Cambridge IGCSE · thinka-original Practice Paper

2024 Cambridge IGCSE Sciences - Co-ordinated (Double) (0654) Practice Paper with Answers

Thinka Nov 2024 (V1) Cambridge IGCSE-Style Mock — Sciences - Co-ordinated (Double) (0654)

220 marks255 mins2024
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Nov 2024 (V1) Cambridge IGCSE Sciences - Co-ordinated (Double) (0654) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

Paper 21 (Extended MCQ)

Answer all forty multiple choice questions. Choose the single best option for each item.
40 Question · 40 marks
Question 1 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A plant cell is placed in a sucrose solution that has a lower water potential than the cell sap. Which row correctly describes the net movement of water and the resulting state of the cell?
  1. A.into the cell | turgid
  2. B.into the cell | plasmolysed
  3. C.out of the cell | turgid
  4. D.out of the cell | plasmolysed
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Worked solution

Water moves from a region of higher water potential (inside the cell) to a region of lower water potential (the external sucrose solution) down a water potential gradient by osmosis. This net loss of water causes the vacuole and cytoplasm to shrink, pulling the cell membrane away from the cell wall, which results in the cell becoming plasmolysed.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option (D). Correct direction is 'out of the cell' and correct state is 'plasmolysed'.
Question 2 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which statement about anaerobic respiration in yeast cells and in human muscle cells is correct?
  1. A.In both yeast and muscle cells, carbon dioxide is produced.
  2. B.Yeast produces ethanol and carbon dioxide, while muscle cells produce lactic acid only.
  3. C.Muscle cells produce ethanol, while yeast produces lactic acid.
  4. D.Yeast produces more energy per glucose molecule during anaerobic respiration than muscle cells do.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Yeast cells undergo anaerobic respiration (fermentation) to produce ethanol and carbon dioxide. In contrast, human muscle cells during vigorous exercise respire anaerobically to produce lactic acid only, without producing carbon dioxide.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for the correct option (B). Distinguish the correct end products of anaerobic pathway in both yeast and humans.
Question 3 · multiple-choice
1 marks
How does adding a catalyst increase the rate of a chemical reaction?
  1. A.It increases the thermal energy of the reactant particles.
  2. B.It increases the frequency of collisions between reactant particles.
  3. C.It provides an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy.
  4. D.It increases the activation energy so more particles can collide.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by providing an alternative reaction pathway that has a lower activation energy. This allows a greater fraction of colliding reactant particles to have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy, increasing the frequency of successful collisions.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for selecting the correct explanation of catalyst action (C). Option C matches the IGCSE definition of catalysts lowering the activation energy barrier.
Question 4 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Calculate the maximum volume of hydrogen gas, in \(dm^3\), produced at r.t.p. when \(3.6\text{ g}\) of magnesium reacts completely with excess dilute hydrochloric acid. [\(A_r\): \(Mg = 24\); molar volume of gas at r.t.p. = \(24\text{ dm}^3\)]
  1. A.1.2
  2. B.3.6
  3. C.7.2
  4. D.86.4
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Worked solution

First, write the balanced equation: \(Mg + 2HCl \rightarrow MgCl_2 + H_2\). Determine the moles of magnesium reacting: \(\text{moles of } Mg = 3.6 / 24 = 0.15\text{ mol}\). Since the molar ratio of \(Mg\) to \(H_2\) is \(1:1\), \(0.15\text{ mol}\) of hydrogen gas is produced. Calculate the volume: \(\text{volume of } H_2 = 0.15 \times 24 = 3.6\text{ dm}^3\).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for selecting 3.6 (B). Option A represents an incorrect ratio; C is double the correct amount; D represents the calculation using incorrect mass-molar conversions.
Question 5 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A ray of light travels from air into a rectangular glass block. The angle of incidence is \(42^\circ\) and the angle of refraction is \(26^\circ\). What is the refractive index of the glass?
  1. A.0.66
  2. B.1.5
  3. C.1.6
  4. D.1.8
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Worked solution

The refractive index \(n\) is given by Snell's Law: \(n = \frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\). Substituting the values: \(n = \frac{\sin(42^\circ)}{\sin(26^\circ)} = \frac{0.669}{0.438} \approx 1.53\). Rounded to two significant figures, this is \(1.5\).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for selecting the correct refractive index value (B). Option A is the reciprocal (\(\sin r / \sin i\)), options C and D are incorrect calculations.
Question 6 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A toy car of mass \(800\text{ g}\) travels at a constant speed of \(5.0\text{ m/s}\). What is the kinetic energy of the toy car?
  1. A.2.0 J
  2. B.10 J
  3. C.20 J
  4. D.10000 J
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Worked solution

First, convert the mass from grams to kilograms: \(m = 800\text{ g} = 0.8\text{ kg}\). The formula for kinetic energy is \(KE = \frac{1}{2}mv^2\). Substituting the values: \(KE = 0.5 \times 0.8\text{ kg} \times (5.0\text{ m/s})^2 = 0.4 \times 25 = 10\text{ J}\).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for selecting 10 J (B). Option A incorrectly drops the squaring of the velocity; C uses mass in grams directly without conversion to kilograms (resulting in incorrect order of magnitude) or other calculation errors.
Question 7 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Two resistors of resistance \(4.0\ \Omega\) and \(12.0\ \Omega\) are connected in parallel. What is the combined resistance of this parallel combination?
  1. A.3.0 \(\Omega\)
  2. B.8.0 \(\Omega\)
  3. C.16.0 \(\Omega\)
  4. D.48.0 \(\Omega\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

For resistors in parallel, the combined resistance \(R_t\) is calculated using the formula: \(\frac{1}{R_t} = \frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2}\). Substituting the values: \(\frac{1}{R_t} = \frac{1}{4.0} + \frac{1}{12.0} = \frac{3}{12.0} + \frac{1}{12.0} = \frac{4}{12.0} = \frac{1}{3.0}\). Therefore, \(R_t = 3.0\ \Omega\).

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for selecting 3.0 \(\Omega\) (A). Option C is the simple sum (series connection), while other options represent standard calculation errors.
Question 8 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A nucleus of polonium-210 (proton number = 84) decays into a nucleus of lead-206 (proton number = 82). Which type of radiation is emitted during this decay?
  1. A.an alpha-particle
  2. B.a beta-particle
  3. C.a gamma-ray
  4. D.a neutron
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Worked solution

The mass number decreases by 4 (from 210 to 206) and the proton number decreases by 2 (from 84 to 82). This matches the characteristics of an alpha-particle (helium nucleus, \(^{4}_{2}\text{He}\)), which consists of 2 protons and 2 neutrons.

Marking scheme

Award 1 mark for identifying the decay as an alpha decay (A). A beta particle emission would keep the mass number the same and increase the proton number by 1.
Question 9 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which statement correctly describes a characteristic of living organisms?
  1. A.Growth is a permanent increase in dry mass only, without any change in cell size or cell number.
  2. B.Excretion is the removal from organisms of toxic materials, the waste products of metabolism and substances in excess of requirements.
  3. C.Respiration is the chemical reaction in cells that releases oxygen from food molecules.
  4. D.Sensitivity is the response of an organism to any change in the environment, always resulting in movement of the entire organism.
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Worked solution

Excretion is defined in the syllabus as the removal from organisms of toxic materials, the waste products of metabolism and substances in excess of requirements. Growth involves increase in size, mass, and cell number/size. Respiration releases energy, not oxygen. Sensitivity does not always result in movement of the entire organism.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option B.
Question 10 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An enzyme has an optimum pH of 2.0. In which part of the human alimentary canal does this enzyme most likely function, and what happens to its activity when it enters the duodenum?
  1. A.mouth; its activity increases because the pH in the duodenum is also acidic
  2. B.stomach; its activity decreases because the enzyme denatures in the alkaline environment of the duodenum
  3. C.stomach; its activity increases because the duodenum has a more acidic pH of 1.0
  4. D.mouth; its activity decreases because the enzyme is digested by bile
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Worked solution

The stomach has a highly acidic environment (pH around 2.0) due to hydrochloric acid, making it the ideal site for an enzyme with this optimum pH. The duodenum is alkaline (pH around 8.0) because of pancreatic juice and bile. When the enzyme enters the duodenum, the alkaline pH denatures the enzyme, rapidly decreasing its activity.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option B.
Question 11 · multiple-choice
1 marks
During pregnancy, the placenta is responsible for the exchange of substances between maternal and fetal blood. Which group of substances all diffuse across the placenta from the mother's blood into the fetal blood?
  1. A.carbon dioxide, urea and glucose
  2. B.oxygen, glucose and antibodies
  3. C.oxygen, carbon dioxide and hormones
  4. D.urea, amino acids and pathogens
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Worked solution

Oxygen, glucose, and antibodies are transferred from the mother's blood to the fetal blood to support the development and immunity of the fetus. Waste products like carbon dioxide and urea are transferred in the opposite direction (from fetal blood to maternal blood).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option B.
Question 12 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Four gas jars are filled with different gases at the same temperature and pressure. The mouth of each jar is opened to the air.

