2023 CCEA GCSE Government and Politics 4830 模擬試題連答案詳解

Authority is the recognised and legitimate right to exercise power, meaning that people generally accept that a person or institution has the right to make decisions, and expect these decisions to be followed, unlike power based purely on force. Answer: the recognised, legitimate right to exercise power

[1] mark for identifying authority as legitimate/recognised power, or an equivalent definition.

Rules are needed in society for reasons such as protecting the rights and safety of individuals, maintaining order, preventing conflict between competing interests, and ensuring people are treated fairly and consistently. Any one valid reason is acceptable. Answer: e.g. to maintain order and protect people's rights and safety

[1] mark for any valid reason, e.g. to maintain order, to protect rights/safety, to prevent conflict, to ensure fairness.

The layers of government relevant to Northern Ireland, in addition to the UK Parliament and the European Parliament, are local councils (which deliver local services) and the Northern Ireland Assembly (which has devolved powers over areas such as health and education). Answer: local councils; the Northern Ireland Assembly

[1] mark each for 'local councils' and 'the Northern Ireland Assembly' (max 2).

An MLA is a Member of the Legislative Assembly, an elected representative in the Northern Ireland Assembly at Stormont. Answer: Member of the Legislative Assembly

[1] mark for 'Member of the Legislative Assembly'.

Elections allow citizens to choose the representatives who will make decisions on their behalf, giving government legitimacy and holding politicians accountable to the electorate. Any one valid purpose is acceptable. Answer: e.g. to allow citizens to choose their representatives

[1] mark for a valid purpose, e.g. choosing representatives, holding government accountable, giving legitimacy to government.

Reasons suggested for lower turnout among young voters include a perceived lack of interest in or connection to mainstream politics, a feeling that political issues do not directly affect their lives, and a belief that a single vote makes little difference to the outcome. Any two valid reasons are acceptable. Answer: e.g. apathy/lack of interest; feeling that voting makes little difference

[1] mark each for any two valid reasons (max 2), e.g. apathy, feeling disconnected from politics, believing their vote will not change the outcome, lack of trust in politicians.

A traditional right-wing view on the economy favours lower taxation and reduced government intervention, allowing market forces and private enterprise a greater role. Answer: e.g. lower taxes and less government intervention in the economy

[1] mark for a valid right-wing economic view, e.g. lower taxes, less regulation, greater role for private enterprise.

Political information is communicated through several types of media, including television, print (newspapers), e-media, radio and social media. Any one is acceptable. Answer: e.g. television

[1] mark for any valid type of media.

The media has several responsibilities in a democratic society, including reporting accurately, informing the public so they can make informed decisions, holding those in power to account, and respecting people's privacy and dignity. Any two are acceptable. Answer: e.g. accurate reporting; respecting privacy and dignity

[1] mark each for any two valid responsibilities (max 2), e.g. accurate reporting, informing public opinion responsibly, holding power to account, respecting privacy/dignity.

Besides voting, a citizen can hold the powerful to account through actions such as signing or organising a petition, taking part in a demonstration, joining a pressure group, or joining a political party. Any one is acceptable. Answer: e.g. joining a pressure group

[1] mark for any valid action, e.g. petitioning, demonstrating, joining a pressure group, joining a political party.

An insider pressure group has close, established links with government and is regularly consulted by decision-makers, whereas an outsider pressure group lacks this direct access and instead relies on tactics such as public campaigns, demonstrations or media attention to try to influence policy from outside. Answer: insider groups have direct access to government; outsider groups do not and campaign publicly instead

[1] mark for a valid, clearly stated difference relating to access to government/decision-makers.

A Private Member's Bill is a proposed piece of legislation introduced by an individual backbench MP or MLA, rather than by the government, giving individual representatives a way to try to change the law on an issue they consider important. Answer: a proposed law introduced by an individual MP/MLA, not by the government

[1] mark for identifying it as a bill introduced by an individual MP/MLA rather than the government.

