2023 CCEA GCSE Physical Education 7210 模擬試題連答案詳解

The hip is a ball and socket joint, formed by the rounded head of the femur fitting into the cup-shaped acetabulum of the pelvis, allowing movement in multiple planes: flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation and circumduction.

1 mark: B (ball and socket).

The aorta is the main artery leaving the heart, carrying oxygenated blood away from the left ventricle to the body. The pulmonary vein also carries oxygenated blood, but towards the heart from the lungs, not away from the heart to the body.

1 mark: C (aorta).

Resilience, the ability to cope with and recover from challenge, is a recognised positive benefit of maintaining good mental well-being. The other options are negative consequences of neglecting mental well-being.

1 mark: B (resilience).

The autonomous stage of learning is the final stage, at which a performer can execute a skill automatically and consistently with little conscious thought, freeing attention for other aspects of performance such as tactics.

1 mark: C (autonomous).

The skeleton supports the body and gives it shape, produces blood cells in the bone marrow, protects vital organs, works with muscles to allow movement, and stores minerals such as calcium.

1 mark each for any two of: shape/support; blood cell production; protection; movement; mineral storage; max 2.

(a) Ligaments join bone to bone and help stabilise the joint. (b) Cartilage covers the articulating ends of bones, providing a smooth surface and cushioning to reduce friction. (c) A bursa is a small fluid-filled sac that reduces friction between moving structures, such as between a tendon and a bone, at a joint.

1 mark each: (a) ligament; (b) cartilage; (c) bursa; max 3.

Cardiac output is the volume of blood ejected from the heart in one minute, calculated as stroke volume, the volume ejected per beat, multiplied by heart rate, the number of beats per minute: cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate.

1 mark: cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate.

Minute ventilation, the total volume of air breathed in one minute, is calculated as tidal volume, the volume of air per breath, multiplied by respiratory rate, the number of breaths per minute: minute ventilation = tidal volume x respiratory rate.

1 mark: minute ventilation = tidal volume x respiratory rate.

In a concentric contraction, the muscle shortens as it contracts, for example the biceps brachii shortening to lift a weight during the upward phase of a bicep curl. In an eccentric contraction, the muscle lengthens while still under tension, for example the biceps brachii lengthening in a controlled way to lower the weight during the downward phase.

1 mark: concentric = muscle shortens while contracting; 1 mark: eccentric = muscle lengthens while contracting (under tension); max 2.

The central nervous system consists of the brain and the spinal cord.

1 mark: brain and spinal cord (both required).

Proprioceptors are sensory receptors, found in muscles, tendons and joints, that detect information about body position, movement and muscle tension. For example, proprioceptors in the leg muscles and joints provide feedback on joint angle and muscle stretch when a gymnast lands from a jump, helping them maintain balance.

1 mark: proprioceptors detect body position/movement/muscle tension (in muscles, tendons or joints); 1 mark: valid example of their use in a physical activity; max 2.

Motor nerves carry information from the central nervous system to effectors, such as skeletal muscles, causing them to contract and produce a movement or response.

1 mark: motor nerves carry impulses from the CNS to effectors/muscles, causing a response/contraction.

Short-term memory holds a limited amount of information for only a short time, used for immediate decision making during performance, for example remembering the last pass made by an opponent. Long-term memory stores learned skills, experiences and information over a much longer period, and can be recalled to inform decisions, for example a footballer recalling a well-practised set play.

1 mark: short-term memory holds a small amount of information for a short time, used for immediate decisions; 1 mark: long-term memory stores learned skills/experiences permanently and can be recalled to inform decisions; max 2.

The concept of health includes physical health, mental health and social health; in addition to physical health, the other two aspects are mental health and social health.

1 mark each: mental health; social health; max 2.

Regular exercise improves the components of physical fitness and can lead to muscle hypertrophy; it helps control body weight; it combats health conditions and diseases, such as coronary heart disease and diabetes; and it improves mental health, social competence and sleep quality.

1 mark each for any three of: improves components of physical fitness/leads to muscle hypertrophy; controls weight; combats health conditions and diseases; improves mental health, social competence or sleep quality; max 3.

Sleep deprivation can cause severe fatigue, resulting in poor concentration when carrying out everyday tasks; it is linked to an increased risk of disease, for example heart disease, kidney disease, high blood pressure, diabetes and stroke; and it can lead to a poor mood.

1 mark each for any three of: severe fatigue/poor concentration in everyday tasks; increased risk of disease (e.g. heart disease, kidney disease, high blood pressure, diabetes, stroke); poor mood; max 3.

Smoking tobacco negatively affects physical performance and damages the circulation, lungs and heart; it causes addiction; it is linked to associated diseases, such as lung cancer and heart disease; and it can have antisocial aspects.

1 mark each for any three of: negative effect on physical performance/circulation/lungs/heart; addiction; associated diseases; antisocial aspects; max 3.

Long-term alcohol abuse can cause damage to the liver, heart, pancreas, brain and immune system, and increases the risk of cancers of the mouth, oesophagus, throat and breast; it can also lead to addiction.

