An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Jan 2023 Cambridge International A Level Biology (9610) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.
部分 Unit 1: The Diversity of Living Organisms
Answer all questions in the spaces provided. Show all working for calculations.
7 題目 · 74.9 分
題目 1 · structured
10.7 分
A student wanted to isolate mitochondria from a sample of fresh spinach leaves to study cellular respiration. They carried out cell fractionation and ultracentrifugation.
(a) Explain why the homogenising solution used in cell fractionation must be: (i) Ice-cold. (1 mark) (ii) Isotonic. (1 mark) (iii) Buffered. (1 mark)
(b) Describe the process of ultracentrifugation used to obtain a cell fraction rich in mitochondria from the leaf homogenate. (4 marks)
(c) Mitochondria contain their own DNA. Explain how the structure of mitochondrial DNA differs from the structure of nuclear DNA in eukaryotic cells. (3 marks)
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解題
Detailed steps of ultracentrifugation and chemical justifications are provided.
(a) (i) Ice-cold: To reduce/prevent enzyme activity that could break down or damage organelles. (ii) Isotonic: To prevent osmotic movement of water into or out of organelles, preventing them from bursting or shrinking. (iii) Buffered: To maintain a constant pH, preventing denaturation of proteins and enzymes.
(b) 1. Filter the homogenate to remove large, intact cells and cellular debris. 2. Centrifuge the filtrate at a low speed first. 3. Remove the supernatant (containing mitochondria and other smaller organelles) and discard the pellet containing nuclei and cell wall remnants. 4. Centrifuge this supernatant at a higher speed to sediment the mitochondria into a second pellet.
(c) Mitochondrial DNA is circular (whereas nuclear DNA is linear), shorter/smaller in size, has no introns/fewer non-coding regions, and is not associated with histone proteins (is naked).
評分準則
(a) (i) Reduce enzyme activity to prevent breakdown of organelles (1 mark); (ii) Same water potential as tissues to prevent osmotic movement of water and swelling/bursting of organelles (1 mark); (iii) Maintain constant pH to prevent denaturation of enzymes/proteins (1 mark).
(b) Filter the homogenate to remove intact cells/debris (1 mark); Centrifuge at a low speed first (1 mark); Remove the supernatant and centrifuge the supernatant at a higher speed (1 mark); Mitochondria collect in the second pellet (1 mark).
(c) Circular instead of linear (1 mark); Not associated with histones / naked DNA (1 mark); Shorter / contains fewer non-coding introns (1 mark).
題目 2 · structured
10.7 分
Polysaccharides are large macromolecules constructed from monosaccharide subunits. Amylose, amylopectin, glycogen, and cellulose are common polysaccharides with different structures and functions.
(a) Describe how the structure of amylose differs from the structure of cellulose. (3 marks)
(b) Explain how the structures of glycogen and starch (amylopectin) make them highly suited as storage molecules in animal and plant cells. (4 marks)
(c) A student used Benedict's reagent and a colorimeter to perform a quantitative assay of glucose concentration in various solutions. Describe how the student could use a colorimeter to determine the concentration of glucose in an unknown sample. (4 marks)
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解題
(a) Comparison of amylose (composed of \(\alpha\)-glucose, unbranched helix, same orientations) vs cellulose (composed of \(\beta\)-glucose, straight chains with alternated monomer orientation, forming hydrogen-bonded microfibrils).
(b) Storage adaptations of glycogen/amylopectin: they are insoluble (no osmotic effect), compact (coiled or branched for low volume), macromolecular (cannot pass through membranes), and highly branched (exposing multiple terminal ends for rapid enzyme hydrolysis into glucose when needed).
(c) Colorimetric assay involves making standard solutions of glucose using serial dilution, heating them with a constant excess of Benedict's reagent, obtaining the supernatant after centrifugation, measuring the light absorbance/transmission of each with a colorimeter, plotting a calibration curve of absorbance against concentration, and finding the unknown sample's concentration by referencing its absorbance on the curve.
評分準則
(a) Amylose is composed of \(\alpha\)-glucose monomers whereas cellulose is composed of \(\beta\)-glucose monomers (1 mark); Amylose has a helical/coiled structure whereas cellulose forms straight, unbranched chains (1 mark); In cellulose, alternate glucose monomers are rotated by \(180^\circ\) but they are in the same orientation in amylose (1 mark).
(b) Insoluble so they do not lower/affect the water potential of cells (1 mark); Large molecules so they cannot diffuse out of the cell (1 mark); Compact structure allows a high amount of energy storage in small volumes (1 mark); Highly branched structure provides many terminal ends for rapid enzyme hydrolysis to release glucose (1 mark).
(c) Create a series of glucose solutions of known concentrations (standard solutions) using serial dilution (1 mark); Heat each with a constant, excess volume of Benedict's reagent and filter or centrifuge to obtain the supernatant (1 mark); Use a colorimeter to measure the absorbance or transmission of light of each supernatant and plot a calibration curve of absorbance against glucose concentration (1 mark); Measure absorbance of the unknown sample and read the concentration from the calibration curve (1 mark).
題目 3 · structured
10.7 分
An investigation was carried out to study the kinetics of an enzyme-controlled reaction.
(a) Contrast the mechanism of competitive and non-competitive enzyme inhibitors. (4 marks)
(b) Explain why the rate of reaction levels off at high substrate concentrations. (3 marks)
(c) State how the tertiary structure of an enzyme is held together and explain how an increase in temperature from \(30^\circ\text{C}\) to \(60^\circ\text{C}\) affects these bonds and enzyme activity. (4 marks)
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解題
(a) Competitive inhibitors share structural similarity with the substrate, allowing them to block the active site directly. Non-competitive inhibitors bind elsewhere (allosteric site), changing the shape of the active site so substrates can no longer fit. Only competitive inhibition can be overridden by adding more substrate.
(b) High substrate concentration saturates all active sites. Enzyme concentration becomes the limiting factor because there are no free active sites available to bind additional substrate.
(c) Tertiary structure is held by hydrogen, ionic, and disulfide bonds. At \(60^\circ\text{C}\), the excess kinetic energy causes severe vibration, breaking weaker hydrogen and ionic bonds. This denatures the active site, meaning it is no longer complementary to the substrate, preventing enzyme-substrate complexes from forming.
評分準則
(a) Competitive inhibitors have a similar shape to the substrate and bind to the active site (1 mark); Non-competitive inhibitors have a different shape to the substrate and bind to an allosteric site (1 mark); Competitive inhibition can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration whereas non-competitive cannot (1 mark); Non-competitive inhibitors alter the shape of the active site preventing substrate binding, whereas competitive inhibitors block the active site without changing its shape (1 mark).
(b) All active sites are occupied / saturated (1 mark); Enzyme concentration is the limiting factor (1 mark); Addition of more substrate has no effect on rate as there are no free active sites (1 mark).
(c) Tertiary structure is held by hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, and disulfide bridges (1 mark); Raising temperature to \(60^\circ\text{C}\) increases kinetic energy, causing molecules to vibrate and break hydrogen/ionic bonds (1 mark); The shape of the active site is altered (denatured) (1 mark); The substrate is no longer complementary, so enzyme-substrate complexes cannot form and rate drops to zero (1 mark).
題目 4 · structured
10.7 分
The absorption of glucose in the ileum of mammals relies on the co-transport of sodium ions.
(a) Describe the process of active transport and explain how it differs from facilitated diffusion. (4 marks)
(b) Explain how the active transport of sodium ions out of the epithelial cells lining the ileum allows the absorption of glucose from the lumen of the gut. (4 marks)
(c) Suggest and explain how treating the epithelial cells with cyanide (a respiratory inhibitor that stops ATP production) would affect the rate of glucose absorption. (3 marks)
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解題
(a) Active transport moves substances up/against a concentration gradient using carrier proteins and metabolic energy (ATP). Facilitated diffusion is passive and moves substances down their gradient via carrier/channel proteins.
(b) 1. Sodium-potassium pumps actively transport \(\text{Na}^+\) out of epithelial cells into the blood, establishing a low concentration of \(\text{Na}^+\) in the cytoplasm. 2. \(\text{Na}^+\) diffuses from the lumen down its concentration gradient into the epithelial cells through co-transport proteins. 3. This downhill movement of sodium carries glucose uphill into the epithelial cell against its concentration gradient.
(c) Cyanide inhibits respiration, preventing ATP synthesis. The lack of ATP stops the active transport of \(\text{Na}^+\) out of the cell, collapsing the \(\text{Na}^+\) gradient. Consequently, the co-transport of glucose ceases, stopping absorption.
評分準則
(a) Active transport moves molecules against a concentration gradient / from low to high concentration (1 mark); Active transport requires metabolic energy in the form of ATP whereas facilitated diffusion is passive (1 mark); Active transport requires carrier proteins (pumps), while facilitated diffusion uses both carrier and channel proteins (1 mark); Active transport involves conformational changes driven by ATP hydrolysis (1 mark).
(b) Sodium ions are actively transported out of epithelial cells into blood via sodium-potassium pumps (1 mark); This creates a concentration gradient with lower sodium concentration inside epithelial cells than in the lumen (1 mark); Sodium ions diffuse into epithelial cells from the lumen through co-transport proteins down their concentration gradient (1 mark); This co-transports glucose against its concentration gradient into epithelial cells (1 mark).
(c) Cyanide stops ATP production from respiration (1 mark); Active transport of sodium ions out of cells ceases (1 mark); The sodium concentration gradient between the lumen and cell collapses, stopping the co-transport of glucose (1 mark).
題目 5 · structured
10.7 分
Haemoglobin is a quaternary protein responsible for transporting oxygen in the blood of mammals.
(a) Explain what is meant by 'cooperative binding' in relation to oxygen uptake by haemoglobin. (3 marks)
(b) During intense exercise, the concentration of carbon dioxide in active muscles increases. Describe and explain the effect of increased carbon dioxide concentration on the oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin. (4 marks)
(c) The bar-headed goose (*Anser indicus*) flies at altitudes up to 9,000 metres where the partial pressure of oxygen (\(pO_2\)) is extremely low. Suggest and explain how the oxygen dissociation curve of bar-headed goose haemoglobin would differ from that of a low-altitude bird. (3 marks)
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解題
(a) Cooperative binding describes how the binding of the first oxygen molecule is relatively difficult, but once bound, it induces a conformational change in the quaternary shape of haemoglobin. This exposes other haem groups, making subsequent oxygen binding much easier.
(b) Increased carbon dioxide concentration shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right (Bohr effect). Carbon dioxide forms carbonic acid which lowers pH. The lower pH alters the quaternary conformation of haemoglobin, reducing its oxygen affinity and causing it to unload oxygen more readily to tissues.
(c) The oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the left, indicating a higher affinity for oxygen. This adaptive shift allows the haemoglobin to reach full oxygen saturation at the lower partial pressures of oxygen found at high altitudes.
評分準則
(a) Binding of the first oxygen molecule is difficult (1 mark); This binding changes the quaternary shape/structure of haemoglobin (1 mark); This exposes other binding sites, increasing affinity and making the second and third oxygen molecules bind much more easily (1 mark).
(b) Shifts the curve to the right (1 mark); Carbon dioxide forms carbonic acid / lowers pH in tissues (1 mark); Lower pH changes the tertiary/quaternary structure of haemoglobin (1 mark); This decreases haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, so it unloads oxygen more easily to active tissues (1 mark).
(c) Curve is shifted to the left (1 mark); Indicating higher oxygen affinity (1 mark); Allowing haemoglobin to become fully saturated at much lower partial pressures of oxygen (1 mark).
題目 6 · structured
10.7 分
Protein synthesis involves the transcription of DNA into messenger RNA (mRNA) followed by translation into a polypeptide chain.
(a) Describe the role of RNA polymerase in transcription. (3 marks)
(b) Compare and contrast the structures of mRNA and tRNA. (4 marks)
(c) A section of the template strand of DNA has the sequence of bases: `3'- T A C G G C T T A A T C -5'`
(i) State the sequence of bases on the complementary mRNA strand transcribed from this DNA sequence. (1 mark) (ii) State the anticodons on the tRNA molecules that would align with this mRNA sequence during translation. (2 marks)
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解題
(a) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region of DNA, uncoiling the strands and pairing free RNA nucleotides complementary to the template. It then catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds to construct the pre-mRNA/mRNA backbone.
(b) Similarities: both are single-stranded polynucleotides containing ribose and the bases A, U, C, G. Differences: mRNA is linear and lacks hydrogen bonds, whereas tRNA is cloverleaf-shaped due to internal complementary base-pairing (hydrogen bonds). mRNA is variable in length; tRNA is short and fixed.
(c) (i) Complementary mRNA codons: `5'- A U G C C G A A U U A G -3'` (ii) tRNA anticodons aligning with these: `UAC`, `GGC`, `UUA`, `AUC`
評分準則
(a) Binds to promoter region/template DNA (1 mark); Moves along template strand to match free RNA nucleotides by complementary base pairing (1 mark); Synthesizes phosphodiester bonds between RNA nucleotides to form mRNA backbone (1 mark).