(i) Increasing taxes on higher earners to fund public spending reflects a traditional left-wing emphasis on redistribution and a larger role for the state. (ii) Reducing business regulation and taxes to encourage growth reflects a traditional right-wing emphasis on free markets and lower taxation. (iii) State ownership of key services reflects a traditional left-wing preference for collective/public provision over private ownership. (iv) Emphasising personal responsibility and a smaller state reflects a traditional right-wing view of limited government intervention. Answer: (i) left-wing; (ii) right-wing; (iii) left-wing; (iv) right-wing

[1] mark for each correctly classified statement (max 4).

(a) A referendum is a direct vote of the electorate on a single issue, such as the UK's 2016 referendum on EU membership. (b) A pressure group campaigns to influence policy on a specific issue but, unlike a political party, does not seek to form a government. (c) Authority is the recognised, legitimate right to exercise power. (d) Accountability is the principle that power-holders can be held responsible for their decisions, for example through Question Time or elections. (e) Democracy is a system in which power ultimately rests with the people, typically exercised through free and fair elections. Answer: (a) Referendum; (b) Pressure group; (c) Authority; (d) Accountability; (e) Democracy

[1] mark for each correctly matched term (max 5).

Source A shows that turnout is consistently lower among 18–24 year olds than among voters over 65, and links this gap to young people feeling that politicians do not represent their interests, compared with older voters who are more likely to see voting as a civic duty and to have built up a long-standing habit of voting. Using own knowledge, further ways in which turnout differs include: young people being less likely to be registered to vote or to have moved address recently (making registration more difficult); young people often reporting lower trust in politicians and political institutions; and older voters typically having lived through more elections, reinforcing voting as a routine, expected activity, whereas first-time and young voters have not yet formed this habit. A good answer draws on both the pattern described in the source and additional own-knowledge points to give a fuller description. Answer: young people vote at consistently lower rates, linked to feeling unrepresented, weaker voting habits, registration difficulties and lower trust, while older voters have an established habit and sense of civic duty

Level 1 (1–2 marks): basic, largely source-only or largely own-knowledge-only description, limited detail. Level 2 (3–4 marks): a developed description drawing on the source with some accurate own knowledge added. Level 3 (5 marks): a full, accurate description that clearly uses both the source and relevant own knowledge to describe the differences in turnout. A response that ignores the source or fails to introduce knowledge beyond the source is capped at Level 2 (max 4 marks). Total [5].

MLAs carry out several roles. Their representative role involves acting on behalf of the people in their constituency, raising local issues and helping constituents with problems. Their legislative role involves debating and voting on proposed laws in the Assembly, including the opportunity to introduce a Private Member's Bill on an issue they consider important. Their scrutiny role involves holding the Northern Ireland Executive to account, for example by questioning ministers during Assembly Question Time and by sitting on committees that examine the work of government departments in detail. Some MLAs also take on a role in opposition, formally challenging and scrutinising the policies and decisions of the Executive. A strong answer explains at least two or three of these roles with some detail, rather than simply listing them. Answer: representative role (constituency), legislative role (debating/voting on bills, Private Members' Bills), scrutiny role (Question Time, committees), and an opposition role

Level 1 (1–2 marks): basic, listed roles with little explanation. Level 2 (3–4 marks): a developed explanation of two or more roles with some accurate detail. Level 3 (5–6 marks): a full, accurate and well-explained account of several roles (e.g. representative, legislative, scrutiny, opposition), using appropriate political vocabulary. Total [6].

Source B suggests that concentrated media ownership can shape which stories are reported and how they are presented, potentially influencing public opinion in a particular direction. Using own knowledge, this can be explained further: an owner's personal or commercial interests may lead a newspaper or channel to favour certain political parties or viewpoints in its editorial stance, choice of front-page stories, and the tone of its coverage; because a small number of companies own many of the outlets people rely on, this can reduce the overall diversity of viewpoints reaching the public, especially where readers or viewers rely on a single source; and commercial pressures, such as the need to attract advertisers or maintain circulation/viewing figures, can also shape which stories are prioritised. Concerns about press conduct and the influence of media ownership contributed to the Leveson Inquiry, which examined the culture, practices and ethics of the press. A strong answer explains, rather than simply describes, at least two ways ownership can shape content, using the source as a starting point. Answer: owners can shape editorial stance/story selection to favour certain viewpoints; concentrated ownership reduces the diversity of viewpoints available; commercial pressures shape coverage; concerns here contributed to the Leveson Inquiry

Level 1 (1–2 marks): basic, largely source-only or largely own-knowledge-only explanation. Level 2 (3–4 marks): a developed explanation drawing on the source with some accurate own knowledge added. Level 3 (5–6 marks): a full, accurate explanation that clearly uses both the source and relevant own knowledge (e.g. reference to the Leveson Inquiry or editorial bias). A response that ignores the source or fails to introduce knowledge beyond the source is capped at Level 2 (max 4 marks). Total [6].

