An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Nov 2024 (V2) Cambridge International A Level Biology (9700) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.
Paper 12 (選擇題)
Answer all 40 questions. Choose the single best correct alternative A, B, C or D.
32 題目 · 32 分
題目 1 · 選擇題
1 分
Which row correctly describes the permeability and transport characteristics of the descending limb and the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
A.Descending limb: Highly permeable to water, impermeable to \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\), no active transport of \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\). Thick ascending limb: Impermeable to water, permeable to \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\), active transport of \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\).
B.Descending limb: Impermeable to water, permeable to \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\), active transport of \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\). Thick ascending limb: Highly permeable to water, impermeable to \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\), no active transport of \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\).
C.Descending limb: Highly permeable to water, permeable to \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\), active transport of \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\). Thick ascending limb: Impermeable to water, impermeable to \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\), no active transport of \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\).
D.Descending limb: Impermeable to water, impermeable to \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\), no active transport of \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\). Thick ascending limb: Highly permeable to water, permeable to \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\), active transport of \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^-\).
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解題
In the loop of Henle, the descending limb is highly permeable to water but impermeable to sodium and chloride ions. Water moves out of the descending limb by osmosis into the highly concentrated tissue fluid of the medulla, concentrating the filtrate inside the tubule. Conversely, the thick ascending limb is completely impermeable to water but allows the movement of sodium and chloride ions. In the thick region of the ascending limb, sodium and chloride ions are actively transported out into the medullary tissue fluid to maintain the high solute concentration of the medulla.
評分準則
1 mark: Correctly identifies the water permeability, ion permeability, and active transport properties of both limbs as described in option A.
題目 2 · 選擇題
1 分
In a large, isolated, random-mating population of a diploid wildflower species, a single gene locus with two alleles controls petal colour. The allele for red petals (\(R\)) is completely dominant to the allele for white petals (\(r\)). A severe drought occurs, killing all individual plants with white petals before they can reproduce. The drought does not affect the survival of plants with red petals. Which statement is correct regarding the frequency of the recessive allele (\(r\)) in the next generation?
A.The frequency of the \(r\) allele becomes zero because all white-flowered plants are eliminated.
B.The frequency of the \(r\) allele decreases but remains greater than zero because heterozygous plants survive and reproduce.
C.The frequency of the \(r\) allele remains completely unchanged because the surviving red-flowered plants mate randomly.
D.The frequency of the \(r\) allele increases because heterozygous plants have a selective advantage.
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解題
White-flowered plants are homozygous recessive (\(rr\)). When they are eliminated, all the remaining plants have red flowers and have either the genotype \(RR\) or \(Rr\). Because the heterozygotes (\(Rr\)) survive, they still carry the recessive \(r\) allele. When they reproduce, some of their offspring will receive the \(r\) allele. Therefore, while the overall frequency of the \(r\) allele in the population will decrease, it will not drop to zero.
評分準則
1 mark: Correctly identifies that the allele frequency of the recessive allele decreases but remains above zero due to heterozygous carriers (B).
題目 3 · 選擇題
1 分
An experiment was set up to investigate the effect of light intensity on the rate of the Hill reaction in an isolated chloroplast suspension. DCPIP was used as an electron acceptor. Four test tubes were prepared as follows: Tube 1: Chloroplast suspension + DCPIP, placed in the dark; Tube 2: Chloroplast suspension + DCPIP, placed in high light intensity; Tube 3: Chloroplast suspension + DCPIP + DCPIP-reduction inhibitor, placed in high light intensity; Tube 4: Buffer solution (no chloroplasts) + DCPIP, placed in high light intensity. In which tube(s) will there be a significant decrease in light absorbance at 600 nm over time?
A.Tube 2 only
B.Tubes 1 and 2 only
C.Tubes 2 and 3 only
D.Tubes 2 and 4 only
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解題
DCPIP is a blue dye that acts as an electron acceptor in the Hill reaction. When it is reduced by electrons originating from the photolysis of water during the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis, it becomes colorless, resulting in a decrease in light absorbance at 600 nm. Tube 1 has no light, so no photolysis occurs and DCPIP is not reduced. Tube 2 has chloroplasts and light, so photolysis occurs, electrons are transferred to DCPIP, reducing it, and absorbance decreases. Tube 3 has an inhibitor of DCPIP reduction, so no reduction occurs. Tube 4 has no chloroplasts, so no photolysis occurs. Therefore, only Tube 2 will show a significant decrease in absorbance.
評分準則
1 mark: Correctly identifies that only Tube 2 will show a decrease in absorbance because it has all necessary components for the light-dependent reaction to proceed (A).
題目 4 · 選擇題
1 分
A plasmid vector contains a single restriction site for *Bam*HI (which produces sticky ends) and a single restriction site for *Sma*I (which produces blunt ends). A target gene is amplified using PCR primers designed to introduce a *Bam*HI site at the 5' end and a *Sma*I site at the 3' end. The plasmid and the PCR-amplified gene are both digested with both *Bam*HI and *Sma*I, mixed together, and treated with DNA ligase. What is a major advantage of using this dual-enzyme digest method over using *Bam*HI alone to clone the target gene?
A.It increases the rate of DNA ligation because blunt-end ligations are much faster than sticky-end ligations.
B.It prevents the plasmid vector from recircularising without the insert and ensures the target gene is inserted in the correct orientation.
C.It allows DNA polymerase to replicate the plasmid more efficiently during PCR amplification.
D.It eliminates the need for DNA ligase to seal the phosphodiester backbone of the recombinant plasmid.
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解題
Using two different restriction enzymes that produce different ends (one sticky, one blunt) is known as directional cloning. It prevents the digested plasmid vector from self-ligating (recircularising) because the sticky end created by *Bam*HI cannot base-pair with the blunt end created by *Sma*I. It also ensures the insert is integrated in the correct orientation because the *Bam*HI-digested end of the insert can only ligate to the *Bam*HI-digested end of the plasmid, and the *Sma*I-digested end can only ligate to the *Sma*I-digested end of the plasmid.
評分準則
1 mark: Correctly identifies the dual benefits of preventing plasmid self-ligation and ensuring correct gene orientation (B).
題目 5 · 選擇題
1 分
Which statement correctly describes a difference between cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation in the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis?
A.Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both photosystem I (PSI) and photosystem II (PSII), whereas non-cyclic photophosphorylation involves only PSI.
B.Cyclic photophosphorylation produces both ATP and reduced NADP, whereas non-cyclic photophosphorylation produces only ATP.
C.Cyclic photophosphorylation does not involve the photolysis of water, whereas non-cyclic photophosphorylation requires photolysis of water to replace lost electrons.
D.Cyclic photophosphorylation releases oxygen as a waste product, whereas non-cyclic photophosphorylation does not release oxygen.
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解題
In cyclic photophosphorylation, electrons from PSI are passed back to the electron transport chain and return to the reaction center of PSI. Thus, no external source of electrons (water) is needed, meaning photolysis of water does not occur. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, electrons from PSII are passed to PSI and eventually to NADP. The electrons lost from PSII must be replaced by electrons from the photolysis of water, which also produces oxygen as a waste product.
評分準則
1 mark: Correctly identifies that cyclic photophosphorylation does not involve water photolysis while non-cyclic does (C).
題目 6 · 選擇題
1 分
When blood glucose concentration decreases below the normal set point, the hormone glucagon is secreted. Which sequence of events occurs in a liver cell (hepatocyte) after glucagon binds to its cell surface receptor?
A.activation of G-protein \(\rightarrow\) activation of adenylyl cyclase \(\rightarrow\) production of cyclic AMP \(\rightarrow\) activation of protein kinase A \(\rightarrow\) activation of glycogen phosphorylase
B.activation of G-protein \(\rightarrow\) production of cyclic AMP \(\rightarrow\) activation of adenylyl cyclase \(\rightarrow\) activation of protein kinase A \(\rightarrow\) activation of glycogen phosphorylase
C.activation of protein kinase A \(\rightarrow\) activation of G-protein \(\rightarrow\) activation of adenylyl cyclase \(\rightarrow\) production of cyclic AMP \(\rightarrow\) activation of glycogen phosphorylase
D.activation of adenylyl cyclase \(\rightarrow\) activation of G-protein \(\rightarrow\) production of cyclic AMP \(\rightarrow\) activation of glycogen phosphorylase \(\rightarrow\) activation of protein kinase A
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解題
When glucagon binds to its receptor on the hepatocyte membrane, it induces a conformational change that activates a G-protein. The active G-protein then activates the enzyme adenylyl cyclase. Adenylyl cyclase catalyses the conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP), which acts as a second messenger. cAMP binds to and activates protein kinase A (PKA). PKA triggers an enzyme cascade that ultimately activates glycogen phosphorylase, the enzyme responsible for glycogenolysis (the breakdown of glycogen to glucose).
評分準則
1 mark: Correctly identifies the step-by-step intracellular signaling cascade triggered by glucagon (A).
題目 7 · 選擇題
1 分
Two populations of a single plant species inhabit the same geographical area. One population flowers in early spring, while the other population flowers in mid-summer. Over time, genetic differences accumulate between the two populations, leading to the formation of two distinct species. Which terms correctly describe this type of speciation and the mechanism of reproductive isolation involved?
Because the two populations live in the same geographical area, speciation is sympatric (not allopatric, which requires geographical isolation). Because the two populations reproduce at different times of the year (early spring vs. mid-summer), the reproductive barrier is temporal isolation.
Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a single base substitution in the \(\beta\)-globin gene that eliminates a restriction site for a specific restriction endonuclease. The normal allele (\(Hb^A\)) is cut by the enzyme into two fragments of length 1.1 kb and 0.2 kb. The sickle cell allele (\(Hb^S\)) lacks the restriction site and remains as a single fragment of length 1.3 kb. DNA samples from three family members (X, Y, and Z) were digested with this restriction endonuclease, separated by gel electrophoresis, and visualised using a \(\beta\)-globin gene probe. The results showed: Individual X: bands at 1.3 kb, 1.1 kb, and 0.2 kb; Individual Y: a single band at 1.3 kb; Individual Z: bands at 1.1 kb and 0.2 kb. Which of the following is a correct interpretation of these results?
A.Individual X has sickle cell anaemia, Y is a carrier, and Z is unaffected.
B.Individual X is a carrier, Y has sickle cell anaemia, and Z is unaffected.
C.Individual X is unaffected, Y is a carrier, and Z has sickle cell anaemia.
D.Individual X is a carrier, Y is unaffected, and Z has sickle cell anaemia.
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解題
Individual X has three bands (1.3 kb, 1.1 kb, and 0.2 kb), which indicates they have both the normal allele (\(Hb^A\)) and the mutant allele (\(Hb^S\)). Thus, X is heterozygous (\(Hb^A Hb^S\)) and is a carrier of the sickle cell trait. Individual Y has only the 1.3 kb band, which indicates they only have the mutant allele. Thus, Y is homozygous recessive (\(Hb^S Hb^S\)) and has sickle cell anaemia. Individual Z has only the 1.1 kb and 0.2 kb bands, indicating they only have the normal allele. Thus, Z is homozygous normal (\(Hb^A Hb^A\)) and is unaffected.
評分準則
1 mark: Correctly interprets the genotypes and phenotypes of individuals X, Y, and Z based on the restriction fragment lengths (B).
題目 9 · 選擇題
1 分
A population of a diploid plant species is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a gene that controls flower colour with two alleles, \(C^R\) (red) and \(C^W\) (white). The frequency of the homozygous recessive white phenotype (\(C^W C^W\)) is 0.09.