(b) Similarities: Both single-stranded / contain ribose sugar / contain bases A, U, C, G (any two for 1 mark); Differences (any two): mRNA is linear, whereas tRNA is cloverleaf-shaped (1 mark); tRNA has hydrogen bonding between base pairs, mRNA does not (1 mark); mRNA has codons, tRNA has an anticodon / amino acid binding site (1 mark); mRNA is longer/variable size, tRNA is short/fixed size (1 mark).
(c) (i) 5'-AUG CCG AAU UAG-3' (1 mark); (ii) UAC, GGC, UUA, AUC (2 marks for all four correct, 1 mark for 2 or 3 correct).
題目 7 · structured
10.7 分
An ecological study compared the biodiversity of plant species in two fields managed under different agricultural regimes. Field A was a conventionally managed pasture, while Field B was an organically managed meadow. The ecologists sampled the plants using random quadrats and recorded the number of individuals of each species. The results are shown in Table 1.
Table 1: Number of individuals (\(n\)) of each plant species in Field A and Field B.
| Plant Species | Field A (\(n\)) | Field B (\(n\)) | | :--- | :--- | :--- | | Dandelion (*Taraxacum officinale*) | 120 | 35 | | Buttercup (*Ranunculus acris*) | 15 | 30 | | Red Clover (*Trifolium pratense*) | 10 | 28 | | Ribwort Plantain (*Plantago lanceolata*) | 5 | 27 | | **Total number of individuals (\(N\))** | **150** | **120** |
(a) Distinguish between species richness and species diversity. (2 marks)
(b) The formula for Simpson’s Index of Diversity (\(D\)) is: \[D = 1 - \frac{\sum n(n-1)}{N(N-1)}\] Use this formula to calculate the Index of Diversity (\(D\)) for Field A and Field B. Show your working and give your answers to 3 decimal places. (5 marks)
(c) Compare the Index of Diversity values calculated in (b) for Field A and Field B, and explain what these values indicate about the stability of the two plant communities. (3 marks)
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解題
(a) Species richness is the simple count of the different species present in a community. Species diversity is a broader measure that includes both species richness and species evenness (relative abundance of each species).
(c) Field B has a much higher Index of Diversity than Field A (0.754 vs 0.347), which indicates greater species evenness. Consequently, Field B has a more stable community. If an environmental change or pathogen targets one species (e.g., dandelions, which dominate Field A), the community in Field B will suffer less overall disruption because other species are abundant enough to sustain ecological niches and food webs.
評分準則
(a) Species richness is the number of different species in a community (1 mark); Species diversity includes both richness and the relative abundance / evenness of each species (1 mark).
(b) Correct sum of n(n-1) for Field A (14,600) and N(N-1) = 22,350 (1 mark); Correct calculation of D for Field A = 0.347 (1 mark); Correct sum of n(n-1) for Field B (3,518) and N(N-1) = 14,280 (1 mark); Correct calculation of D for Field B = 0.754 (1 mark); Clear evidence of step-by-step working for both fields (1 mark).
(c) Field B has a higher Index of Diversity (0.754 vs 0.347) / greater species evenness (1 mark); Field B's ecosystem is more stable / less susceptible to changes (1 mark); If one species is affected by a pest/disease, other species can maintain community stability, whereas in Field A, a loss of Dandelions would crash the community (1 mark).
部分 Unit 2: Biological Systems and Disease
Answer all questions. Calculators may be used where appropriate.
8 題目 · 75 分
題目 1 · Structured
9.375 分
(a) Explain how the structure of the left ventricle relates to its function in circulating blood around the body, compared to the structure and function of the right ventricle. (3 marks)
(b) A student analyzes a pressure graph of a healthy individual. The time taken for one complete cardiac cycle is 0.75 seconds. Calculate the cardiac output of this individual in \(dm^3\ min^{-1}\) if their stroke volume is \(72\ cm^3\). Show your working. (3 marks)
(c) Describe the state of the atrioventricular (AV) valves and the semilunar valves during the phase of ventricular systole when the pressure in the left ventricle rises rapidly above the pressure in the aorta. Explain how these valve movements prevent the backflow of blood. (3.375 marks)
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解題
(a) The left ventricle has a significantly thicker muscular wall (myocardium) than the right ventricle. This allows it to contract with greater force, generating the high hydrostatic pressure needed to overcome high resistance and pump blood throughout the entire systemic circulation (to the rest of the body). In contrast, the right ventricle only pumps blood to the lungs (pulmonary circulation), which is a shorter distance and has lower resistance; high pressure here would damage delicate lung capillaries.
(c) During the phase of ventricular systole when the pressure in the left ventricle exceeds the pressure in the left atrium, the AV valves close shut due to blood pushing against them. This prevents blood flowing backwards into the atrium. Once ventricular pressure exceeds the pressure in the aorta, the semilunar valves are forced open, allowing blood to enter the aorta. When the ventricle begins to relax (diastole), the pressure in the aorta becomes higher than in the ventricle, pushing the pockets of the semilunar valves closed, preventing backflow of blood into the left ventricle.
評分準則
(a) [Max 3 marks] - Left ventricle has thicker muscular wall / more myocardium (than right ventricle) [1 mark]. - (To contract with greater force to) generate higher hydrostatic pressure [1 mark]. - To pump blood throughout the systemic circulation / whole body (compared to right ventricle pumping to lungs / pulmonary circulation under lower pressure) [1 mark].
(b) [3 marks] - Correct calculation of heart rate: 80 bpm [1 mark]. - Correct conversion of volume: 0.072 dm^3 [1 mark]. - Correct final answer: 5.76 dm^3 min^-1 [1 mark] (Accept 5.76 with correct units. If units omitted or incorrect, max 2 marks for working).
(c) [Max 3.375 marks] - Atrioventricular (AV) valves are closed [1 mark]. - Semilunar valves are open [1 mark]. - AV valves close because ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure [0.375 mark]. - Semilunar valves open because ventricular pressure is greater than aortic pressure [0.5 mark]. - Prevents backflow of blood from ventricle to atrium AND aorta to ventricle [0.5 mark].
題目 2 · Structured
9.375 分
(a) Describe the sequence of events that occurs from the moment a macrophage encounters a pathogenic bacterium to the presentation of bacterial antigens on its cell surface membrane. (4 marks)
(b) Explain the role of lysosomes in the process of phagocytosis and the subsequent destruction of the pathogen. (3 marks)
(c) Explain why antigen presentation by macrophages is an essential step for the activation of the adaptive immune response, specifically focusing on the role of T helper cells. (2.375 marks)
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解題
(a) 1. The macrophage recognizes foreign antigens on the bacterial cell surface. 2. The macrophage membrane extends around the bacterium, engulfing it via phagocytosis. 3. The bacterium is enclosed within a membrane-bound vesicle inside the cell, known as a phagosome. 4. Lysosomes within the cytoplasm fuse with the phagosome to form a phagolysosome, releasing hydrolytic enzymes (such as lysozymes) that digest and break down the bacterium. 5. Antigenic fragments from the digested bacterium are bound to Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) proteins. 6. This antigen-MHC complex is transported to and displayed on the outer cell surface membrane of the macrophage.
(b) Lysosomes are specialized vesicles containing hydrolytic enzymes, such as lysozyme, proteases, and lipases. During phagocytosis, lysosomes move towards and fuse with the phagosome. They discharge their hydrolytic enzymes into the vesicle, which breaks down the structural components of the pathogen (such as hydrolyzing the peptidoglycan cell wall of bacteria and digesting proteins), neutralizing its pathogenicity.
(c) T helper cells have specific T-cell receptors (TCRs) that cannot directly recognize or bind to free, intact pathogens. They can only recognize antigens that have been processed and presented on the surface of an antigen-presenting cell (like a macrophage) associated with MHC class II molecules. Once the specific T-cell receptor binds to the complementary presented antigen, it triggers clonal selection, activating the T helper cell to divide by mitosis and secrete cytokines.
評分準則
(a) [Max 4 marks] - Phagocyte/macrophage recognizes foreign antigens and engulfs/phagocytoses the bacterium into a phagosome [1 mark]. - Phagosome fuses with lysosome (forming a phagolysosome) [1 mark]. - Hydrolytic enzymes/lysozymes digest/hydrolyze the bacterium [1 mark]. - Antigens are integrated/bound to MHC molecules and displayed/presented on the macrophage cell surface membrane [1 mark].
(b) [Max 3 marks] - Lysosomes contain hydrolytic/digestive enzymes (accept lysozyme / acid hydrolases) [1 mark]. - Lysosomes fuse with the phagosome to discharge these enzymes [1 mark]. - Enzymes hydrolyze/break down bacterial components (e.g., cell wall peptidoglycans, proteins, lipids) to kill/destroy the pathogen [1 mark].
(c) [Max 2.375 marks] - T-cell receptors (TCRs) on T helper cells cannot bind to intact/free pathogens / can only bind to presented antigens [1 mark]. - Antigen must be presented on MHC class II molecules of an antigen-presenting cell (APC) [0.375 mark]. - Binding of specific/complementary T helper cell receptor to the antigen activates the T cell, triggering clonal expansion / cytokine release [1 mark].
題目 3 · Structured
9.375 分
(a) A slide of an onion root tip meristem was examined under a light microscope. Out of a total of 640 cells observed, 48 cells were in prophase, 16 in metaphase, 12 in anaphase, and 20 in telophase. Calculate the mitotic index of this tissue as a percentage. Show your working. (3.375 marks)
(b) Describe the events that occur during anaphase of mitosis and explain how these events ensure that the two daughter cells will be genetically identical. (3 marks)
(c) Outline how the division of genetic material during binary fission in bacteria differs from chromosome separation during mitosis in eukaryotic cells. (3 marks)
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解題
(a) 1. Calculate the total number of cells undergoing mitosis: \(48\ (prophase) + 16\ (metaphase) + 12\ (anaphase) + 20\ (telophase) = 96\) 2. State the formula for the mitotic index: \(Mitotic\ Index = \left(\frac{Number\ of\ cells\ in\ mitosis}{Total\ number\ of\ cells}\right) \times 100\) 3. Substitute the values: \(Mitotic\ Index = \left(\frac{96}{640}\right) \times 100 = 15.0\%\)
(b) During anaphase, the centromeres dividing/splitting separate the sister chromatids. The spindle fibers, which are attached to the centromeres, contract and shorten. This pulls the individual chromatids (now referred to as chromosomes) to opposite poles of the spindle apparatus. Because sister chromatids are identical products of DNA replication, this precise separation ensures that an identical, complete set of chromosomes reaches each pole, so both daughter nuclei formed during telophase will be genetically identical.
(c) - In binary fission, the genetic material consists of a single circular DNA loop (and plasmids), whereas eukaryotic cells have linear chromosomes packaged with histones. - Binary fission does not involve the formation of spindle fibers or the breakdown of a nuclear envelope. - In binary fission, the replicated circular DNA molecules attach directly to the cell membrane, which grows and pinches inwards to separate them, whereas in mitosis, spindle fibers attach to centromeres of sister chromatids to pull them apart.
評分準則
(a) [3.375 marks] - Sum of dividing cells correctly calculated as 96 [1 mark]. - Formula or working showing division by total cells (640) [1 mark]. - Correct final answer: 15.0% (or 15%) [1.375 marks] (Deduct 0.375 marks if % sign is missing and not implied).
(b) [Max 3 marks] - Centromeres split/divide [1 mark]. - Spindle fibers contract/shorten, pulling sister chromatids to opposite poles [1 mark]. - Chromatids are identical copies (from DNA replication), so separating them ensures both poles receive identical genetic information [1 mark].
(c) [Max 3 marks] - No spindle fibers form in binary fission (unlike mitosis) [1 mark]. - Circular DNA replicates and attaches directly to the cell membrane (rather than using centromeres/spindle fibers) [1 mark]. - No nuclear membrane breaks down/reforms in binary fission (bacteria lack a nucleus) [1 mark].
題目 4 · Structured
9.375 分
(a) Explain how the active transport of sodium ions out of the epithelial cells of the ileum into the blood is crucial for the absorption of glucose from the lumen of the small intestine. (4 marks)
(b) State three structural adaptations of the epithelial cells of the ileum that increase the rate of absorption of digested nutrients. (3 marks)
(c) Phloridzin is a natural drug that acts as a competitive inhibitor of the Sodium-Glucose Co-transporter protein (SGLT1) located in the microvilli. Predict and explain the effect of phloridzin on the concentration of glucose in the blood of a mammal shortly after a carbohydrate-rich meal. (2.375 marks)
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解題
(a) 1. Sodium-potassium pumps in the membrane of the epithelial cells actively transport sodium ions (\(Na^+\)) out of the cell and into the blood capillaries, using ATP. 2. This active transport maintains a low concentration of sodium ions inside the cytoplasm of the epithelial cell compared to the lumen of the ileum. 3. Consequently, a steep concentration gradient for sodium ions is established between the lumen and the cell. 4. Sodium ions diffuse down this gradient from the lumen into the epithelial cell through a specific co-transporter protein (SGLT1). As they do so, they carry a glucose molecule with them into the cell against its concentration gradient.