Source C shows a pressure group using several tactics together: organising a public demonstration, running an online petition to gather public support quickly, and arranging direct meetings with local councillors to lobby decision-makers. Using own knowledge, further tactics used by pressure groups include media campaigns and social media activity to raise public awareness, legal action or formal consultation responses, and, for some groups, more direct action such as civil disobedience. These tactics vary between groups for several reasons: an insider group, with an established relationship with government, may rely mainly on direct lobbying and formal consultation because it already has access to decision-makers, whereas an outsider group without such access may need to rely more heavily on public campaigns, demonstrations and media coverage to be heard. The nature of the cause also matters — a cause group promoting a specific issue may use different tactics from a sectional group representing the interests of its own members, such as a trade union. The size and resources of a group's membership base can also affect what tactics are realistic, since a large group can more easily organise mass petitions or demonstrations than a small one. A strong answer explains several tactics with reference to the source, and links the choice of tactics to at least one of these underlying reasons. Answer: tactics include petitioning, demonstrating, lobbying and media/online campaigning; the choice of tactics depends on whether a group is insider or outsider, the nature of its cause, and the size of its membership base

Level 1 (1–3 marks): basic, largely source-only or largely own-knowledge-only explanation, limited range of tactics. Level 2 (4–6 marks): a developed explanation drawing on the source with some accurate own knowledge and at least one reason for variation in tactics. Level 3 (7–8 marks): a full, accurate explanation that clearly uses both the source and relevant own knowledge, covering a good range of tactics and explaining why tactics vary between groups. A response that ignores the source or fails to introduce knowledge beyond the source is capped at Level 2 (max 6 marks). Total [8].

A strong case in support of the statement could include the following points, each developed with explanation and illustrative evidence. Concentration of ownership: because a small number of companies own much of the press and broadcast media, owners can shape which stories are reported and how, giving them significant influence over what the public sees and reads about political issues. Agenda-setting: the media decides which issues receive prominent coverage and which are given little attention, effectively shaping what the public considers important, even without directly telling people what to think. Framing of issues: the way a story is presented — the language used, the images chosen, which voices are included — can shape public perception of a political issue or party, sometimes more powerfully than the underlying facts. The rise of social media: political content spreads rapidly through social media, including material that is unverified, biased or deliberately misleading, and social media platforms are not subject to the same standards of accuracy and accountability as traditional broadcasters. Concerns about press conduct: the findings of the Leveson Inquiry into press culture, practices and ethics illustrated concerns about how some parts of the media had behaved, contributing to arguments that media influence needs greater scrutiny or regulation. Politicians' use of the media: politicians increasingly focus their communication strategies around securing favourable media coverage, which itself is evidence of how much influence they believe the media has over public opinion. A strong response develops several of these points with specific, illustrative detail rather than a general list. Answer: supporting arguments include concentrated ownership, agenda-setting, framing, the unregulated spread of content via social media, and concerns highlighted by the Leveson Inquiry

Level 1 (1–3 marks): basic, general assertions with little development or evidence. Level 2 (4–7 marks): some developed points in support of the statement, with limited illustrative evidence. Level 3 (8–10 marks): well-developed, coherent supporting arguments with specific illustrative evidence (e.g. reference to ownership concentration, agenda-setting, social media, the Leveson Inquiry). A response that lacks specific illustrative evidence is capped at Level 2 (max 7/10). Counterarguments are not required for this question. Total [10].