The relative molecular masses (\(M_r\)) of the gases are shown:
- Gas 1: Helium (\(M_r = 4\))
- Gas 2: Neon (\(M_r = 20\))
- Gas 3: Carbon monoxide (\(M_r = 28\))
- Gas 4: Carbon dioxide (\(M_r = 44\))

Which gas will diffuse out of its jar and mix with the air at the fastest rate, and why?
  1. A.Carbon dioxide, because it has the largest mass and therefore exerts the greatest force.
  2. B.Helium, because it has the lowest relative molecular mass and its particles move with the highest average speed.
  3. C.Carbon monoxide, because its relative molecular mass is closest to the average relative molecular mass of air.
  4. D.Neon, because it is monoatomic and has more space between its particles.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

The rate of diffusion of a gas depends on its relative molecular mass. Gases with lower relative molecular masses diffuse faster because, at any given temperature, their particles have a higher average speed. Helium has the lowest relative molecular mass (\(M_r = 4\)) among the choices and therefore diffuses the fastest.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option B.
Question 13 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Silicon(IV) oxide (\(\text{SiO}_2\)) and diamond have giant covalent structures. Which statement correctly describes a similarity between their structures and properties?
  1. A.Both substances have low melting points because of weak intermolecular forces.
  2. B.Both substances are good electrical conductors because they contain mobile ions.
  3. C.Both substances are hard and have high melting points due to a giant structure held together by strong covalent bonds.
  4. D.Both substances are highly soluble in water because they form hydrogen bonds.
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Worked solution

Both diamond and silicon(IV) oxide have giant covalent structures with a vast three-dimensional network of strong covalent bonds. Consequently, both substances are extremely hard and have very high melting points because a large amount of energy is required to break these strong covalent bonds. They do not conduct electricity and are insoluble in water.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option C.
Question 14 · multiple-choice
1 marks
In the extraction of iron in a blast furnace, several reactions occur. Which reaction is a redox reaction where a carbon compound acts as the reducing agent?
  1. A.\(\text{C} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{CO}_2\)
  2. B.\(\text{CO}_2 + \text{C} \rightarrow 2\text{CO}\)
  3. C.\(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + 3\text{CO} \rightarrow 2\text{Fe} + 3\text{CO}_2\)
  4. D.\(\text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2\)
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Worked solution

In the reaction \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + 3\text{CO} \rightarrow 2\text{Fe} + 3\text{CO}_2\), iron(III) oxide is reduced to iron, and carbon monoxide (\(\text{CO}\)) is oxidized to carbon dioxide. Here, \(\text{CO}\) is a carbon compound, and it acts as the reducing agent. In option A, carbon is an element, not a compound. Option D is thermal decomposition, not a redox reaction.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option C.
Question 15 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An electric motor with an efficiency of 60% is used to lift a load of weight 200 N vertically through a height of 3.0 m. If the motor takes 5.0 seconds to perform this lift, what is the electrical power input to the motor?
  1. A.72 W
  2. B.120 W
  3. C.200 W
  4. D.500 W
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Worked solution

First, calculate the useful work done by the motor: \(W = F \times d = 200\text{ N} \times 3.0\text{ m} = 600\text{ J}\). Next, calculate the useful power output: \(P_{\text{out}} = \frac{W}{t} = \frac{600\text{ J}}{5.0\text{ s}} = 120\text{ W}\). Finally, use the efficiency formula (\(\text{efficiency} = \frac{P_{\text{out}}}{P_{\text{in}}}\)) to find the power input: \(P_{\text{in}} = \frac{120\text{ W}}{0.60} = 200\text{ W}\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option C.
Question 16 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Two 6.0 \(\Omega\) resistors are connected in parallel with each other. This combination is connected in series with a 5.0 \(\Omega\) resistor and a 12 V battery of negligible internal resistance. What is the current flowing through the 5.0 \(\Omega\) resistor?
  1. A.1.1 A
  2. B.1.5 A
  3. C.2.0 A
  4. D.2.4 A
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Worked solution

First, find the equivalent resistance of the two parallel 6.0 \(\Omega\) resistors: \(R_p = \frac{6.0 \times 6.0}{6.0 + 6.0} = 3.0\ \Omega\). Next, find the total resistance of the circuit: \(R_t = R_p + 5.0 = 3.0 + 5.0 = 8.0\ \Omega\). Use Ohm's law to find the total current leaving the battery: \(I = \frac{V}{R_t} = \frac{12\text{ V}}{8.0\ \Omega} = 1.5\text{ A}\). Since the 5.0 \(\Omega\) resistor is in series with the parallel combination, the total current of 1.5 A flows directly through it.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option B.
Question 17 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A scientist investigates the effect of pH on the activity of a protease enzyme found in the human stomach.

Which statement describes the effect on this enzyme when the pH is changed from pH 2.0 to pH 8.0?
  1. A.The enzyme molecules denature and the active site changes shape.
  2. B.The enzyme molecules gain kinetic energy and collide more frequently.
  3. C.The substrate molecules are denatured and can no longer bind.
  4. D.The reaction rate increases because the optimum pH of the enzyme is reached.
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Worked solution

Protease enzymes in the stomach (such as pepsin) have an acidic optimum pH (around pH 1.5 - 2.0). When the pH is increased to pH 8.0, the environment is too alkaline, causing the enzyme molecules to denature. This alters the shape of their active site permanently, so the substrate can no longer fit and the reaction rate decreases significantly.

Marking scheme

A is correct: 1 mark.
B is incorrect: increasing pH from optimum denatures the enzyme, it does not increase kinetic energy.
C is incorrect: substrates are not denatured.
D is incorrect: optimum pH is acidic (pH 2), not pH 8.
Question 18 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A gas jar containing brown nitrogen dioxide gas (\(\text{NO}_2\), \(M_r = 46\)) is inverted over a gas jar containing colourless carbon monoxide gas (\(\text{CO}\), \(M_r = 28\)), separated by a glass cover. The glass cover is removed.

Which statement describes the diffusion of these gases?
  1. A.Carbon monoxide molecules diffuse upwards more rapidly than nitrogen dioxide molecules diffuse downwards.
  2. B.Nitrogen dioxide molecules diffuse downwards more rapidly than carbon monoxide molecules diffuse upwards.
  3. C.The gases do not mix because nitrogen dioxide is more dense than carbon monoxide.
  4. D.Both gases diffuse at identical rates because diffusion rate depends only on temperature.
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Worked solution

According to the kinetic theory of gases, lighter gas molecules diffuse faster than heavier gas molecules at the same temperature. Since carbon monoxide has a lower relative molecular mass (\(M_r = 28\)) than nitrogen dioxide (\(M_r = 46\)), carbon monoxide molecules will diffuse upwards more rapidly than nitrogen dioxide molecules diffuse downwards.

Marking scheme

A is correct: 1 mark.
B is incorrect: nitrogen dioxide is heavier so it diffuses slower.
C is incorrect: gravity does not prevent diffusion.
D is incorrect: diffusion rates depend on relative molecular mass, not just temperature.
Question 19 · multiple_choice
1 marks
An electric motor of power 100 W is used to lift a load of mass 4.0 kg vertically upwards. The motor has an efficiency of 80%.

Through what height can the load be lifted in 5.0 seconds?

(Take the gravitational field strength, \(g\), to be 10 N/kg)
  1. A.2.0 m
  2. B.8.0 m
  3. C.10 m
  4. D.12.5 m
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Worked solution

1. Find total energy input: \(E_{\text{in}} = P \times t = 100\text{ W} \times 5.0\text{ s} = 500\text{ J}\).
2. Calculate useful energy output based on 80% efficiency: \(E_{\text{useful}} = 0.80 \times 500\text{ J} = 400\text{ J}\).
3. Relate useful work done to potential energy gained: \(W = mgh = 4.0\text{ kg} \times 10\text{ N/kg} \times h = 40h\).
4. Solve for \(h\): \(40h = 400 \implies h = 10\text{ m}\).

Marking scheme

C is correct: 1 mark for the calculation showing 10 m.
A is incorrect: calculated without multiplying by time (using power as energy).
B is incorrect: incorrect usage of efficiency.
D is incorrect: calculated assuming 100% efficiency.
Question 20 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which statement about anaerobic respiration in human muscle cells is correct?
  1. A.It produces carbon dioxide and water and releases less energy per glucose molecule than aerobic respiration.
  2. B.It produces lactic acid only and releases less energy per glucose molecule than aerobic respiration.
  3. C.It produces lactic acid and carbon dioxide and releases more energy per glucose molecule than aerobic respiration.
  4. D.It produces ethanol and carbon dioxide and releases less energy per glucose molecule than aerobic respiration.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

In human muscle cells during vigorous exercise, anaerobic respiration breaks down glucose to produce lactic acid only (no carbon dioxide is released). This process releases much less energy per glucose molecule than aerobic respiration because glucose is only partially broken down.

Marking scheme

B is correct: 1 mark.
A is incorrect: anaerobic respiration in muscles does not produce carbon dioxide or water.
C is incorrect: anaerobic respiration releases less energy, not more.
D is incorrect: ethanol is produced by yeast during anaerobic respiration, not by human muscle cells.
Question 21 · multiple_choice
1 marks
Which row correctly identifies the product at the anode, the product at the cathode, and the change in pH of the remaining electrolyte during the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride using inert electrodes?
  1. A.Anode: chlorine | Cathode: hydrogen | pH: increases
  2. B.Anode: oxygen | Cathode: sodium | pH: decreases
  3. C.Anode: chlorine | Cathode: sodium | pH: stays the same
  4. D.Anode: oxygen | Cathode: hydrogen | pH: increases
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Worked solution

During the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride:
- At the anode (+), chloride ions (\(\text{Cl}^-\)) are discharged to form chlorine gas (\(\text{Cl}_2\)).
- At the cathode (-), hydrogen ions (\(\text{H}^+\)) from water are discharged to form hydrogen gas (\(\text{H}_2\)).
- The remaining solution contains sodium ions (\(\text{Na}^+\)) and hydroxide ions (\(\text{OH}^-\)), forming sodium hydroxide, which is alkaline, so the pH increases.

Marking scheme

A is correct: 1 mark.
B, C, and D are incorrect based on the standard rules of selective discharge for concentrated aqueous sodium chloride.
Question 22 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A student connects three identical resistors, each of resistance \(R\), in parallel. The total equivalent resistance of this parallel combination is \(4.0\ \Omega\).