(b) 1. Presence of microvilli on the apical membrane, which greatly increases the surface area available for carrier and channel proteins. 2. A large number of mitochondria to synthesize ATP via aerobic respiration to power the active transport of sodium ions. 3. A high density of co-transporter proteins and carrier proteins embedded in the membrane to maximize the rate of facilitated diffusion and active transport.
(c) The concentration of glucose in the blood will be significantly lower/will rise much slower after the meal. Because phloridzin competitively inhibits SGLT1, sodium ions cannot bind and assist in the co-transport of glucose into the epithelial cells. This reduces the rate of glucose absorption from the lumen into the cells, meaning less glucose enters the bloodstream.
評分準則
(a) [Max 4 marks] - Sodium ions actively transported out of cell into blood by sodium-potassium pump (using ATP) [1 mark]. - Establishes a lower sodium ion concentration inside the cell than in the lumen (sodium concentration gradient) [1 mark]. - Sodium ions diffuse down their concentration gradient into the cell via a co-transporter protein / SGLT1 [1 mark]. - This co-transport pulls glucose into the cell against its concentration gradient [1 mark].
(b) [Max 3 marks] - Microvilli / folding of apical membrane to increase surface area [1 mark]. - Many mitochondria to produce ATP (for active transport) [1 mark]. - High density of co-transporter / carrier proteins in membrane [1 mark].
(c) [Max 2.375 marks] - Blood glucose levels will remain low / rise at a much slower rate [1 mark]. - Phloridzin blocks / inhibits SGLT1 co-transporter [0.375 mark]. - Prevents sodium and glucose from binding, reducing glucose absorption from the ileum lumen into the blood [1 mark].
題目 5 · Structured
9.375 分
(a) Describe the cohesion-tension theory of water transport through the xylem of a plant from the roots to the leaves. (4 marks)
(b) Explain how the structural adaptations of xylem vessels allow them to withstand high tension and maintain continuous water flow. (3 marks)
(c) A student measured the rate of water uptake in a leafy shoot using a potometer. When the humidity around the leaves was increased from 40% to 85%, the rate of water uptake decreased. Explain this observation in terms of water potential gradients. (2.375 marks)
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解題
(a) 1. Water vapor evaporates from the wet cell walls of mesophyll cells into the sub-stomatal air spaces and diffuses out of the leaf through open stomata down a water potential gradient (transpiration). 2. This loss of water lowers the water potential of the mesophyll cells, causing water to move from neighboring cells and the leaf xylem into the mesophyll cells by osmosis. 3. Water molecules are polar and form hydrogen bonds with one another, a property known as cohesion. This creates a continuous, unbroken column of water throughout the xylem vessels from the leaves to the roots. 4. As water is pulled out of the xylem in the leaves, the entire column of water is drawn upwards. This is called the transpirational pull, which puts the water column under tension (negative pressure).
(b) - Xylems have walls thickened with lignin, a strong, waterproof polymer that provides structural support and prevents the vessels from collapsing inward under the high tension (negative pressure) generated by transpirational pull. - Xylem vessels are made of dead cells with no cytoplasm, nucleus, or organelles, leaving a hollow lumen that offers minimal resistance to the mass flow of water. - The end walls of the individual xylem vessel elements are broken down, forming continuous, uninterrupted tubes that allow for an unbroken water column.
(c) - An increase in external relative humidity decreases the concentration/water potential gradient of water vapor between the air spaces inside the leaf and the atmosphere outside the leaf. - This reduces the rate of diffusion of water vapor out of the leaf (transpiration rate). - Consequently, there is less water lost from the mesophyll cells, leading to a reduced transpirational pull/tension in the xylem, which decreases the rate of water uptake measured by the potometer.
評分準則
(a) [Max 4 marks] - Water evaporates/transpires from leaves via stomata [1 mark]. - Lowers water potential of mesophyll cells, pulling water from xylem [1 mark]. - Water molecules show cohesion / stick together due to hydrogen bonding [1 mark]. - Creates a continuous, unbroken water column pulled up under tension (transpirational pull) [1 mark].
(b) [Max 3 marks] - Lignified walls to prevent collapse under tension / negative pressure [1 mark]. - No cytoplasm / no end walls / hollow tubes to allow unobstructed flow [1 mark]. - Pores/pits in walls to allow lateral movement of water [1 mark].
(c) [Max 2.375 marks] - High humidity decreases the water potential gradient between inside the leaf and outside air [1 mark]. - Reduces rate of diffusion of water vapor out of stomata [0.375 mark]. - Reduces transpirational pull / tension in xylem (reducing water uptake) [1 mark].
題目 6 · Structured
9.375 分
(a) Describe the structure of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). (3.375 marks)
(b) Once inside the human body, HIV infects specific host cells. Describe how HIV replicates inside a host T helper cell. (3 marks)
(c) Explain why treatment with traditional antibiotics (such as penicillin) is highly effective against bacterial infections but completely ineffective against viral pathogens like HIV. (3 marks)
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解題
(a) HIV is an enveloped virus. It contains: - An outer lipid envelope derived from the host cell membrane. - Attachment glycoproteins (specifically gp120) protruding from the envelope. - A protein capsid enclosing the genetic material. - Two single-stranded molecules of RNA (the viral genome). - Key replication enzymes: reverse transcriptase, integrase, and protease.
(b) 1. HIV attachment proteins (gp120) bind specifically to CD4 receptors on the host T helper cell membrane. 2. The viral envelope fuses with the host cell membrane, releasing the capsid and viral RNA into the cytoplasm. 3. Reverse transcriptase uses the viral RNA template to synthesize a complementary strand of DNA, which is then made double-stranded. 4. This viral DNA is transported into the nucleus, where the enzyme integrase inserts it into the host cell's DNA genome. 5. The host cell's RNA polymerase transcribes the viral DNA into viral mRNA, which is translated by host ribosomes into viral proteins. 6. These proteins and viral RNA molecules assemble into new virus particles, which bud off the host cell.
(c) - Antibiotics function by disrupting bacterial structures or biochemical metabolic processes. For example, penicillin inhibits enzymes involved in the synthesis of the peptidoglycan cell wall, causing osmotic lysis of bacterial cells. Other antibiotics inhibit bacterial 70S ribosomes. - Viruses do not have bacterial cell walls, cell membranes, cytoplasm, or ribosomes, nor do they carry out their own independent metabolic reactions. - Because viruses rely entirely on the eukaryotic host cell's machinery to replicate, antibiotics have no bacterial targets to act upon.
評分準則
(a) [Max 3.375 marks] - Outer lipid envelope with (gp120) glycoproteins/attachment proteins [1 mark]. - Protein capsid [1 mark]. - Two single strands of RNA [1 mark]. - Contains reverse transcriptase / integrase enzyme [0.375 mark].
(b) [Max 3 marks] - HIV glycoproteins bind to CD4 receptors on T helper cells, and capsid/RNA enters the cell [1 mark]. - Reverse transcriptase converts viral RNA into viral DNA [1 mark]. - Viral DNA is integrated into host genome (using integrase) and transcribed/translated by host machinery to produce new viral components, which assemble and bud off [1 mark].
(c) [Max 3 marks] - Antibiotics target specific bacterial structures (e.g., peptidoglycan cell walls) or metabolic pathways (e.g., 70S ribosome protein synthesis) [1 mark]. - Viruses do not have cell walls or ribosomes / have no metabolic machinery of their own [1 mark]. - Viruses replicate inside host cells, so antibiotics cannot target them without damaging host cells [1 mark].
題目 7 · Structured
9.375 分
(a) Explain how mutations in proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes can lead to the development of a tumor. (4 marks)
(b) Explain how epigenetic changes, specifically hypermethylation of a tumor suppressor gene, can lead to the initiation of cancer. (3 marks)
(c) Distinguish between the characteristics of benign and malignant tumors. (2.375 marks)
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解題
(a) - Proto-oncogenes normally produce proteins that stimulate cell division in a controlled manner. A mutation can turn them into oncogenes, which are permanently activated. This leads to excessive production of growth-stimulating proteins, causing rapid, uncontrolled cell division. - Tumor suppressor genes normally produce proteins that slow down cell division, repair damaged DNA, or initiate apoptosis. A mutation can inactivate these genes, meaning the inhibitory proteins are either not produced or are non-functional. Consequently, cell division is not regulated, damaged DNA is not repaired, and abnormal cells divide unchecked, forming a tumor.
(b) - Hypermethylation refers to an increased attachment of methyl groups to the cytosine bases in the promoter regions of a gene. - This changes the chromatin structure (making it more condensed) and blocks transcription factors and RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter. - This prevents transcription of the tumor suppressor gene, meaning the protective protein is not synthesized. Without this protein to inhibit cell cycle progression, cell division proceeds unregulated.
(c) - Benign tumors grow slowly, are typically surrounded by a capsule (keeping them localized), do not invade neighboring tissues, and cannot metastasize. - Malignant tumors grow rapidly, do not have a capsule, actively invade and damage adjacent tissues, and can metastasize (cells break away and travel through the blood or lymphatic system to form secondary tumors in other organs).
評分準則
(a) [Max 4 marks] - Proto-oncogenes mutate into oncogenes, which are permanently active/overexpressed [1 mark]. - This stimulates continuous / uncontrolled cell division / mitosis [1 mark]. - Tumor suppressor genes normally slow division / repair DNA / cause apoptosis [1 mark]. - Mutation inactivates tumor suppressor genes, so cell division is unchecked / damaged DNA cells survive [1 mark].
(b) [Max 3 marks] - Methyl groups added to promoter region (CpG islands) of tumor suppressor gene [1 mark]. - Prevents binding of transcription factors / RNA polymerase [1 mark]. - Gene is not transcribed/expressed, leading to loss of cell cycle regulation [1 mark].
(c) [Max 2.375 marks] - Benign tumors are encapsulated/localized, whereas malignant tumors are unencapsulated and invade surrounding tissues [1 mark]. - Malignant tumors can metastasize / form secondary tumors, whereas benign tumors cannot [1 mark]. - Benign tumors grow slowly, malignant tumors grow rapidly [0.375 mark].
題目 8 · Structured
9.375 分
(a) Describe the biochemical mechanism by which the cholera toxin produced by *Vibrio cholerae* causes severe watery diarrhea. (4 marks)
(b) Explain how Oral Rehydration Therapy (ORT) solutions, containing glucose and sodium ions, are highly effective in rehydrating patients suffering from cholera. (3 marks)
(c) Suggest why drinking large volumes of pure water alone is not an effective treatment for a patient with severe cholera, and can indeed be dangerous. (2.375 marks)
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解題
(a) 1. The bacterium *Vibrio cholerae* releases a protein toxin in the small intestine. 2. The active subunit of the cholera toxin enters the epithelial cells and stimulates the enzyme adenylate cyclase. 3. Adenylate cyclase catalyzes the conversion of ATP into cyclic AMP (cAMP), raising intracellular cAMP levels. 4. High cAMP levels cause the active transport of chloride ions (\(Cl^-\)) out of the epithelial cells and into the lumen of the intestine. 5. The accumulation of chloride ions (along with sodium ions that follow the electrical gradient) significantly lowers the water potential of the intestinal lumen. 6. Water is drawn out of the epithelial cells and blood into the lumen by osmosis, resulting in severe diarrhea.
(b) - ORT solutions contain a specific ratio of glucose and sodium ions. - These molecules are co-transported from the lumen of the intestine into the cytoplasm of the epithelial cells via Sodium-Glucose Co-transporter (SGLT1) proteins, which remain functional despite the toxin. - The absorption of sodium and glucose lowers the water potential inside the epithelial cells. - This establishes a water potential gradient, drawing water from the lumen back into the cells and blood by osmosis.
(c) - Drinking pure water alone does not provide the sodium and glucose required for co-transport to occur, so water cannot be effectively absorbed from the lumen. - Furthermore, drinking pure water will dilute the already depleted electrolytes in the extracellular fluid of the body. This dangerously lowers the sodium concentration in the blood (hyponatremia), which can cause cells to swell by osmosis, leading to brain edema or seizures.
評分準則
(a) [Max 4 marks] - Cholera toxin increases levels of cAMP inside epithelial cells [1 mark]. - Leads to opening of chloride ion channels / active transport of chloride ions into the intestinal lumen [1 mark]. - Sodium ions follow chloride ions into the lumen (due to electrochemical gradient) [1 mark]. - This significantly lowers the water potential of the lumen, drawing water out of cells/blood by osmosis [1 mark].
(b) [Max 3 marks] - SGLT1 co-transporters in epithelial cells remain functional [1 mark]. - Sodium ions and glucose are co-transported together into the epithelial cells [1 mark]. - This lowers the water potential of the cells, allowing water to be reabsorbed from the lumen into the blood by osmosis [1 mark].
(c) [Max 2.375 marks] - Pure water does not trigger sodium-glucose co-transport, so water is not absorbed [1 mark]. - It dilutes blood/extracellular electrolytes (specifically sodium ions), causing osmotic imbalance / hyponatremia [1 mark]. - Can cause cell swelling (especially brain cells) which is life-threatening [0.375 mark].
