wavefront. The differing speeds across the wavefront cause it to pivot and change direction (refract towards the normal).

Marking scheme

(a)(i) C1: \(v = f \lambda\) OR \(\lambda = \frac{v}{f}\)
C1: \(\frac{1540}{3.5 \times 10^6}\)
A1: \(4.4 \times 10^{-4}\text{ m}\) OR \(0.44\text{ mm}\) (value and unit required for full credit)

(a)(ii) C1: \(d = v \times t\) (e.g. \(1540 \times 4.8 \times 10^{-5} = 0.07392\text{ m}\)) OR division by 2 in method
A1: \(0.037\text{ m}\) or \(0.0370\text{ m}\) / \(3.7\text{ cm}\)

(b)(i) B2: Speed decreases, wavelength decreases, frequency is unchanged (3 correct = 2 marks; 2 correct = 1 mark)

(b)(ii) B1: One end/side of the wavefront hits the shallow water first and slows down
B1: Different parts of the wave travel at different speeds across the boundary causing it to bend / rotate towards the normal
Question 3 · structured
8.5 marks
An electric room heater is connected to a \(240\text{ V}\) mains supply. The heater contains two heating elements, \(R_1 = 48\ \Omega\) and \(R_2 = 72\ \Omega\), connected in parallel with each other across the supply.

(a) (i) Calculate the combined resistance of the two heating elements. [2]

(ii) Calculate the total current drawn from the mains supply when both heating elements are switched on. [2]

(iii) Calculate the total electrical power dissipated by the heater. [2]

(b) (i) Explain why the fuse protecting the heater must be placed in the live wire and not in the neutral wire. [1.5]

(ii) The heater has a metal outer case. Explain how connecting the metal casing to an earth wire provides protection if a fault causes the live wire to touch the casing. [1]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) For two resistors in parallel:
\(\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2} = \frac{1}{48} + \frac{1}{72} = \frac{3 + 2}{144} = \frac{5}{144}\)
\(R = \frac{144}{5} = 28.8\ \Omega\)

(ii) Using Ohm's law:
\(I = \frac{V}{R} = \frac{240\text{ V}}{28.8\ \Omega} = 8.33\text{ A}\)
(Alternatively: \(I_1 = \frac{240}{48} = 5.0\text{ A}\), \(I_2 = \frac{240}{72} = 3.33\text{ A}\), \(I_{\text{total}} = 5.0 + 3.33 = 8.33\text{ A}\))

(iii) Power:
\(P = V \times I = 240\text{ V} \times 8.333\text{ A} = 2000\text{ W}\) (or \(2.0\text{ kW}\))
(Alternatively: \(P = \frac{V^2}{R} = \frac{240^2}{28.8} = 2000\text{ W}\))

(b) (i) If the fuse is placed in the live wire, when excessive current blows the fuse, the circuit is disconnected from the high potential/voltage supply. If the fuse were in the neutral wire, blowing the fuse would still leave the appliance live and dangerous to touch.

(ii) The earth wire provides a very low resistance path to ground. If the live wire touches the metal casing, a large current surges through the live and earth wires, melting the fuse and isolating the appliance.

Marking scheme

(a)(i)
[C1] \(\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2}\) or \(R = \frac{R_1 R_2}{R_1 + R_2}\) with values substituted (e.g. \(\frac{48 \times 72}{48 + 72}\))
[A1] \(28.8\ \Omega\) (or \(29\ \Omega\))

(a)(ii)
[C1] \(I = \frac{V}{R}\) or \(I = I_1 + I_2\) seen with correct substitutions (e.g. \(\frac{240}{28.8}\) or \(5.0 + 3.33\))
[A1] \(8.33\text{ A}\) (or \(8.3\text{ A}\)) [Allow ecf from (a)(i)]

(a)(iii)
[C1] \(P = IV\) or \(P = \frac{V^2}{R}\) or \(P = I^2 R\) with correct substitution
[A1] \(2000\text{ W}\) / \(2.0\text{ kW}\) [Allow ecf from (a)(i)/(ii)]

(b)(i)
[B1] (When the fuse blows/melts) it disconnects/isolates the appliance from the high voltage / live supply.
[B0.5] Prevents the casing/appliance from remaining live / eliminates risk of electric shock when touched.

(b)(ii)
[B1] Causes a large / surge current to flow to earth, which blows/melts the fuse (cutting off power).
Question 4 · structured
8.5 marks
(a) A potential divider circuit is powered by a \(12.0\text{ V}\) d.c. power supply. The circuit contains a fixed resistor of resistance \(R = 15.0\ \Omega\) connected in series with a negative temperature coefficient (NTC) thermistor.

(i) At a temperature of \(20^\circ\text{C}\), the resistance of the thermistor is \(45.0\ \Omega\). Calculate the potential difference across the thermistor. [2.5]

(ii) The temperature of the thermistor increases to \(70^\circ\text{C}\). State and explain what happens to the potential difference across the fixed \(15.0\ \Omega\) resistor. [2]

(b) (i) An electric power tool is plugged into an extension lead that remains tightly coiled on a drum. Explain why using the power tool with the extension lead fully coiled is an electrical hazard. [2]

(ii) The power tool has double insulation and its plug does not have an earth wire connected. State what is meant by double insulation and explain why an earth wire is not necessary. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) Total resistance of circuit: \(R_{\text{total}} = 15.0 + 45.0 = 60.0\ \Omega\)
Circuit current: \(I = \frac{V}{R_{\text{total}}} = \frac{12.0}{60.0} = 0.200\text{ A}\)
Potential difference across thermistor: \(V_{\text{therm}} = I \times R_{\text{therm}} = 0.200 \times 45.0 = 9.0\text{ V}\)
(Alternatively: \(V_{\text{therm}} = 12.0 \times \frac{45.0}{15.0 + 45.0} = 9.0\text{ V}\))

(ii) As temperature increases, the resistance of the NTC thermistor decreases.
This decreases the total circuit resistance, which increases the current in the circuit (or reduces the share of voltage across the thermistor).
Therefore, the potential difference across the fixed resistor increases (since \(V = IR\)).