If the student disconnects these three resistors and reconnects them in series, what is the total equivalent resistance of the series combination?
  1. A.1.3 \(\Omega\)
  2. B.4.0 \(\Omega\)
  3. C.12 \(\Omega\)
  4. D.36 \(\Omega\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

1. For three identical resistors in parallel:
\(\frac{1}{R_{\text{parallel}}} = \frac{1}{R} + \frac{1}{R} + \frac{1}{R} = \frac{3}{R} \implies R_{\text{parallel}} = \frac{R}{3}\).
Given \(R_{\text{parallel}} = 4.0\ \Omega\), we get \(\frac{R}{3} = 4.0 \implies R = 12\ \Omega\).
2. For the same three resistors in series:
\(R_{\text{series}} = R + R + R = 3R = 3 \times 12\ \Omega = 36\ \Omega\).

Marking scheme

D is correct: 1 mark for the calculation leading to 36 ohms.
A is incorrect: represents one-third of the parallel value.
B is incorrect: equal to the parallel combination resistance.
C is incorrect: resistance of a single resistor.
Question 23 · multiple_choice
1 marks
A ray of light in air is incident on the flat surface of a transparent plastic block at an angle of incidence of \(45^\circ\). The refractive index of the plastic is \(1.41\).

What is the angle of refraction inside the plastic block?
  1. A.20\(^\circ\)
  2. B.30\(^\circ\)
  3. C.45\(^\circ\)
  4. D.64\(^\circ\)
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Using Snell's Law:
\(n = \frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\)
\(1.41 = \frac{\sin 45^\circ}{\sin r}\)
Since \(\sin 45^\circ \approx 0.707\) and \(1.41 \approx \sqrt{2}\):
\(\sin r = \frac{\sin 45^\circ}{1.41} = \frac{0.707}{1.41} = 0.50\).
Therefore, \(r = \sin^{-1}(0.50) = 30^\circ\).

Marking scheme

B is correct: 1 mark.
A, C, D are incorrect calculation errors.
Question 24 · multiple_choice
1 marks
How do adding a catalyst and increasing the temperature increase the rate of the reaction between zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid?
  1. A.Both changes lower the activation energy of the reaction.
  2. B.Adding a catalyst increases the kinetic energy of the particles, while increasing the temperature lowers the activation energy.
  3. C.Adding a catalyst provides an alternative pathway with lower activation energy, while increasing the temperature increases the frequency of successful collisions by giving particles more kinetic energy.
  4. D.Both changes increase the frequency of collisions, but only increasing the temperature increases the proportion of particles with energy greater than the activation energy.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, so a greater fraction of collisions are successful. Increasing the temperature increases the kinetic energy of the particles, meaning they move faster, collide more frequently, and a larger proportion of colliding particles possess energy equal to or greater than the activation energy.

Marking scheme

C is correct: 1 mark.
A is incorrect: temperature does not lower the activation energy.
B is incorrect: catalysts do not change kinetic energy.
D is incorrect: catalysts do not primarily increase collision frequency, they increase the probability of a collision being successful.
Question 25 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A wooden crate of mass \( 8.0\text{ kg} \) is pulled along a flat horizontal floor by a force of \( 36\text{ N} \). The frictional force opposing the motion is \( 12\text{ N} \).

What is the acceleration of the crate?
  1. A.1.5 m/s²
  2. B.3.0 m/s²
  3. C.4.5 m/s²
  4. D.6.0 m/s²
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Worked solution

First, find the resultant force acting on the crate:

\(\text{Resultant Force } F = \text{Pulling Force} - \text{Frictional Force}\)
\(F = 36\text{ N} - 12\text{ N} = 24\text{ N}\)

Next, use Newton's second law, \(F = ma\), to calculate the acceleration (\(a\)):

\(a = \frac{F}{m} = \frac{24\text{ N}}{8.0\text{ kg}} = 3.0\text{ m/s}^2\)

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option B.
Question 26 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A battery of e.m.f. \( 12\text{ V} \) is connected to two resistors in parallel. Resistor 1 has a resistance of \( 6.0\ \Omega \) and Resistor 2 has a resistance of \( 12\ \Omega \).

What is the total current drawn from the battery?
  1. A.0.67 A
  2. B.1.0 A
  3. C.3.0 A
  4. D.18 A
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

First, find the equivalent resistance of the two parallel resistors:

\(\frac{1}{R_p} = \frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2} = \frac{1}{6.0\ \Omega} + \frac{1}{12\ \Omega} = \frac{2}{12\ \Omega} + \frac{1}{12\ \Omega} = \frac{3}{12\ \Omega}\)

\(R_p = \frac{12}{3} = 4.0\ \Omega\)

Now, use Ohm's law (\(V = IR\)) to find the total current (\(I\)):

\(I = \frac{V}{R_p} = \frac{12\text{ V}}{4.0\ \Omega} = 3.0\text{ A}\)

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option C.
Question 27 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An enzyme-controlled reaction is carried out at different temperatures.

Which statement correctly explains why the reaction rate decreases significantly when the temperature is increased from \( 40\ ^\circ\text{C} \) to \( 60\ ^\circ\text{C} \)?
  1. A.The kinetic energy of the substrate molecules decreases.
  2. B.The enzyme molecules are denatured, changing the shape of their active sites.
  3. C.The activation energy of the reaction is significantly increased by the heat.
  4. D.The number of collisions per second between enzyme and substrate molecules decreases.
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Worked solution

As the temperature increases beyond the optimum (around \( 40\ ^\circ\text{C} \)), the thermal energy breaks the bonds that maintain the active site's structure in the enzyme. This process, called denaturation, permanently changes the shape of the active site so that it is no longer complementary to the substrate. Therefore, the reaction rate drops to near zero.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option B.
Question 28 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An ion of element \( X \) has a charge of \( 2+ \) and has the electronic configuration \( 2, 8, 8 \).

In which group and period of the Periodic Table is the neutral element \( X \) located?
  1. A.Group II, Period 3
  2. B.Group II, Period 4
  3. C.Group VIII, Period 3
  4. D.Group VIII, Period 4
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Worked solution

The ion \( X^{2+} \) has \( 2 + 8 + 8 = 18 \) electrons. Since it has a \( 2+ \) charge, the neutral atom must have had 2 more electrons than this ion.

Number of electrons in neutral atom \( X = 18 + 2 = 20 \).

Therefore, the electronic configuration of the neutral atom is \( 2, 8, 8, 2 \).

- The number of outer-shell (valence) electrons is 2, indicating it belongs to Group II.
- The number of electron shells is 4, indicating it is in Period 4.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option B.
Question 29 · multiple-choice
1 marks
According to collision theory, why does increasing the concentration of a reactant in a solution increase the rate of a chemical reaction?
  1. A.The activation energy of the reaction is lowered.
  2. B.The reactant particles move with a greater average kinetic energy.
  3. C.The reactant particles are closer together, increasing the frequency of collisions.
  4. D.A larger proportion of collisions have energy greater than the activation energy.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Increasing the concentration means there are more reactant particles in the same volume of solution. Because they are closer together, they collide more frequently, which increases the rate of reaction. Note that lowering activation energy is the role of a catalyst, and increasing kinetic energy or the proportion of collisions with energy greater than the activation energy is the effect of increasing temperature.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option C.
Question 30 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder caused by a recessive allele, \( f \). Two parents who do not show symptoms of the disorder have a child with cystic fibrosis.

What are the genotypes of the parents and what is the probability that their next child will also inherit the disorder?
  1. A.Parents: \( FF \) and \( ff \); Probability: \( 50\% \)
  2. B.Parents: \( Ff \) and \( Ff \); Probability: \( 25\% \)
  3. C.Parents: \( Ff \) and \( Ff \); Probability: \( 50\% \)
  4. D.Parents: \( Ff \) and \( ff \); Probability: \( 25\% \)
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Worked solution

Since both parents are unaffected, they must carry at least one dominant normal allele, \( F \). For their child to have cystic fibrosis (\( ff \)), the child must have inherited one recessive allele \( f \) from each parent. Thus, both parents are carriers with the heterozygous genotype \( Ff \).

A monohybrid cross of \( Ff \times Ff \) produces offspring in the following genetic ratio:
- \( FF \) (unaffected, non-carrier): \( 25\% \)
- \( Ff \) (unaffected carrier): \( 50\% \)
- \( ff \) (affected with cystic fibrosis): \( 25\% \)

Therefore, the probability of the next child inheriting the disorder is \( 25\% \).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option B.
Question 31 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A ray of light travels from air into a transparent plastic block. The angle of incidence in air is \( 45^\circ \) and the angle of refraction in the plastic is \( 28^\circ \).

What is the refractive index of the plastic block?
  1. A.0.66
  2. B.1.2
  3. C.1.5
  4. D.1.6
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Worked solution

By Snell's Law, the refractive index \( n \) is given by:

\(n = \frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\)

Given:
\(i = 45^\circ \implies \sin(45^\circ) \approx 0.707\)
\(r = 28^\circ \implies \sin(28^\circ) \approx 0.469\)

Calculate \( n \):

\(n = \frac{0.707}{0.469} \approx 1.51 \approx 1.5\)

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option C.
Question 32 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A child has weak bones that bend easily under weight-bearing stress.

Which dietary deficiency is the most likely cause of this condition?
  1. A.Vitamin C
  2. B.Vitamin D
  3. C.Iron
  4. D.Protein
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Worked solution

Weak, soft bones that bend easily are characteristic symptoms of rickets, which is caused by a deficiency in Vitamin D (or calcium). Vitamin D is essential for the proper absorption of calcium from the digestive tract to strengthen bones. Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy (bleeding gums), iron deficiency causes anemia (tiredness due to lack of hemoglobin), and protein deficiency causes kwashiorkor.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option B.
Question 33 · multiple-choice
1 marks
The rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction is measured at different temperatures. It is observed that the rate increases when the temperature is raised from \(20^\circ\text{C}\) to \(35^\circ\text{C}\). However, when the temperature is raised above \(50^\circ\text{C}\), the rate of reaction rapidly drops to zero.