部分 Unit 3: Populations and Genes
Answer all questions. Formulas are provided where needed.
6 題目 · 75 分
題目 1 · 結構題
12.5 分
Figure 1 shows the electron transport chain on the inner mitochondrial membrane.
[Diagram description: A schematic showing NADH and FADH2 donating electrons to electron carriers, protons being pumped into the intermembrane space, and oxygen acting as the final electron acceptor to form water.]
1.1 Describe the role of oxygen in oxidative phosphorylation as shown in Figure 1. [2 marks]
1.2 Cyanide is a highly toxic substance that acts as a non-competitive inhibitor of the enzyme cytochrome c oxidase, which catalyzes the final transfer of electrons to oxygen. Explain how cyanide prevents the synthesis of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation. [4 marks]
1.3 The theoretical maximum yield of ATP from the aerobic respiration of one molecule of glucose can be calculated using the following values: * Glycolysis: net yield of 2 ATP (via substrate-level phosphorylation) and 2 reduced NAD (NADH). * Link Reaction: 2 NADH. * Krebs Cycle: 2 ATP (via substrate-level phosphorylation), 6 NADH, and 2 reduced FAD (FADH2). * Each NADH in the mitochondrion yields 2.5 ATP via oxidative phosphorylation. * Each FADH2 yields 1.5 ATP via oxidative phosphorylation.
In eukaryotic cells, the 2 NADH produced during glycolysis in the cytoplasm must be actively transported into the mitochondrion, which costs 1 ATP per NADH transported.
Calculate the net theoretical maximum ATP yield from one molecule of glucose in a eukaryotic cell. Show your working. [3.5 marks]
1.4 Human skeletal muscle cells can respire anaerobically when oxygen supply is limited. Explain why glycolysis can continue under anaerobic conditions, whereas the Krebs cycle cannot. [3 marks]
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解題
1.1: Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain (1). It combines with electrons and protons to form water, allowing electron transport to continue (1).
1.2: Cyanide inhibits cytochrome c oxidase, stopping the transfer of electrons to oxygen (1). The electron transport chain stops and electron carriers remain reduced (1). Protons are no longer actively pumped into the intermembrane space (1). The proton gradient is lost, so protons do not flow through ATP synthase / chemiosmosis stops (1).
1.3: - Direct ATP = 2 (glycolysis) + 2 (Krebs) = 4 ATP (1 mark) - ATP from NADH = (2 from glycolysis + 2 from Link + 6 from Krebs) * 2.5 = 25 ATP (1 mark) - ATP from FADH2 = 2 * 1.5 = 3 ATP (0.5 marks) - Transport cost = -2 ATP for 2 cytoplasmic NADH (0.5 marks) - Net yield = 4 + 25 + 3 - 2 = 30 ATP (1 mark for correct final answer of 30 ATP).
1.4: Glycolysis produces NADH, which must be reoxidized to NAD so glycolysis can continue (1). Under anaerobic conditions, pyruvate is reduced to lactate, which oxidizes NADH back to NAD (1). The Krebs cycle requires oxidized NAD and FAD, which cannot be regenerated by the electron transport chain in the absence of oxygen (1).
評分準則
1.1: [2 marks] - 1 mark for identifying oxygen as the final electron acceptor. - 1 mark for stating it combines with protons and electrons to form water.
1.2: [4 marks] - 1 mark for stating cyanide stops the ETC/electron flow. - 1 mark for stating proton pumping stops. - 1 mark for stating the electrochemical proton gradient is lost. - 1 mark for stating ATP synthase / chemiosmosis stops.
1.3: [3.5 marks] - 1 mark for calculating direct ATP (4 ATP). - 1 mark for calculating ATP from NADH (25 ATP). - 0.5 marks for calculating ATP from FADH2 (3 ATP). - 1 mark for correct final net ATP of 30 (deducting 2 ATP for transport).
1.4: [3 marks] - 1 mark for noting glycolysis needs NAD to be regenerated. - 1 mark for describing pyruvate conversion to lactate to oxidize NADH. - 1 mark for stating Krebs cycle cannot run without the ETC regenerating NAD and FAD.
題目 2 · 結構題
12.5 分
2.1 During the light-dependent reaction of photosynthesis, light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll in Photosystem II. Describe how this absorption of light energy leads to the production of ATP. [4 marks]
2.2 The Hill reaction can be used to study the light-dependent reaction. In an experiment, isolated chloroplasts are mixed with DCPIP, a blue dye that acts as an artificial electron acceptor. When DCPIP accepts electrons, it becomes reduced and changes from blue to colorless. Explain what causes the DCPIP to become colorless in the presence of illuminated, healthy chloroplasts. [3 marks]
2.3 A student set up four tubes to investigate the conditions required for the Hill reaction: * Tube A: Chloroplast suspension + DCPIP, placed in bright light. * Tube B: Chloroplast suspension + DCPIP, placed in complete darkness. * Tube C: Isolation buffer (without chloroplasts) + DCPIP, placed in bright light. * Tube D: Boiled chloroplast suspension + DCPIP, placed in bright light.
Predict the final color of the solution in Tubes B, C, and D after 20 minutes, and explain the biological reason for each prediction. [4.5 marks]
2.4 State the precise location of the enzymes of the light-independent reaction (Calvin cycle) within a chloroplast. [1 mark]
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解題
2.1: - Light energy excites electrons in chlorophyll / photosystem II (1). - These high-energy electrons are emitted from the chlorophyll / photoionization occurs (1). - Electrons pass down an electron transport chain/carriers in the thylakoid membrane (1). - Energy lost by electrons is used to actively pump protons across the thylakoid membrane into the thylakoid space, establishing a proton gradient (1). - Protons diffuse back into the stroma through ATP synthase, which catalyzes the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP / chemiosmosis (1). - (Maximum 4 marks)
2.2: - Light causes the photolysis of water, releasing electrons and protons (1). - Light also excites electrons from chlorophyll (photoionization) (1). - DCPIP acts as an electron acceptor instead of NADP (1). - The reduction of DCPIP by these electrons causes it to change from blue to colorless (1). - (Maximum 3 marks)
2.3: - Tube B: Remains blue (0.5 marks). Reason: No light, so no photoionization/photolysis can occur to provide electrons to reduce DCPIP (1 mark). - Tube C: Remains blue (0.5 marks). Reason: No chloroplasts present, so there is no chlorophyll to absorb light / no electron transport chain to release electrons (1 mark). - Tube D: Remains blue (0.5 marks). Reason: Boiling denatures the proteins/enzymes and disrupts the thylakoid membranes, preventing the electron transport chain from functioning (1 mark).
2.4: Stroma (1 mark).
評分準則
2.1: [4 marks] - 1 mark for excitation and emission of electrons from chlorophyll. - 1 mark for passage of electrons down electron transport chain. - 1 mark for proton pumping into thylakoid space establishing a gradient. - 1 mark for protons flowing back through ATP synthase to produce ATP.
2.2: [3 marks] - 1 mark for photolysis of water producing electrons. - 1 mark for light exciting electrons in chlorophyll. - 1 mark for stating DCPIP accepts these electrons and gets reduced.
2.3: [4.5 marks] - 1.5 marks for Tube B (0.5 for blue, 1.0 for explanation of lack of light/photolysis). - 1.5 marks for Tube C (0.5 for blue, 1.0 for explanation of lack of chloroplasts/pigments). - 1.5 marks for Tube D (0.5 for blue, 1.0 for explanation of denaturation of proteins/thylakoids).
2.4: [1 mark] - 1 mark for stroma.
題目 3 · 結構題
12.5 分
3.1 The Hardy-Weinberg principle is used to calculate the frequencies of alleles and genotypes in a population. State three conditions that must be met for this principle to apply. [3 marks]
3.2 In a population of sheep, a genetic condition known as microphthalmia (abnormally small eyes) is caused by a recessive autosomal allele (m). The dominant allele (M) results in normal eyes. In a stable population of 1200 sheep, 48 sheep have microphthalmia. Assume the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
(a) Calculate the frequencies of the dominant allele (M) and the recessive allele (m) in this population. Show your working. [2.5 marks]
(b) Calculate the expected number of heterozygous sheep in this population of 1200. Show your working. [2 marks]
3.3 Explain how natural selection could lead to a decrease in the frequency of the recessive allele (m) over several generations if environmental conditions change. [5 marks]
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解題
3.1: - No mutation occurs (1). - No migration / no gene flow into or out of the population (1). - Random mating (1). - Large population size (1). - No selection pressure / all genotypes have equal reproductive success (1). - (Any 3 for 3 marks).
3.2(a): - q^2 = 48 / 1200 = 0.04 (0.5 marks for showing the ratio/decimal) - q (frequency of recessive allele m) = sqrt(0.04) = 0.2 (1 mark) - p (frequency of dominant allele M) = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8 (1 mark)
3.2(b): - Frequency of heterozygotes (2pq) = 2 * 0.8 * 0.2 = 0.32 (1 mark) - Expected number of heterozygotes = 0.32 * 1200 = 384 (1 mark)
3.3: - Sheep with microphthalmia (homozygous recessive, mm) have a phenotype that makes them less adapted to their environment / less able to find food or avoid predators (1). - They are less likely to survive to reproductive age / less reproductive success (differential survival) (1). - They pass on fewer of their alleles (including the recessive allele m) to the next generation (1). - Conversely, individuals with the dominant allele (MM and Mm) have a selective advantage, survive, reproduce, and pass on their alleles (1). - Over generations, the frequency of the m allele decreases while the frequency of the M allele increases (1).
評分準則
3.1: [3 marks] - 1 mark for each correct condition listed (max 3).
3.2(a): [2.5 marks] - 0.5 marks for calculating q^2 = 0.04. - 1 mark for correct value of q = 0.2. - 1 mark for correct value of p = 0.8.
3.2(b): [2 marks] - 1 mark for calculating 2pq frequency (0.32). - 1 mark for calculating correct final answer (384 sheep).
3.3: [5 marks] - 1 mark for linking phenotype to survival disadvantage. - 1 mark for stating reduced chance of reproduction (differential survival). - 1 mark for fewer recessive alleles passed on to next generation. - 1 mark for dominant individuals having selective advantage. - 1 mark for stating that allele frequency of m decreases over generations.
題目 4 · 結構題
12.5 分
4.1 Speciation is the evolutionary process by which populations evolve to become distinct species. Distinguish between allopatric speciation and sympatric speciation. [3 marks]
4.2 A population of Anolis lizards on a Caribbean island was split when rising sea levels divided the island into two separate smaller islands (Island X and Island Y). * Island X has dense, shady forest with many climbing predators. * Island Y has open, sunny grassland with birds of prey as the main predators.
Describe how natural selection and geographical isolation can lead to the formation of two distinct species of lizards on these islands. [6 marks]
4.3 In Anolis lizards, males attract females during courtship by extending a colored throat flap called a dewlap. * On Island X (dense forest), males with bright, reflective dewlaps are highly successful at attracting mates. * On Island Y (sunny grassland), males with dark, non-reflective dewlaps are highly successful at attracting mates.
Explain how these differences in courtship behavior and dewlap appearance can act as a mechanism of reproductive isolation if the two populations are brought back together. [3.5 marks]
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解題
4.1: - Allopatric speciation occurs when populations are geographically isolated / separated by a physical barrier (1). - Sympatric speciation occurs within the same geographic area / without physical separation (1). - Sympatric speciation is often driven by behavioral, temporal, or ecological isolation, whereas allopatric is initiated by a physical barrier (1).
4.2: - Geographical isolation prevents gene flow / interbreeding between the two populations (1). - Different environmental conditions on Island X and Island Y present different selection pressures (1). - Random mutations arise independently in each population, creating new alleles (1). - On Island X, alleles for traits suited to shady forests and predator evasion are selected for, while on Island Y, alleles for open grassland survival are selected for (1). - Individuals with advantageous alleles survive, reproduce, and pass on these alleles (differential reproductive success) (1). - This leads to changes in allele frequencies in each population over many generations (1). - The two gene pools become so different that they can no longer interbreed to produce fertile offspring (speciation has occurred) (1). - (Maximum 6 marks)
4.3: - Females from Island X are adapted to recognize and prefer bright, reflective dewlaps (1). - Females from Island Y are adapted to recognize and prefer dark, non-reflective dewlaps (1). - If they are reunited, mating will not occur because males from Island X will not attract females from Island Y, and vice versa (1). - This is behavioral/courtship isolation, which prevents gene flow and maintains the two populations as separate species (0.5).
評分準則
4.1: [3 marks] - 1 mark for explaining allopatric speciation requires geographical isolation. - 1 mark for explaining sympatric speciation occurs in the same geographical area. - 1 mark for highlighting different mechanisms (physical vs ecological/behavioral barriers).
4.2: [6 marks] - 1 mark for stating geographical isolation prevents gene flow. - 1 mark for recognizing different environmental conditions exert different selection pressures. - 1 mark for mutations introducing different alleles in each population. - 1 mark for describing natural selection favoring different advantageous phenotypes. - 1 mark for noting change in allele frequencies over time. - 1 mark for defining speciation as inability to interbreed to produce fertile offspring.