1 mark each for any two of: damage to the liver/heart/pancreas/brain/immune system; increased risk of cancer (mouth/oesophagus/throat/breast); addiction; max 2.

The SMART principle stands for Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic and Time-bound; it is used to help set effective objectives and targets for a training or lifestyle action plan.

1 mark: at least three of the five terms correctly stated; 2 marks: all five terms correctly stated (Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Time-bound); max 2.

Negative coping strategies resulting from neglected mental well-being include using drugs, including stimulants and sedatives, excessive alcohol use, denial, self-harm, ignoring or denying feelings, avoiding problems, and excessive working.

1 mark each for any two of: using drugs (stimulants/sedatives); excessive alcohol use; denial; self-harm; ignoring/denying feelings; avoiding problems; excessive working; max 2.

Factors that have contributed to increased leisure time include shorter working hours, greater opportunity for job sharing or part-time work, unemployment, increased life expectancy, people retiring earlier, longer holidays, more efficient household appliances reducing time spent on housework, and technological developments.

1 mark for any one of: shorter working hours; job sharing/part-time work; unemployment; increased life expectancy; earlier retirement; longer holidays; more efficient household appliances; technological developments.

Voluntary sector leisure organisations are non-profit making and rely on fundraising and membership; they are not owned or controlled by the government or a business, and they are normally operated and managed by volunteers, for example community sports clubs.

1 mark each for any two of: non-profit making; relies on fundraising/membership; not government-owned/controlled or business-owned; run/managed by volunteers; max 2.

The three stages of learning are, in order: the cognitive stage, the associative stage, and the autonomous stage.

1 mark: cognitive, associative, autonomous, in the correct order.

Intrinsic feedback comes from within the performer themselves, based on their own feelings and senses about how a movement felt or looked. Extrinsic feedback comes from an external source, such as a coach, teammate or video analysis, providing information the performer could not gain on their own.

1 mark: intrinsic feedback = comes from within the performer (e.g. how a movement felt); 1 mark: extrinsic feedback = comes from an external source (e.g. a coach, video); max 2.

Whole practice involves performing the entire skill in one go, without breaking it into sub-routines. This is appropriate for a simple, discrete skill such as a tennis serve because the skill has strong links between its parts, for example ball toss, backswing and contact, and breaking it down could disrupt the timing, rhythm and kinaesthetic sense of the whole action, making it harder to transfer the practice to the full skill.

1 mark: whole practice keeps the natural flow/timing/links between the parts of a simple skill intact; 1 mark: breaking a simple/discrete skill into parts could disrupt timing/rhythm/kinaesthetic sense, making transfer to the full skill harder; max 2.

If arousal is too low, a performer may be under-motivated, lack concentration and react slowly. If arousal is too high, a performer may become overly tense or anxious, which can disrupt fine motor control, decision making and technique. Performance is generally best at an optimal, moderate level of arousal, which varies between individuals and between skills.

1 mark: too little arousal can lead to under-motivation, poor concentration or slow reactions; 1 mark: too much arousal can cause tension/anxiety and a deterioration in technique/decision making, with an optimal (moderate) level producing the best performance; max 2.

Athlete X, a complete beginner, would benefit most from visual guidance, for example a demonstration of the correct arm technique, and/or manual or physical guidance, for example the coach physically moving their arm through the correct pathway, because they have no existing mental picture of the skill to draw on. Feedback should mainly be terminal, given after the attempt is complete, as a beginner cannot process large amounts of information while performing. Athlete Y, an experienced international performer, already has a well-developed technical model, so verbal guidance, for example specific coaching points on the turn, would be most appropriate, as it allows fine adjustment without needing a full demonstration. Feedback can be concurrent, given during the performance, for example via a poolside coach calling instructions, and/or intrinsic, the athlete's own kinaesthetic sense, because the athlete can process and act on detailed information while performing.

1 mark: appropriate guidance identified for Athlete X (visual and/or manual/physical) with a valid reason (e.g. no existing mental picture of the skill); 1 mark: appropriate feedback identified for Athlete X (terminal) with a valid reason (e.g. cannot process much information while performing); 1 mark: appropriate guidance identified for Athlete Y (verbal) with a valid reason (e.g. already has a technical model, so needs fine adjustment); 1 mark: appropriate feedback identified for Athlete Y (concurrent and/or intrinsic) with a valid reason (e.g. can process detailed information while performing); max 4.

A basketball free throw is a relatively basic skill, as it requires a limited amount of information processing and decision making once learned, and it is a closed skill, because it is performed in a stable, predictable environment, a fixed distance with no opposition interference, using essentially the same technique each time. A rugby tackle is a complex skill, as it requires the performer to process a large amount of information, such as an opponent's speed, direction and body position, and make rapid decisions, and it is an open skill, because it is performed in a constantly changing, unpredictable environment, so the performer must continually adapt their technique to the situation.

1 mark: free throw classified as basic, with a valid reason; 1 mark: free throw classified as closed, with a valid reason (e.g. stable/predictable environment); 1 mark: tackle classified as complex, with a valid reason; 1 mark: tackle classified as open, with a valid reason (e.g. unpredictable environment, must adapt); max 4.

Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate. Athlete A: \( 70 \times 72 = 5040 \text{ cm}^3 \text{ min}^{-1} \). Athlete B: \( 100 \times 50 = 5000 \text{ cm}^3 \text{ min}^{-1} \). Both athletes have a similar resting cardiac output, but Athlete B achieves this using a much lower resting heart rate and a larger stroke volume. This is characteristic of a trained, fitter heart, since cardiac hypertrophy from optimal training increases stroke volume, allowing the same cardiac output to be achieved with fewer beats per minute, so Athlete B is likely to be the fitter of the two.

1 mark: correct cardiac output for Athlete A, \( 5040 \text{ cm}^3 \text{ min}^{-1} \); 1 mark: correct cardiac output for Athlete B, \( 5000 \text{ cm}^3 \text{ min}^{-1} \); 1 mark: Athlete B identified as fitter; 1 mark: valid reason given (e.g. achieves a similar cardiac output with a lower heart rate/larger stroke volume, indicating a trained heart); max 4.

(a) Increase \( = 4.8 - 4.2 = 0.6 \) litres. Percentage increase \( = \frac{0.6}{4.2} \times 100 = 14.3\% \) (to 1 d.p.). (b) Regular training strengthens the respiratory muscles, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, allowing the lungs to expand further, and can increase the volume/elasticity of the lungs themselves, so a greater volume of air can be exhaled after a maximal inspiration, increasing vital capacity.

1 mark: correct increase (0.6 litres) or correct method; 1 mark: correct percentage increase, 14.3% (accept 14.2-14.3%; own figure rule applies); 1 mark: respiratory muscles (diaphragm/intercostals) strengthen with training; 1 mark: this allows greater expansion of the chest/lungs, increasing the volume of air that can be exhaled, i.e. vital capacity; max 4.

Cereal B would be the more suitable choice. Both cereals have the same, low (green) fat content, but Cereal B has a lower sugar content (amber) than Cereal A (red), and a lower salt content (green) than Cereal A (amber). A diet high in sugar and salt is linked to health risks such as obesity, tooth decay and high blood pressure, so choosing the cereal with lower ratings for these nutrients, Cereal B, better supports a balanced, healthy diet appropriate for an athlete.

1 mark: Cereal B identified as the more suitable choice; 1 mark: valid comparison of sugar content (Cereal B amber is lower/better than Cereal A red); 1 mark: valid comparison of salt content (Cereal B green is lower/better than Cereal A amber); 1 mark: valid health justification linking excess sugar/salt to health risks (e.g. obesity, tooth decay, high blood pressure); max 4.

(a) This session belongs to the voluntary sector. (b) This is shown by the fact that the group is funded through a small grant, i.e. fundraising, rather than government funding or private profit-seeking investment, and it is run entirely by unpaid local residents, volunteers, rather than paid staff or a private company, matching the defining features of the voluntary sector. (c) The group could approach Sport Northern Ireland, which supports the development of sport and physical activity across Northern Ireland; a local council would also be a valid answer, as councils often support community sport initiatives.

1 mark: voluntary sector correctly identified; 1 mark: valid justification referring to non-profit/fundraising or grant funding; 1 mark: valid justification referring to being run by unpaid volunteers; 1 mark: a valid Northern Ireland organisation named (e.g. Sport Northern Ireland, local council, or Disability Sport NI); max 4.

(a) \( 200 \times 0.65 = 130 \) adults. (b) Any two valid factors, for example: increased life expectancy, meaning people spend more years in retirement with additional free time; or technological developments, such as more efficient household appliances, which reduce the time needed for tasks such as housework, freeing up additional leisure time.

1 mark: correct calculation, 130 adults; 1 mark: first valid factor identified and explained (e.g. increased life expectancy/earlier retirement gives more free time); 1 mark: second valid factor identified and explained (e.g. technological developments/more efficient appliances reduce time spent on chores); 1 mark: for a further relevant, well-explained point or valid alternative factor (e.g. increased job sharing/part-time work); max 4.

Type I (slow twitch) fibres are designed for endurance, producing a large amount of energy over a long period of time using oxygen, aerobically, and are resistant to fatigue; this makes them well suited to a marathon runner, who needs to sustain effort over a very long duration. Type II (fast twitch) fibres are designed for very high-intensity activity, contracting rapidly to produce large amounts of force and power, but they tire very quickly; this makes them well suited to a 100 m sprinter, who needs to generate maximum force and speed over a very short period, with fatigue resistance being far less important.

1 mark: Type I fibres produce energy aerobically over a long period and resist fatigue; 1 mark: this suits the marathon runner's need to sustain effort over a long duration; 1 mark: Type II fibres contract rapidly, producing high force/power but tiring quickly; 1 mark: this suits the sprinter's need for maximum force/speed over a very short duration; max 4.