Which statement correctly explains these observations?
  1. A.Between \(20^\circ\text{C}\) and \(35^\circ\text{C}\), the kinetic energy of the molecules increases, leading to more frequent successful collisions. Above \(50^\circ\text{C}\), the shape of the enzyme's active site is permanently altered, denaturing the enzyme.
  2. B.Between \(20^\circ\text{C}\) and \(35^\circ\text{C}\), the activation energy of the reaction is lowered. Above \(50^\circ\text{C}\), the substrate molecules are denatured and can no longer bind.
  3. C.Between \(20^\circ\text{C}\) and \(35^\circ\text{C}\), the enzyme molecules change their active site shape to fit the substrate better. Above \(50^\circ\text{C}\), the enzyme is temporarily inactivated but will recover when cooled.
  4. D.Between \(20^\circ\text{C}\) and \(35^\circ\text{C}\), the concentration of enzyme-substrate complexes decreases. Above \(50^\circ\text{C}\), the kinetic energy is too high for complexes to form.
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Worked solution

Between \(20^\circ\text{C}\) and \(35^\circ\text{C}\), enzyme and substrate molecules gain kinetic energy, leading to more frequent and energetic collisions, thus increasing the rate of successful collisions. Above \(50^\circ\text{C}\), the thermal energy is high enough to disrupt the bonds holding the enzyme's tertiary structure, permanently altering the shape of the active site so that the substrate can no longer bind (denaturation).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option.
- A: correct explanation of kinetic energy and permanent active site alteration.
- B: incorrect, temperature does not alter activation energy in this way and substrate is not denatured.
- C: incorrect, denaturation is permanent and not temporary inactivation.
- D: incorrect, the concentration of complexes would drop because of denaturation, not directly because kinetic energy is 'too high' to form complexes.
Question 34 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An experiment is set up to compare the rates of diffusion of two gases, sulfur dioxide (\(\text{SO}_2\), \(M_r = 64\)) and carbon dioxide (\(\text{CO}_2\), \(M_r = 44\)), at the same temperature and pressure.

Which statement about their diffusion is correct?
  1. A.Carbon dioxide molecules have a lower relative molecular mass, so they move faster and travel further along the tube than sulfur dioxide molecules in a given time.
  2. B.Sulfur dioxide molecules have a higher relative molecular mass, so they have more kinetic energy and travel further along the tube than carbon dioxide molecules in a given time.
  3. C.Both gases diffuse at the exact same rate because they are both covalent molecular compounds and are at the same temperature.
  4. D.Carbon dioxide molecules diffuse more slowly because they have a lower density than sulfur dioxide.
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Worked solution

According to the kinetic theory of gases, at a given temperature, lighter molecules move faster on average than heavier molecules. Since \(\text{CO}_2\) (\(M_r = 44\)) has a lower relative molecular mass than \(\text{SO}_2\) (\(M_r = 64\)), \(\text{CO}_2\) molecules move faster and diffuse at a higher rate, travelling further along the tube in a given time.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option.
- A: correct correlation between lower relative molecular mass, higher speed, and greater diffusion distance.
- B: incorrect, heavier molecules move slower at the same temperature.
- C: incorrect, diffusion rate depends on molecular mass.
- D: incorrect, carbon dioxide travels a longer distance because it moves faster.
Question 35 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An electric motor is used to lift a load of mass \(150\text{ kg}\) vertically upwards through a height of \(12.0\text{ m}\) in a time of \(6.0\text{ s}\). The gravitational field strength \(g\) is \(10\text{ N/kg}\).

If the electrical power input to the motor is \(4.0\text{ kW}\), what is the efficiency of the motor?
  1. A.7.5%
  2. B.45%
  3. C.75%
  4. D.83%
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Worked solution

1. Useful work done: \(W = mgh = 150 \times 10 \times 12.0 = 18,000\text{ J}\).
2. Useful power output: \(P_{\text{out}} = \frac{W}{t} = \frac{18,000}{6.0} = 3000\text{ W} = 3.0\text{ kW}\).
3. Power input: \(P_{\text{in}} = 4.0\text{ kW}\).
4. Efficiency: \(\eta = \frac{P_{\text{out}}}{P_{\text{in}}} \times 100\% = \frac{3.0}{4.0} \times 100\% = 75\%\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct calculations leading to 75%.
- Useful output power = 3000 W (18,000 J in 6 s).
- Input power = 4000 W.
- Ratio is 0.75 or 75%.
Question 36 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Which row correctly describes the products and relative energy release of anaerobic respiration in yeast cells compared to aerobic respiration?
  1. A.products: carbon dioxide and ethanol | energy released: much less than in aerobic respiration
  2. B.products: carbon dioxide and water | energy released: much more than in aerobic respiration
  3. C.products: lactic acid only | energy released: much less than in aerobic respiration
  4. D.products: lactic acid and carbon dioxide | energy released: the same as in aerobic respiration
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

Anaerobic respiration in yeast (fermentation) produces carbon dioxide and ethanol, and it yields much less energy per glucose molecule than aerobic respiration because glucose is only partially broken down in the absence of oxygen.

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option.
- Option A correctly identifies ethanol and carbon dioxide as products and notes the low energy yield.
- Option B contains incorrect products for anaerobic respiration.
- Option C refers to lactic acid, which is produced during anaerobic respiration in mammalian muscles, not yeast.
Question 37 · multiple-choice
1 marks
Silicon(IV) oxide, \(\text{SiO}_2\), and carbon dioxide, \(\text{CO}_2\), are both oxides of Group IV elements.

Which statement explains why silicon(IV) oxide has a very high melting point while carbon dioxide is a gas at room temperature?
  1. A.Silicon(IV) oxide has a giant covalent structure with strong covalent bonds throughout, whereas carbon dioxide has a simple molecular structure with weak intermolecular forces between molecules.
  2. B.Silicon(IV) oxide contains strong ionic bonds which require a large amount of energy to break, whereas carbon dioxide contains only weak covalent bonds.
  3. C.Silicon atoms are much larger than carbon atoms, so the covalent bonds in \(\text{SiO}_2\) are significantly stronger than those in \(\text{CO}_2\).
  4. D.Carbon dioxide is a linear molecule, which allows it to slide past other molecules easily, whereas silicon(IV) oxide is a giant ionic lattice.
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Worked solution

Silicon(IV) oxide exists as a giant covalent macromolecule, where strong covalent bonds must be broken throughout the lattice to melt it. In contrast, carbon dioxide consists of simple molecules; when it melts/boils, only the weak intermolecular forces (van der Waals forces) between the molecules need to be overcome, which requires very little energy.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct identification of giant covalent macromolecule vs. simple covalent molecular structures.
- A: correct structural and bonding comparison.
- B: incorrect bonding type (silicon(IV) oxide is covalent, not ionic).
- C: incorrect explanation of physical state differences.
- D: incorrect description of the silicon(IV) oxide lattice (not ionic).
Question 38 · multiple-choice
1 marks
An electromagnetic wave of frequency \(6.0 \times 10^{14}\text{ Hz}\) travels through a vacuum at a speed of \(3.0 \times 10^8\text{ m/s}\). It then enters a block of glass where its speed decreases to \(2.0 \times 10^8\text{ m/s}\).

What are the frequency and the wavelength of the wave inside the glass block?
  1. A.frequency = \(6.0 \times 10^{14}\text{ Hz}\), wavelength = \(3.3 \times 10^{-7}\text{ m}\)
  2. B.frequency = \(4.0 \times 10^{14}\text{ Hz}\), wavelength = \(5.0 \times 10^{-7}\text{ m}\)
  3. C.frequency = \(6.0 \times 10^{14}\text{ Hz}\), wavelength = \(5.0 \times 10^{-7}\text{ m}\)
  4. D.frequency = \(9.0 \times 10^{14}\text{ Hz}\), wavelength = \(3.3 \times 10^{-7}\text{ m}\)
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Worked solution

When a wave passes from one medium to another, its frequency remains unchanged: \(f = 6.0 \times 10^{14}\text{ Hz}\).
The wavelength in the glass is given by: \(\lambda = \frac{v}{f} = \frac{2.0 \times 10^8\text{ m/s}}{6.0 \times 10^{14}\text{ Hz}} = 3.33 \times 10^{-7}\text{ m} \approx 3.3 \times 10^{-7}\text{ m}\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct option.
- Frequency must be unchanged: \(6.0 \times 10^{14}\text{ Hz}\).
- Wavelength calculation using \(v = 2.0 \times 10^8\text{ m/s}\) yields \(3.3 \times 10^{-7}\text{ m}\).
Question 39 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A concentrated aqueous solution of copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using inert carbon electrodes.

Which row correctly describes the observations at each electrode during the electrolysis?
  1. A.at the anode (+): bubbles of a colourless gas | at the cathode (-): a pink-brown solid is deposited
  2. B.at the anode (+): a pink-brown solid is deposited | at the cathode (-): bubbles of a colourless gas
  3. C.at the anode (+): bubbles of a colourless gas | at the cathode (-): bubbles of a colourless gas
  4. D.at the anode (+): bubbles of a green gas | at the cathode (-): a pink-brown solid is deposited
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Worked solution

During the electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulfate:
- At the anode (+), hydroxide ions (\(\text{OH}^-\)) are discharged in preference to sulfate ions, forming oxygen gas: \(4\text{OH}^- \rightarrow \text{O}_2 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O} + 4\text{e}^-\), which is seen as bubbles of a colourless gas.
- At the cathode (-), copper ions (\(\text{Cu}^{2+}\)) are discharged in preference to hydrogen ions because copper is less reactive than hydrogen: \(\text{Cu}^{2+} + 2\text{e}^- \rightarrow \text{Cu}\), forming a pink-brown copper solid.

Marking scheme

1 mark for correct selection.
- Anode (+): oxygen gas (colourless bubbles).
- Cathode (-): copper metal deposition (pink-brown solid).
Question 40 · multiple-choice
1 marks
A circuit consists of a \(12\text{ V}\) d.c. power supply connected to a \(3.0\ \Omega\) resistor in series with a parallel combination of two \(6.0\ \Omega\) resistors.