Over several generations, a new insect herbivore is introduced that selectively feeds on red-flowered plants, preventing them from reproducing. Homozygous white-flowered plants and heterozygous pink-flowered (\(C^R C^W\)) plants are unaffected by the herbivore.
Which of the following represents the frequency of the \(C^W\) allele in the offspring of the next generation, assuming only survivors of this herbivory successfully interbreed?
A.0.30
B.0.50
C.0.59
D.0.64
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解題
1. Initially, the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The frequency of the white phenotype (\(C^W C^W\)) is \(q^2 = 0.09\), so \(q (C^W) = 0.3\) and \(p (C^R) = 0.7\). 2. The genotype frequencies in the initial population are: - \(C^R C^R = p^2 = 0.49\) (Red) - \(C^R C^W = 2pq = 2 \times 0.7 \times 0.3 = 0.42\) (Pink) - \(C^W C^W = q^2 = 0.09\) (White) 3. Selective herbivory removes all red-flowered plants (\(C^R C^R\)), leaving only \(C^R C^W\) and \(C^W C^W\) to reproduce. 4. The total surviving population frequency is \(0.42 + 0.09 = 0.51\). 5. The new frequency of the \(C^W\) allele (\(q'\)) among the survivors is calculated as: \[q' = \frac{\text{frequency of } C^W C^W + 0.5 \times \text{frequency of } C^R C^W}{\text{total surviving frequency}}\] \[q' = \frac{0.09 + 0.5 \times 0.42}{0.51} = \frac{0.30}{0.51} \approx 0.59\]
評分準則
Award 1 mark for the correct option C. - Correct identification of starting allele frequencies (p=0.7, q=0.3): 0.5 marks - Correct recalculation of allele frequency after removing the red genotype: 0.5 marks
題目 10 · 選擇題
1 分
Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of events in a pancreatic \(\beta\)-cell when the blood glucose concentration increases?
A.Glucose enters via GLUT2 -> ATP increases -> ATP-sensitive potassium channels close -> depolarisation -> voltage-gated calcium channels open -> calcium influx -> exocytosis of insulin.
B.Glucose enters via GLUT4 -> ATP increases -> ATP-sensitive potassium channels open -> depolarisation -> voltage-gated calcium channels open -> calcium influx -> exocytosis of insulin.
C.Glucose enters via GLUT2 -> ATP decreases -> ATP-sensitive potassium channels close -> hyperpolarisation -> voltage-gated calcium channels open -> calcium efflux -> exocytosis of insulin.
D.Glucose enters via GLUT4 -> ATP increases -> ATP-sensitive potassium channels close -> hyperpolarisation -> voltage-gated sodium channels open -> sodium influx -> exocytosis of insulin.
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解題
When blood glucose levels rise, glucose enters the pancreatic \(\beta\)-cells via GLUT2 transporter proteins by facilitated diffusion. The glucose is metabolised via glycolysis and respiration, increasing the concentration of ATP inside the cell. The high ATP-to-ADP ratio causes ATP-sensitive potassium (\(\text{K}^+\)) channels to close. As potassium ions can no longer leave the cell, the membrane depolarises. This depolarisation triggers the opening of voltage-gated calcium (\(\text{Ca}^{2+}\)) channels, allowing an influx of calcium ions into the cell. The increased intracellular calcium concentration stimulates the exocytosis of insulin-containing vesicles.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for option A. - Reject B because GLUT4 is insulin-dependent and not the primary entry mechanism in pancreatic beta-cells, and potassium channels must close, not open. - Reject C and D due to incorrect directions of channel activities and potential changes.
題目 11 · 選擇題
1 分
An experiment was set up to investigate the effect of light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis in Elodea. The rate of photosynthesis was measured by counting the number of oxygen bubbles released per minute.
The light source was placed at different distances from the Elodea. A student noticed that at distances of less than 10 cm, the rate of bubble production did not increase any further, even though the light intensity was extremely high.
Consider the following explanations for this observation: 1. Light intensity is no longer the limiting factor. 2. The rate of the light-independent stage is limited by another factor, such as temperature or carbon dioxide concentration. 3. High light intensity has denatured the enzymes of the Calvin cycle.
Which of these statements explain why the rate of bubble production reached a plateau?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
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解題
At high light intensities (distances less than 10 cm), light is no longer the factor limiting the rate of photosynthesis (Statement 1 is correct). Instead, the process is limited by other environmental factors such as carbon dioxide concentration or temperature, which limit the rate of enzyme-controlled reactions in the light-independent stage (Statement 2 is correct). Extremely high light intensity in standard laboratory experiments does not denature enzymes, which is a process caused by heat, not light energy directly (Statement 3 is incorrect).
評分準則
Award 1 mark for option A (1 and 2 only).
題目 12 · 選擇題
1 分
A section of double-stranded DNA is to be amplified using the polymerase chain reaction (PCR). The sequence of one of the strands is shown below, written in the \(5'\) to \(3'\) direction:
\(5'\)- A T G C G T T C G A T T C G G C C T A A G C T A -\(3'\)
Which of the following pairs of primers could be used to amplify this double-stranded DNA fragment? (Note: both primers are written in the \(5'\) to \(3'\) direction and are 6 nucleotides long).
A.5'- A T G C G T -3' and 5'- T A G C T T -3'
B.5'- T A C G C A -3' and 5'- A A G C T A -3'
C.5'- A T G C G T -3' and 5'- A A G C T A -3'
D.5'- T A C G C A -3' and 5'- T A G C T T -3'
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解題
PCR primers must bind to the \(3'\) ends of the target DNA strands so that DNA polymerase can synthesise new strands in the \(5'\) to \(3'\) direction. - The first strand is: \(5'\)- A T G C G T ... A A G C T A -\(3'\). The primer for this strand must be complementary to the \(3'\) end (\(5'\)- A A G C T A -\(3'\)). Its complementary sequence is \(3'\)- T T C G A T -\(5'\), which written from \(5'\) to \(3'\) is \(5'\)- T A G C T T -\(3'\). - The complementary strand runs antiparallel: \(3'\)- T A C G C A ... T T C G A T -\(5'\). Its \(3'\) end is \(3'\)- T A C G C A -\(5'\). The primer for this strand must be complementary to this \(3'\) end, which is \(5'\)- A T G C G T -\(3'\). Therefore, the correct primers are \(5'\)- A T G C G T -\(3'\) and \(5'\)- T A G C T T -\(3'\).
評分準則
Award 1 mark for option A. - Primers must bind antiparallel to the template strands and extend in the 5' to 3' direction.
題目 13 · 選擇題
1 分
Which row correctly identifies the ultimate electron donor, the final electron acceptor, and the products of non-cyclic photophosphorylation in plants?
A.Ultimate electron donor: water; Final electron acceptor: NADP+; Products: ATP, reduced NADP, O2
B.Ultimate electron donor: water; Final electron acceptor: chlorophyll a in PSI; Products: ATP, O2
C.Ultimate electron donor: chlorophyll a in PSII; Final electron acceptor: NADP+; Products: ATP, reduced NADP
D.Ultimate electron donor: reduced NADP; Final electron acceptor: oxygen; Products: ATP, H2O
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解題
In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, photolysis of water acts as the ultimate electron source, producing protons, electrons, and oxygen gas as a waste product. The electrons flow through photosystem II (PSII) and photosystem I (PSI) along an electron transport chain, which generates a proton gradient to drive ATP synthesis. The final electron acceptor at the end of this pathway is \(\text{NADP}^+\), which is reduced to form reduced NADP.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for option A. - B is incorrect because PSI is an intermediate electron carrier, not the final acceptor. - C is incorrect because PSII is not the ultimate donor (water is). - D is incorrect because reduced NADP is a product, not a donor.
題目 14 · 選擇題
1 分
A species of lizard lives on an island. These lizards are preyed upon by two different predators: - Hawk species X, which hunts from the air and easily spots and captures the largest, most active lizards. - Snake species Y, which hunts on the ground and can only swallow the smallest, slowest lizards.
Over many generations, both predators exert strong selection pressure on the lizard population.
Which of the following correctly describes the type of natural selection acting on the lizard population and the predicted changes to the population's phenotype distribution over time?
A.Stabilising selection; the mean lizard size remains constant, but the standard deviation decreases.
B.Disruptive selection; the mean lizard size remains constant, but the standard deviation increases.
C.Directional selection; the mean lizard size increases, and the standard deviation decreases.
D.Directional selection; the mean lizard size decreases, and the standard deviation remains constant.
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解題
Both extreme phenotypes (the largest/most active and the smallest/slowest lizards) are selected against by the two predators. The intermediate phenotype (medium-sized lizards) has the highest fitness and is selected for. This is a classic description of stabilising selection. Over time, the mean value of the trait (lizard size) remains constant, but the variation around the mean decreases, resulting in a narrower distribution with a decreased standard deviation.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for option A. - Disruptive selection (B) would select for both extremes and against the mean. - Directional selection (C and D) occurs when one extreme phenotype is favoured over another.
題目 15 · 選擇題
1 分
The table below shows the concentrations of several substances in the blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine of a healthy human:
Which statement is correctly supported by these data?
A.Glucose is completely reabsorbed by active transport and facilitated diffusion in the proximal convoluted tubule.
B.Large proteins are freely filtered through the basement membrane but are completely reabsorbed by endocytosis.
C.Urea is actively transported into the lumen of the nephron to increase its concentration in the urine.
D.Sodium ions are not reabsorbed because their concentration in the urine is higher than in the glomerular filtrate.
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解題
Glucose is fully filtered at the glomerulus (concentration in filtrate is equal to that in blood plasma: 1.0 \(\text{g dm}^{-3}\)). It is completely absent from urine (0.0 \(\text{g dm}^{-3}\)), which indicates that 100% of the glucose is reabsorbed back into the blood. This selective reabsorption occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule via secondary active transport (co-transport with sodium ions) and facilitated diffusion. Therefore, option A is correct.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for option A. - B is incorrect because large proteins are not freely filtered (filtrate concentration is almost zero). - C is incorrect because urea is concentrated due to the passive removal of water from the tubules, not active transport. - D is incorrect because sodium ions are highly reabsorbed (the concentration rises because water is reabsorbed at a higher proportional rate).
題目 16 · 選擇題
1 分
A researcher wants to compare the gene expression profiles of breast cancer cells and healthy breast tissue cells using a microarray.
Which sequence of steps is correct for this investigation?
A.Convert mRNA to cDNA using reverse transcriptase -> label cancer cDNA with one fluorescent dye and healthy cDNA with a different fluorescent dye -> hybridise both to the microarray -> detect fluorescence.
B.Hybridise mRNA directly to the microarray probes -> add fluorescently labelled antibodies against mRNA-DNA hybrids -> use reverse transcriptase on the microarray -> detect fluorescence.
C.Amplify mRNA using PCR -> digest PCR products with restriction enzymes -> separate fragments using gel electrophoresis -> transfer fragments to the microarray.
D.Convert mRNA to double-stranded DNA using DNA polymerase -> clone the DNA into plasmids -> transfect healthy cells with cancer genes -> measure protein production.
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解題
To analyze gene expression (which genes are active and transcribed), mRNA is extracted from both types of tissue. Since mRNA is unstable and single-stranded, it is converted into complementary DNA (cDNA) using the enzyme reverse transcriptase. The cDNA from the cancer cells is labelled with a fluorescent dye of one colour (e.g., red) and the healthy cell cDNA with a different colour (e.g., green). Both samples are mixed and hybridised to the microarray slide. The fluorescence pattern indicates which genes are expressed in which tissue.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for option A. - B is incorrect because mRNA is not directly hybridised to microarrays in standard expression analysis, nor is reverse transcriptase used on the slide. - C is incorrect because PCR of mRNA requires RT-PCR, and restriction enzymes and gel electrophoresis are not part of microarray hybridisation preparation. - D is incorrect because it describes gene cloning, not gene expression profiling.