At the cognitive stage, the novice has little understanding of the skill, so the coach should use part or whole-part-whole practice to break the complex serve into manageable sub-routines, for example separating the ball toss from the swing, alongside visual guidance (demonstration) and/or manual guidance (physically guiding the arm), because the performer has no existing mental picture to draw on. Feedback at this stage should be mainly terminal, given after each attempt, and focused on major, obvious errors, since the performer cannot process large amounts of information while attempting the skill. At the associative stage, the performer has a basic technique and is refining consistency, so the coach can move towards whole practice, allowing the performer to link the sub-routines together, using verbal guidance to give more specific coaching points, and providing more detailed terminal feedback, and some concurrent feedback, to help iron out minor technical errors. At the autonomous stage, the performer can execute the serve automatically and consistently, so the coach can use variable practice, varying serve placement and pace, and conditioned games to develop the skill under realistic pressure, with guidance kept minimal, only occasional verbal guidance, and feedback becoming largely intrinsic, the performer's own kinaesthetic sense, supplemented by occasional concurrent feedback from the coach to fine-tune performance under match conditions.

Band 3 (6-7 marks): a detailed, accurate and well-organised account that correctly links appropriate types of practice, guidance and feedback to each of the three stages of learning (cognitive, associative, autonomous), with clear justification at each stage and accurate use of specialist terminology throughout; high-quality written communication. Band 2 (3-5 marks): a mostly accurate account covering at least two of the three stages of learning with generally appropriate practice/guidance/feedback choices, but with less complete justification or some inaccuracy; adequate written communication with occasional errors. Band 1 (1-2 marks): limited or fragmentary reference to practice, guidance or feedback, with little or no clear link to the stages of learning; noticeable errors in written communication that may hinder meaning. 0 marks: no relevant content.

Advantages: regular physical activity can improve a person's resilience and their ability to cope with challenge; it can help them manage their emotions effectively and improve their honest self-regard and self-esteem; it can also improve sleep quality and boost overall mood, helping a person function well with others and develop coping skills for life. Physical activity can also provide social interaction, for example through team sports or exercise classes, which supports social well-being alongside mental well-being. Disadvantages: if not managed appropriately, physical activity could, in some cases, itself become a negative coping behaviour, for example being used as a way of avoiding or denying other emotional problems; an injury sustained during physical activity could become a source of stress, frustration or loss of motivation, particularly if it prevents a person from continuing an activity they rely on for their well-being; and a person who performs poorly or experiences failure or criticism during physical activity, for example in a competitive setting, could, in some cases, experience a knock to their self-esteem and confidence rather than a boost, especially if they already have low resilience. On balance, however, the well-evidenced benefits to resilience, mood, self-esteem and social well-being mean that regular, appropriately managed physical activity is generally strongly positive for mental health.

Band 3 (6-7 marks): a detailed, balanced evaluation that identifies and explains multiple genuine advantages (e.g. resilience, coping skills, self-esteem, mood, social well-being) AND at least one credible disadvantage or limitation (e.g. risk of exercise becoming a negative coping/avoidance behaviour, injury-related stress, knock to confidence from poor performance), reaching a supported overall judgement; accurate use of specialist terminology and high-quality written communication throughout. Band 2 (3-5 marks): a mostly accurate account identifying several advantages with some explanation, and at least a brief, valid attempt at a disadvantage/limitation, but with less depth, balance or justification; adequate written communication with occasional errors. Band 1 (1-2 marks): limited or one-sided response, for example advantages only with little or no explanation, or fragmentary/generic points; noticeable errors in written communication that may hinder meaning. 0 marks: no relevant content.

The event manager should first carry out research to establish the feasibility of the event, for example checking likely demand and suitable dates. They should calculate the costs involved and finalise and agree a realistic budget, covering items such as venue hire, equipment and staffing. A thorough risk assessment should be carried out to identify hazards and ensure the health and safety of participants and spectators. The event manager should produce a timeline of work, setting out clear targets and deadlines in the lead-up to the event, to ensure tasks are completed on schedule. They must secure the necessary facilities and resources, such as booking an appropriate venue and ordering the required equipment, and appoint appropriately qualified staff, for example qualified coaches, first aiders and officials. Effective advertising and marketing should be organised to promote the event and maximise attendance, and appropriate hospitality, such as refreshments, should be organised for participants and guests. Throughout this process, the event manager should draw on key skills such as organisational skills, communication, problem solving, time management and team work, and personal qualities such as motivation, initiative and a positive attitude, to bring all of these elements together into a successful event.

Band 3 (6-7 marks): a detailed, accurate and well-organised account covering a good range of the key principles/actions (e.g. feasibility research, budgeting, risk assessment, timeline, securing facilities/resources, staffing, marketing, hospitality) with some reference to the skills/qualities required of an event manager, using accurate specialist terminology and demonstrating a clear, logical structure; high-quality written communication throughout. Band 2 (3-5 marks): a mostly accurate account covering several of the key principles/actions with adequate explanation, but with less range, depth or organisation; adequate written communication with occasional errors. Band 1 (1-2 marks): limited or fragmentary reference to event planning, with little explanation or structure; noticeable errors in written communication that may hinder meaning. 0 marks: no relevant content.