What is the total current drawn from the power supply?
  1. A.1.3 A
  2. B.2.0 A
  3. C.4.0 A
  4. D.8.0 A
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Worked solution

1. Find the equivalent resistance of the two \(6.0\ \Omega\) parallel resistors: \(R_p = \frac{6.0 \times 6.0}{6.0 + 6.0} = 3.0\ \Omega\).
2. Find the total resistance of the series-parallel circuit: \(R_{\text{total}} = 3.0\ \Omega\text{ (series)} + 3.0\ \Omega\text{ (parallel)} = 6.0\ \Omega\).
3. Find the total current drawn from the power supply: \(I = \frac{V}{R_{\text{total}}} = \frac{12\text{ V}}{6.0\ \Omega} = 2.0\text{ A}\).

Marking scheme

1 mark for the correct answer of 2.0 A.
- Equivalent resistance of parallel branch = 3.0 ohms.
- Total resistance = 6.0 ohms.
- Ohm's law calculation: I = 12 / 6 = 2.0 A.

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Practice This Topic

Paper 41 (Extended Theory)

Answer all twelve structured theory questions in the allocated spaces.
12 Question · 120 marks
Question 1 · structured
10 marks
An investigator measures the rate of reaction of a protease enzyme, pepsin, extracted from a mammal's stomach, under different conditions. (a) Define the term enzyme. [2] (b) The activity of pepsin was measured at pH 2 and pH 8 at a constant temperature of 37 degrees Celsius. Explain why pepsin is active at pH 2 but completely inactive at pH 8. Use the term denature in your answer. [3] (c) Explain why the rate of this enzyme-controlled reaction increases as the temperature is raised from 10 degrees Celsius to 35 degrees Celsius. Use ideas about kinetic energy and collisions. [3] (d) State the chemical elements present in all enzyme molecules. [2]
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Worked solution

(a) An enzyme is defined as a protein that acts as a biological catalyst, speeding up metabolic reactions without being changed. (b) Extreme pH changes alter the ionic bonds holding the protein structure together, changing the active site shape (denaturation). (c) Temperature increases the average kinetic energy, raising the rate of collision. (d) All proteins (including enzymes) contain C, H, O, and N.

Marking scheme

Part (a) [2 marks]: protein [1], biological catalyst / speeds up reactions [1]. Part (b) [3 marks]: optimum pH of pepsin is acidic / pH 2 [1], pH 8 changes the shape of the active site [1], enzyme is denatured / substrate can no longer fit [1]. Part (c) [3 marks]: molecules gain kinetic energy [1], move faster / collide more frequently [1], more successful collisions per unit time [1]. Part (d) [2 marks]: carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen (any two for [1]), nitrogen [1].
Question 2 · structured
10 marks
(a) Describe the differences in the arrangement and motion of particles in a liquid compared with those in a gas. [4] (b) Equal volumes of oxygen gas, O2, and sulfur trioxide gas, SO3, are kept at the same temperature and pressure. (i) Calculate the relative molecular mass, Mr, of O2 and SO3. [2] [Ar: O = 16; S = 32] (ii) State and explain which of these two gases will diffuse faster through a small aperture. [2] (c) When sulfur trioxide is cooled, it changes state from a gas to a liquid. State the name of this change of state and describe the change in the closeness of the particles. [2]
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Worked solution

(a) Contrast the close, touching but irregular arrangement of liquids with the highly spaced arrangement of gases, along with their respective motions. (b)(i) Mr(O2) = 2 x 16 = 32. Mr(SO3) = 32 + (3 x 16) = 80. (ii) Rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to the square root of molecular mass; lighter molecules diffuse faster. (c) Cooling gas to liquid is condensation, bringing particles into contact.

Marking scheme

Part (a) [4 marks]: liquid particles are close together / touching [1], gas particles are far apart [1], liquid particles slide past each other [1], gas particles move rapidly / in all directions [1]. Part (b)(i) [2 marks]: O2 = 32 [1], SO3 = 80 [1]. Part (b)(ii) [2 marks]: oxygen / O2 [1], smaller relative molecular mass [1]. Part (c) [2 marks]: condensation / condensing [1], particles become much closer together [1].
Question 3 · structured
10 marks
A student investigates a step-down transformer. The primary coil has 400 turns and is connected to a 240 V a.c. supply. The secondary coil has 50 turns. (a) State the function of a step-down transformer. [1] (b) (i) Calculate the output voltage across the secondary coil. [2] (ii) The secondary coil is connected to a lamp with a resistance of 3.0 ohms. Calculate the current in the lamp, assuming no energy is lost in the transformer. [2] (iii) Calculate the power output of this lamp. [2] (c) The a.c. supply is replaced with a 12 V battery providing direct current (d.c.). State and explain the effect this has on the output voltage across the secondary coil. [3]
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Worked solution

(a) A step-down transformer lowers potential difference. (b)(i) Vs = Vp x (Ns / Np) = 240 x (50 / 400) = 30 V. (ii) Is = Vs / R = 30 / 3.0 = 10 A. (iii) P = Vs x Is = 30 x 10 = 300 W. (c) Electromagnetic induction requires a changing magnetic flux, which d.c. does not provide.

Marking scheme

Part (a) [1 mark]: decreases alternating voltage [1]. Part (b)(i) [2 marks]: use of transformer equation Vs / Vp = Ns / Np [1], 30 (V) [1]. Part (b)(ii) [2 marks]: use of I = V / R [1], 10 (A) [1]. Part (b)(iii) [2 marks]: use of P = V x I or P = I^2 x R [1], 300 (W) [1]. Part (c) [3 marks]: output voltage is zero [1], d.c. produces a constant/steady magnetic field [1], induction requires a changing magnetic field [1].
Question 4 · structured
10 marks
Yeast cells are single-celled organisms that can perform both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. (a) Write the balanced chemical equation for anaerobic respiration of glucose in yeast cells. [3] (b) Contrast the chemical products of anaerobic respiration in yeast with those in human muscle cells. State two differences. [2] (c) During strenuous exercise, human muscle cells perform anaerobic respiration. (i) Explain why muscle cells perform anaerobic respiration when the exercise is very strenuous. [2] (ii) Describe how the human body removes the lactic acid that builds up in muscles during strenuous exercise. [3]
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Worked solution

(a) Anaerobic respiration of glucose in yeast produces ethanol and carbon dioxide: C6H12O6 -> 2C2H5OH + 2CO2. (b) Yeast fermentation yields ethanol and CO2, while mammalian muscles yield lactic acid only. (c)(i) Strenuous activity exceeds the aerobic respiration limit. (ii) Lactic acid is metabolized in the liver with oxygen.

Marking scheme

Part (a) [3 marks]: C6H12O6 as reactant [1], C2H5OH and CO2 as products [1], balanced equation [1]. Part (b) [2 marks]: yeast produces ethanol, muscle produces lactic acid [1], yeast produces carbon dioxide, muscle does not [1]. Part (c)(i) [2 marks]: oxygen supply is inadequate [1], to meet the rapid / high energy demand [1]. Part (c)(ii) [3 marks]: transported by blood to liver [1], oxidized to CO2 and H2O / converted to glucose [1], requires oxygen (paying oxygen debt) [1].
Question 5 · structured
10 marks
A student investigates the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide, H2O2, which decomposes to form water and oxygen gas as shown: 2H2O2(aq) -> 2H2O(l) + O2(g). The reaction is catalysed by adding a small amount of manganese(IV) oxide powder, MnO2. (a) Draw a labeled diagram of the apparatus the student can use to carry out this reaction, collect the oxygen gas, and measure its volume over time. [3] (b) Explain, in terms of activation energy and collisions, how adding the manganese(IV) oxide catalyst increases the rate of decomposition. [3] (c) The student repeats the reaction at a higher temperature without changing the concentration or mass of the catalyst. Explain, in terms of collision theory, why increasing the temperature increases the rate of this reaction. [4]
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Worked solution

(a) A closed reaction system connected to a graduated gas collector. (b) Catalysts lower the energy barrier (Ea), allowing more molecular collisions to result in reaction. (c) High temperature raises both collision frequency and the energy of colliding particles.

Marking scheme

Part (a) [3 marks]: flask with stopper [1], delivery tube [1], gas syringe or inverted measuring cylinder over water [1]. Part (b) [3 marks]: alternative reaction pathway [1], lower activation energy [1], increased frequency of successful collisions [1]. Part (c) [4 marks]: particles gain kinetic energy / move faster [1], increased collision frequency [1], greater proportion of particles have energy >= Ea [1], increased frequency of successful collisions [1].
Question 6 · structured
10 marks
An electric winch lifts a load of mass 15 kg vertically upwards through a height of 8.0 m at a constant speed. The time taken to lift the load is 12 s. The gravitational field strength, g, is 10 N/kg. (a) State the weight of the load. [1] (b) Calculate the work done on the load by the winch. [2] (c) Calculate the useful power output of the winch motor. [2] (d) The electrical power supplied to the winch motor is 150 W. (i) Calculate the efficiency of the winch motor. [2] (ii) State what happens to the energy that is not transferred usefully. [1] (e) At the top, the load is released and falls freely back to the ground. Assuming there is no air resistance, calculate the speed of the load just before it hits the ground. [2]
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Worked solution

(a) Weight = m x g = 15 x 10 = 150 N. (b) Work = force x distance = 150 x 8.0 = 1200 J. (c) Useful Power = Work / time = 1200 / 12 = 100 W. (d)(i) Efficiency = (Useful Power Output / Power Input) x 100 = (100 / 150) x 100 = 66.7%. (ii) Energy is lost as heat. (e) Loss in GPE = Gain in KE -> mgh = 0.5 x m x v^2 -> v = sqrt(2gh) = sqrt(2 x 10 x 8.0) = sqrt(160) = 12.65 m/s.