題目 17 · 選擇題
1 分
In a healthy mammal, the concentration of glucose in the blood is maintained within narrow limits. However, if blood glucose concentration exceeds a certain value (the renal threshold), glucose begins to appear in the urine. Which statement correctly explains why glucose appears in the urine when the blood glucose concentration is extremely high?
A.The high concentration of glucose in the glomerular filtrate reduces the water potential, preventing the osmosis of water and causing glucose to be flushed out.
B.The co-transporter proteins in the proximal convoluted tubule membrane become saturated and cannot reabsorb the excess glucose.
C.The high glucose concentration in the blood inhibits the active transport of sodium ions out of the proximal convoluted tubule cells.
D.High glucose concentration in the glomerular filtrate causes the cells of the loop of Henle to become impermeable to glucose.
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解題
Glucose is filtered out of the blood in the glomerulus and enters the nephron. Under normal physiological conditions, 100% of the glucose is reabsorbed back into the blood from the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) via sodium-glucose co-transporter proteins (SGLTs). However, these carrier proteins have a maximum transport capacity (\(T_m\)). When the blood glucose concentration is extremely high, the concentration of glucose in the filtrate also increases drastically, exceeding the capacity of these co-transporter proteins. The proteins become fully saturated, meaning they cannot transport any more glucose, and the excess unabsorbed glucose remains in the filtrate and is excreted in the urine.
評分準則
1 mark for identifying that co-transporter proteins in the proximal convoluted tubule become saturated (Option B).
題目 18 · 選擇題
1 分
During the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis, light energy is absorbed by photosystems. Which of the following correctly describes the movement of protons and the synthesis of ATP during photophosphorylation?
A.Protons are actively pumped from the stroma into the thylakoid space, and ATP is synthesised as protons diffuse down their concentration gradient through ATP synthase from the thylakoid space into the stroma.
B.Protons are actively pumped from the thylakoid space into the stroma, and ATP is synthesised as protons diffuse down their concentration gradient through ATP synthase from the stroma into the thylakoid space.
C.Protons diffuse down their concentration gradient from the stroma into the thylakoid space through ATP synthase, which drives the phosphorylation of ADP.
D.Protons are pumped from the stroma into the thylakoid space by ATP synthase, which uses energy from ATP hydrolysis to create a proton gradient.
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解題
During photophosphorylation, the energy from electron transport is used to pump protons (\(H^+\)) across the thylakoid membrane from the stroma into the thylakoid space (lumen), creating a high concentration of protons inside. Protons then diffuse back down their electrochemical gradient from the thylakoid space to the stroma through the channel within ATP synthase. This movement of protons (chemiosmosis) drives the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP.
評分準則
1 mark for identifying the correct direction of proton pumping, diffusion, and site of ATP synthesis (Option A).
題目 19 · 選擇題
1 分
In an investigation of the rate of photosynthesis, a plant is exposed to different environmental conditions: Curve 1: 0.04% \(\text{CO}_2\) at \(15^\circ\text{C}\); Curve 2: 0.04% \(\text{CO}_2\) at \(25^\circ\text{C}\); Curve 3: 0.15% \(\text{CO}_2\) at \(25^\circ\text{C}\). Under high light intensity, the rate of photosynthesis is highest for Curve 3 and lowest for Curve 1. Curve 1 and Curve 2 level off at different rates under high light intensity. Which statement is correct?
A.At low light intensity, the rate of photosynthesis in Curve 2 is limited by temperature.
B.At high light intensity, the rate of photosynthesis in Curve 2 is limited by carbon dioxide concentration.
C.At high light intensity, the rate of photosynthesis in Curve 3 is limited by temperature only.
D.At low light intensity, the rate of photosynthesis in Curve 1 is limited by carbon dioxide concentration.
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解題
At low light intensity, light is the limiting factor for all curves because the rate of photosynthesis is directly proportional to light intensity. At high light intensity, the rate of photosynthesis levels off because some other factor becomes limiting. For Curve 2 (0.04% \(\text{CO}_2\) at \(25^\circ\text{C}\)), the rate is lower than Curve 3 (0.15% \(\text{CO}_2\) at \(25^\circ\text{C}\)). Since the temperature is the same but the concentration of carbon dioxide is lower, increasing the carbon dioxide concentration increases the rate. Therefore, carbon dioxide concentration is the limiting factor for Curve 2 at high light intensity.
評分準則
1 mark for correctly identifying carbon dioxide concentration as the limiting factor for Curve 2 under high light intensity (Option B).
題目 20 · 選擇題
1 分
The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to clone and amplify DNA. Each cycle of PCR involves three steps carried out at different temperatures: \(95^\circ\text{C}\), \(55^\circ\text{C}\), and \(72^\circ\text{C}\). Which of the following correctly describes the purpose of each temperature in a PCR cycle?
A.95 °C: Denatures DNA double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds; 55 °C: Allows primers to anneal to complementary single-stranded DNA; 72 °C: Optimal temperature for Taq polymerase to extend the new DNA strand
B.95 °C: Denatures DNA double helix by breaking phosphodiester bonds; 55 °C: Allows primers to anneal to complementary single-stranded DNA; 72 °C: Denatures Taq polymerase to stop the reaction
C.95 °C: Activates Taq polymerase by changing its tertiary structure; 55 °C: Promotes the formation of hydrogen bonds between primers and template; 72 °C: Allows Taq polymerase to synthesise primers
D.95 °C: Denatures DNA double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds; 55 °C: Prevents non-specific binding of primers; 72 °C: Denatures Taq polymerase to allow primer extension
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解題
During PCR: (1) Heating to \(95^\circ\text{C}\) denatures the double-stranded DNA template by breaking hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs, separating it into single strands. (2) Cooling to \(55^\circ\text{C}\) allows short DNA primers to anneal (form hydrogen bonds) to complementary target sequences on the single strands. (3) Heating to \(72^\circ\text{C}\) provides the optimum temperature for the thermostable Taq polymerase to synthesise a new complementary DNA strand by extending from the primers.
評分準則
1 mark for assigning the correct functions to all three temperatures in the PCR cycle (Option A).
題目 21 · 選擇題
1 分
In a species of land snail, shell colour is determined by alleles at a single gene locus. Snails with very light shells are well camouflaged on light-coloured sand dunes, while snails with very dark shells are well camouflaged on dark muddy ground. Snails with intermediate (medium) shell colours are highly visible to predators in both habitats. If a population of these snails is distributed across an area containing both sand dunes and muddy ground, which type of natural selection is most likely to operate on shell colour, and what will be the effect on the phenotypic variance of the population?
A.Directional selection, leading to an increase in the frequency of the intermediate phenotype and a decrease in phenotypic variance.
B.Disruptive selection, leading to an increase in both extreme phenotypes and an increase in phenotypic variance.
C.Stabilising selection, leading to an increase in the intermediate phenotype and a decrease in phenotypic variance.
D.Disruptive selection, leading to an increase in the intermediate phenotype and an increase in phenotypic variance.
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解題
Disruptive selection occurs when environmental conditions favour individuals at both phenotypic extremes (very light shells and very dark shells) over individuals with intermediate phenotypes. This leads to a bimodal distribution and an overall increase in the phenotypic variance within the population.
評分準則
1 mark for identifying disruptive selection and an increase in phenotypic variance (Option B).
題目 22 · 選擇題
1 分
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) plays a crucial role in maintaining blood water potential. Which sequence of events correctly describes the action of ADH on the cells of the collecting duct?
A.ADH binds to receptors on the cell surface membrane -> activation of an intracellular G-protein -> activation of adenylyl cyclase -> production of cyclic AMP (cAMP) -> vesicles containing aquaporins fuse with the luminal membrane.
B.ADH enters the cell via aquaporins -> binds to intracellular receptors -> transcription of aquaporin genes is initiated -> aquaporins are synthesised on rough endoplasmic reticulum -> transport to the basolateral membrane.
C.ADH binds to receptors on the luminal membrane -> activation of adenylyl cyclase -> production of cyclic AMP (cAMP) -> aquaporins are actively transported out of the cell by exocytosis.
D.ADH binds to receptors on the cell surface membrane -> opening of ligand-gated calcium channels -> calcium ions diffuse into the cell -> vesicles containing aquaporins fuse with the basolateral membrane.
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解題
ADH is a peptide hormone that cannot cross the phospholipid bilayer of the target cell's membrane. It binds to specific receptors (GPCRs) on the basolateral cell-surface membrane of the collecting duct cells. This activates a G-protein, which in turn activates the enzyme adenylyl cyclase. Adenylyl cyclase converts ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP), a second messenger. cAMP activates a protein kinase cascade that causes vesicles containing aquaporin water channels to move towards and fuse with the luminal (apical) membrane of the cells, increasing their permeability to water.
評分準則
1 mark for outlining the correct signal transduction sequence from GPCR to aquaporin insertion at the luminal membrane (Option A).
題目 23 · 選擇題
1 分
A population of a plant species grows in a meadow. A mutation occurs in some individuals, leading to autopolyploidy, where the chromosome number is doubled (from \(2n\) to \(4n\)). These tetraploid plants can self-pollinate or mate with other tetraploid plants to produce fertile offspring, but when they cross with the original diploid (\(2n\)) plants, they produce triploid (\(3n\)) offspring which are sterile. Which of the following statements about this event is correct?
A.Sympatric speciation has occurred because a post-zygotic reproductive barrier has developed without geographic isolation.
B.Allopatric speciation has occurred because the tetraploid plants are geographically isolated from the diploid plants.
C.Sympatric speciation has occurred because a pre-zygotic reproductive barrier has prevented fertilization between diploid and tetraploid plants.
D.No speciation has occurred because the diploid and tetraploid plants still occupy the same habitat and can produce offspring.
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解題
Speciation has occurred because the \(4n\) and \(2n\) plants are reproductively isolated: they can no longer interbreed to produce fertile, viable offspring (their triploid offspring are sterile, which is a post-zygotic barrier). Since this reproductive isolation developed in the same physical locality (the meadow) without geographic separation, it is an example of sympatric speciation.
評分準則
1 mark for identifying that sympatric speciation has occurred and that the sterile triploids represent a post-zygotic barrier (Option A).
題目 24 · 選擇題
1 分
A plasmid vector contains a single recognition site for the restriction endonuclease EcoRI within the promoter of an antibiotic resistance gene, and a single recognition site for BamHI within the coding sequence of the same gene. A student wants to insert a human gene into this plasmid. The human gene is flanked by EcoRI restriction sites on both ends but has no BamHI sites. The student digests both the plasmid and the human gene with EcoRI, mixes them together with DNA ligase, and transforms Escherichia coli bacteria with the recombinant plasmids. Which of the following is a consequence of this experimental design?
A.The human gene cannot be inserted because EcoRI creates blunt ends which cannot be joined by DNA ligase.
B.The promoter of the antibiotic resistance gene will be disrupted by the insertion, preventing the expression of the resistance gene in recombinant bacteria.
C.The bacteria that take up the recombinant plasmid will remain resistant to the antibiotic because the coding sequence of the gene is intact.
D.The human gene will be inserted in the correct orientation only, because EcoRI sticky ends are directional.