Fartlek, meaning 'speed play', is a method of continuous training in which the performer varies their pace or intensity throughout the session, for example alternating periods of fast running with periods of slower jogging or walking, often over varied terrain.

1 mark: continuous training in which pace/intensity is varied throughout; 1 mark: further valid detail (e.g. alternates fast/slow, over varied terrain); max 2.

Circuit training, consisting of a series of exercise stations, can be used to develop a range of components of physical fitness depending on the exercises selected, including muscular strength, muscular endurance, aerobic energy production and flexibility.

1 mark each for any two of: muscular strength; muscular endurance; aerobic energy production; flexibility; max 2.

In isotonic weight training, the muscle changes length as it contracts against a resistance, producing movement at the joint, for example lifting a dumbbell through a bicep curl. In isometric training, the muscle contracts but does not change length, so no movement occurs at the joint, for example holding a plank position.

1 mark: isotonic = muscle changes length as it contracts against resistance, producing movement; 1 mark: isometric = muscle contracts without changing length, no movement at the joint; max 2.

Safety considerations for isotonic weight training include using a spotter when lifting heavy free weights, using correct lifting technique and posture to avoid injury, checking equipment and selecting an appropriate weight for the individual's ability, and carrying out an adequate warm-up before training.

1 mark each for any two of: use of a spotter for heavy free-weight lifts; correct lifting technique/posture; appropriate/checked equipment and weight selection; adequate warm-up beforehand; max 2.

Static flexibility training involves holding a stretch in a still position, either actively, where the performer holds the stretch using their own muscle strength, or passively, with the help of a partner or equipment. Dynamic flexibility training involves moving a limb through its full range of motion in a controlled, sport-specific way, such as leg swings, rather than holding a still position.

1 mark: static training involves holding a still stretch (actively or passively); 1 mark: dynamic training involves moving a limb through its range of motion (often sport-specific), rather than holding a position; max 2.

Fitness testing can be carried out to provide a baseline or starting point, identify strengths and weaknesses, help set goals and targets, help motivate the athlete, monitor progress over time, or identify talent.

1 mark each for any two of: provides a baseline; identifies strengths/weaknesses; helps set goals/targets; helps motivate; monitors progress; identifies talent; max 2.

Validity refers to the extent to which a fitness test actually measures what it is intended or claims to measure, for example a valid test of aerobic fitness should genuinely assess a performer's aerobic capacity rather than some other quality such as motivation or technique.

1 mark: validity = the extent to which a test measures what it is intended/claims to measure; 1 mark: valid example or further explanation; max 2.

Factors that should be controlled to ensure a fair fitness test include specificity, ensuring the test is relevant to the component being assessed; the conditions and environment in which the test takes place; following a standardised protocol; accuracy of measurement; and the athlete's emotions, motivation, state of readiness, hydration and health at the time of testing.

1 mark each for any two of: specificity; conditions and environment; protocol; accuracy of measurement; athlete's emotions/motivation/state of readiness; athlete's hydration/health; max 2.

Fitness tests can be used to assess a range of components of physical fitness, including aerobic fitness, muscular endurance, muscular strength, flexibility, body composition, muscular power and muscular speed.

1 mark each for any two of: aerobic fitness; muscular endurance; muscular strength; flexibility; body composition; muscular power; muscular speed; max 2.

The FITT principle stands for Frequency, how often training takes place; Intensity, how hard the training is; Time, the duration of the training; and Type, the kind of exercise or method used.

1 mark: Frequency and Intensity correctly stated; 1 mark: Time and Type correctly stated; 1 mark: a brief, correct explanation of at least one term (e.g. Frequency = how often training takes place); max 3.

Overload means training the body harder than it is normally used to, in order to force it to adapt and improve. Progression means gradually and steadily increasing the demands of training, for example the intensity or duration, over time as the performer's fitness improves, to ensure continued overload without excessive risk of injury.

1 mark: overload = training harder than the body is used to, to force adaptation; 1 mark: progression = gradually increasing training demands over time as fitness improves; max 2.

Reversibility refers to the loss of fitness gains that occurs if training is stopped or significantly reduced, for example due to injury, illness or a lack of motivation; the body de-trains and fitness levels decline back towards their pre-training level.

1 mark: reversibility = loss of fitness gains if training stops/is significantly reduced; 1 mark: further valid detail/example (e.g. due to injury/illness, fitness declines back towards pre-training levels); max 2.

A performer's potential in athletics events is determined by their level of the components of physical fitness relevant to that event, including aerobic energy production, anaerobic energy production, muscular power, muscular strength, muscular speed, muscular endurance and flexibility.

1 mark each for any two of: aerobic energy production; anaerobic energy production; muscular power; muscular strength; muscular speed; muscular endurance; flexibility; max 2.

Factors that underpin skilled performance include co-ordination, balance, reaction time and agility.

1 mark each for any three of: co-ordination; balance; reaction time; agility; max 3.

To ensure a fair assessment of balance or reaction time, factors such as specificity, validity, reliability, testing conditions and environment, a standardised protocol, accuracy of measurement, and the athlete's emotions, motivation, readiness, hydration and health should all be controlled.