4.3: [3.5 marks] - 1 mark for noting females from Island X select bright dewlaps. - 1 mark for noting females from Island Y select dark dewlaps. - 1 mark for stating that males from one island will fail to attract females from the other. - 0.5 marks for naming this as behavioral isolation.
題目 5 · 結構題
12.5 分
5.1 Define net primary productivity (NPP) and write a mathematical equation that relates it to gross primary productivity (GPP) and respiratory losses (R). [3 marks]
5.2 In a temperate deciduous forest, the gross primary productivity (GPP) is measured as 24000 kJ m^-2 yr^-1. The energy lost through plant respiration (R) is 14400 kJ m^-2 yr^-1.
(a) Calculate the percentage of GPP that is lost as heat during respiration by the plants. [2 marks]
(b) Calculate the net primary productivity (NPP) of this forest ecosystem. State the correct units in your answer. [2 marks]
5.3 The primary consumers in this forest ingest 1920 kJ m^-2 yr^-1 of plant material. They lose 1120 kJ m^-2 yr^-1 in feces and urine, and 640 kJ m^-2 yr^-1 as respiratory heat loss.
(a) Use the equation N = I - (F + R) to calculate the secondary productivity (N) of these primary consumers. [2.5 marks]
(b) Calculate the efficiency of energy transfer from the NPP of the producers to the secondary productivity of the primary consumers. Show your working. [3 marks]
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解題
5.1: - Net primary productivity is the chemical energy store remaining in plant biomass after respiratory losses have been subtracted (1). - It is the energy available for growth, reproduction, and to the next trophic level (1). - Equation: NPP = GPP - R (1).
5.1: [3 marks] - 1 mark for definition of NPP as energy store remaining after respiration. - 1 mark for stating it is available for growth/decomposers. - 1 mark for equation: NPP = GPP - R.
5.2(a): [2 marks] - 1 mark for showing correct working: 14400 / 24000. - 1 mark for correct answer of 60%.
5.2(b): [2 marks] - 1 mark for correct numerical value of 9600. - 1 mark for correct units: kJ m^-2 yr^-1.
5.3(a): [2.5 marks] - 1 mark for substitution of values: 1920 - (1120 + 640). - 1 mark for correct value: 160. - 0.5 marks for correct units: kJ m^-2 yr^-1.
5.3(b): [3 marks] - 1 mark for showing division of consumer productivity by NPP (160 / 9600). - 2 marks for correct final percentage of 1.67% (or 1.7%).
題目 6 · 結構題
12.5 分
6.1 The nitrogen cycle relies on various groups of soil bacteria. Describe the specific biochemical conversions carried out by: * Nitrifying bacteria * Denitrifying bacteria [4 marks]
6.2 Farmers often apply nitrate-containing fertilizers to crops to increase yield. However, excessive application can lead to leaching into nearby rivers and lakes.
Explain how leaching of nitrates can cause a sequence of events leading to the death of fish and a severe reduction in aquatic biodiversity. [6 marks]
6.3 Many plants form mutualistic relationships with mycorrhizal fungi. Explain how the presence of mycorrhizae helps plants absorb inorganic ions (such as phosphate and nitrate) from the soil, especially in nutrient-poor environments. [2.5 marks]
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解題
6.1: - Nitrifying bacteria: Convert ammonium ions / ammonia into nitrites (1), and then convert nitrites into nitrates (1). - Denitrifying bacteria: Convert nitrates back into nitrogen gas (1) under anaerobic conditions / in waterlogged soils (1).
6.2: - Nitrates leach into water, causing rapid growth of algae / algal bloom (1). - Algae form a dense layer on the water surface, blocking light from reaching submerged plants below (1). - Submerged plants cannot photosynthesize and die (1). - Saprobiontic bacteria / decomposers feed on the dead plant matter, multiplying rapidly (1). - These decomposers respire aerobically, using up dissolved oxygen from the water (1). - The concentration of dissolved oxygen decreases significantly, causing fish and other aerobic organisms to die of suffocation (1).
6.3: - Mycorrhizae consist of a network of fungal hyphae that extend from the plant roots (1). - This vastly increases the surface area for the absorption of water and mineral ions (1). - The fungi act like a sponge, holding onto water and minerals, making the plant more resistant to drought and low nutrient levels (0.5).
評分準則
6.1: [4 marks] - 1 mark for ammonium/ammonia converted to nitrite. - 1 mark for nitrite converted to nitrate. - 1 mark for nitrate converted to nitrogen gas. - 1 mark for noting denitrification occurs under anaerobic/waterlogged conditions.
6.2: [6 marks] - 1 mark for algal bloom. - 1 mark for light being blocked from lower layers. - 1 mark for death of submerged plants due to no photosynthesis. - 1 mark for rapid growth/increase of saprobionts/decomposers. - 1 mark for decomposers using up oxygen via aerobic respiration. - 1 mark for fish/aerobic organisms dying due to lack of oxygen.
6.3: [2.5 marks] - 1 mark for mentioning the network of fungal hyphae. - 1 mark for stating this increases the surface area for absorption of ions/water. - 0.5 marks for noting the benefit in poor/dry soils.
部分 Unit 4: Control
Answer all questions in full prose or mathematical steps.
7 題目 · 74.9 分
題目 1 · 結構題
10.7 分
(a) Describe how an action potential is propagated along a myelinated axon. (4 marks)
(b) Anatoxin-a(s) is a potent natural organophosphate-like acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. Explain the effect of this toxin on the postsynaptic membrane of a cholinergic synapse. (3.7 marks)
(c) Suggest how a drug that blocks voltage-gated calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane could act as an antidote to Anatoxin-a(s) poisoning. (3 marks)
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解題
(a) In a myelinated axon, depolarization of the membrane can only occur at the Nodes of Ranvier, where there is a high concentration of voltage-gated sodium channels. The myelin sheath acts as an electrical insulator, which prevents the entry or exit of ions (like \(Na^+\) and \(K^+\)) through the axonal membrane. Consequently, local circuits established by an action potential jump from one Node of Ranvier to the next, a process known as saltatory conduction. This greatly increases the velocity of the nerve impulse propagation along the axon compared to unmyelinated fibres.
(b) Since Anatoxin-a(s) acts as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, the enzyme responsible for hydrolysing acetylcholine (ACh) in the synaptic cleft is rendered non-functional. As a result, ACh remains bound to receptor proteins on the ligand-gated sodium channels of the postsynaptic membrane. This keeps these sodium channels open, causing a continuous, unregulated influx of \(Na^+\) ions down their electrochemical gradient into the postsynaptic neurone. This causes a prolonged depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane, leading to repetitive and uncontrolled generation of action potentials along the postsynaptic neurone.
(c) Calcium ions (\(Ca^{2+}\)) entering the presynaptic knob through voltage-gated channels are essential for triggering the fusion of synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic membrane to release neurotransmitters. A drug that blocks these voltage-gated calcium channels would prevent the influx of \(Ca^{2+}\) into the presynaptic neurone. This prevents the exocytosis of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft, thereby reducing the amount of neurotransmitter available to overstimulate the postsynaptic receptors and mitigating the effects of the acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
評分準則
(a) [Max 4 marks] 1. Depolarisation can only occur at the Nodes of Ranvier / where there is no myelin. [1 mark] 2. Myelin sheath acts as an electrical insulator, preventing ion movement across the membrane. [1 mark] 3. Local currents jump from one node of Ranvier to the next. [1 mark] 4. This process is called saltatory conduction, which increases the speed of transmission. [1 mark]
(b) [Max 3.7 marks] 1. Acetylcholinesterase is inhibited, so acetylcholine (ACh) is not broken down / hydrolysed. [1 mark] 2. ACh remains bound to receptor proteins on the ligand-gated sodium channels. [1 mark] 3. Sodium channels remain open, resulting in continuous influx of sodium ions (\(Na^+\)) into the postsynaptic neurone. [1 mark] 4. This results in continuous depolarisation / repetitive generation of action potentials. [0.7 marks]
(c) [Max 3 marks] 1. Blocking calcium channels prevents calcium ions (\(Ca^{2+}\)) from entering the presynaptic knob. [1 mark] 2. This prevents synaptic vesicles from fusing with the presynaptic membrane. [1 mark] 3. This stops / reduces the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft, preventing the overstimulation of the postsynaptic neurone. [1 mark]
題目 2 · 結構題
10.7 分
(a) Explain how pressure applied to a Pacinian corpuscle results in the establishment of a generator potential. (4 marks)
(b) Explain why rod cells have low visual acuity but high sensitivity to light compared to cone cells. (4.7 marks)
(c) Contrast the role of rhodopsin in rod cells with that of iodopsin in cone cells in terms of light detection. (2 marks)
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解題
(a) When pressure is applied to a Pacinian corpuscle, it deforms the concentric rings of connective tissue (lamellae) surrounding the sensory neurone ending. This physical distortion stretches the membrane of the sensory nerve ending, causing the stretch-mediated sodium channels located in this membrane to widen and open. This allows sodium ions (\(Na^+\)) to rapidly diffuse down their electrochemical gradient into the neurone. The accumulation of positive charge depolarises the membrane, establishing a generator potential.
(b) Low visual acuity: Many rod cells (often up to a hundred) connect / synapse to a single bipolar neurone, a phenomenon known as retinal convergence. Because of this, only a single impulse is sent to the brain regardless of which individual rod cells in that group were stimulated. Consequently, the brain cannot distinguish which precise point of light triggered the response, leading to low resolution/acuity. High sensitivity: Due to retinal convergence, spatial summation occurs. Although light of low intensity may generate only tiny sub-threshold potentials in individual rod cells, these weak potentials combine at the shared bipolar neurone to exceed the threshold value required to trigger an action potential. This allows vision in very dim light.
(c) Rhodopsin (found in rod cells) is extremely sensitive to light and breaks down (bleaches) at very low light intensities, allowing light detection in dark conditions but without colour discrimination. In contrast, iodopsin (found in cone cells) requires much higher light intensities to bleach and exists in three distinct forms sensitive to different wavelengths of light, enabling color vision in bright conditions.
評分準則
(a) [Max 4 marks] 1. Pressure deforms / distorts the lamellae of the Pacinian corpuscle. [1 mark] 2. This stretches the stretch-mediated sodium channels in the membrane of the sensory neurone ending. [1 mark] 3. The stretch-mediated sodium channels open. [1 mark] 4. Sodium ions (\(Na^+\)) diffuse into the neurone ending, causing depolarisation / producing a generator potential. [1 mark]
(b) [Max 4.7 marks] - Low acuity: 1. Multiple rod cells connect / synapse to a single bipolar neurone (retinal convergence). [1 mark] 2. Only a single nerve impulse is sent to the brain, meaning the brain cannot resolve separate adjacent points of light. [1 mark] - High sensitivity: 3. Spatial summation occurs because multiple rod cells converge on one bipolar neurone. [1 mark] 4. Small generator potentials from multiple rod cells combine to exceed the threshold value required to trigger an action potential in the bipolar neurone. [1 mark] 5. This enables visual detection in very dim / low-intensity light. [0.7 marks]
(c) [Max 2 marks] 1. Rhodopsin is broken down / bleached by low-intensity light, enabling vision in dim light. [1 mark] 2. Iodopsin requires high-intensity light to bleach and exists in different forms sensitive to different wavelengths for colour vision. [1 mark]
題目 3 · 結構題
10.7 分
(a) Describe the second messenger model of hormone action, using glucagon as an example. (5 marks)
(b) Explain how a negative feedback loop controls blood glucose concentration when it rises above normal levels, and identify the specific cells involved. (3.7 marks)
(c) Suggest why patients with Type 1 diabetes must inject insulin rather than taking it orally as a pill. (2 marks)
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解題
(a) Glucagon is a peptide hormone that cannot pass through the phospholipid bilayer of the cell-surface membrane. Instead, it binds to specific receptors on the outer cell-surface membrane of target liver cells (hepatocytes). The binding of glucagon to its receptor induces a conformational change on the inner side of the membrane, activating the enzyme adenylate cyclase. Active adenylate cyclase converts ATP into cyclic AMP (cAMP) inside the cytoplasm. cAMP acts as the second messenger, binding to and activating the enzyme protein kinase A. Active protein kinase A initiates a cascade of enzymatic reactions that breaks down glycogen to glucose (glycogenesis is inhibited, glycogenolysis is activated) and stimulates gluconeogenesis.
(b) When blood glucose levels rise above normal, the change is detected by receptors on the \(\beta\) (beta) cells in the Islets of Langerhans within the pancreas. In response, these \(\beta\) cells secrete the hormone insulin directly into the blood. Insulin travels to target cells (such as liver and muscle cells) and binds to specific receptors. This binding triggers the recruitment of GLUT4 glucose transporter proteins to the cell-surface membrane, increasing glucose uptake. It also activates enzymes that convert glucose into glycogen (glycogenesis). As glucose is removed from the blood, its concentration decreases back to normal. This reduction in blood glucose levels removes the initial stimulus, preventing further excessive release of insulin in a negative feedback loop.