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解題
EcoRI cuts the plasmid within the promoter region of the antibiotic resistance gene. Insertion of the human gene at this site will disrupt the sequence of the promoter. Because the promoter is disrupted, RNA polymerase cannot bind to initiate transcription of the antibiotic resistance gene, and therefore the gene will not be expressed. The transformed bacteria containing recombinant plasmids will be sensitive to the antibiotic, not resistant. Option A is incorrect because EcoRI produces sticky ends, not blunt ends. Option C is incorrect because transcription cannot occur without a functional promoter. Option D is incorrect because restriction with a single enzyme (EcoRI) allows the gene to insert in either orientation.
評分準則
1 mark for identifying that insertion at the EcoRI site disrupts the promoter, preventing expression of the resistance gene (Option B).
題目 25 · 選擇題
1 分
In a population of a diploid herbaceous plant, a single locus controls petal color. The allele for red petals (\(R\)) is co-dominant with the allele for white petals (\(W\)), and heterozygotes (\(RW\)) have pink petals. A sudden severe drought occurs, and a researcher studies the survival rates of different phenotypes.
The population before the drought consists of 200 red-flowered, 400 pink-flowered, and 200 white-flowered individuals. After the drought, 80 red-flowered, 200 pink-flowered, and 40 white-flowered individuals survive to reproduce.
What is the frequency of the allele \(W\) in the surviving population?
A.0.25
B.0.44
C.0.50
D.0.56
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解題
To find the allele frequency of \(W\) in the surviving population: 1. First, find the total number of surviving individuals: \(80\text{ (red)} + 200\text{ (pink)} + 40\text{ (white)} = 320\text{ individuals}\). 2. Since each individual is diploid, the total number of alleles in the gene pool is \(320 \times 2 = 640\). 3. Next, calculate the number of \(W\) alleles in the survivors: - Pink-flowered survivors (\(RW\)) each have 1 \(W\) allele: \(200 \times 1 = 200\). - White-flowered survivors (\(WW\)) each have 2 \(W\) alleles: \(40 \times 2 = 80\). - Total \(W\) alleles = \(200 + 80 = 280\). 4. Finally, calculate the frequency of the \(W\) allele: \(\frac{280}{640} = 0.4375 \approx 0.44\).
評分準則
Award 1 mark for the correct selection of option B. - Reject other options due to calculation errors (e.g., option A is a miscalculation, option D is the frequency of the \(R\) allele).
題目 26 · 選擇題
1 分
Which row correctly describes the effects of an increase in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) on the kidney tubule and the resulting changes in the body?
| | Effect of ADH on the collecting duct cells | Change in water potential of blood | Change in concentration of urea in urine | |---|---|---|---| | **A** | Aquaporins are removed from the luminal membrane | Decreases | Decreases | | **B** | Aquaporins are inserted into the luminal membrane | Increases | Increases | | **C** | Aquaporins are removed from the luminal membrane | Increases | Decreases | | **D** | Aquaporins are inserted into the luminal membrane | Decreases | Increases |
A.Row A
B.Row B
C.Row C
D.Row D
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解題
When ADH secretion increases, ADH binds to receptor proteins on the cell surface membrane of collecting duct cells. This activates a signaling cascade that causes vesicles containing aquaporins to fuse with the luminal (apical) membrane, inserting aquaporins. This increases the permeability of the collecting duct to water, allowing more water to be reabsorbed by osmosis into the hypertonic medulla and back into the blood. Consequently, blood water potential increases (becomes less negative / returns to normal). Since more water is reabsorbed, a smaller volume of more concentrated urine is produced, which increases the concentration of urea in the urine.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for identifying that ADH causes insertion of aquaporins, increases blood water potential, and increases urine urea concentration (Option B).
題目 27 · 選擇題
1 分
An experiment was conducted to investigate the rate of photosynthesis in the aquatic plant *Elodea canadensis* under different concentrations of sodium hydrogencarbonate (\(\text{NaHCO}_3\)) at two different light intensities (low and high). The temperature was maintained constant at \(20^\circ\text{C}\).
Under low light intensity, the rate of photosynthesis increases as \(\text{NaHCO}_3\) concentration increases from 0.0% to 0.1%, but then levels off and remains constant at all concentrations above 0.1%.
Under high light intensity, the rate of photosynthesis continues to rise with increasing \(\text{NaHCO}_3\) concentration up to 0.4% before levelling off.
Which statement is a correct interpretation of these results?
A.At 0.2% \(\text{NaHCO}_3\) concentration and low light intensity, carbon dioxide is the limiting factor.
B.At 0.05% \(\text{NaHCO}_3\) concentration, light intensity is the sole limiting factor.
C.At 0.3% \(\text{NaHCO}_3\) concentration, light intensity limits the rate of photosynthesis under low light conditions.
D.At 0.5% \(\text{NaHCO}_3\) concentration, temperature is the only factor limiting the rate of photosynthesis under high light conditions.
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解題
At 0.3% \(\text{NaHCO}_3\) under low light intensity, the rate of photosynthesis has already levelled off. Increasing the carbon dioxide source (\(\text{NaHCO}_3\)) further does not increase the rate. However, when the light intensity is increased to 'high', the rate of photosynthesis increases significantly. This indicates that under low light conditions, light intensity is the factor limiting the rate of photosynthesis at this concentration.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for identifying Option C as the correct interpretation of limiting factors from the experimental results.
題目 28 · 選擇題
1 分
In genetic engineering, genes are often transferred into bacteria using plasmids. Which row correctly identifies the roles of restriction endonucleases, DNA ligase, and marker genes in this process?
| | Restriction endonuclease | DNA ligase | Marker gene | |---|---|---|---| | **A** | Cuts plasmid DNA and gene of interest, leaving complementary sticky ends | Catalyses formation of phosphodiester bonds to join DNA fragments | Allows identification of bacteria that have successfully taken up the recombinant plasmid | | **B** | Joins the gene of interest to the plasmid vector | Cleaves hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs | Protects the recombinant plasmid from host cell enzymes | | **C** | Cuts plasmid DNA and gene of interest, leaving complementary sticky ends | Catalyses formation of hydrogen bonds between complementary bases | Selects for bacteria that have synthesized the required protein product | | **D** | Prevents the plasmid from re-annealing without the insert | Joins the sugar-phosphate backbones of DNA fragments | Enhances the transcription rate of the inserted gene |
A.Row A
B.Row B
C.Row C
D.Row D
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解題
Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific recognition sites, often leaving sticky ends (unpaired nucleotides) that can pair with complementary sticky ends on another DNA molecule. DNA ligase catalyses the formation of covalent phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides, linking the sugar-phosphate backbones. A marker gene (such as an antibiotic resistance gene or a fluorescent protein gene) is used to identify host bacterial cells that have successfully taken up the plasmid during transformation.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for identifying Row A as containing the correct roles for all three components.
題目 29 · 選擇題
1 分
During the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis, non-cyclic photophosphorylation occurs. Which row correctly matches the site of the photolysis of water, the source of electrons replacing those lost from photosystem I (PSI), and the final electron acceptor?
| | Site of photolysis of water | Source of electrons replacing those lost from PSI | Final electron acceptor | |---|---|---|---| | **A** | Thylakoid lumen | Photosystem II | \(\text{NADP}^+\) | | **B** | Stroma | Photolysis of water | Oxygen | | **C** | Thylakoid lumen | Reduced NADP | \(\text{NADP}^+\) | | **D** | Stroma | Photosystem II | Oxygen |
A.Row A
B.Row B
C.Row C
D.Row D
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解題
The photolysis of water takes place on the inner side of the thylakoid membrane, releasing protons into the thylakoid lumen. The electrons lost from the reaction centre of PSI (P700) during photoactivation are replaced by electrons originating from Photosystem II (PSII), which are passed along an electron transport chain. The final electron acceptor at the end of this non-cyclic pathway is \(\text{NADP}^+\), which is reduced to NADPH (reduced NADP) in the stroma.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for identifying the correct locations and pathways corresponding to Row A.
題目 30 · 選擇題
1 分
Which statement correctly explains how environmental change can lead to natural selection in a population of bacteria?
A.The presence of an antibiotic causes some bacteria to mutate so that they become resistant, allowing them to survive and reproduce.
B.In the presence of an antibiotic, bacteria with pre-existing resistance mutations have a selective advantage, meaning they are more likely to survive and pass on the resistance allele.
C.Antibiotics act as selective agents, increasing the overall mutation rate of the bacteria to ensure that some individuals adapt to the change.
D.Directional selection occurs because the antibiotic acts as a mutagen, causing specific base-substitution mutations that alter membrane transport proteins.
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解題
Natural selection operates on pre-existing genetic variation. Mutations arise randomly and spontaneously, independent of the presence of selective agents such as antibiotics. When an antibiotic is introduced, it acts as a selective agent: individuals that already possess a mutation conferring resistance have a selective advantage, enabling them to survive, reproduce, and pass on the resistance allele to their offspring, thereby increasing the allele frequency over generations.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for selecting Option B. - Reject A and D as antibiotics do not induce specific directed mutations. - Reject C because antibiotics do not increase mutation rates to cause adaptation.
題目 31 · 選擇題
1 分
The blood glucose concentration in a mammal is regulated by negative feedback. What happens when blood glucose concentration falls below the normal set-point?
A.Glucagon is secreted by the \(\beta\) cells of the islets of Langerhans, binding to cell surface receptors on liver cells to activate G-proteins.
B.Glucagon is secreted by the \(\alpha\) cells of the islets of Langerhans, which enters hepatocytes to directly activate glycogen phosphorylase.
C.Glucagon is secreted by the \(\alpha\) cells of the islets of Langerhans, binding to G-protein-coupled receptors on liver cells, leading to the activation of adenylyl cyclase.
D.Insulin secretion by \(\beta\) cells increases, which binds to liver cells to stimulate gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis.
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解題
When blood glucose concentration falls, the change is detected by \(\alpha\) cells in the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas, which respond by secreting glucagon. Glucagon is a peptide hormone, so it cannot cross cell membranes. It binds to specific G-protein-coupled receptors on the cell surface membrane of liver cells (hepatocytes). This binding activates a G-protein, which in turn activates the enzyme adenylyl cyclase. Adenylyl cyclase catalyses the conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP), which acts as a second messenger to initiate a cascade that activates glycogen phosphorylase, promoting glycogenolysis.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for identifying Option C. - Reject A: glucagon is secreted by \(\alpha\) cells, not \(\beta\) cells. - Reject B: glucagon binds to external cell-surface receptors, it does not enter the cytoplasm of the hepatocytes. - Reject D: insulin secretion decreases, not increases.
題目 32 · 選擇題
1 分
Which statement correctly describes a step in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
A.During the denaturation step at about \(95^\circ\text{C}\), hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs are broken to separate the DNA strands.
B.During the annealing step at about \(72^\circ\text{C}\), DNA polymerase binds to the single-stranded DNA templates to begin synthesis.
C.During the elongation step at about \(55^\circ\text{C}\), Taq polymerase synthesises complementary strands by adding free nucleotides to the 5' end of the primers.
D.Primers are short double-stranded RNA molecules that provide a free 3'-OH group for the initiation of DNA synthesis by Taq polymerase.
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解題
The first step of each cycle of PCR is denaturation, which occurs at about \(90-95^\circ\text{C}\). This high temperature breaks the hydrogen bonds between the complementary base pairs of the double-stranded DNA template, separating it into single strands. Annealing occurs at around \(50-65^\circ\text{C}\) (not \(72^\circ\text{C}\)), extension/elongation occurs at \(72^\circ\text{C}\) with Taq polymerase adding nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA primers (not 5'), and primers are short single-stranded DNA molecules, not RNA.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for choosing Option A. - Reject B: \(72^\circ\text{C}\) is the temperature for elongation, not annealing. - Reject C: \(55^\circ\text{C}\) is the annealing temperature, and nucleotides are added to the 3' end, not the 5' end. - Reject D: Primers used in PCR are DNA, not RNA molecules.