Marking scheme

Part (a) [1 mark]: 150 (N) [1]. Part (b) [2 marks]: use of W = F x d or mgh [1], 1200 (J) [1]. Part (c) [2 marks]: use of P = W / t [1], 100 (W) [1]. Part (d)(i) [2 marks]: use of efficiency = output / input [1], 66.7% or 0.67 [1]. Part (d)(ii) [1 mark]: wasted as thermal energy to surroundings [1]. Part (e) [2 marks]: equating KE and PE (v = sqrt(2gh)) [1], 12.6 or 13 (m/s) [1].
Question 7 · structured
10 marks
In a species of flowering plant, the allele for red flowers, R, is dominant to the allele for white flowers, r. (a) Define the terms: (i) phenotype [1] (ii) heterozygous [1] (b) A heterozygous red-flowered plant is crossed with a white-flowered plant. Complete the genetic diagram to predict the outcome of this cross. [5] Genotypes of parents: ..................... x .....................; Gametes: ..................... and .....................; Punnett square: ...; Phenotype ratio of offspring: ..................................................... (c) In another cross, a heterozygous red-flowered plant is crossed with a homozygous red-flowered plant. State and explain the probability of obtaining a white-flowered plant from this cross. [3]
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Worked solution

(a)(i) Phenotype is physical appearance. (ii) Heterozygous means possessing alleles R and r. (b) A test cross Rr x rr results in 50% Rr (red) and 50% rr (white). (c) Rr x RR yields RR and Rr, both of which are red; thus, no white flowers are possible.

Marking scheme

Part (a)(i) [1 mark]: physical/observable features of an organism [1]. Part (a)(ii) [1 mark]: possess two different alleles of a gene [1]. Part (b) [5 marks]: parent genotypes Rr and rr [1], correct gametes R, r, and r [1], correct Punnett square setup [1], offspring genotypes Rr and rr [1], ratio 1 red : 1 white [1]. Part (c) [3 marks]: 0 / 0% [1], homozygous red parent only passes on dominant R allele [1], all offspring will receive R / be red [1].
Question 8 · structured
10 marks
Polonium-210 (210/84 Po) is a highly radioactive element that decays by alpha emission to produce a stable isotope of lead (Pb). (a) Write a balanced nuclear decay equation for the alpha decay of Polonium-210. Use standard nuclide notation for all particles. [3] (b) Define the term half-life. [2] (c) A radioactive sample contains 8.0 x 10^15 atoms of Polonium-210. The half-life of Polonium-210 is 138 days. (i) Calculate the number of Polonium-210 atoms remaining in the sample after 414 days. [2] (ii) Calculate the percentage of Polonium-210 atoms that have decayed after 414 days. [2] (d) Compare the ionizing ability of alpha radiation with that of beta radiation. [1]
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Worked solution

(a) The decay equation preserves mass number (210 = 206 + 4) and atomic number (84 = 82 + 2). (b) Half-life is defined by exponential decay. (c)(i) Number of half-lives = 414 / 138 = 3. Remaining atoms = 8.0 x 10^15 x (0.5)^3 = 1.0 x 10^15. (ii) Decayed fraction = 1 - 0.125 = 0.875 = 87.5%. (d) Alpha has +2 charge and greater mass, making it much more ionizing than beta.

Marking scheme

Part (a) [3 marks]: correct helium/alpha nuclide 4/2 He or 4/2 alpha [1], lead nuclide as 206/82 Pb [1], fully balanced equation [1]. Part (b) [2 marks]: time taken for half the radioactive atoms to decay / activity to halve [2]. Part (c)(i) [2 marks]: determining 3 half-lives [1], 1.0 x 10^15 atoms [1]. Part (c)(ii) [2 marks]: fraction decayed is 7/8 or 100% - 12.5% [1], 87.5% [1]. Part (d) [1 mark]: alpha is more ionizing than beta [1].
Question 9 · Structured
10 marks
A small drone of mass 1.8 kg is used to monitor crop growth on a farm.

(a) (i) Define velocity. [1]
(ii) The drone starts from rest on the ground and accelerates vertically upwards. It reaches a speed of 12 m/s in 4.0 s. Calculate the average acceleration of the drone. [2]

(b) During this upward acceleration, the total lift force acting vertically upwards on the drone is F. The acceleration of free fall g is 10 m/s².
Calculate the value of the lift force F. Show your working. [3]

(c) After reaching its operating altitude, the drone flies horizontally at a constant speed of 12 m/s. The useful power output of the drone's motors is 240 W.
Calculate the horizontal resistive force opposing the motion of the drone. [2]

(d) State the form of energy stored in the drone's battery before flight, and the main form of energy this is transferred to during horizontal flight at a constant speed. [2]
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Worked solution

(a) (i) Velocity is speed in a specified direction (vector quantity).
(ii) Acceleration is calculated using: \( a = \frac{v - u}{t} = \frac{12 - 0}{4.0} = 3.0\text{ m/s}^2 \).

(b) The net vertical force is: \( F_{\text{net}} = F - W = ma \).
First, calculate the weight: \( W = mg = 1.8 \times 10 = 18\text{ N} \).
Then, substitute into the equation of motion: \( F - 18 = 1.8 \times 3.0 \implies F - 18 = 5.4 \implies F = 23.4\text{ N} \).

(c) Power is related to force and velocity by: \( P = F_{\text{res}} \times v \implies F_{\text{res}} = \frac{P}{v} = \frac{240}{12} = 20\text{ N} \).

(d) The energy stored in the battery is chemical (potential) energy. During horizontal flight at a constant speed, this energy is ultimately transferred to thermal (internal) energy of the surrounding air due to work done against air resistance.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) speed in a given direction / rate of change of displacement [1]
(ii) substitution: \( a = \frac{12}{4} \) [1]; correct value with units: \( 3.0\text{ m/s}^2 \) [1]

(b) calculation of weight: \( W = 18\text{ N} \) [1]; correct equation: \( F - 18 = 1.8 \times 3.0 \) or net force of \( 5.4\text{ N} \) [1]; final value: \( F = 23.4\text{ N} \) [1]

(c) formula used: \( P = Fv \) or substitution: \( F = \frac{240}{12} \) [1]; final value: \( 20\text{ N} \) [1]

(d) chemical (potential) energy [1]; thermal / internal energy (of air/surroundings) [1]
Question 10 · Structured
10 marks
Hydrogen peroxide decomposes slowly at room temperature to form water and oxygen gas. The reaction is catalysed by adding a small amount of solid manganese(IV) oxide.

(a) Construct the balanced chemical equation, including state symbols, for this catalytic decomposition. [3]

(b) A student conducts an experiment to investigate how changing the concentration of hydrogen peroxide affects the rate of this reaction.
(i) State how increasing the concentration of hydrogen peroxide affects the rate of reaction. [1]
(ii) Explain your answer to (b)(i) using ideas about collisions between particles. [3]

(c) The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is an exothermic reaction.
Draw a labelled reaction pathway diagram for this reaction, or describe the relative energy levels of reactants and products, clearly indicating:
  • the reactants and products
  • the enthalpy change of reaction, \(\Delta H\)
  • the activation energy, \(E_a\)
[3]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) The balanced equation is: \( 2\text{H}_2\text{O}_2\text{(aq)} \rightarrow 2\text{H}_2\text{O(l)} + \text{O}_2\text{(g)} \).

(b) (i) Increasing the concentration increases the rate of reaction.
(ii) A higher concentration means there are more reactant particles per unit volume. This increases the frequency of collisions (more collisions per second) between reactant particles, resulting in a higher rate of successful collisions per unit time.

(c) On a coordinate system of Potential Energy vs. Reaction Coordinate: the reactants are represented by a horizontal line at a higher level than the products. A curve rises from the reactant level to a maximum peak and then falls to the product level. The activation energy \(E_a\) is the upward difference from the reactants to the peak. The enthalpy change \(\Delta H\) is the downward difference from the reactants to the products.

Marking scheme

(a) correct formulae of reactants and products: \( \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \), \( \text{H}_2\text{O} \), \( \text{O}_2 \) [1]; balancing: \( 2\text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{O}_2 \) [1]; correct state symbols: \( \text{(aq)} \), \( \text{(l)} \), \( \text{(g)} \) [1]

(b) (i) rate increases / reaction is faster [1]
(ii) more particles per unit volume / space [1]; higher frequency of collisions / more collisions per second [1]; more successful collisions per unit time [1]

(c) reactants line drawn higher than products line [1]; activation energy, \(E_a\), shown from reactants to the peak [1]; enthalpy change, \(\Delta H\), shown between reactants and products [1]
Question 11 · Structured
10 marks
Proteins are important biological molecules required for growth and tissue repair.

(a) (i) State the name of the protease enzyme secreted by cells in the stomach wall, and the name of the simpler molecules it produces from proteins. [2]
(ii) Hydrochloric acid is also secreted in the stomach. Explain two reasons why this acid is important for the digestion process and the body's health. [2]

(b) Once proteins are digested, their products are absorbed in the small intestine.
Describe the structure of villi and explain how they are adapted to maximise the rate of absorption of these digested molecules. [3]

(c) Explain the difference between chemical digestion and mechanical digestion, using examples of each. [3]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) Pepsin is the protease secreted in the stomach. It breaks down large proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids.
(ii) Hydrochloric acid maintains a highly acidic environment (pH 1.5 - 2.0). This provides the optimum pH for the pepsin enzyme to function. Additionally, it kills harmful bacteria/pathogens ingested with food by denaturing their cellular proteins.

(b) Villi are finger-like projections found on the inner surface of the small intestine. They are adapted for absorption because:
1. They significantly increase the total surface area available for absorption.
2. Their walls are only one cell thick (thin epithelium), shortening the diffusion distance.
3. They have a rich network of blood capillaries to quickly transport absorbed amino acids away, maintaining a steep concentration gradient.

(c) Mechanical digestion physically breaks down food into smaller pieces without changing its chemical identity (e.g., teeth chewing, stomach wall churning), which increases the surface area for enzymes. Chemical digestion breaks large, insoluble molecules into small, soluble molecules by breaking covalent chemical bonds using enzymes (e.g., amylase breaking down starch to maltose).