(c) Insulin is a protein / polypeptide. If taken orally, it would enter the acidic environment of the stomach and be subjected to enzymatic digestion by proteases (such as pepsin and trypsin) in the digestive tract. This would hydrolyse the peptide bonds of insulin, breaking it down into individual amino acids and rendering it completely non-functional before it could be absorbed into the bloodstream.
評分準則
(a) [Max 5 marks] 1. Glucagon binds to specific receptors on the cell surface membrane of liver cells (hepatocytes). [1 mark] 2. This activates the transmembrane enzyme adenylate cyclase. [1 mark] 3. Active adenylate cyclase converts ATP into cyclic AMP (cAMP), which acts as the second messenger. [1 mark] 4. cAMP binds to and activates protein kinase A (an enzyme). [1 mark] 5. Active protein kinase A initiates an enzyme cascade that converts glycogen to glucose / promotes glycogenolysis / gluconeogenesis. [1 mark]
(b) [Max 3.7 marks] 1. A rise in blood glucose is detected by receptors on the \(\beta\) (beta) cells in the Islets of Langerhans. [1 mark] 2. \(\beta\) cells secrete insulin into the blood. [1 mark] 3. Insulin binds to receptors on target cells (liver/muscle), leading to increased glucose uptake and glycogenesis, which lowers blood glucose. [1 mark] 4. The reduction in blood glucose inhibits further secretion of insulin / returns insulin secretion to baseline (negative feedback). [0.7 marks]
(c) [Max 2 marks] 1. Insulin is a protein / peptide hormone. [1 mark] 2. It would be digested / hydrolysed by peptidases / proteases in the digestive system, making it non-functional. [1 mark]
題目 4 · 結構題
10.7 分
(a) Explain the role of reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase in producing cDNA from mRNA. (4 marks)
(b) Describe how the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to amplify a fragment of DNA, including the role of primers and the specific temperatures involved. (4.7 marks)
(c) Why is it necessary to use a promoter region when inserting a eukaryotic gene into a prokaryotic vector? (2 marks)
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解題
(a) First, reverse transcriptase is used to synthesize a single strand of complementary DNA (cDNA) from an isolated mRNA template. The reverse transcriptase enzyme aligns free DNA nucleotides with their complementary bases on the mRNA (e.g., A to U, T to A, C to G, G to C) and joins them via phosphodiester bonds. Once the single-stranded cDNA is created, the mRNA template is degraded. DNA polymerase is then added along with DNA nucleotides to synthesize the second complementary strand of DNA, forming a double-stranded cDNA molecule that represents the gene without introns.
(b) PCR is carried out in a thermocycler using a repeating cycle of three main temperature steps. First, the reaction mixture (containing DNA fragment, primers, Taq DNA polymerase, and free nucleotides) is heated to \(95\,^\circ\text{C}\) to break the hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs, separating the double-stranded DNA into single strands. Second, the mixture is cooled to \(55\,^\circ\text{C}\) to allow primers to anneal (bind via hydrogen bonds) to complementary sequences at the ends of the DNA strands. Primers are short, single-stranded DNA sequences that provide a starting point for DNA polymerase. Third, the temperature is raised to \(72\,^\circ\text{C}\), which is the optimum temperature for the thermostable Taq DNA polymerase to synthesize the complementary strands by adding free nucleotides. Repeating this cycle exponentially amplifies the DNA.
(c) Eukaryotic genes do not naturally contain the specific promoter sequences that are recognized by bacterial RNA polymerase. Therefore, a prokaryotic promoter must be inserted upstream of the eukaryotic gene in the vector so that the host bacterium's RNA polymerase can bind to the DNA and initiate transcription of the inserted gene.
評分準則
(a) [Max 4 marks] 1. Reverse transcriptase aligns free DNA nucleotides with their complementary bases on the mRNA template. [1 mark] 2. Reverse transcriptase joins these DNA nucleotides together (via phosphodiester bonds) to form single-stranded cDNA. [1 mark] 3. DNA polymerase is then used to catalyse the synthesis of the second, complementary DNA strand. [1 mark] 4. This yields double-stranded cDNA. [1 mark]
(b) [Max 4.7 marks] 1. Heat to \(95\,^\circ\text{C}\) (accept \(90-95\,^\circ\text{C}\)) to break hydrogen bonds and separate the DNA strands. [1 mark] 2. Cool to \(55\,^\circ\text{C}\) (accept \(50-65\,^\circ\text{C}\)) to allow primers to bind / anneal to the complementary sequences at the ends of each strand. [1 mark] 3. Primers provide a starting point for DNA polymerase / prevent the two strands from rejoining. [1 mark] 4. Heat to \(72\,^\circ\text{C}\) (accept \(70-75\,^\circ\text{C}\)) which is the optimum temperature for Taq DNA polymerase to extend the new complementary DNA strands by adding nucleotides. [1 mark] 5. Repeat cycle many times. [0.7 marks]
(c) [Max 2 marks] 1. Eukaryotic genes lack the regulatory sequences recognized by bacterial RNA polymerase. [1 mark] 2. A prokaryotic promoter must be added upstream of the gene so that transcription can be initiated in the host bacterial cell. [1 mark]
題目 5 · 結構題
10.7 分
(a) Describe the events that occur during the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction from the moment calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. (5 marks)
(b) Explain how the structure of slow-twitch muscle fibres relates to their function in sustained, aerobic exercise. (3.7 marks)
(c) Phosphocreatine is a molecule stored in muscle cells. Explain its role during vigorous, short-duration exercise. (2 marks)
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解題
(a) Once calcium ions are released, they bind to the protein troponin on the actin filament. This causes a conformational change that pulls the associated tropomyosin molecule away from the myosin-binding sites on the actin filament, exposing them. Myosin heads bind to these exposed sites to form actomyosin cross-bridges. The binding triggers the myosin heads to bend (power stroke), pulling the actin filament along the myosin filament towards the centre of the sarcomere, releasing ADP and inorganic phosphate. A new ATP molecule then binds to each myosin head, causing it to detach from the actin. Finally, the enzyme ATP hydrolase (activated by calcium ions) hydrolyses the ATP into ADP and Pi, releasing energy that resets the myosin head back to its high-energy 'cocked' position, ready to repeat the cycle.
(b) Slow-twitch muscle fibres are specialized for aerobic respiration and sustained endurance. They contain a high concentration of myoglobin, a pigment with high oxygen affinity that acts as an intracellular oxygen store. They also have an abundant number of mitochondria, which provide the site for aerobic respiration and ATP synthesis. Additionally, they are wrapped in a very dense network of capillaries, ensuring a rapid, continuous supply of oxygen and glucose, while efficiently removing waste carbon dioxide and lactic acid, allowing the muscle to contract over long periods without fatiguing.
(c) During short bursts of high-intensity, vigorous exercise, demand for ATP is extremely high and cannot be met fast enough by aerobic or anaerobic respiration. Phosphocreatine acts as an immediate chemical energy store. It rapidly transfers its phosphate group to ADP, regenerating ATP in a single-step reaction catalyzed by creatine kinase. This provides a temporary supply of ATP to sustain muscle contraction for several seconds.
評分準則
(a) [Max 5 marks] 1. Calcium ions bind to troponin, causing a conformational change that pulls tropomyosin away from the actin-binding sites. [1 mark] 2. Myosin heads bind to the exposed actin-binding sites to form actinomyosin cross-bridges. [1 mark] 3. Myosin heads pivot / bend (power stroke), pulling the actin filament along the myosin, releasing ADP and Pi. [1 mark] 4. An ATP molecule binds to the myosin head, causing the myosin head to detach from the actin filament. [1 mark] 5. Hydrolysis of ATP by ATP hydrolase (activated by calcium ions) provides energy to return the myosin head to its original 'cocked' position. [1 mark]
(b) [Max 3.7 marks] 1. High concentration of myoglobin acts as an oxygen store to maintain aerobic respiration. [1 mark] 2. Numerous mitochondria provide the site for aerobic respiration / production of ATP. [1 mark] 3. Rich supply of capillaries ensures rapid delivery of oxygen / glucose. [1 mark] 4. Adapted for slow contraction and resistant to fatigue, allowing sustained activity. [0.7 marks]
(c) [Max 2 marks] 1. Phosphocreatine acts as an immediate source of phosphate to regenerate ATP from ADP. [1 mark] 2. This allows rapid, anaerobic ATP production when respiratory pathways cannot keep up with demand during short, intense activity. [1 mark]
題目 6 · 結構題
10.7 分
(a) Explain how oestrogen initiates the transcription of a target gene. (4 marks)
(b) Describe how small interfering RNA (siRNA) prevents the translation of specific target proteins. (3.7 marks)
(c) Contrast the effects of increased DNA methylation and increased histone acetylation on gene transcription. (3 marks)
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解題
(a) Oestrogen is a lipid-soluble steroid hormone, which allows it to diffuse directly through the phospholipid bilayer of the target cell membrane. Once inside the cell, oestrogen enters the nucleus (or cytoplasm) and binds to a specific receptor site on an inactive transcription factor. This binding causes a conformational change in the transcription factor, activating it. The active transcription factor then binds to a specific promoter region on the target gene's DNA, facilitating the binding of RNA polymerase and initiating transcription.
(b) Long, double-stranded RNA in the cytoplasm is first cut into short, double-stranded fragments called siRNA by an enzyme (Dicer). One of the two strands of the siRNA then associates with an enzyme complex called RISC (RNA-induced silencing complex). This single-stranded siRNA acts as a guide, bringing the enzyme complex to a target mRNA molecule via complementary base pairing. Once bound, the enzyme within RISC cuts/cleaves the target mRNA into fragments, rendering it unable to be translated by ribosomes and resulting in gene silencing.
(c) DNA methylation involves the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases in DNA. Increased DNA methylation inhibits transcription because the methyl groups block the binding of transcription factors and attract proteins that condense chromatin, making DNA inaccessible to RNA polymerase. Conversely, increased histone acetylation decreases the positive charge on histones. This weakens the electrostatic attraction between histones and negatively charged DNA, loosening the chromatin structure. This open chromatin state (euchromatin) allows transcription factors and RNA polymerase to easily access the DNA, stimulating transcription.
評分準則
(a) [Max 4 marks] 1. Oestrogen is lipid-soluble, so it diffuses through the cell membrane. [1 mark] 2. Oestrogen binds to a specific receptor on an inactive transcription factor. [1 mark] 3. This causes a conformational change in the transcription factor, activating it. [1 mark] 4. The activated transcription factor binds to a specific promoter region on DNA and stimulates transcription by RNA polymerase. [1 mark]
(b) [Max 3.7 marks] 1. Double-stranded RNA is cleaved into short double-stranded siRNA molecules. [1 mark] 2. One of the siRNA strands binds to an enzyme complex (RISC). [1 mark] 3. The single-stranded siRNA guides the enzyme complex to a target mRNA molecule by complementary base pairing. [1 mark] 4. The enzyme complex cuts the target mRNA, breaking it down and preventing translation. [0.7 marks]
(c) [Max 3 marks] 1. Increased DNA methylation inhibits transcription by blocking the binding of transcription factors / condensing chromatin. [1.5 marks] 2. Increased histone acetylation stimulates transcription by decreasing the positive charge on histones, loosening chromatin structure and making DNA accessible to transcription factors. [1.5 marks]
題目 7 · 結構題
10.7 分
(a) Explain how indoleacetic acid (IAA) brings about unilateral growth (phototropism) in a plant shoot exposed to light from one direction. (4 marks)
(b) Explain the contrasting effects of IAA accumulation on the lower side of a horizontally growing shoot versus a horizontally growing root. (4.7 marks)
(c) Describe how a plant shoot is able to detect light, referring to the site of detection and the signaling molecule. (2 marks)
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解題
(a) Indoleacetic acid (IAA) is an auxin synthesized in the growing tip of the plant shoot. Under uniform light conditions, IAA is distributed evenly across the shoot. However, when the shoot is exposed to unilateral light (light from one side), IAA is actively transported from the illuminated side to the shaded side of the shoot. This results in a higher concentration of IAA on the shaded side. Since high concentrations of IAA stimulate cell elongation in shoots, the cells on the shaded side grow and elongate faster than those on the light side, causing the shoot to bend towards the light source.
(b) In a horizontally growing plant, gravity causes IAA to accumulate on the lower side of both the shoot and the root. However, the response of cells to IAA differs dramatically between these two organs. In the shoot, a high concentration of IAA promotes cell elongation; therefore, the cells on the lower side of the horizontal shoot elongate much faster than those on the upper side, causing the shoot to bend upwards against gravity (negative gravitropism). In contrast, in the root, a high concentration of IAA inhibits cell elongation. Therefore, the cells on the upper side of the horizontal root elongate faster than those on the lower side where IAA is concentrated, causing the root to bend downwards with gravity (positive gravitropism).
(c) The light stimulus is detected by specialized photoreceptor proteins located specifically in the apex (tip) of the shoot. After detection, the chemical signaling molecule IAA is synthesized in the tip and transported downwards to the elongation zone to bring about the growth response.