Paper 22 (AS Level Structured)
Answer all questions. Show your working where appropriate and use correct scientific terminology.
6 題目 · 60 分
題目 1 · structured-short-answer
10 分
Deer mice (\(Peromyscus\ maniculatus\)) are widely distributed across North America, inhabiting both low-altitude valleys and high-altitude alpine regions. High-altitude environments present a physiological challenge due to the low partial pressure of oxygen (\(p\text{O}_2\)).
(a) Define the term *selective agent* and identify the primary selective agent acting on high-altitude populations of deer mice. [2]
(b) Researchers discovered that high-altitude populations of deer mice possess alleles of the \(\alpha\)- and \(\beta\)-globin genes that produce hemoglobin with a higher affinity for oxygen compared to low-altitude populations. Explain how natural selection has led to the high frequency of these high-affinity hemoglobin alleles in high-altitude populations. [5]
(c) Natural selection can be stabilizing, directional, or disruptive. State the type of natural selection that occurred when deer mice first colonized the high-altitude regions. Explain your choice. [3]
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解題
(a) A selective agent is an environmental factor (biotic or abiotic) that influences the survival and reproductive success of individuals within a population. In this scenario, the primary selective agent is the low partial pressure of oxygen (\(p\text{O}_2\)) or hypoxia.
(b) Random mutations occurred in the \(\alpha\)- and \(\beta\)-globin genes, producing new alleles that code for high-affinity hemoglobin. In high-altitude environments, the low partial pressure of oxygen acts as a powerful selection pressure. Individuals possessing the high-affinity alleles are better able to load oxygen at low partial pressures, reducing hypoxia and maintaining metabolic efficiency. Consequently, these individuals have a survival advantage over those with low-affinity alleles, making them more likely to survive to reproductive age, reproduce, and pass on the advantageous alleles to their offspring. Over many generations, this differential reproductive success causes the frequency of the high-affinity hemoglobin alleles to increase within the population.
(c) The type of selection is directional selection. This is because the environmental conditions shifted (from low altitude to high altitude, which is a new selection pressure), favoring one extreme phenotype (highly increased oxygen affinity) over the ancestral mean. This causes the average phenotype of the population to shift in a single direction over time.
評分準則
(a) Max 2 marks: - Definition of selective agent: environmental factor / pressure that influences survival/reproduction of organisms. [1] - Identification of agent: low partial pressure of oxygen / low oxygen level / hypoxia (Reject: "altitude" alone). [1]
(b) Max 5 marks: - Spontaneous/random mutation in globin genes (\(\alpha\) or \(\beta\)) occurs to produce new alleles. [1] - Low oxygen level acts as the selection pressure. [1] - Individuals with high-affinity hemoglobin can bind oxygen more effectively in hypoxic conditions. [1] - These individuals have a survival advantage / are more likely to survive. [1] - Successful individuals reproduce and pass on high-affinity alleles to offspring. [1] - Frequency of high-affinity alleles increases in the gene pool over generations. [1]
(c) Max 3 marks: - Directional selection. [1] - Explanation: Environment changed / selection pressure acts against one extreme and favors the other extreme. [1] - Result: Mean phenotype of the population shifts towards high-affinity hemoglobin. [1]
題目 2 · structured-short-answer
10 分
In several post-glacial lakes in Canada, three-spined sticklebacks (\(Gasterosteus\ aculeatus\)) have diverged into two distinct species within the same lake: a benthic species that feeds on invertebrates at the muddy lake bottom, and a limnetic species that feeds on plankton in the open water.
(a) Explain how a single ancestral population of three-spined sticklebacks colonizing a newly formed lake could undergo sympatric speciation to form these two distinct species. [5]
(b) Explain the role of reproductive isolation in the process of speciation. [3]
(c) Speciation can be maintained by both pre-zygotic and post-zygotic isolating mechanisms. Distinguish between pre-zygotic and post-zygotic isolating mechanisms and provide one example of a pre-zygotic mechanism. [2]
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解題
(a) Sympatric speciation occurs within the same geographical location without physical barriers. Ecological niche differentiation takes place as different sub-populations exploit different food resources (benthic vs limnetic). Disruptive selection acts on the population, favoring the extreme phenotypes (well-adapted bottom feeders and well-adapted open-water feeders) over intermediate phenotypes. Over time, assortative mating occurs where benthic fish prefer to mate with other benthic fish, and limnetic with limnetic. This reduces gene flow between the groups. Distinct genetic variations accumulate due to natural selection and genetic drift, eventually leading to the formation of two reproductively isolated species.
(b) Reproductive isolation prevents gene flow and genetic mixing between the two diverging populations. This allows each population's gene pool to evolve independently of the other. Consequently, distinct mutations, allele frequency changes, and adaptations accumulate in response to different selection pressures, ensuring that differences are maintained and speciation is completed.
(c) Pre-zygotic isolating mechanisms prevent fertilization or the formation of a zygote (e.g., habitat, behavioral, or temporal barriers), whereas post-zygotic isolating mechanisms occur after fertilization and reduce the viability or fertility of the hybrid offspring (e.g., hybrid inviability or hybrid sterility). An example of a pre-zygotic mechanism is behavioral isolation, where different courtship displays prevent interbreeding.
評分準則
(a) Max 5 marks: - Sympatric speciation occurs in the same geographic area / without geographic barrier. [1] - Ecological separation / niche differentiation (benthic vs. limnetic). [1] - Disruptive selection acts against intermediate phenotypes. [1] - Assortative mating / behavioral barriers decrease gene flow between the sub-populations. [1] - Independent accumulation of mutations / different selection pressures act on each group. [1] - Development of reproductive isolation. [1]
(b) Max 3 marks: - Prevents gene flow / genetic recombination between populations. [1] - Keeps gene pools separate / allows independent evolution of gene pools. [1] - Allows different alleles/mutations to accumulate. [1] - Solidifies species boundaries even if populations overlap. [1]
The regulation of blood glucose concentration is a vital homeostatic mechanism in mammals. When blood glucose levels fall below normal, the pancreas releases the hormone glucagon.
(a) Describe how a decrease in blood glucose concentration is detected and describe the immediate endocrine response. [3]
(b) Glucagon is a peptide hormone that cannot cross the cell membrane of target cells. Describe the cell-signalling pathway initiated when glucagon binds to its receptor on a liver cell (hepatocyte), leading to the activation of the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase. [5]
(c) Explain how the activation of glycogen phosphorylase helps to restore blood glucose levels, and state one other response of hepatocytes to glucagon. [2]
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解題
(a) A decrease in blood glucose concentration is detected by the \(\alpha\) (alpha) cells located in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. When blood glucose is low, less glucose enters the \(\alpha\) cells, which triggers cell depolarization. This depolarization stimulates the exocytosis of glucagon from vesicles within the \(\alpha\) cells directly into the bloodstream.
(b) Glucagon binds to specific, complementary G-protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) on the external surface of the hepatocyte cell membrane. This binding changes the conformation of the receptor, activating an associated G-protein. The active G-protein stimulates the membrane-bound enzyme adenylyl cyclase. Adenylyl cyclase converts ATP into cyclic AMP (cAMP), which acts as a second messenger. cAMP binds to and activates protein kinase A (PKA), which then initiates a phosphorylation cascade that activates glycogen phosphorylase kinase, which in turn phosphorylates and activates glycogen phosphorylase.
(c) Active glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes glycogenolysis, which is the breakdown of stored intracellular glycogen into glucose-1-phosphate (subsequently converted to glucose). This glucose is transported out of hepatocytes into the bloodstream down its concentration gradient. Another response of hepatocytes is gluconeogenesis (the synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors like amino acids or glycerol) or the inhibition of glycogenesis (glycogen synthesis).
評分準則
(a) Max 3 marks: - Detected by \(\alpha\) (alpha) cells. [1] - Located in islets of Langerhans / pancreas. [1] - Endocrine response: secretion/exocytosis of glucagon into the blood. [1]
(b) Max 5 marks: - Glucagon binds to specific GPCR / receptor on hepatocyte membrane. [1] - Receptor activates G-protein. [1] - G-protein stimulates adenylyl cyclase. [1] - Adenylyl cyclase converts ATP to cyclic AMP / cAMP (second messenger). [1] - cAMP activates protein kinase A. [1] - Phosphorylation cascade occurs, leading to activation of glycogen phosphorylase. [1]
(c) Max 2 marks: - Role of glycogen phosphorylase: Catalyzes glycogenolysis / breakdown of glycogen to glucose. [1] - Other response: Gluconeogenesis / conversion of amino acids or glycerol to glucose OR inhibition of glycogenesis (glycogen synthesis) OR release of glucose via GLUT proteins. [1]
題目 4 · structured-short-answer
10 分
Osmoregulation is the control of the water potential of blood and tissue fluid. The kidneys play a major role in this process under the control of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
(a) State the precise location of the osmoreceptors that detect changes in blood water potential, and describe how they respond when the water potential of the blood decreases. [3]
(b) Describe the mechanism by which ADH increases the permeability of the cells lining the collecting duct to water. [5]
(c) Explain how this mechanism results in the production of a small volume of concentrated (hypertonic) urine. [2]
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解題
(a) Osmoreceptors are located in the hypothalamus of the brain. When the water potential of the blood decreases, water moves out of the osmoreceptor cells by osmosis, down a water potential gradient. This loss of water causes the osmoreceptor cells to shrink (lose volume), which triggers nerve impulses that travel to the posterior pituitary gland, stimulating the release of ADH into the bloodstream.
(b) ADH travels in the blood and binds to specific receptors on the basolateral membranes of the collecting duct epithelial cells. This binding activates a G-protein, which stimulates adenylyl cyclase to produce cAMP (a second messenger). cAMP activates a protein kinase enzyme, initiating a signaling cascade. This cascade causes intracellular vesicles containing aquaporin channel proteins to migrate towards the luminal (apical) membrane of the cell. The vesicles fuse with this membrane via exocytosis, inserting the aquaporins and greatly increasing its permeability to water.
(c) Since the interstitial fluid of the renal medulla has a very low water potential (is highly hypertonic) due to the countercurrent multiplier system of the loop of Henle, water is drawn rapidly out of the collecting duct lumen by osmosis through the newly inserted aquaporins. This reabsorption of water back into the blood capillaries leaves behind a highly concentrated, low volume of urine.
評分準則
(a) Max 3 marks: - Location: Hypothalamus. [1] - Response: Water leaves osmoreceptor cells by osmosis down water potential gradient. [1] - Consequence: Cells shrink, triggering nerve impulses to the posterior pituitary (to release ADH). [1]
(b) Max 5 marks: - ADH binds to receptors on basolateral membrane of collecting duct cells. [1] - Activation of G-protein and adenylyl cyclase to produce cAMP. [1] - Activation of protein kinase / intracellular cell-signalling cascade. [1] - Vesicles with aquaporins move towards the luminal / apical membrane. [1] - Vesicles fuse with membrane via exocytosis. [1] - Aquaporins are inserted, increasing permeability to water. [1]
(c) Max 2 marks: - Medullary interstitial fluid has a low water potential / is hypertonic. [1] - Water moves out of the filtrate by osmosis down water potential gradient into the interstitium/blood, leaving concentrated/low-volume urine. [1]
題目 5 · structured-short-answer
10 分
A student investigated the effect of light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis of the water plant \(Elodea\ canadensis\) using a photosynthesiometer (Audus micro-measuring apparatus). The apparatus was kept at a constant temperature of \(20^\circ\text{C}\).