Marking scheme

(a) (i) pepsin [1]; amino acids / peptides [1]
(ii) Any two from: provides acidic / low pH / optimum pH for pepsin [1]; kills bacteria / pathogens in food [1]; denatures proteins to make them easier to digest [1]

(b) Any three from: finger-like projections increase surface area [1]; thin wall / single-layer epithelium for short diffusion distance [1]; rich capillary network to carry nutrients and maintain concentration gradient [1]; presence of microvilli (further increases surface area) [1]

(c) Mechanical digestion: physical breakdown of food into smaller pieces / no change in chemical structure [1]; plus correct example: teeth chewing / stomach churning [1]; Chemical digestion: chemical breakdown of large insoluble to small soluble molecules / involves enzymes [1]
Question 12 · Structured
10 marks
An acoustic transmitter is attached to an underwater research vessel to measure the depth of the ocean floor.

(a) The transmitter emits ultrasound waves into the water.
(i) State what is meant by the term ultrasound. [1]
(ii) The frequency of the emitted ultrasound is 40 kHz. The speed of sound in seawater is 1500 m/s.
Calculate the wavelength of this ultrasound wave in seawater. Show your working. [2]
(iii) State whether ultrasound is a longitudinal or transverse wave. Describe the vibration of water particles relative to the direction of energy transfer of the wave. [2]

(b) Data from the research vessel is sent to a satellite using radio waves.
(i) State the speed of radio waves in a vacuum. [1]
(ii) State two differences between sound waves (such as ultrasound) and electromagnetic waves (such as radio waves). [2]
(iii) Identify a region of the electromagnetic spectrum that has a wavelength shorter than infrared radiation but longer than ultraviolet radiation. [2]
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) (i) Ultrasound is defined as sound with a frequency higher than the upper limit of human hearing, which is 20 kHz (or 20000 Hz).
(ii) Wavelength is calculated using: \( \lambda = \frac{v}{f} \).
Convert frequency to Hz: \( 40\text{ kHz} = 40000\text{ Hz} \).
\( \lambda = \frac{1500}{40000} = 0.0375\text{ m} \) (or 3.75 cm).
(iii) Ultrasound is a longitudinal wave. The water particles vibrate back and forth parallel to the direction of wave travel (energy transfer).

(b) (i) The speed of radio waves (and all electromagnetic waves) in a vacuum is \( 3.0 \times 10^8\text{ m/s} \).
(ii) Two major differences are:
1. Sound waves are longitudinal, whereas EM waves are transverse.
2. Sound waves require a physical medium to propagate, whereas EM waves can travel through a vacuum.
(iii) The region of the EM spectrum between infrared and ultraviolet is visible light.

Marking scheme

(a) (i) sound with frequency greater than 20 kHz / 20000 Hz [1]
(ii) substitution: \( \lambda = \frac{1500}{40000} \) [1]; final value with correct unit: 0.0375 m or 3.75 cm [1]
(iii) longitudinal [1]; particles vibrate parallel to / along the direction of wave propagation / energy transfer [1]

(b) (i) \( 3.0 \times 10^8\text{ m/s} \) (accept \( 3 \times 10^8 \)) [1]
(ii) Any two from: EM waves do not require a medium / sound waves do [1]; EM waves are transverse / sound waves are longitudinal [1]; EM waves travel at the speed of light / sound waves travel much slower [1]
(iii) visible light [1]; explanation or description that it lies between infrared and ultraviolet in the EM spectrum [1]

Paper 61 (Alternative to Practical)

Answer all questions. This section evaluates practical experimental skills, graph techniques, and project design.
7 Question · 60 marks
Question 1 · Practical and Experimental Planning
9 marks
A student investigates the effect of temperature on the rate of starch digestion by the enzyme amylase.

(a) Amylase and starch are mixed at \(30^\circ\text{C}\). Samples are tested with iodine solution every 10 seconds. Fig. 1.1 shows a digital timer when the starch has completely digested (the iodine solution no longer turns blue-black).
The display reads: `01:40` (minutes:seconds).
State this time in seconds.

(b) The experiment is repeated at different temperatures. The results are shown in Table 1.1:
Temperature (\(^\circ\text{C}\)) | Time to digest starch (s) | Rate of reaction (\(1000 / \text{time}\))
20 | 250 | 4.0
30 | 100 | 10.0
40 | 50 | 20.0
50 | 80 | 12.5
60 | 500 | 2.0

Calculate the rate of reaction at \(40^\circ\text{C}\).

(c) With reference to Table 1.1, state the optimum temperature for amylase in this investigation.

(d) Identify two variables that must be kept constant in this investigation to ensure a fair test.

(e) Suggest why the test-tubes of starch and amylase were kept in the water baths for 5 minutes before they were mixed together.

(f) Describe the chemical test used to confirm the presence of starch, including the colour change for a positive result.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) The timer reads 1 minute and 40 seconds. 1 minute = 60 seconds, so 60 + 40 = 100 seconds.
(b) Rate = 1000 / time. At 40^\circ\text{C}, the time is 50 s. Rate = 1000 / 50 = 20.0.
(c) The optimum temperature is the temperature at which the rate of reaction is the highest, which is 40^\circ\text{C} with a rate of 20.0.
(d) Controlled variables include the volume and concentration of starch, the volume and concentration of amylase, and the pH of the mixture.
(e) Equilibrating the solutions in the water bath ensures they are exactly at the target temperature at the moment of mixing.
(f) Starch is detected using iodine solution. A positive result is a change from yellow-brown/orange-brown to blue-black.

Marking scheme

(a) 1 mark: 100 (seconds)
(b) 1 mark: 20 / 20.0
(c) 1 mark: 40 (^\circ\text{C}) [Accept: temperature with the shortest time / highest rate]
(d) 2 marks: Any two from: volume of starch, concentration of starch, volume of amylase, concentration of amylase, pH [Reject: temperature]
(e) 1 mark: to allow the solutions to reach the target/constant temperature before mixing
(f) 2 marks: use iodine solution (1 mark); colour change to blue-black (1 mark)
Question 2 · Practical and Experimental Planning
8 marks
A student investigates osmosis using potato cylinders placed in different concentrations of sucrose solution.

(a) For a potato cylinder placed in \(0.2\text{ mol/dm}^3\) sucrose solution:
- Initial mass = \(3.20\text{ g}\)
- Final mass = \(3.36\text{ g}\)
Calculate the percentage change in mass of this potato cylinder. Show your working.

(b) Table 2.1 shows the percentage change in mass for five sucrose concentrations:
Concentration (\(\text{mol/dm}^3\)) | Percentage change in mass (%)
0.0 | +6.2
0.2 | [calculated in part a]
0.4 | +1.5
0.6 | -2.4
0.8 | -5.1

Identify the concentration range of sucrose solution in which the internal concentration of the potato cells lies. Explain your answer.

(c) State the name of the process that causes the change in mass of the potato cylinders.

(d) Suggest why the student gently blotted the potato cylinders with a paper towel before weighing them.

(e) Suggest one way to improve the reliability of the results of this experiment.

(f) State one safety precaution when cutting the potato cylinders.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Change in mass = Final mass - Initial mass = 3.36 - 3.20 = +0.16 g.
Percentage change = (0.16 / 3.20) * 100 = +5.0%.
(b) The internal concentration of the cells corresponds to the sucrose concentration where there is no net movement of water (0% change in mass). This lies between 0.4\text{ mol/dm}^3 (positive change) and 0.6\text{ mol/dm}^3 (negative change).
(c) Osmosis is the diffusion of water molecules from a region of higher water potential to a region of lower water potential through a partially permeable membrane.
(d) Excess solution clinging to the outside of the potato cylinder adds extra mass that is not part of the tissue, introducing error.
(e) Repeating the trials allows calculation of mean values and identification of anomalies.
(f) Using a scalpel or cork borer requires cutting downwards onto a tile, keeping hands clear of the cutting edge.

Marking scheme

(a) 2 marks: Correct calculation of mass change (0.16 g) and percentage change (+5.0%) with working [1 mark for correct method, 1 mark for correct answer with '+' sign or indicating increase]
(b) 2 marks: Between 0.4 and 0.6 (mol/dm^3) (1 mark); explanation: the concentration at which there is no change in mass / where the curve crosses the x-axis (1 mark)
(c) 1 mark: Osmosis
(d) 1 mark: to remove liquid on the surface / ensure only the mass of the potato tissue is measured
(e) 1 mark: repeat the experiment (for each concentration) / use more potato cylinders per solution
(f) 1 mark: cut on a cutting board / cut away from fingers / wear safety goggles
Question 3 · Practical and Experimental Planning
9 marks
A student investigates the rate of reaction between calcium carbonate (marble chips) and dilute hydrochloric acid. The volume of carbon dioxide gas produced is collected and measured over time.

(a) State the names of the two main pieces of glassware needed to collect and measure the gas produced in this reaction.

(b) Fig. 3.1 shows the gas syringe readings at two different times during the reaction:
- Syringe A (at \(20\text{ s}\)): water level/gas volume reads \(24\text{ cm}^3\)
- Syringe B (at \(40\text{ s}\)): water level/gas volume reads \(42\text{ cm}^3\)
State the volume of gas collected at \(20\text{ s}\) and at \(40\text{ s}\).

(c) Calculate the average rate of gas production between \(20\text{ s}\) and \(40\text{ s}\) in \(\text{cm}^3/\text{s}\).

(d) Suggest why the reaction rate decreases as time progresses and eventually reaches zero.