1 mark each for any two of: specificity; validity; reliability; conditions/environment; protocol; accuracy of measurement; athlete's emotions/motivation/readiness; athlete's hydration/health; max 2.

(a) A 100 m sprinter requires high-intensity, short-duration training to develop power and speed, so interval training, alternating short, maximal-effort sprints with rest periods, would be appropriate, developing muscular power and speed. (b) A marathon runner requires sustained aerobic effort, so continuous steady pace training or fartlek training would be appropriate, developing aerobic energy production. (c) A gymnast requires a full range of movement at the joints for their routine, so static or dynamic flexibility training would be appropriate, developing flexibility.

1 mark: appropriate method named for the sprinter (e.g. interval training); 1 mark: correct component identified for the sprinter (muscular power and/or speed); 1 mark: appropriate method named for the marathon runner (e.g. CSP/fartlek); 1 mark: correct component identified for the marathon runner (aerobic energy production); 1 mark: appropriate method AND correct component (flexibility) both given for the gymnast (e.g. static or dynamic flexibility training); max 5.

A suitable anaerobic interval session for a 400 m runner could involve: (a) a work interval of approximately 300 m, a distance that heavily stresses the anaerobic energy systems relevant to the event; (b) a high, near-maximal work intensity, for example around 85-95% effort, to sufficiently overload the anaerobic system; (c) a rest interval of around 2-3 minutes, long enough for partial recovery but short enough to maintain training stress; (d) around 6-8 repetitions, enough to provide sufficient overload without excessive fatigue leading to poor technique; and (e) active rest, such as light jogging or walking, which helps clear waste products such as lactate more effectively than complete rest.

1 mark each for a sensible, justified value/choice for: (a) work interval (distance/time appropriate to a 400 m runner's anaerobic training); (b) work intensity (high/near-maximal); (c) rest interval (short, e.g. 1-3 minutes); (d) number of repetitions (a sensible number, e.g. 4-10); (e) type of rest correctly identified as active, with a valid reason (e.g. helps remove waste products); max 5. Accept any internally consistent, sensible values appropriate to anaerobic interval training even if they differ from the example given.

An effective warm-up should begin with a low-intensity pulse raiser, for example light jogging, to gradually increase heart rate and body temperature; followed by active or dynamic stretching, for example leg swings, to prepare the muscles and joints for the range of movement required; and finally skill-related practices, for example sport-specific passing or shooting drills, to prepare the performer for the specific demands of the session. An effective cool-down should include a pulse lowering activity, for example gentle jogging or walking, to gradually return the heart rate towards resting level, followed by flexibility activities, for example static stretching, to help the muscles return to their resting length and aid recovery.

1 mark each for correctly identifying, in order: (1) pulse raiser with a valid example; (2) stretching (active/dynamic) with a valid example; (3) skill-related practice with a valid example; (4) pulse lowering activity with a valid example; (5) flexibility activity with a valid example; max 5.

A suitable strength workout could involve: (a) free weight or resistance machine exercises targeting the major muscle groups, for example squats or bench press; (b) exercises ordered so that large muscle group exercises are performed before smaller muscle group exercises, since large muscle groups fatigue the whole body more and are best trained while the performer is fresh; (c) a high training intensity, for example 80-90% of one repetition maximum, since strength training requires near-maximal loads; (d) a low number of repetitions per set, for example 4-6 reps, appropriate for developing maximal strength rather than endurance; and (e) around 3-4 sets, with adequate rest between sets to allow recovery.

1 mark each for a sensible, justified choice for: (a) appropriate type of exercise (free weight/resistance, targeting major muscle groups); (b) correct order (large muscle groups before small); (c) appropriately high intensity for strength (e.g. 70%+ of one rep max); (d) appropriately low repetitions for strength (e.g. fewer than 8); (e) a sensible number of sets (e.g. 3-5); max 5. Accept any internally consistent, sensible values appropriate to strength training even if they differ from the example given.

A suitable aerobic training plan could involve: (a) a frequency of 3-4 sessions per week, sufficient to develop aerobic fitness while allowing adequate recovery; (b) an intensity of around 60-80% of maximum heart rate, within the aerobic training zone; (c) a session duration of around 30-45 minutes, long enough to sufficiently stress the aerobic energy system; and (d) an appropriate method such as continuous steady pace training, fartlek training or interval training. (e) Progression could be applied by gradually increasing the demands of training across the six weeks, for example increasing session duration or intensity slightly each week, or increasing the frequency of sessions, so that the body is continually challenged as fitness improves, without increasing the demands so quickly that the risk of injury or overtraining becomes too high.

1 mark each for a sensible, justified choice for: (a) appropriate frequency (e.g. 3-5 sessions per week); (b) appropriate intensity in the aerobic training zone (e.g. 60-80% max heart rate); (c) appropriate session duration (e.g. 20 minutes or more); (d) appropriate type/method of aerobic training named; 1 mark: valid explanation of how progression is applied across the six weeks (e.g. gradually increasing duration/intensity/frequency as fitness improves); max 5.