(a) Describe how the student could use this apparatus to obtain quantitative measurements of the rate of photosynthesis. [3]
(b) The student used a solution of \(0.10\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) sodium hydrogencarbonate (\(\text{NaHCO}_3\)) as the medium for the water plant. Explain why sodium hydrogencarbonate solution was used instead of distilled water. [2]
(c) The investigation was repeated using a lower concentration of sodium hydrogencarbonate solution (\(0.01\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\)). Predict and explain the shape of the curves obtained when the rate of photosynthesis is plotted against light intensity for both concentrations of sodium hydrogencarbonate. [5]
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解題
(a) The water plant releases oxygen bubbles during photosynthesis. The gas is collected in a capillary tube of known diameter within the photosynthesiometer. After a set period of time (e.g., 10 minutes), the syringe of the apparatus is used to draw the bubble of collected gas along the tube next to a millimeter scale. The length of the bubble is measured, and the volume of oxygen produced is calculated (using \(V = \pi r^2 l\)) to give a rate of oxygen production per unit time.
(b) Sodium hydrogencarbonate solution dissociates to release dissolved carbon dioxide (\(\text{CO}_2\)) into the water. Distilled water contains very little dissolved carbon dioxide. This ensures that carbon dioxide concentration is abundant and not a limiting factor for photosynthesis, allowing the effect of light intensity to be investigated without interference.
(c) At low light intensities, both curves will show a linear, proportional increase because light intensity is the limiting factor. As light intensity continues to increase, both curves will flatten out (plateau) because light intensity is no longer limiting. However, the curve for the higher concentration (\(0.10\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\)) will plateau at a significantly higher maximum rate of photosynthesis than the \(0.01\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\) curve. This is because at \(0.01\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\), carbon dioxide concentration becomes the limiting factor at a lower light intensity, restricting the rate of the light-independent reaction.
評分準則
(a) Max 3 marks: - Oxygen gas bubble is collected in the capillary tube. [1] - Syringe is used to draw the bubble along a scale. [1] - Length of the bubble is measured for a fixed/known duration of time to calculate the volume of gas (rate = volume/time). [1]
(b) Max 2 marks: - Dissolves to release carbon dioxide (\(\text{CO}_2\)). [1] - Prevents carbon dioxide from acting as a limiting factor / ensures constant supply of carbon dioxide. [1]
(c) Max 5 marks: - At low light intensity: both curves show linear/proportional increase (light intensity is limiting). [1] - At high light intensity: both curves plateau/level off (light is no longer limiting). [1] - High conc (\(0.10\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\)) plateaus at a higher rate than low conc (\(0.01\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\)). [1] - Explanation for plateau: another factor (carbon dioxide/temperature) is limiting. [1] - Explanation for difference: low conc curve is limited by carbon dioxide availability at lower light intensities. [1]
題目 6 · structured-short-answer
10 分
The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is an in vitro method used to amplify specific DNA sequences. This technique is widely used in genetic technology, such as forensics and disease diagnosis.
(a) Explain the function of each of the following components in a PCR reaction mixture: (i) DNA primers [2] (ii) Taq polymerase [2]
(b) A single cycle of PCR involves three successive temperature stages. Identify these three stages, stating the approximate temperature of each, and explain what happens to the DNA molecules at each stage. [4]
(c) Once PCR is complete, gel electrophoresis is often used to analyze the DNA fragments. Explain how gel electrophoresis separates these DNA fragments. [2]
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解題
(a) (i) DNA primers: They are short, single-stranded DNA sequences that are complementary to the start and end of the target DNA region. They bind (anneal) to the template DNA to provide a free 3' hydroxyl (-OH) group, which is required for DNA polymerase to initiate synthesis, and they define the specific region of DNA to be amplified. (ii) Taq polymerase: This is a heat-stable DNA polymerase that synthesizes the complementary DNA strands by adding free deoxynucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs) to the primers. Its heat stability prevents it from denaturing during the high-temperature denaturation phase of PCR.
(b) 1. Denaturation (at \(94\text{--}96^\circ\text{C}\)): The high temperature breaks the hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs of the double-stranded DNA, separating it into two single strands. 2. Annealing (at \(50\text{--}65^\circ\text{C}\)): The temperature is lowered to allow the primers to form hydrogen bonds (anneal) with their complementary sequences on the single-stranded template DNA. 3. Extension (at \(72^\circ\text{C}\)): This is the optimum temperature for Taq polymerase, which synthesizes the complementary strands by moving along the templates and adding free nucleotides.
(c) Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments primarily by size (length). An electric current is applied across an agarose gel matrix. Since DNA molecules have a net negative charge due to their phosphate groups, they migrate towards the positive electrode (anode). The gel acts as a molecular sieve; smaller DNA fragments can navigate through the pores of the gel more quickly and thus travel further than larger, heavier fragments.
評分準則
(a) Max 4 marks (2 marks per sub-part): (i) Primers: - Bind/anneal to complementary target sequences. [1] - Provide starting point / free 3'-OH group for DNA polymerase. [1] (ii) Taq polymerase: - Synthesizes complementary strands by joining free nucleotides (dNTPs). [1] - Is thermostable / does not denature at high temperatures. [1]
(b) Max 4 marks: - Denaturation at \(94\text{--}96^\circ\text{C}\): hydrogen bonds break to separate double-stranded DNA into single strands. [1] - Annealing at \(50\text{--}65^\circ\text{C}\): primers bind to single-stranded templates. [1] - Extension at \(72^\circ\text{C}\): Taq polymerase synthesizes new strands from the primers. [1] - All three names paired with correct temperature ranges. [1]
(c) Max 2 marks: - DNA is negatively charged (due to phosphate groups) and moves towards the positive electrode / anode. [1] - Gel acts as a molecular sieve / mesh, so smaller fragments move faster / further than larger fragments. [1]
Paper 42 (A Level Structured)
Answer all questions in the spaces provided. High marks are awarded for clear structural details and logical explanations.
10 題目 · 100 分
題目 1 · structured-long-answer
10 分
Describe how a decrease in the water potential of the blood is detected by the body and explain the mechanism of action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) on the epithelial cells of the collecting duct.
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解題
The pathway begins with osmoreceptor cells in the hypothalamus shrinking as water leaves them by osmosis due to low blood water potential. This initiates action potentials that travel down the pituitary stalk to the posterior pituitary, where ADH is released via exocytosis into surrounding capillaries. ADH circulates in the bloodstream and binds to complementary G-protein coupled receptors on the basolateral membranes of the collecting duct cells. The resulting intracellular cascade involves the activation of adenylyl cyclase, which increases cAMP levels. cAMP activates protein kinase A, which promotes the translocation of aquaporin-containing vesicles to the apical membrane facing the lumen. Fusion of these vesicles inserts water channels, greatly increasing the membrane's water permeability. Water leaves the lumen down the steep osmotic gradient created by the hypertonic medullary interstitium.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for each point up to a maximum of 10 marks: 1. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect low water potential of blood. 2. Nerve impulses sent along axons to posterior pituitary gland. 3. ADH released from posterior pituitary into the blood. 4. ADH transported to the kidneys. 5. ADH binds to complementary receptors on the cell surface membrane of collecting duct epithelial cells. 6. Activation of G-protein. 7. G-protein activates adenylyl cyclase. 8. Adenylyl cyclase converts ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP). 9. cAMP acts as second messenger and activates protein kinase A / phosphorylation cascade. 10. Vesicles containing aquaporins move towards and fuse with the apical / luminal membrane. 11. Permeability of the collecting duct to water increases. 12. Water moves out of the collecting duct by osmosis down a water potential gradient.
題目 2 · structured-long-answer
10 分
On Lord Howe Island, two species of palm trees, Howea forsteriana and Howea belmoreana, live in close proximity. Howea forsteriana grows on sandy calcareous soils and flowers early in the season, while Howea belmoreana grows on volcanic acidic soils and flowers late. Explain how these two species could have evolved from a single ancestral species via sympatric speciation.
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解題
The scenario describes sympatric speciation driven by ecological and temporal isolation. The key factor is that both species exist on the same small island (no geographical barrier). Genetic variation within the ancestral population allowed colonization of different soil types (calcareous vs volcanic). This created divergent selection pressures. The soil chemistry affected flowering physiology, causing a split in flowering times (temporal isolation). Because they flower at different times, they cannot fertilize one another. This absence of gene flow allows natural selection and genetic drift to alter the allele frequencies of each subpopulation independently. Over time, morphological and genetic differences accumulate to the point where they are reproductively isolated biological species.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for each point up to a maximum of 10 marks: 1. Sympatric speciation defined as speciation occurring in the same geographical area / without physical barriers. 2. Genetic variation existed in the ancestral population due to mutation. 3. Different soil types (calcareous vs volcanic) acted as different selection pressures. 4. Disruptive selection occurred favoring phenotypes adapted to each soil type. 5. Palms on calcareous soil flowered early, palms on volcanic soil flowered late. 6. Temporal isolation established / different flowering times prevented cross-pollination. 7. Gene flow between the two groups was prevented / reduced. 8. Assortative mating / mating only with individuals of the same group. 9. Distinct mutations and allele combinations accumulated in each group. 10. Natural selection led to changes in allele frequencies in each subpopulation. 11. Reproductive isolation arose (no longer able to interbreed to produce fertile offspring).
題目 3 · structured-long-answer
10 分
A student investigated the effect of light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis by measuring the time taken for sunken leaf discs to float in a sodium hydrogencarbonate solution. Explain the biological principles behind why the leaf discs float during the experiment, and outline how the student could modify this investigation to study the effect of temperature as a limiting factor.
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解題
In this experiment, vacuum infiltration is first used to draw liquid into the air spaces of the leaf discs, making them sink. During photosynthesis, the light-dependent reactions split water, producing oxygen gas. As oxygen accumulates in the intercellular spaces, it drives out the liquid, making the tissue buoyant again. Because oxygen production is directly related to the rate of light-dependent reactions, the time taken for discs to rise (ET50) serves as an inverse proxy for photosynthetic rate. When adapting this to study temperature, temperature becomes the independent variable. This must be controlled precisely using water baths, and light intensity (a potential confounding variable) must be held strictly constant using a water jacket to block the infrared heat emitted by the lamp.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for each point up to a maximum of 10 marks: Principles (max 6 marks): 1. Sodium hydrogencarbonate provides carbon dioxide. 2. Light energy drives photolysis of water. 3. Photolysis produces oxygen gas. 4. Oxygen gas fills the intercellular / spongy mesophyll air spaces. 5. Increased buoyancy / decreased density causes the leaf discs to rise. 6. Rate of flotation (1/ET50) is a proxy for the rate of photosynthesis. Adaptation (max 5 marks): 7. Keep light intensity constant by maintaining a fixed distance to the lamp. 8. Use a water jacket / heat shield to prevent the lamp from heating the experiment. 9. Vary temperature using water baths at 5 different temperatures (e.g., 10 to 50 degrees Celsius). 10. Equilibrate leaf discs and solution at each temperature before light exposure. 11. Keep other variables constant (e.g., concentration of hydrogencarbonate, disc diameter, plant species).
題目 4 · structured-long-answer
10 分
Describe the steps involved in using genetic technology to produce recombinant human insulin in Escherichia coli bacteria, starting from the extraction of human mRNA to the selection of successfully transformed bacteria.