Arguments in support of the statement: pressure groups can focus intensely on a single issue, often building up detailed expertise and credibility that a broad political party, juggling many issues, may lack. Because they do not need to appeal to a broad electorate to win power, pressure groups can take clear, uncompromising positions on their issue rather than moderating their stance to attract wide support. Insider pressure groups, in particular, may have close, ongoing relationships with government departments and civil servants, giving them regular influence over policy detail that an opposition party lacks while out of power. Pressure groups can also act continuously between elections, applying pressure on a government of any party, whereas a political party's main opportunity to enact its programme comes only if and when it wins office. Arguments against the statement: pressure groups lack the formal, democratic legitimacy of an elected government and have no direct law-making power of their own — ultimately, they can only try to persuade those who do have that power, whereas a governing political party can implement its policies directly. Outsider pressure groups, without established access to decision-makers, can struggle to gain meaningful influence or sustained media coverage, and their impact can depend heavily on how much public and media attention their cause attracts at a given time. A pressure group's effectiveness is often closely tied to its resources and the size of its membership base, meaning smaller or less well-funded groups may achieve little regardless of the merits of their cause, while a major political party has organisational and financial resources built for wide-reaching, lasting political change through the electoral process. Overall judgement: a balanced answer should weigh these arguments and reach a substantiated conclusion, for example arguing that pressure groups can be highly effective at influencing specific policy details or raising public awareness of an issue, but that lasting, wide-ranging political change usually still depends on which political party is in government, since only an elected government has the formal authority to change the law. Answer: pressure groups offer focused expertise, freedom from the need for broad electoral support, and (for insider groups) direct access to decision-makers; but they lack formal law-making power and legitimacy, and their effectiveness depends heavily on access, resources and membership, so most balanced judgements conclude that political parties retain the greater capacity for lasting, wide-ranging change, even where pressure groups are highly effective on specific issues

Level 1 (1–4 marks): basic, largely one-sided or list-like points with little development. Level 2 (5–8 marks): some developed points on both sides, with limited illustrative evidence and little linking judgement. Level 3 (9–12 marks): well-developed arguments on both sides with relevant illustrative evidence and some reasoned judgement. Level 4 (13–16 marks): excellent evaluation with a wide range of accurate, illustrative evidence on both sides, and a clear, well-substantiated overall judgement. A response that fails to provide balance (both sides) or lacks supporting evidence cannot exceed Level 3 (max 12/16). Total [16].

Countries are increasingly interdependent for reasons such as globalisation, the growth of international trade, and shared technological developments that connect economies and societies more closely than in the past. Any one valid reason is acceptable. Answer: e.g. globalisation/increased international trade

[1] mark for any valid reason, e.g. globalisation, international trade, technological developments.

Global issues that may require international co-operation include environmental issues (such as climate change), international terrorism, and conflict between or within countries. Any one is acceptable. Answer: e.g. environmental issues

[1] mark for any valid global issue, e.g. environmental issues, international terrorism, conflict.

The European Union was established with aims including closer political union between member states, the creation of a single market allowing goods, services and capital to move freely, and freedom of movement for people between member states. Any one is acceptable. Answer: e.g. to create a single market between member states

[1] mark for any valid aim, e.g. political union, single market, freedom of movement.

The EU's single market allows goods, services, capital and (linked to this) people to move between member states without tariffs or many of the border checks that would otherwise apply to trade between separate countries; it is also underpinned by common rules and standards that member states agree to follow, so that products and services can be traded on similar terms across the whole area. Any two valid features are acceptable. Answer: free movement of goods/services/capital without tariffs; common rules/standards across member states

[1] mark each for any two valid features (max 2), e.g. free movement of goods/services/capital, no tariffs between member states, common standards/rules, freedom of movement for people.

Factors that can cause conflict between countries include cultural, moral or religious differences, economic and trade factors, a country's desire for security, a desire for independence, and a leader's desire for popularity. Any one is acceptable. Answer: e.g. a desire for security

[1] mark for any valid factor from the specification.

The United Nations was established with core purposes including maintaining international peace and security, and promoting friendly relations and co-operation between countries, including on issues such as human rights and humanitarian assistance. Any two valid purposes are acceptable. Answer: to maintain international peace and security; to promote co-operation between countries

[1] mark each for any two valid purposes (max 2).