評分準則
(a) [Max 4 marks] 1. IAA is produced in the tip of the shoot. [1 mark] 2. Unilateral light causes IAA to diffuse / be transported from the illuminated side to the shaded side of the shoot. [1 mark] 3. There is a higher concentration of IAA on the shaded side. [1 mark] 4. In shoots, high IAA concentration stimulates cell elongation, causing the shaded side to grow faster, bending the shoot towards the light. [1 mark]
(b) [Max 4.7 marks] - In shoots: 1. Gravity causes IAA to accumulate on the lower side of the horizontal shoot. [1 mark] 2. High IAA concentration stimulates cell elongation in shoots, so the lower side elongates more than the upper side, causing the shoot to bend upwards. [1.5 marks] - In roots: 3. Gravity causes IAA to accumulate on the lower side of the horizontal root. [1 mark] 4. High IAA concentration inhibits cell elongation in roots, so the upper side elongates faster than the lower side, causing the root to bend downwards. [1.2 marks]
(c) [Max 2 marks] 1. Light is detected by photoreceptors located in the apex / tip of the shoot. [1 mark] 2. The chemical signaling molecule produced and transported downwards is IAA (auxin). [1 mark]
Unit 5: Synoptic Paper
Answer all questions. Quality of written communication will be assessed in Q6.
6 題目 · 75 分
題目 1 · structured
12.5 分
Mitochondria are the primary sites of ATP synthesis during aerobic respiration, utilizing a series of membrane-bound complexes to couple electron transfer with proton pumping.
(a) Describe the structure of a mitochondrion and explain how its structural features are specifically adapted to maximize the efficiency of aerobic respiration. (4 marks)
(b) Explain why the enzymes of the Link reaction and the Krebs cycle are located within the mitochondrial matrix, whereas the components of the electron transport chain are embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane. (4 marks)
(c) Researchers isolated active mitochondria and treated them with a mild detergent that selectively solubilized and removed the outer mitochondrial membrane while keeping the inner membrane completely intact. Predict and explain the effect of this treatment on: (i) The rate of ATP synthesis by oxidative phosphorylation when provided with excess \(\text{NADH}\) and oxygen. (2.5 marks) (ii) The rate of decarboxylation of pyruvate in the presence of required cofactors. (2 marks)
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解題
For (a): The mitochondrion is enclosed by a double membrane. The outer membrane controls the entry and exit of metabolic substances. The inner membrane is highly folded into cristae, which increases the surface area for the attachment of electron transport chain carriers and \(\text{ATP}\) synthase. The fluid-filled matrix contains soluble enzymes (like decarboxylases and dehydrogenases) and coenzymes (\(\text{NAD}^+\), \(\text{FAD}\)) needed for the Link reaction and Krebs cycle. It also contains mitochondrial \(\text{DNA}\) and \(70\text{S}\) ribosomes for synthesizing its own key respiratory proteins.
For (b): The Link reaction and Krebs cycle involve soluble substrates and intermediates that must easily diffuse between sequential soluble enzymes. Keeping them concentrated within the aqueous environment of the matrix maximizes reaction rates. In contrast, the electron transport chain requires a precise sequence of electron transfers between carriers, which must be held in a fixed spatial arrangement within the hydrophobic lipid bilayer of the inner membrane to prevent uncontrolled reactions and to allow directional proton pumping into the intermembrane space.
For (c)(i): The rate of \(\text{ATP}\) synthesis by oxidative phosphorylation will stop or decrease drastically. Without the outer membrane, the intermembrane space is open to the external medium. Protons pumped across the inner membrane by the electron transport chain will diffuse away into the surrounding solution rather than accumulating to form a high-concentration proton gradient across the inner membrane. Without this proton motive force, protons cannot flow back through \(\text{ATP}\) synthase to drive \(\text{ATP}\) synthesis.
For (c)(ii): The rate of decarboxylation of pyruvate will remain largely unaffected or may slightly increase. Pyruvate decarboxylation occurs in the matrix (Link reaction). Pyruvate can cross the inner membrane via specific transport proteins that remain intact. With the outer membrane removed, there is one less physical barrier for pyruvate to cross to enter the matrix, so the reaction continues.
評分準則
(a) Max 4 marks: - Mention of double membrane structure (1 mark). - Cristae / folding increases surface area for electron transport chain or \(\text{ATP}\) synthase (1 mark). - Matrix contains enzymes / coenzymes (\(\text{NAD}^+\)/\(\text{FAD}\)) (1 mark). - Mitochondrial \(\text{DNA}\) / ribosomes present for protein synthesis (1 mark).
(b) Max 4 marks: - Matrix contains soluble enzymes and intermediates allowing rapid diffusion/collisions (1 mark). - Link/Krebs reactions are metabolic cycles of soluble molecules (1 mark). - Electron transport chain requires fixed spatial order of carriers (1 mark). - Inner membrane is a hydrophobic barrier allowing directional proton pumping / preventing proton leakage (1 mark).
(c)(i) Max 2.5 marks: - Identify that \(\text{ATP}\) synthesis will stop/decrease significantly (1 mark). - Explain that the intermembrane space is no longer enclosed so protons diffuse away (1 mark). - State that no proton gradient / proton motive force can be established across the inner membrane (0.5 marks).
(c)(ii) Max 2 marks: - Identify that pyruvate decarboxylation will continue / stay the same (1 mark). - Explain that the enzymes are in the matrix and the inner membrane transport proteins are still intact (1 mark).
題目 2 · structured
12.5 分
Both chloroplasts and mitochondria utilize chemiosmosis to synthesize ATP, relying on proton gradients across membranes. However, the details of these systems differ.
(a) Complete a comparison of ATP generation in chloroplasts and mitochondria by describing: (i) the primary source of high-energy electrons, (ii) the final electron acceptor, (iii) the compartment where protons accumulate, and (iv) the direction of proton flow through ATP synthase. (4 marks)
(b) Explain the different roles of water in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis compared to its roles in aerobic respiration. (4.5 marks)
(c) An agricultural researcher applies a chemical inhibitor that specifically blocks the electron transport protein plastoquinone in the thylakoid membrane. Explain the long-term effect of this inhibitor on the uptake of carbon dioxide by the crop plant. (4 marks)
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解題
For (a): (i) Primary source of electrons: In chloroplasts, it is water (via photolysis); in mitochondria, it is reduced coenzymes (\(\text{NADH}\) and \(\text{FADH}_2\)). (ii) Final electron acceptor: In chloroplasts, it is \(\text{NADP}^+\); in mitochondria, it is oxygen (\(\text{O}_2\)). (iii) Compartment where protons accumulate: In chloroplasts, it is the thylakoid lumen (space); in mitochondria, it is the intermembrane space. (iv) Direction of proton flow through ATP synthase: In chloroplasts, from thylakoid lumen to stroma; in mitochondria, from intermembrane space to matrix.
For (b): In photosynthesis, water undergoes photolysis, splitting into protons, electrons, and oxygen. The electrons replace those lost by excited chlorophyll in Photosystem II, the protons accumulate in the thylakoid lumen to establish the proton gradient and reduce \(\text{NADP}^+\), and oxygen is released as a byproduct. In respiration, water is a product of oxidative phosphorylation, formed when oxygen accepts electrons from the electron transport chain and protons from the matrix. Additionally, water acts as a reactant in the Krebs cycle during hydration reactions.
For (c): Plastoquinone blockage stops the flow of electrons from Photosystem II to Photosystem I. This prevents proton pumping into the thylakoid lumen, so the proton gradient is lost and \(\text{ATP}\) synthesis stops. Additionally, electrons cannot reach Photosystem I, preventing the reduction of \(\text{NADP}^+\) to \(\text{NADPH}\). The Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions) requires both \(\text{ATP}\) and \(\text{NADPH}\) to reduce glycerate 3-phosphate (\(\text{GP}\)) to triose phosphate (\(\text{TP}\)) and to regenerate ribulose bisphosphate (\(\text{RuBP}\)). Without these products, \(\text{RuBP}\) is depleted, so the enzyme Rubisco can no longer fix carbon dioxide, causing carbon dioxide uptake to cease.
評分準則
(a) 1 mark for each complete correct comparison (Max 4 marks total): - Source of electrons: water vs reduced coenzymes (1 mark). - Final acceptor: \(\text{NADP}^+\) vs oxygen (1 mark). - Proton accumulation: thylakoid space/lumen vs intermembrane space (1 mark). - Flow direction: thylakoid space to stroma vs intermembrane space to matrix (1 mark).
(b) Max 4.5 marks total: - Photosynthesis (max 3 marks): photolysis of water produces electrons, protons, and oxygen (1); electrons replace those lost by PSII / chlorophyll (1); protons contribute to the chemiosmotic gradient / reduce \(\text{NADP}^+\) (1). - Respiration (max 1.5 marks): water is produced when oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor (1); oxygen combines with protons and electrons to form water (0.5).
(c) Max 4 marks: - Plastoquinone inhibition stops electron flow along the ETC (1). - No proton gradient is created, stopping \(\text{ATP}\) synthesis (1). - \(\text{NADP}^+\) is not reduced to \(\text{NADPH}\) (1). - Light-independent reaction / Calvin cycle stops because \(\text{ATP}\) and \(\text{NADPH}\) are needed to convert \(\text{GP}\) to \(\text{TP}\) / regenerate \(\text{RuBP}\) (1). - Without \(\text{RuBP}\), carbon dioxide fixation by Rubisco stops, preventing CO2 uptake (1).
題目 3 · structured
12.5 分
The structure of plant cells and their organelles is closely tied to metabolic transport.
(a) Identify three ultrastructural features of a chloroplast that can be observed using a transmission electron microscope, and describe how each feature is specialized for a specific stage of photosynthesis. (6 marks)
(b) Triose phosphate (TP) is synthesized in the stroma and must be exported to the cytoplasm to produce sucrose. This occurs via the triose phosphate/phosphate translocator (TPT), a transport protein in the inner chloroplast membrane that exports one TP molecule in exchange for one inorganic phosphate (Pi) molecule. (i) Explain why a specific transport protein is required for TP export and explain why this exchange mechanism is classified as facilitated diffusion rather than active transport. (3.5 marks) (ii) Predict and explain the effect of a severe cytoplasmic phosphate deficiency on the rate of the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis. (3 marks)
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解題
For (a): 1. Thylakoid membranes / grana: Provide a large surface area for the embedding of photosystems, electron transport chains, and \(\text{ATP}\) synthase, maximizing light absorption and \(\text{ATP}\)/\(\text{NADPH}\) production. 2. Stroma: The fluid-filled matrix containing high concentrations of enzymes (such as Rubisco) and substrates, allowing rapid diffusion and reactions of the Calvin cycle. 3. Starch granules / lipid droplets: Store the immediate products of photosynthesis safely without affecting the osmotic potential of the chloroplast. 4. Chloroplast DNA / \(70\text{S}\) ribosomes: Allow the rapid local transcription and translation of essential photosynthetic proteins (e.g., D1 protein of PSII) without relying entirely on nuclear genes.
For (b)(i): Triose phosphate is a polar, phosphorylated 3-carbon sugar and cannot directly diffuse through the hydrophobic lipid bilayer of the inner chloroplast membrane. It requires a specific transport protein (TPT) to cross. This is classified as facilitated diffusion because \(\text{TP}\) and inorganic phosphate move down their respective concentration gradients without requiring \(\text{ATP}\) hydrolysis. The antiport mechanism uses the energy of one gradient to move the other, meaning there is no net consumption of metabolic energy (\(\text{ATP}\)) for the transport itself.
For (b)(ii): A severe cytoplasmic phosphate deficiency means there is little \(\text{P}_i\) available to be imported into the chloroplast in exchange for \(\text{TP}\). Consequently, the TPT cannot export \(\text{TP}\), causing \(\text{TP}\) to accumulate in the stroma. The accumulation of \(\text{TP}\) leads to feedback inhibition of the enzymes in the Calvin cycle. Furthermore, because \(\text{P}_i\) is not being imported back into the chloroplast, the stroma becomes depleted of inorganic phosphate, which is a substrate required by \(\text{ATP}\) synthase to make \(\text{ATP}\). A lack of \(\text{ATP}\) halts the regeneration of \(\text{RuBP}\), severely decreasing the rate of the light-independent reactions.
評分準則
(a) 2 marks for each feature and its function (max 6 marks): - Thylakoids/grana (1) + large surface area for light absorption/ETC/\(\text{ATP}\) synthase (1). - Stroma (1) + contains Rubisco/Calvin cycle enzymes for carbon fixation (1). - Starch granules (1) + osmotic-neutral storage of photosynthetic products (1). - DNA/ribosomes (1) + synthesis of chloroplast proteins/enzymes (1).
(b)(i) Max 3.5 marks: - \(\text{TP}\) is polar/charged / hydrophilic (1). - Cannot pass through the hydrophobic lipid core of the bilayer (1). - TPT is a carrier/channel protein allowing facilitated diffusion down concentration gradients (1). - No direct input of \(\text{ATP}\)/metabolic energy is required (0.5).