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解題
The process begins with mRNA extraction because beta cells express high levels of insulin mRNA, which already has introns spliced out. Reverse transcriptase copies this into single-stranded cDNA. DNA polymerase converts this to double-stranded DNA. Plasmids and cDNA are cleaved with the same restriction endonuclease so that their sticky ends are complementary. DNA ligase seals the nicks in the sugar-phosphate backbone. Bacteria are transformed by heat-shocking them in the presence of calcium ions, making their membranes transiently permeable to DNA. Marker genes, such as those encoding resistance to ampicillin, are present on the plasmid. Plating the bacteria on ampicillin-containing agar ensures only transformed cells grow, as non-transformed cells lack the resistance gene.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for each point up to a maximum of 10 marks: 1. Extract mRNA from human pancreatic beta cells. 2. Reverse transcriptase synthesizes single-stranded cDNA. 3. DNA polymerase produces double-stranded cDNA. 4. cDNA has no introns (suitable for bacterial expression). 5. Restiction enzymes produce sticky ends on cDNA and plasmid. 6. Complementary base-pairing occurs between sticky ends of cDNA and plasmid. 7. DNA ligase joins the DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds. 8. Plasmids are introduced to E. coli via transformation (heat shock / electroporation / calcium chloride). 9. Plasmids contain marker genes (e.g., antibiotic resistance or GFP). 10. Bacteria are plated on agar containing the antibiotic. 11. Only transformed bacteria survive / express the marker.
題目 5 · structured-long-answer
10 分
Describe the events of the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis, clearly distinguishing between the roles and outcomes of non-cyclic photophosphorylation and cyclic photophosphorylation.
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解題
The light-dependent stage occurs in the thylakoid membranes. Non-cyclic flow involves a Z-scheme where electrons flow from water to NADP+, generating both ATP (via the cytochrome complex/proton gradient) and NADPH. Photolysis of water at the oxygen-evolving complex of PSII supplies the replacing electrons. Cyclic flow occurs when NADP+ is in short supply or more ATP is needed. Electrons from PSI are diverted back to the plastoquinone pool / cytochrome complex instead of going to NADP+ reductase. This cycle continues to pump protons and synthesize ATP via chemiosmosis but yields no reduced NADP and requires no photolysis of water.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for each point up to a maximum of 10 marks: Non-cyclic photophosphorylation (max 6 marks): 1. Absorption of light energy by photosynthetic pigments causes photoactivation of PSII and PSI. 2. High-energy electrons emitted from reaction centre chlorophyll a. 3. Electrons from PSII pass down an electron transport chain to PSI. 4. Energy from electron transport chain pumps protons into the thylakoid lumen. 5. Proton / electrochemical gradient drives ATP synthesis via ATP synthase (chemiosmosis). 6. Photolysis of water replaces electrons lost from PSII: 2H2O -> 4H+ + 4e- + O2. 7. Electrons from PSI and protons reduce NADP to reduced NADP. Cyclic photophosphorylation (max 4 marks): 8. Involves Photosystem I (PSI) only. 9. Excited electrons are recycled back to PSI via an electron transport chain. 10. Drives proton pumping and ATP synthesis. 11. No reduced NADP is produced. 12. No photolysis of water occurs / no oxygen is produced.
題目 6 · structured-long-answer
10 分
When blood glucose levels fall below the normal set-point, the pancreas releases glucagon. Explain the sequence of cellular events that occurs within a liver cell (hepatocyte) following the binding of glucagon to its receptor, leading to an increase in blood glucose concentration.
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解題
The binding of glucagon to its receptor is the signal reception phase. Transduction occurs via G-proteins and adenylyl cyclase, which amplifies the signal by generating many cAMP molecules. Each cAMP molecule activates protein kinase A. The kinase cascade represents a significant amplification mechanism: a single glucagon molecule can lead to the release of tens of thousands of glucose molecules. The final target enzyme is glycogen phosphorylase, which cleaves glucose residues from glycogen as glucose-1-phosphate, which is then isomerised to glucose. Glucose accumulation within the cell creates a concentration gradient, driving its efflux into the blood plasma via facilitated diffusion transporters (GLUT2).
評分準則
Award 1 mark for each point up to a maximum of 10 marks: 1. Glucagon acts as the first messenger and binds to a specific G-protein coupled receptor. 2. Receptor undergoes a conformational change. 3. G-protein is activated. 4. Activated G-protein activates adenylyl cyclase. 5. Adenylyl cyclase converts ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP). 6. cAMP acts as the second messenger. 7. cAMP activates protein kinase A (PKA). 8. PKA activates phosphorylase kinase. 9. Phosphorylase kinase activates glycogen phosphorylase. 10. Enzyme cascade amplifies the signal. 11. Glycogen phosphorylase catalyses glycogenolysis (glycogen to glucose). 12. Glucose leaves hepatocyte via facilitated diffusion through GLUT proteins.
題目 7 · structured-long-answer
10 分
Compare and contrast the processes of natural selection and artificial selection, using appropriate biological examples to support your explanation.
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解題
Both processes operate on the principle of differential reproductive success based on phenotypic traits. The core difference lies in the source of the selection pressure (the environment versus human choice) and the ultimate biological outcome. Natural selection selects for survival and reproductive capability under natural conditions, optimizing fitness. Artificial selection selects for specific economic or aesthetic traits, sometimes selecting for alleles that would be deleterious in nature (e.g., heavily muscled cattle that require Caesarean sections to give birth, or crops that lack chemical defenses and require human pesticide application).
評分準則
Award 1 mark for each point up to a maximum of 10 marks: Similarities (max 4 marks): 1. Both require genetic variation (arising from mutation). 2. Both involve differential survival / reproduction of individuals with favored alleles. 3. Both change allele frequencies in the gene pool over generations. 4. Both can lead to distinct phenotypic changes. Differences (max 7 marks): 5. Selection pressure: Environmental factors in natural selection vs humans in artificial selection. 6. Purpose: No predetermined goal in natural selection vs defined goals in artificial selection. 7. Fitness: Natural selection increases fitness for wild survival vs artificial selection often decreases wild fitness. 8. Rate: Natural selection is relatively slow vs artificial selection which is very rapid. 9. Inbreeding: Artificial selection often leads to inbreeding depression / homozygous recessive defects, rare in natural selection. 10. Examples: Natural selection (e.g., antibiotic resistance in bacteria) AND Artificial selection (e.g., high-yielding wheat or domestic dog breeds).
題目 8 · structured-long-answer
10 分
Explain how the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to amplify DNA from a small sample, and describe how gel electrophoresis can then be used to separate and analyze the resulting DNA fragments.
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解題
PCR relies on thermal cycling to copy DNA. The choice of temperatures is critical: 95C for breaking the strong hydrogen bonds between GC and AT pairs; 55C to allow primers to form hydrogen bonds with the template without the two genomic strands reannealing; and 72C to maximize the catalytic rate of Taq polymerase. Taq is sourced from Thermus aquaticus, ensuring it survives the 95C denaturing step. In electrophoresis, the agarose matrix creates physical resistance. Because all DNA molecules have a constant charge-to-mass ratio (due to the regular spacing of negative phosphate groups), their movement is determined entirely by physical size, with smaller molecules experiencing less resistance and moving further.
評分準則
Award 1 mark for each point up to a maximum of 10 marks: PCR (max 6 marks): 1. DNA is mixed with Taq polymerase, primers, and free nucleotides (dNTPs). 2. Heated to 95 degrees Celsius to separate DNA strands / break hydrogen bonds. 3. Cooled to 55 degrees Celsius to allow primers to anneal / bind to complementary DNA sequences. 4. Heated to 72 degrees Celsius to allow Taq polymerase to extend / synthesize new strands. 5. Taq polymerase is thermostable so does not need to be added in each cycle. 6. Cycle repeated to exponentially duplicate / amplify target DNA. Gel Electrophoresis (max 5 marks): 7. DNA samples loaded into wells in agarose gel. 8. Voltage / electric current applied. 9. DNA fragments move toward positive electrode / anode because phosphate groups are negatively charged. 10. Smaller fragments travel faster / further through the pores of the gel (separation by size). 11. DNA bands visualized using fluorescent stain / UV light / radioactive probes.
題目 9 · structured-long-answer
10 分
Osmoregulation is an essential homeostatic process in mammals that regulates the water potential of the blood. This process depends on both the active establishment of a solute concentration gradient in the renal medulla and the endocrine regulation of the collecting ducts.
(a) Describe how the loop of Henle acts as a countercurrent multiplier to produce a high solute concentration in the tissue fluid of the renal medulla. [5]
(b) Explain the cellular mechanism by which antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases the permeability of the collecting duct cells to water. [5]
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解題
This question tests the understanding of mammalian osmoregulation.
Part (a) requires a clear description of the events in the descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle. The essential concept is that active transport of ions in the ascending limb sets up an osmotic gradient that draws water out of the descending limb, which in turn concentrates the filtrate entering the ascending limb. This positive feedback process, combined with the opposite directions of flow (countercurrent), multiplies the concentration gradient.
Part (b) requires a step-by-step description of the cell-signalling pathway of ADH. It is important to mention the specific membranes (basolateral vs. apical/luminal), the role of the G-protein, adenylyl cyclase, cAMP as a second messenger, and the translocation and fusion of aquaporin-containing vesicles with the luminal membrane.
評分準則
Part (a) [Max 5 marks] 1. Sodium (\(\text{Na}^+\)) and chloride (\(\text{Cl}^-\)) ions are actively transported / pumped out of the thick ascending limb. [1] 2. These ions enter the tissue fluid of the renal medulla. [1] 3. The ascending limb is impermeable to water, so water cannot follow by osmosis. [1] 4. The descending limb is permeable to water but impermeable to ions / solutes. [1] 5. Water leaves the descending limb by osmosis into the medullary tissue fluid (and is removed by the vasa recta). [1] 6. This concentrates the filtrate in the descending limb, reaching a maximum concentration at the tip of the loop. [1] 7. Countercurrent flow (filtrate flowing in opposite directions in parallel limbs) allows the osmotic gradient to be multiplied / established from the cortex down into the deep medulla. [1]
Part (b) [Max 5 marks] 8. ADH binds to specific receptors on the basolateral membrane / cell surface membrane of collecting duct cells. [1] 9. This binding activates a G-protein. [1] 10. The active G-protein activates adenylyl cyclase. [1] 11. Adenylyl cyclase catalyses the production of cyclic AMP (cAMP) from ATP (cAMP acts as a second messenger). [1] 12. cAMP activates a cascade of protein kinases. [1] 13. This causes vesicles containing aquaporins (water channel proteins) to move towards and fuse with the luminal / apical membrane. [1] 14. This increases the permeability of the luminal membrane, allowing water to move down a water potential gradient out of the filtrate by osmosis. [1]
題目 10 · structured-long-answer
10 分
Recombinant human proteins, such as coagulation Factor IX, are valuable therapeutic agents. Factor IX is a complex glycoprotein that is essential for the blood clotting cascade.
(a) Explain why eukaryotic host cells, such as those in transgenic mammals, are preferred over prokaryotic host cells like Escherichia coli for the production of functional recombinant Factor IX. [3]
(b) Suggest and explain how a specific promoter is used to ensure that the human Factor IX gene is only expressed in the mammary glands of transgenic sheep, so the protein can be harvested from their milk. [3]
(c) Describe the PCR cycle used to amplify the human Factor IX gene from a sample of DNA, explaining the purpose of the temperature changes in each step. [4]
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解題
This question tests knowledge of genetic technology, including the production of recombinant human proteins, the function of promoters in controlling gene expression, and the practical details of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Part (a) evaluates the candidate's understanding of the differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic expression systems. Eukaryotic proteins that undergo post-translational modifications like glycosylation (glycoproteins) cannot be produced in their active forms in bacteria because bacteria lack a Golgi body and endoplasmic reticulum.