A suitable outline programme for this individual could involve: (a) isotonic weight training or circuit training, using the equipment available in their small home gym; (b) a moderate, lower intensity, for example around 50-60% of one repetition maximum, appropriate for developing muscular endurance rather than maximal strength; (c) a higher number of repetitions per set, for example 15-20 or more, appropriate for endurance training; (d) given the limited 20-minute session time, the programme should select a small number of key exercises and keep rest periods between sets short, so the full workout, including a brief warm-up and cool-down, fits within the available time; and (e) a SMART objective, for example 'to be able to complete 15 press-ups without stopping within 6 weeks', which is specific, measurable, attainable, realistic and time-bound for this individual's circumstances.

1 mark: appropriate method of training identified, suited to a home gym setting (e.g. isotonic weight/circuit training); 1 mark: appropriate, moderate intensity for endurance training; 1 mark: appropriately high number of repetitions for endurance training; 1 mark: valid explanation of how the limited 20-minute session time is accommodated (e.g. fewer exercises/shorter rest periods); 1 mark: a valid SMART objective given, specific to this individual's circumstances; max 5.

(a) Player 1 achieved the higher level of aerobic fitness, reaching a higher level and shuttle, 9.5 compared with 7.2, and recording a higher estimated VO2 max, 45.0 ml/kg/min compared with 38.0 ml/kg/min. (b) A factor such as the players' motivation and effort during the test could affect validity; this could be controlled by ensuring both players receive the same level of verbal encouragement and have a similarly high level of motivation to perform maximally. (c) The multi-stage fitness test involves continuous running back and forth in a straight line, which does not reflect the multidirectional, intermittent, stop-start nature of movement in netball, so it may lack sport specificity for a netball player; a more specific alternative could be an intermittent, agility-based shuttle test that includes changes of direction and variable-intensity bursts, more closely replicating the demands of netball.

1 mark: Player 1 correctly identified as having the higher aerobic fitness; 1 mark: correct supporting evidence given from the table (higher level/shuttle and/or higher VO2 max); 1 mark: a valid factor affecting validity identified (e.g. motivation, prior warm-up, hydration); 1 mark: a valid way of controlling that factor explained; 1 mark: valid explanation of why the bleep test lacks specificity for netball (e.g. continuous/straight-line versus intermittent/multidirectional); 1 mark: a valid, more specific alternative test suggested; max 6.

(a) Athlete 3, the goalkeeper, recorded the fastest reaction time, as a lower value in the ruler-drop test indicates a faster reaction, 6 cm, the lowest value in the table. (b) Athlete 2, the gymnast, recorded the best balance score, holding the stork balance position for the longest time, 58 seconds, the highest value in the table. (c) A fast reaction time is particularly important for a goalkeeper because they must react extremely quickly to unpredictable, fast-moving shots in order to make a save, often with very little time available to respond. Good balance is particularly important for a gymnast because many gymnastics skills, especially on apparatus such as the balance beam, require precise control of body position to prevent falls and to hold or land skills correctly.

1 mark: Athlete 3 correctly identified with correct supporting evidence (lowest value = fastest reaction time); 1 mark: Athlete 2 correctly identified with correct supporting evidence (highest value = best balance); 1 mark: valid explanation of why fast reaction time is important for a goalkeeper; 1 mark: further valid detail/development of the goalkeeper explanation; 1 mark: valid explanation of why balance is important for a gymnast; 1 mark: further valid detail/development of the gymnast explanation; max 6.

(a) Between Week 1 and Week 4, the frequency increased from 4 to 5 sessions per week, the session duration increased from 45 to 55 minutes, and the intensity increased from 65% to 75% of maximum heart rate; any two of these represent progression. (b) Applying progression gradually, in small increments over several weeks, allows the body time to adapt to each increased demand before the next increase is applied, reducing the risk of injury, excessive fatigue or overtraining that could result from a large, sudden increase in training load. (c) Overload is also being applied: at each stage, the training demands, frequency, intensity and/or duration, are set higher than what the swimmer's body was previously used to, which is necessary to force a training adaptation and improvement in fitness.

1 mark each for two valid changes identified from the table (frequency, duration, intensity all increasing); 1 mark: valid explanation of why gradual progression is safer (e.g. allows the body to adapt, reduces injury/overtraining risk); 1 mark: further valid development of this explanation; 1 mark: overload correctly identified as the further principle being applied; 1 mark: valid justification using evidence from the table (training demands set above what the body is accustomed to, forcing adaptation); max 6.