The UN Security Council has five permanent members: the United Kingdom, the United States, China, France and Russia. Any two are acceptable. Answer: e.g. the United Kingdom and the United States

[1] mark each for any two of: United Kingdom, United States, China, France, Russia (max 2).

The right to veto gives each of the five permanent members of the UN Security Council the power to block any resolution from being passed, even if every other member of the Council supports it, meaning a single permanent member's opposition is enough to prevent action. Answer: the power of a permanent member to block a resolution even if all other members support it

[1] mark for a correct explanation of the veto power.

The UN Security Council attempts to establish and maintain peace and security through methods including mediation between parties in conflict, imposing sanctions on states or groups, deploying peacekeeping missions, and, in some circumstances, authorising the use of force. Any two are acceptable. Answer: e.g. mediation; peacekeeping missions

[1] mark each for any two of: mediation, sanctions, peacekeeping missions, use of force (max 2).

The Good Friday Agreement (also known as the Belfast Agreement) was signed in 1998, setting out a framework for securing peace in Northern Ireland. Answer: 1998

[1] mark for '1998'.

The Good Friday Agreement's provisions for securing peace in Northern Ireland include power-sharing government based on consociationalism (ensuring both main community traditions share power), the decommissioning of paramilitary weapons, the early release of qualifying prisoners, and the reform of policing. Any two are acceptable. Answer: e.g. power-sharing/consociationalism; reform of policing

[1] mark each for any two of: power-sharing/consociationalism, decommissioning, early release of prisoners, reform of policing (max 2).

An asylum seeker is a person who has left their own country and has applied to another country for protection as a refugee, on the grounds of a well-founded fear of persecution, but whose application has not yet been decided by that country's authorities. Answer: a person who has applied for protection as a refugee but whose claim has not yet been decided

[1] mark for a correct definition, identifying an unresolved application for refugee protection.

Push factors are conditions in a person's home country that encourage them to leave, such as war or conflict, poverty, and human rights abuses, as well as broader social and economic hardship. Any two are acceptable. Answer: e.g. war/conflict; poverty

[1] mark each for any two valid push factors (max 2), e.g. war/conflict, poverty, human rights abuses, lack of economic opportunity.

(a) Globalisation describes the growing economic and social connection between countries around the world. (b) Sanctions are penalties, such as trade restrictions, imposed to try to change a state's behaviour. (c) The veto is the power of a permanent UN Security Council member to block a resolution. (d) A refugee is a person who has fled their own country owing to a well-founded fear of persecution and cannot safely return. (e) Power-sharing is an arrangement, such as that used in the Northern Ireland Assembly, in which political power is shared between different community traditions rather than held by a single majority. Answer: (a) Globalisation; (b) Sanctions; (c) Veto; (d) Refugee; (e) Power-sharing

[1] mark for each correctly matched term (max 5).

Source A describes several provisions of the Good Friday Agreement: a power-sharing Assembly and Executive in which the largest parties from both main community traditions govern together (consociationalism), decommissioning of paramilitary weapons, the early release of qualifying prisoners, reform of policing, and the establishment of human rights bodies. Using own knowledge, this can be developed further: power-sharing ensures that neither community tradition can be excluded from government, requiring cross-community support for key decisions; the reform of policing led to changes intended to make the police service more representative of and accountable to the whole community; and the human rights bodies referred to include the Equality Commission for Northern Ireland and the Northern Ireland Human Rights Commission, which help safeguard citizens' rights. It can also be noted that subsequent agreements, such as the St Andrews Agreement, built on the Good Friday Agreement's framework to help restore devolved power-sharing government. A strong answer draws on the provisions listed in the source and adds accurate own-knowledge detail. Answer: power-sharing Assembly/Executive (consociationalism), decommissioning, early release of prisoners, police reform, and human rights bodies (Equality Commission, NI Human Rights Commission), later built on by agreements such as St Andrews

Level 1 (1–2 marks): basic, largely source-only or largely own-knowledge-only description. Level 2 (3–4 marks): a developed description drawing on the source with some accurate own knowledge added. Level 3 (5 marks): a full, accurate description that clearly uses both the source and relevant own knowledge (e.g. naming the human rights bodies or a subsequent agreement). A response that ignores the source or fails to introduce knowledge beyond the source is capped at Level 2 (max 4 marks). Total [5].