(b)(ii) Max 3 marks: - Low cytoplasmic \(\text{P}_i\) means less \(\text{P}_i\) available to exchange for \(\text{TP}\) (1). - \(\text{TP}\) accumulates in the stroma, causing feedback inhibition of Calvin cycle enzymes (1). - Lack of \(\text{P}_i\) in the stroma prevents \(\text{ATP}\) synthesis by \(\text{ATP}\) synthase (1). - Depletion of \(\text{ATP}\) stops the regeneration of \(\text{RuBP}\), reducing carbon fixation (1).
題目 4 · structured
12.5 分
The biochemical reactions of cellular respiration are tightly regulated and can be disrupted by specific metabolic inhibitors.
(a) Malonate is a chemical compound with a structure very similar to succinate. It acts as a competitive inhibitor of succinate dehydrogenase, a key enzyme in the Krebs cycle. (i) Describe how a competitive inhibitor like malonate reduces the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction. (3 marks) (ii) Explain why the inhibitory effect of malonate on succinate dehydrogenase can be completely overcome by adding a high concentration of succinate. (2 marks)
(b) Oligomycin is an antibiotic that binds directly to the proton-conducting channel of ATP synthase, preventing protons from passing through the enzyme into the mitochondrial matrix. (i) Explain the immediate effect of oligomycin on the pH of the mitochondrial intermembrane space. (3.5 marks) (ii) Although oligomycin does not directly inhibit any of the electron transport chain complexes, the rate of oxygen consumption by the cell drops to near zero shortly after its addition. Explain this observation. (4 marks)
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解題
For (a)(i): Malonate has a complementary shape to the active site of succinate dehydrogenase, similar to the substrate succinate. It binds to the active site of the enzyme, blocking succinate from entering. This prevents the formation of enzyme-substrate (ES) complexes, thereby reducing the rate of reaction.
For (a)(ii): Since malonate binds reversibly to the active site, the inhibitor and substrate compete for the same site. By greatly increasing the concentration of succinate, the ratio of substrate to inhibitor molecules increases. This increases the probability of a succinate molecule colliding with and binding to an active site rather than a malonate molecule, completely restoring the maximum reaction rate.
For (b)(i): The pH of the intermembrane space will decrease (become more acidic). The electron transport chain continues to pump protons from the matrix into the intermembrane space. However, because the proton channel in \(\text{ATP}\) synthase is blocked by oligomycin, these protons cannot flow back into the matrix. This leads to an accumulation of protons in the intermembrane space, increasing their concentration and lowering the pH.
For (b)(ii): As protons continue to be pumped but cannot return to the matrix, the concentration gradient of protons across the inner membrane becomes extremely steep (the proton motive force reaches a maximum). The energy required to pump additional protons against this massive electrochemical gradient exceeds the energy released by the transfer of electrons along the electron transport chain. As a result, electron flow along the chain stalls. Since electrons stop moving along the chain, oxygen can no longer act as the final electron acceptor to be reduced to water. Therefore, oxygen consumption by the cell ceases.
評分準則
(a)(i) Max 3 marks: - Malonate has a similar shape/structure to the substrate / succinate (1). - Binds to the active site of succinate dehydrogenase (1). - Prevents substrate binding / fewer enzyme-substrate complexes formed (1).
(a)(ii) Max 2 marks: - Competition is concentration-dependent (1). - High substrate concentration increases the probability of substrate colliding with the active site rather than the inhibitor (1).
(b)(i) Max 3.5 marks: - pH decreases / becomes more acidic (1). - Protons are still being pumped into the intermembrane space by the ETC (1). - Protons cannot return to the matrix through \(\text{ATP}\) synthase (1). - Concentration of protons in the intermembrane space increases (0.5).
(b)(ii) Max 4 marks: - Accumulation of protons creates an extremely steep electrochemical gradient / proton motive force (1). - Energy required to pump more protons is too high for the ETC to overcome (1). - Electron transport along the chain stops / stalls (1). - Oxygen cannot accept electrons / cannot be reduced to water (1).
題目 5 · structured
12.5 分
The efficiency of photosynthesis is determined by light absorption and environmental factors, which directly influence the productivity of ecosystems.
(a) Distinguish between an absorption spectrum and an action spectrum for photosynthetic pigments. (3 marks)
(b) An investigator measured the rate of photosynthesis in a crop species at different light intensities under two different atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations: \(0.04\%\) (ambient) and \(0.12\%\) (enriched), at a constant temperature of \(20^\circ\text{C}\). (i) Explain why, at very low light intensities, the rate of photosynthesis is identical at both carbon dioxide concentrations. (2.5 marks) (ii) Explain why, at high light intensities, the rate of photosynthesis is significantly higher at \(0.12\%\) carbon dioxide than at \(0.04\%\). (3 marks)
(c) The relationship between primary productivity and plant respiration is represented by the equation: $$\text{NPP} = \text{GPP} - R$$ Explain this equation in biochemical terms, defining what \(R\) represents, and describe how a researcher could experimentally measure the value of \(R\) for a sample of plants. (4 marks)
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解題
For (a): An absorption spectrum is a graph plotting the percentage or amount of light absorbed by photosynthetic pigments (such as chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, and carotenoids) at different wavelengths. An action spectrum is a graph showing the actual rate of photosynthesis (e.g., measured by oxygen production or carbon dioxide uptake) at different wavelengths of light. Comparing the two reveals which wavelengths of absorbed light are actively utilized to drive photosynthesis.
For (b)(i): At low light intensities, light is the limiting factor. The rate of the light-dependent reaction is very slow, meaning very little \(\text{ATP}\) and reduced \(\text{NADP}\) (\(\text{NADPH}\)) are produced. Because these products are required to drive the light-independent reaction (Calvin cycle), the Calvin cycle is limited by their availability, not by the concentration of carbon dioxide. Therefore, increasing the carbon dioxide concentration from \(0.04\%\) to \(0.12\%\) has no effect on the overall rate.
For (b)(ii): At high light intensities, light is no longer the limiting factor, so the light-dependent reactions produce abundant \(\text{ATP}\) and \(\text{NADPH}\). Under these conditions, the concentration of carbon dioxide becomes the limiting factor. Raising the carbon dioxide concentration to \(0.12\%\) increases the frequency of collisions between carbon dioxide and the enzyme Rubisco, accelerating the rate of carbon fixation (the carboxylation of \(\text{RuBP}\)). This increases the overall rate of photosynthesis.
For (c): Gross Primary Productivity (\(\text{GPP}\)) is the total chemical energy stored in plant biomass per unit area per unit time, resulting from light energy captured during photosynthesis. \(R\) represents respiratory losses, which is the chemical energy used by the plant in cellular respiration to produce \(\text{ATP}\) for metabolic processes (like active transport and protein synthesis), which is lost as heat. Net Primary Productivity (\(\text{NPP}\)) is the remaining chemical energy stored in plant biomass available for growth, reproduction, and transfer to heterotrophs. To measure \(R\), a researcher can place the plant sample in complete darkness (to stop photosynthesis entirely) and measure the rate of carbon dioxide release or oxygen consumption over a set time period, converting this gas exchange rate to energy equivalents.
評分準則
(a) Max 3 marks: - Absorption spectrum shows the amount of light absorbed by pigments at each wavelength (1 mark). - Action spectrum shows the rate of photosynthesis at each wavelength (1 mark). - Close match shows which pigments are active in absorbing light for photosynthesis (1 mark).
(b)(i) Max 2.5 marks: - Light intensity is the limiting factor (1 mark). - Light-dependent reaction is slow, producing little \(\text{ATP}\) / reduced \(\text{NADP}\) (1 mark). - Calvin cycle is limited by \(\text{ATP}\)/reduced \(\text{NADP}\), not CO2 (0.5 marks).
(b)(ii) Max 3 marks: - Light is no longer limiting / CO2 is the limiting factor (1 mark). - More CO2 increases carbon fixation / rate of carboxylation of \(\text{RuBP}\) (1 mark). - Catalyzed by Rubisco, leading to faster synthesis of triose phosphate (1 mark).
(c) Max 4 marks: - GPP is total chemical energy from photosynthesis (1 mark). - R is energy lost due to respiration / lost as heat during metabolic reactions (1 mark). - NPP is chemical energy stored in plant biomass / available to next trophic level (1 mark). - R can be measured by placing plants in the dark (to prevent photosynthesis) and measuring CO2 released / O2 consumed per unit time (1 mark).
題目 6 · structured
12.5 分
Membranes are essential for energy transduction in both mitochondria and chloroplasts, acting as selective barriers that allow the establishment of proton gradients.
(a) Explain how the structural features of the inner mitochondrial membrane and the thylakoid membrane are specialized to support the establishment and maintenance of proton gradients. (5 marks)
(b) **Quality of Written Communication (QWC) will be assessed in this question.** Describe and compare the mechanisms by which ATP is synthesized via chemiosmosis in mitochondria during oxidative phosphorylation and in chloroplasts during photophosphorylation. In your answer, emphasize the similarities and the differences between these two biological processes. (7.5 marks)
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解題
For (a): Both the inner mitochondrial membrane and the thylakoid membrane are composed of a phospholipid bilayer that is highly impermeable to protons (\(\text{H}^+\)), preventing the uncontrolled passive leakage of protons back down their gradient. Both membranes contain embedded electron transport chain proteins/carriers that actively pump protons across the membrane using the energy released from electron transfers. Both contain \(\text{ATP}\) synthase complexes, which are the only channels through which protons can diffuse back down their gradient. To maximize the capacity for \(\text{ATP}\) synthesis, both membranes have adaptations to increase surface area: the inner mitochondrial membrane is folded into cristae, and the thylakoid membranes are organized into flattened discs stacked as grana, providing a vast surface area for these membrane-bound proteins.
For (b): Similarities: 1. Both processes use electron transport chains consisting of a series of membrane-embedded electron carrier proteins. 2. In both, the transfer of electrons down energy gradients releases energy that is used to actively pump protons (\(\text{H}^+\) ) across the membrane. 3. Both establish an electrochemical proton gradient (proton motive force) across the membrane. 4. In both, protons flow back down their electrochemical gradient via facilitated diffusion through the enzyme \(\text{ATP}\) synthase (chemiosmosis). 5. The movement of protons through \(\text{ATP}\) synthase induces conformational changes in the enzyme that catalyze the condensation of \(\text{ADP}\) and inorganic phosphate (\(\text{P}_i\)) to synthesize \(\text{ATP}\).
Differences: 1. Source of energy: In oxidative phosphorylation, the energy comes from the chemical oxidation of organic molecules (reduced \(\text{NAD}\) and \(\text{FAD}\)). In photophosphorylation, the energy comes from light (absorption of photons by chlorophyll/photosystems). 2. Source of electrons: In oxidative phosphorylation, the electrons originate from hydrogen atoms carried by reduced coenzymes (\(\text{NADH}\)/\(\text{FADH}_2\)). In photophosphorylation, the electrons are extracted from water during photolysis. 3. Location of proton accumulation: Protons accumulate in the intermembrane space in mitochondria, whereas they accumulate in the thylakoid space (lumen) in chloroplasts. 4. Direction of proton flow: Protons flow from the intermembrane space into the matrix in mitochondria, whereas they flow from the thylakoid lumen into the stroma in chloroplasts. 5. Coenzyme reduction: Oxidative phosphorylation involves the oxidation of reduced coenzymes, whereas photophosphorylation leads to the reduction of coenzymes (\(\text{NADP}^+\) to \(\text{NADPH}\)).
QWC Assessment: Clear, logical structure comparing similarities and differences systematically using accurate scientific vocabulary (e.g., chemiosmosis, proton motive force, photolysis, cristae, thylakoid lumen).
評分準則
(a) Max 5 marks: - Phospholipid bilayer is impermeable to protons, preventing passive leakage (1 mark). - Contain electron transport chain complexes / proton pumps (1 mark). - Contain \(\text{ATP}\) synthase channels (1 mark). - Folding of inner mitochondrial membrane into cristae increases surface area (1 mark). - Stacking of thylakoids into grana increases surface area (1 mark).
(b) Max 7.5 marks: - Similarities (max 4 marks): - Both involve transfer of electrons through carrier proteins (1 mark). - Energy from electron transfer is used to pump protons (1 mark). - Create a proton gradient / proton motive force (1 mark). - Protons flow through \(\text{ATP}\) synthase down concentration gradient / chemiosmosis (1 mark). - \(\text{ATP}\) synthase catalyzes \(\text{ADP} + \text{P}_i \rightarrow \text{ATP}\) (1 mark). - Differences (max 3 marks): - Source of energy: oxidation of organic compounds/coenzymes vs light (1 mark). - Electron source: reduced coenzymes (\(\text{NADH}\)/\(\text{FADH}_2\)) vs photolysis of water (1 mark). - Site of proton accumulation: intermembrane space vs thylakoid lumen (1 mark). - Direction of proton flow: intermembrane space to matrix vs thylakoid lumen to stroma (1 mark). - QWC (0.5 marks): Awarded if the response uses clear headings/paragraphs, logical transitions between similarities and differences, and correct technical terms (e.g. photolysis, chemiosmosis, stroma, matrix).
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