Isotonic weight training involves the muscle changing length as it contracts against a resistance, producing movement through a range of motion, for example a bench press or squat. This method is appropriate and effective for developing a rugby player's muscular strength because it can closely replicate the dynamic, whole-range movements required in scrummaging and tackling, and the resistance, sets and repetitions can be precisely manipulated, using the FITT and SPORRT principles, to progressively overload the muscles and develop strength that transfers well to the dynamic demands of the sport. It does, however, require access to appropriate equipment and correct technique/supervision to avoid injury. Isometric training involves the muscle contracting without changing length, so no movement occurs, for example pushing against an immovable object or holding a static position under load. This can be useful for developing strength at a specific joint angle relevant to a static phase of scrummaging, and requires little or no equipment, making it very accessible; however, the strength gained is largely specific to the joint angle trained and does not transfer as well to the full range of dynamic movement required in a tackle. Overall, isotonic weight training is likely to be the more appropriate and effective method for this player, as it develops strength through a fuller, more dynamic range of motion that better transfers to the varied demands of scrummaging and tackling, although isometric training could still have a valuable, specific role, for example in developing strength at the exact joint angle used at the point of engagement in a scrum.

Band 3 (6-7 marks): a detailed, balanced evaluation that accurately explains how EACH method works and evaluates its appropriateness/effectiveness for developing this player's strength, with reference to specificity, transfer to the sport, and practical factors (e.g. equipment, injury risk), reaching a justified overall conclusion; accurate terminology and high-quality written communication throughout. Band 2 (3-5 marks): a mostly accurate account of both methods with some evaluative comment, but less balanced, detailed or well-justified; adequate written communication with occasional errors. Band 1 (1-2 marks): limited, descriptive or one-sided response with little genuine evaluation; noticeable errors in written communication that may hinder meaning. 0 marks: no relevant content.

An effective and safe training programme for this athlete should first match the physical fitness requirements of the 800 m, an event requiring a high level of both aerobic and anaerobic energy production alongside muscular endurance and speed, to the components of fitness targeted in training. Valid fitness tests relevant to these components should be used to identify the athlete's current areas for improvement, and SMART objectives and targets should be set based on this information, for example a specific, measurable target time to achieve by a realistic, time-bound point in the programme. The programme should also take account of the individual's circumstances, such as their age, being 17 and still developing physically, their current fitness level, any injury history, the activities they enjoy, and the time and facilities they have access to, to ensure the programme is realistic and sustainable for them. The principles of FITT, frequency, intensity, time and type, and SPORRT, specificity, progression, overload, recovery, reversibility and tedium, should be applied throughout: for example, training should be specific to the demands of the 800 m, include a progressive increase in training load across the six weeks to safely apply overload, build in adequate recovery between sessions to avoid overtraining or injury, and include some variety of session type to avoid tedium and maintain motivation. Finally, the programme should include a means of monitoring and reviewing progress, for example periodic re-testing, so that it can be adjusted if it is proving too easy, too demanding, or otherwise ineffective.

Band 3 (6-7 marks): a detailed, accurate evaluation that addresses safety, appropriateness and effectiveness, explicitly linking the programme to this athlete's individual circumstances (age, fitness level, event demands) and correctly applying FITT/SPORRT and SMART target-setting, with reference to monitoring/reviewing progress; accurate terminology and high-quality written communication throughout. Band 2 (3-5 marks): a mostly accurate account referring to several relevant planning principles (e.g. SMART targets, FITT/SPORRT, individual circumstances) with some evaluative comment, but less complete or well-integrated; adequate written communication with occasional errors. Band 1 (1-2 marks): limited, generic or descriptive response with little reference to this athlete's specific circumstances or genuine evaluation; noticeable errors in written communication that may hinder meaning. 0 marks: no relevant content.

To ensure the test is valid, the teacher should select a test that genuinely measures muscular endurance specifically, for example a sit-up or press-up test performed to a set standard for a set time, rather than a test that actually measures a different component such as strength or power. To ensure specificity, the muscle groups tested should be relevant to the students' needs. To ensure reliability, the teacher should use a standardised protocol for every student, for example the same starting position, the same technique required for a repetition to count, the same time limit and clearly defined counting criteria, so that the test could be repeated and give consistent results. The conditions and environment should also be controlled and kept consistent between students and between testing occasions, for example testing all students in the same location, at a similar time of day, and under similar temperature conditions. Accuracy of measurement should be ensured through correctly calibrated or clearly defined counting/timing methods. The teacher should also be mindful of each student's emotions, motivation and state of readiness, ensuring all students are similarly encouraged and are not tested when unusually anxious or unmotivated, as this could affect how maximally they perform; and their state of hydration and health, ensuring no student is tested while unwell, dehydrated or injured, as this could also affect their result and make between-student or over-time comparisons unfair. Considering and controlling all of these factors together will allow the teacher to make fair comparisons between students and reliably monitor each student's progress over time.

Band 3 (6-7 marks): a detailed, accurate evaluation covering multiple factors underpinning fair assessment (e.g. validity, specificity, reliability/standardised protocol, conditions/environment, accuracy of measurement, athlete emotions/motivation/readiness, hydration/health), explaining how each supports fair comparison and monitoring of progress for this specific scenario, with accurate terminology and high-quality written communication throughout. Band 2 (3-5 marks): a mostly accurate account referring to several relevant factors with some explanation of their importance, but less complete, detailed or well-applied to the scenario; adequate written communication with occasional errors. Band 1 (1-2 marks): limited or generic reference to fitness testing with little explanation of fairness/validity/reliability; noticeable errors in written communication that may hinder meaning. 0 marks: no relevant content.