People migrate for a combination of push and pull factors. Push factors are conditions in a person's home country that encourage them to leave, such as war or armed conflict, persecution or human rights abuses, and poverty or a lack of economic opportunity. These conditions can be a matter of survival, particularly for refugees fleeing conflict or persecution. Pull factors are conditions in a potential destination country that attract migrants, such as better job or economic opportunities, greater safety and stability, access to education, or the presence of family members or an established community from the same country who have already settled there. In practice, a person's decision to migrate often reflects a combination of both push and pull factors: for example, someone may be pushed out of their home country by poverty and pulled towards another country by the prospect of better paid work and a chance to send money home to their family. A strong answer explains at least one push factor and one pull factor with some detail and, ideally, links them. Answer: push factors (war/persecution, poverty) force people to leave; pull factors (better economic opportunities, safety, family/community links) attract them to a new country

Level 1 (1–2 marks): basic, listed factors with little explanation. Level 2 (3–4 marks): a developed explanation of push and/or pull factors with some accurate detail. Level 3 (5–6 marks): a full, accurate explanation covering both push and pull factors, using appropriate vocabulary and, ideally, linking the two. Total [6].

Source B illustrates three methods used by the UN Security Council: imposing economic sanctions on the aggressor state to pressure it to change its behaviour, authorising a peacekeeping force to protect civilians and monitor a ceasefire, and using mediation to help negotiate a political settlement between the two sides. Using own knowledge, this can be developed further: in more serious cases, the Security Council can authorise the use of force under its Charter powers to restore international peace and security. However, the effectiveness of any Security Council action depends on the agreement of its five permanent members, since any one of them can use their veto to block a proposed resolution, which can prevent the Council from acting even where a majority of members support intervention — for example, this is often cited in relation to the Council's difficulties in responding effectively to some conflicts. A strong answer explains at least two of the source's methods and adds relevant own-knowledge detail, such as the veto or the use of force. Answer: sanctions, peacekeeping missions and mediation (as shown in the source), and, in more serious cases, authorised use of force; effectiveness can be limited by the veto power of permanent members

Level 1 (1–2 marks): basic, largely source-only or largely own-knowledge-only explanation. Level 2 (3–4 marks): a developed explanation drawing on the source with some accurate own knowledge added. Level 3 (5–6 marks): a full, accurate explanation that clearly uses both the source and relevant own knowledge (e.g. reference to the veto or use of force). A response that ignores the source or fails to introduce knowledge beyond the source is capped at Level 2 (max 4 marks). Total [6].

NATO is founded on the principle of collective defence, set out in Article 5 of its founding treaty, under which an armed attack against one member state is treated as an attack against all members, giving member states a strong incentive to support one another and act together to manage conflict and deter aggression. NATO manages conflict through both military and non-military measures. Military measures can include deploying multinational forces, conducting air operations, or providing training and support to a state's own armed forces, as in some past NATO operations. Non-military measures can include diplomatic pressure, sanctions co-ordinated with member states, and partnership and co-operation programmes with non-member countries to build stability and reduce the risk of conflict arising in the first place. Decisions on NATO action are taken collectively through its structures, such as the North Atlantic Council, where member states, including the UK, discuss and agree a common response, meaning that NATO's ability to act depends on securing sufficient agreement among its members. A strong answer explains both military and non-military measures and refers to Article 5 and/or a structure such as the North Atlantic Council. Answer: collective defence under Article 5 underpins NATO's approach; it manages conflict through military measures (e.g. multinational forces, air operations) and non-military measures (e.g. diplomatic pressure, partnership programmes), with decisions taken collectively through structures such as the North Atlantic Council

Level 1 (1–3 marks): basic, limited explanation with little accurate detail. Level 2 (4–6 marks): a developed explanation of some ways NATO manages conflict, with some accurate detail (e.g. reference to Article 5 or military/non-military measures). Level 3 (7–8 marks): a full, accurate and well-explained account covering both military and non-military measures, with accurate reference to Article 5 and/or NATO's decision-making structures. Total [8].