(b) (i) When current flows through the resistance of the cable, thermal energy is generated (\(P = I^2 R\)). When the cable is coiled tightly, heat transfer/dissipation to the surroundings is restricted. The temperature of the cable rises significantly, which can melt the plastic insulation and cause a short-circuit or fire.

(ii) Double insulation means all electrical components are insulated and the casing/outer body is made of an electrical insulator (e.g. plastic) with no exposed metal parts. Since the casing is non-conductive, even if an internal wire becomes loose, the casing cannot become live, so an earth wire is not required to prevent electric shocks.

Marking scheme

(a)(i)
[C1] Total resistance \(R = 60.0\ \Omega\) OR potential divider ratio formula \(V_{\text{out}} = V_{\text{in}} \times \frac{R_{\text{therm}}}{R_1 + R_{\text{therm}}}\)
[C0.5] Substitution of values (e.g. \(12.0 \times \frac{45.0}{60.0}\) or \(I = \frac{12.0}{60.0} = 0.20\text{ A}\))
[A1] \(9.0\text{ V}\) (or \(9.00\text{ V}\))

(a)(ii)
[B1] Resistance of thermistor decreases (so total resistance decreases / current increases)
[B1] Potential difference across the fixed resistor increases

(b)(i)
[B1] Current produces heat / thermal energy in the cable (due to resistance / \(I^2 R\))
[B1] Heat cannot easily escape / dissipate when tightly coiled, leading to overheating / melting insulation / fire risk

(b)(ii)
[B1] (Double insulation means) appliance has an insulating / plastic outer casing (or two independent layers of insulation)
[B1] No exposed metal parts can become live, so user cannot get an electric shock (making an earth wire unnecessary)
Question 5 · structured
9 marks
(a) In the core of a stable star, energy is released by the nuclear fusion of hydrogen nuclei.

(i) One possible fusion reaction occurs when two deuterium nuclei (\(^{2}_{1}\text{H}\)) fuse to produce a helium-3 nucleus (\(^{3}_{2}\text{He}\)) and a single particle \(\text{X}\).

The nuclear equation is:

\[^{2}_{1}\text{H} + {^{2}_{1}\text{H}} \rightarrow {^{3}_{2}\text{He}} + {^{A}_{Z}\text{X}}\]

Determine the values of \(A\) and \(Z\), and name particle \(\text{X}\).

\(A = \) ...................................................

\(Z = \) ...................................................

Name of particle \(\text{X}\): ...................................................

(ii) State what happens to the total mass of the nuclei during this fusion reaction and explain how this leads to the release of energy.

(b) Light emitted from a distant galaxy is observed on Earth.

(i) State the name of the effect that causes the observed wavelength of light from this galaxy to be greater than the wavelength emitted by the star.

(ii) The recession velocity of this galaxy is \(1.43 \times 10^{7}\text{ m/s}\).

The Hubble constant \(H_0\) is \(2.2 \times 10^{-18}\text{ s}^{-1}\).

Calculate the distance from the Earth to this galaxy in metres.

(iii) Calculate the distance to the galaxy in light-years. One light-year is \(9.5 \times 10^{15}\text{ m}\).
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a)(i) Balancing nucleon numbers: \(2 + 2 = 3 + A \Rightarrow A = 1\).
Balancing proton numbers: \(1 + 1 = 2 + Z \Rightarrow Z = 0\).
A particle with nucleon number 1 and proton number 0 is a neutron (\(^{1}_{0}\text{n}\)).

(a)(ii) During nuclear fusion, the total mass of the products is less than the total mass of the reactants (mass decreases). This lost mass is converted into energy.

(b)(i) The increase in observed wavelength of light from receding galaxies is called redshift.

(b)(ii) Using the Hubble equation:
\[v = H_0 d\]
\[d = \frac{v}{H_0} = \frac{1.43 \times 10^{7}\text{ m/s}}{2.2 \times 10^{-18}\text{ s}^{-1}} = 6.50 \times 10^{24}\text{ m}\]

(b)(iii) Distance in light-years:
\[d = \frac{6.50 \times 10^{24}\text{ m}}{9.5 \times 10^{15}\text{ m/ly}} = 6.84 \times 10^{8}\text{ light-years}\] (accept \(6.8 \times 10^{8}\) or \(6.84 \times 10^{8}\)).

Marking scheme

(a)(i)
- A = 1 and Z = 0 [B1]
- neutron [B1]

(a)(ii)
- (total) mass decreases / mass of products is less than mass of reactants [B1]
- (mass difference) is converted into energy [B1]

(b)(i)
- redshift / cosmological redshift [B1]

(b)(ii)
- d = v / H0 OR 1.43 x 10^7 / 2.2 x 10^-18 [C1]
- 6.5 x 10^24 (m) [A1]

(b)(iii)
- (candidate's (b)(ii)) / (9.5 x 10^15) [C1]
- 6.8 x 10^8 / 6.84 x 10^8 (light-years) [A1]

Wondering how well you actually know this?

thinka is an AI practice app for IGCSE & IB students: unlimited questions, instant auto-marking, and detailed step-by-step solutions. 100,000+ students use it to confirm they actually know it, not just think they do.

Want more questions like this? Practice unlimited on thinka, instant answers included.

Start Practicing Free