(e) State and explain, in terms of collision theory, the effect of using smaller marble chips (powdered calcium carbonate) on the rate of this reaction.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) A conical flask is used to contain the reacting mixture, and a gas syringe is used to collect and measure the volume of gas.
(b) Directly reading the syringe values gives 24\text{ cm}^3 at 20 s and 42\text{ cm}^3 at 40 s.
(c) Rate of gas production = (Volume at 40 s - Volume at 20 s) / (40 - 20) = (42 - 24) / 20 = 18 / 20 = 0.9\text{ cm}^3/\text{s}.
(d) The concentration of acid decreases as it is consumed, and eventually one or both reactants are completely used up.
(e) Smaller marble chips have a larger total surface area exposed to the acid. This increases the frequency of collisions between reactant particles, resulting in a higher rate of reaction.

Marking scheme

(a) 2 marks: Conical flask / reaction vessel (1 mark) and gas syringe / graduated cylinder (1 mark)
(b) 2 marks: 24 (cm^3) (1 mark) and 42 (cm^3) (1 mark)
(c) 2 marks: evidence of volume difference (18 cm^3) divided by time difference (20 s) (1 mark); 0.9 (cm^3/s) (1 mark)
(d) 1 mark: reactants are used up / concentration of acid decreases
(e) 2 marks: rate increases (1 mark); because of larger surface area / more frequent collisions per unit time (1 mark)
Question 4 · Practical and Experimental Planning
8 marks
A student is provided with a solution of an unknown salt Y to identify.

(a) A flame test is carried out on solution Y. A yellow flame is observed.
Identify the metal ion present in Y.

(b) To a sample of solution Y, the student adds dilute nitric acid followed by aqueous barium nitrate. A white precipitate is formed.
(i) Identify the anion present in Y.
(ii) State the formula of the white precipitate.
(iii) Suggest why dilute nitric acid is added before the barium nitrate.

(c) Describe the observations when:
(i) A few drops of aqueous ammonia are added to a solution containing copper(II) ions.
(ii) Excess aqueous ammonia is added to the same mixture.

(d) State a suitable safety precaution when performing chemical tests on unknown solutions.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) A yellow flame in a flame test is the characteristic test result for sodium ions (Na^+).
(b) (i) Barium nitrate test giving a white precipitate in acidic conditions confirms the presence of sulfate ions (SO_4^{2-}).
(ii) Barium ions react with sulfate ions to form insoluble barium sulfate, BaSO_4.
(iii) Carbonate ions would react with barium ions to form a white precipitate of barium carbonate, BaCO_3. Adding nitric acid decomposes any carbonate present, preventing a false positive.
(c) (i) Copper(II) ions react with a few drops of aqueous ammonia to form a light blue precipitate of copper(II) hydroxide.
(ii) In excess ammonia, this precipitate dissolves to form a deep/dark blue soluble complex.
(d) Wearing personal protective equipment like safety goggles and lab coats is a standard safety measure.

Marking scheme

(a) 1 mark: sodium (ion) / Na^+
(b) 3 marks:
(i) sulfate (ion) / SO_4^{2-} (1 mark)
(ii) barium sulfate / BaSO_4 (1 mark)
(iii) to remove/destroy carbonate ions / prevent false positive (1 mark)
(c) 2 marks:
(i) light blue precipitate / blue ppt. (1 mark)
(ii) dissolves / dark blue solution (1 mark)
(d) 1 mark: wear safety goggles / gloves / use a fume cupboard if hazardous gases are evolved
Question 5 · Practical and Experimental Planning
9 marks
A student investigates how the resistance of a constantan wire varies with its length.

(a) The student sets up a circuit with a power source, an ammeter, a voltmeter across a test wire, and a switch.
Fig. 5.1 shows the dials of the ammeter and voltmeter during a measurement:
- Ammeter pointer is on \(0.35\text{ A}\).
- Voltmeter pointer is on \(1.40\text{ V}\).
Record these readings.

(b) Calculate the resistance of the wire for this reading. Show your working and state the unit.

(c) The student measures the resistance for several lengths of the wire. Explain why it is important to open the switch between taking readings.

(d) State the relationship between the length of a wire and its electrical resistance.

(e) Suggest one possible cause of error in measuring the length of the wire using a metre rule, and describe how to minimize it.

(f) State how the resistance of a wire of the same length and material would change if its diameter were doubled.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) Reading the meters directly gives 0.35 A and 1.40 V.
(b) Using Ohm's Law: R = V / I = 1.40 V / 0.35 A = 4.0 \Omega.
(c) Current passing through a wire causes heating due to Joule heating. Resistance of metals increases with temperature, so keeping the switch closed would introduce temperature-related errors.
(d) A graph of R against l is a straight line through the origin, indicating direct proportionality.
(e) Parallax error occurs if the scale is viewed from an angle. To minimize it, align the eye perpendicular to the mark on the rule.
(f) Since resistance R is inversely proportional to cross-sectional area (A = \pi d^2 / 4), doubling the diameter increases the area by a factor of 4, thus reducing the resistance to one-quarter (1/4) of its original value.

Marking scheme

(a) 2 marks: Current = 0.35 (A) (1 mark) and Voltage = 1.4(0) (V) (1 mark)
(b) 2 marks: correct calculation (4.0) (1 mark) and unit (\Omega / ohms) (1 mark)
(c) 1 mark: to prevent the wire from warming up / overheating (which changes resistance)
(d) 1 mark: resistance is directly proportional to length (or resistance increases as length increases)
(e) 2 marks: parallax error / rule not aligned with wire (1 mark); view perpendicularly / tape wire flat to rule (1 mark)
(f) 1 mark: resistance decreases (by a factor of 4)
Question 6 · Practical and Experimental Planning
8 marks
A student determines the density of an irregularly shaped metal bolt.

(a) The student measures the mass of the bolt using an electronic balance.
Fig. 6.1 shows the balance reading: `78.4 g`.
Record this mass.

(b) To find the volume, the student uses a displacement method:
- A measuring cylinder is filled with \(50.0\text{ cm}^3\) of water.
- The bolt is carefully lowered into the measuring cylinder.
- Fig. 6.2 shows the new water level: `58.0 cm3`.
(i) State the initial volume \(V_1\) and final volume \(V_2\).
(ii) Calculate the volume \(V_3\) of the bolt.

(c) Calculate the density of the metal bolt in \(\text{g/cm}^3\). Show your working.

(d) Describe how the student should read the water level in the measuring cylinder to ensure an accurate measurement of volume.

(e) Explain why this displacement method would not be suitable to determine the density of a block of table salt.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

(a) The mass of the bolt is directly read from the electronic balance as 78.4 g.
(b) (i) Initial volume of water, V1 = 50.0\text{ cm}^3. Final volume of water, V2 = 58.0\text{ cm}^3.
(ii) Volume of the bolt, V3 = V2 - V1 = 58.0 - 50.0 = 8.0\text{ cm}^3.
(c) Density = mass / volume = 78.4 g / 8.0\text{ cm}^3 = 9.8\text{ g/cm}^3.
(d) Looking at the measuring cylinder from an angle causes parallax error. The reading must be taken with the eye at the same horizontal level as the bottom of the curved water surface (the meniscus).
(e) Soluble solids like salt dissolve in water. This means water molecules fit into spaces between salt particles, resulting in a total volume increase that is much less than the actual volume of the salt block.

Marking scheme

(a) 1 mark: 78.4 (g)
(b) 3 marks:
(i) V1 = 50.0 (cm^3) and V2 = 58.0 (cm^3) (2 marks)
(ii) V3 = 8.0 (cm^3) (1 mark)
(c) 2 marks: evidence of density formula (mass / volume) (1 mark); 9.8 (g/cm^3) (1 mark)
(d) 1 mark: read at the bottom of the meniscus / view at eye level / view horizontally
(e) 1 mark: salt dissolves in water (giving inaccurate volume)
Question 7 · Practical and Experimental Planning
9 marks
Plan an investigation to determine how the rate of cooling of hot water in a beaker depends on the surface area of the water exposed to the air.

You are provided with:
- hot water
- beakers of different diameters (same material)
- insulating bubble wrap to cover the sides of the beakers
- standard laboratory apparatus.

In your plan, you should include:
- any additional apparatus needed
- a brief description of the method, including how you will vary the independent variable and ensure the sides of the beakers do not affect the rate of heat loss
- the measurements you will make
- the variables you must control to ensure a fair test
- how you will process your results to draw a conclusion.
Show answer & marking scheme

Worked solution

To conduct a fair test, we must insulate the sides of the beakers using bubble wrap so that heat loss only occurs through the top exposed water surface. The independent variable is the surface area of the water, which is varied by using beakers of different diameters.

1. Measure the internal diameter (d) of each beaker using a ruler and calculate the surface area (A = \pi d^2 / 4).
2. Insulate the curved vertical sides of each beaker equally.
3. Use a measuring cylinder to pour the same volume of hot water into each beaker.
4. Insert a thermometer into the water and record the initial temperature once it stabilizes.
5. Start a stopwatch and record the temperature of the water at 1-minute intervals for 10 minutes.
6. Control variables such as starting temperature, water volume, room temperature, and drafts.
7. Calculate the temperature drop (\Delta T) or rate of cooling (\Delta T / \Delta t) for each beaker.
8. Plot a graph of rate of cooling against exposed surface area. A steeper temperature decline for larger diameters shows that cooling rate increases with exposed surface area.

Marking scheme

9 marks total, awarded for points from the following categories:
- Apparatus (max 2 marks): thermometer (1 mark) and stopwatch (1 mark)
- Method (max 3 marks):
- Pour equal volumes of hot water into beakers of different diameters (1 mark)
- Insulate sides of the beakers (to ensure heat is only lost from the top) (1 mark)
- Record temperature at regular intervals / after a set time (1 mark)
- Variables to control (max 2 marks):
- Same volume of water (1 mark)
- Same initial temperature of water / same room temperature (1 mark)
- Data processing and conclusion (max 2 marks):
- Calculate the temperature change (\Delta T) / plot a graph of temperature against time or rate of cooling against surface area (1 mark)
- The beaker with the largest surface area will have the fastest rate of cooling / largest temperature drop (1 mark)

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