A strong case in support of the statement could include the following points, each developed with explanation and illustrative evidence. Power-sharing and consociationalism: the Good Friday Agreement established a power-sharing Assembly and Executive requiring cross-community support for key decisions, ending the earlier pattern of majority-only rule and giving both main community traditions a guaranteed role in government — a fundamental structural change that later agreements have preserved rather than replaced. Decommissioning: the Agreement set out a framework for the decommissioning of paramilitary weapons, contributing over time to a significant reduction in paramilitary violence. Reform of policing: the Agreement's provisions led to reform intended to make policing more representative of and accountable to the whole community, addressing a long-standing source of division. Human rights protections: the Agreement led to the establishment of bodies such as the Equality Commission for Northern Ireland and the Northern Ireland Human Rights Commission, giving citizens dedicated institutions to safeguard their rights. Foundation for later agreements: subsequent agreements, including the St Andrews Agreement, the Hillsborough Castle Agreement and the Stormont House Agreement, have all worked within and built upon the basic framework established by the Good Friday Agreement, rather than replacing it, which itself is evidence of how fundamental the original Agreement was. A strong response develops several of these points with specific, illustrative detail. Answer: supporting arguments include the introduction of power-sharing/consociationalism, decommissioning, police reform, the creation of human rights bodies, and the fact that later agreements have all built on its framework rather than replaced it

Level 1 (1–3 marks): basic, general assertions with little development or evidence. Level 2 (4–7 marks): some developed points in support of the statement, with limited illustrative evidence. Level 3 (8–10 marks): well-developed, coherent supporting arguments with specific illustrative evidence (e.g. reference to power-sharing, decommissioning, police reform, human rights bodies, or later agreements). A response that lacks specific illustrative evidence is capped at Level 2 (max 7/10). Counterarguments are not required for this question. Total [10].

Arguments in support of the statement: the Security Council has, in some cases, successfully used mediation, sanctions and peacekeeping missions to help end conflicts and stabilise post-conflict states — a widely cited example of relative success is Sierra Leone, where UN peacekeeping contributed to ending a civil war and supporting a transition to greater stability. Because almost all of the world's states are UN members, Security Council decisions carry a degree of global legitimacy that action by any single country or smaller alliance cannot easily match. Sanctions imposed by the Council can place significant economic and diplomatic pressure on a state, sometimes contributing to changes in its behaviour without the need for military action. Arguments against the statement: the veto power held by each of the five permanent members means that a single permanent member's opposition can block any resolution, even where every other member of the Council supports action — this has been a significant limitation on the Council's ability to respond to some conflicts, and a widely cited example of failure is Rwanda, where the international community, including the Security Council, has been criticised for failing to act in time to prevent mass violence. The Security Council has no standing army of its own and depends on member states voluntarily contributing troops and resources to any peacekeeping mission, which can limit both the speed and the scale of its response. Even where the Council does act, enforcement of its decisions (for example, sanctions) can be inconsistent, as compliance ultimately depends on the co-operation of individual states. Overall judgement: a balanced answer should weigh these arguments and reach a substantiated conclusion, for example arguing that the Security Council has achieved real successes in some conflicts, such as Sierra Leone, but that its effectiveness is fundamentally limited by the veto system and its lack of independent enforcement power, as illustrated by cases such as Rwanda, meaning its overall record is mixed rather than uniformly effective or ineffective. Answer: supporting arguments include successful cases such as Sierra Leone, the pressure created by sanctions, and the global legitimacy of a near-universal body; arguments against include the veto power (illustrated by the widely cited failure over Rwanda), the lack of a standing UN army, and inconsistent enforcement, leading most balanced judgements to conclude the Council's record is mixed

Level 1 (1–4 marks): basic, largely one-sided or list-like points with little development. Level 2 (5–8 marks): some developed points on both sides, with limited illustrative evidence and little linking judgement. Level 3 (9–12 marks): well-developed arguments on both sides with relevant illustrative evidence (e.g. Sierra Leone and/or Rwanda, the veto) and some reasoned judgement. Level 4 (13–16 marks): excellent evaluation with a wide range of accurate, illustrative evidence on both sides, and a clear, well-substantiated overall judgement. A response that fails to provide balance (both sides) or lacks supporting evidence cannot exceed Level 3 (max 12/16). Total [16].