Part (b) tests the concept of promoters as control sequences. A tissue-specific promoter (like the casein promoter) is active only where the correct transcription factors are present, ensuring local expression (e.g., in milk) and avoiding systemic side effects.
Part (c) tests the precise temperatures and physiological actions during a single PCR cycle: denaturation (92–95 °C), annealing (50–65 °C), and extension (70–75 °C), along with the roles of primers, hydrogen bond cleavage, and Taq polymerase.
評分準則
Part (a) [Max 3 marks] 1. Prokaryotes / E. coli lack membrane-bound organelles / rough endoplasmic reticulum / Golgi apparatus. [1] 2. Prokaryotes cannot perform post-translational modifications / glycosylation (addition of sugar chains). [1] 3. Factor IX is a glycoprotein and requires glycosylation to be fully functional / active. [1] 4. Eukaryotes have appropriate chaperones for correct 3D folding / disulfide bond formation of complex proteins (which bacteria lack). [1]
Part (b) [Max 3 marks] 5. A promoter is a non-coding sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription. [1] 6. A tissue-specific / mammary-specific promoter (e.g., casein promoter) is ligated / linked to the human Factor IX gene sequence. [1] 7. The transcription factors required to activate this promoter are only synthesized / active in mammary gland cells. [1] 8. This restricts transcription of the Factor IX gene to the mammary glands, preventing systemic expression (which could harm the host sheep) and allowing collection from milk. [1]
Part (c) [Max 4 marks] 9. Denaturation: heated to 92–95 °C to break hydrogen bonds between complementary bases, separating double-stranded DNA into single strands. [1] 10. Annealing: cooled to 50–65 °C to allow primers to bind / anneal to complementary sequences at the 3' ends of the target DNA. [1] 11. Extension: heated to 70–75 °C (accept 72 °C) which is the optimum temperature for Taq polymerase. [1] 12. Taq polymerase adds free nucleotides / dNTPs to extend the complementary strands starting from the primers. [1]
Paper 52 (Planning, Analysis & Evaluation)
Answer all questions. Pay attention to controls, variables, statistical justifications, and precise experiment protocols.
2 題目 · 30 分
題目 1 · experimental-design-evaluation
15 分
A student wanted to investigate the effect of carbon dioxide concentration on the rate of photosynthesis of the water plant, Elodea canadensis. They chose to use different concentrations of sodium hydrogen carbonate (\(\text{NaHCO}_3\)) solution as the source of carbon dioxide, ranging from 0.0\\% to 2.0\\%. Design a laboratory investigation to determine how the concentration of \(\text{NaHCO}_3\) solution affects the rate of photosynthesis of Elodea canadensis under constant high light intensity. Your planning must be detailed enough to allow another person to carry out the investigation. Do not include details of how to grow or maintain the water plant prior to the experiment. Your plan should include: (1) a description of how the independent variable will be varied, including a clear protocol to prepare five different concentrations of \(\text{NaHCO}_3\) starting from a stock solution of 2.0\\%; (2) how the dependent variable will be measured and how the rate of photosynthesis will be calculated; (3) which key variables must be controlled, how they will be controlled, and the biological reason for controlling them; (4) a description of a suitable control experiment; (5) how you would ensure the reliability of the results; (6) a safety assessment and mitigation of risks.
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解題
1. Preparation of the Independent Variable: Prepare 5 different concentrations of \(\text{NaHCO}_3\) by simple dilution from a stock solution of 2.0\\%. To make 20 \(\text{cm}^3\) of each concentration: for 2.0\\%, use 20 \(\text{cm}^3\) of stock; for 1.5\\%, mix 15 \(\text{cm}^3\) of stock with 5 \(\text{cm}^3\) of distilled water; for 1.0\\%, mix 10 \(\text{cm}^3\) of stock with 10 \(\text{cm}^3\) of distilled water; for 0.5\\%, mix 5 \(\text{cm}^3\) of stock with 15 \(\text{cm}^3\) of distilled water; for 0.0\\%, use 20 \(\text{cm}^3\) of distilled water. Measure all volumes using accurate graduated pipettes. 2. Measurement of the Dependent Variable: Place a freshly cut 5 \(\text{cm}\) stem of Elodea canadensis upside down in a boiling tube containing the respective concentration of \(\text{NaHCO}_3\). Ensure the stem is cut obliquely under water to prevent air locks in the xylem. Set up a photosynthesiometer (Audus micro-apparatus) consisting of a capillary tube attached to a syringe and a millimeter scale. Allow the plant to equilibrate for 10 minutes under the light source before beginning measurements. Draw the oxygen bubble produced into the capillary tube using the syringe and measure its length (L) in mm using the scale after a fixed time of 5 minutes. Calculate the rate of photosynthesis as length of gas bubble produced per unit time (\(\text{mm min}^{-1}\) ) or calculate volume as \(V = \pi r^2 L\) and express rate in \(\text{mm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\) if the capillary radius (r) is known. 3. Control of Variables: (a) Light Intensity: Position a high-intensity LED light source at a fixed distance (e.g., 15 cm) from the boiling tube, using a ruler to measure. LED lights minimize heat generation. Light intensity must be controlled as it is a limiting factor for light-dependent reactions. (b) Temperature: Immerse the boiling tube in a water bath kept constant at 20 degrees Celsius (monitored with a thermometer). Temperature affects the kinetic energy of enzymes in the Calvin cycle (such as RuBisCO). (c) Plant Material: Use Elodea pieces of equal length (5 cm) and mass from the same parent plant to ensure consistent chlorophyll concentration. 4. Control Experiment: Set up an identical apparatus but replace the living Elodea with a dead, boiled Elodea plant or glass beads of equivalent volume to prove gas production is due to active photosynthesis. 5. Reliability: Repeat the procedure at least three times at each concentration of \(\text{NaHCO}_3\), calculating the mean rate and standard deviation to identify anomalies. 6. Safety and Risk Assessment: Wear safety goggles and gloves to prevent skin/eye irritation from \(\text{NaHCO}_3\). Use a scalpel to cut Elodea on a cutting tile, cutting away from the body. Keep electrical light sources away from water and ensure hands are dry.
評分準則
Independent Variable (IV) Manipulation [max 3 marks]: MP1 - Selects and states at least 5 different concentrations of \(\text{NaHCO}_3\) in a logical range between 0.0\\% and 2.0\\%. MP2 - Describes a correct simple or serial dilution method using named apparatus (graduated pipettes/syringes) to prepare concentrations. MP3 - Shows explicit calculation details/volumes of stock solution (2.0\\%) and distilled water required to make at least one intermediate concentration. Dependent Variable (DV) Measurement [max 4 marks]: MP4 - Mentions cutting the stem of Elodea obliquely/under water and placing it upside down in the tube. MP5 - Explains the use of a photosynthesiometer/capillary tube and syringe to capture the gas bubble. MP6 - Describes a specific equilibration time (e.g., 5 to 10 minutes) before recording starts. MP7 - States that the length of the gas bubble is measured over a specified constant time interval (e.g., 5 minutes) and explains how rate is calculated. Control of Variables [max 4 marks]: MP8 - Identifies temperature as a variable to be controlled, describes using a water bath, and explains that temperature affects enzyme-controlled reactions (Calvin cycle / RuBisCO). MP9 - Identifies light intensity as a variable to be controlled, describes using a ruler to set a fixed distance from an LED light, and explains that light intensity affects the light-dependent stage. MP10 - Identifies plant physiological state, describes using pieces of the same length/mass/from the same parent plant, and explains this ensures equal photosynthetic capacity. Control Experiment [max 1 mark]: MP11 - Describes a control setup using boiled/dead plant or glass beads to show gas volume changes are due to active photosynthesis. Reliability [max 1 mark]: MP12 - States that the experiment should be repeated at each concentration at least 3 times and a mean calculated. Safety [max 2 marks]: MP13 - Identifies sharp scalpel hazard and states mitigation (cut away from self on a cutting tile). MP14 - Identifies electrical hazard with water near light source and states mitigation (dry hands / keep electrical items separated from liquids) or wear goggles for chemical safety.
題目 2 · experimental-design-evaluation
15 分
An investigation was carried out to study the effect of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) concentration on the water permeability of isolated collecting ducts from mammalian kidneys. Collecting ducts were micro-dissected from rat kidneys and kept alive in an organ bath containing physiological saline. The lumen of each isolated collecting duct was perfused with a solution containing a radioactive water tracer (\(\text{H}_2^{18}\text{O}\)). The rate of water movement (trans-epithelial water flux) out of the collecting duct lumen into the organ bath was measured in \(\mu\text{m}^3\text{ s}^{-1}\). (Part a) Identify the independent variable and the dependent variable in this investigation. [2 marks] (Part b) Describe how the researchers could control two key environmental factors in the organ bath to ensure the validity of the results from these isolated mammalian tissues. Explain the biological reason for controlling each factor. [4 marks] (Part c) In a second experiment, the researchers added a newly developed drug, 'Aquasnap', which is suspected to block Aquaporin-2 water channels in the apical membrane of the collecting duct cells. Describe a laboratory protocol to test whether 'Aquasnap' acts as a competitive inhibitor of ADH-stimulated water reabsorption. Your response should outline the experimental groups, the concentrations of ADH to be used, and how the graphical results would distinguish between competitive and non-competitive inhibition of the ADH-mediated pathway. [6 marks] (Part d) The results of the first experiment (without inhibitor) are shown here: at ADH concentration 0 \(\text{pg cm}^{-3}\), mean trans-epithelial water flux is 12 \(\pm 2\) \(\mu\text{m}^3\text{ s}^{-1}\); at 10 \(\text{pg cm}^{-3}\), flux is 45 \(\pm 5\) \(\mu\text{m}^3\text{ s}^{-1}\); at 20 \(\text{pg cm}^{-3}\), flux is 88 \(\pm 8\) \(\mu\text{m}^3\text{ s}^{-1}\); at 30 \(\text{pg cm}^{-3}\), flux is 132 \(\pm 11\) \(\mu\text{m}^3\text{ s}^{-1}\); at 40 \(\text{pg cm}^{-3}\), flux is 155 \(\pm 12\) \(\mu\text{m}^3\text{ s}^{-1}\); at 50 \(\text{pg cm}^{-3}\), flux is 160 \(\pm 10\) \(\mu\text{m}^3\text{ s}^{-1}\). The student wants to determine if there is a statistically significant correlation between ADH concentration and the rate of water movement up to 30 \(\text{pg cm}^{-3}\). Explain why Spearman's rank correlation coefficient test is suitable for analyzing these data, and state the null hypothesis for this test. [3 marks]
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解題
[Part a] Independent Variable: ADH concentration (in \(\text{pg cm}^{-3}\)). Dependent Variable: Rate of water movement / trans-epithelial water flux (in \(\mu\text{m}^3\text{ s}^{-1}\) ). [Part b] 1. Temperature: Keep the organ bath at mammalian body temperature (e.g., 37 degrees Celsius) using a thermostatically controlled heating jacket. Reason: Mammalian enzymes and transport proteins (aquaporins) function optimally at this temperature; low temperature decreases kinetic energy and flux rates, while extremely high temperature denatures proteins. 2. pH: Use a physiological buffer (e.g., bicarbonate buffer) to keep the pH constant at 7.4. Reason: Fluctuations in pH change the ionic charge of amino acid R-groups, causing conformational changes in ADH receptors or aquaporin channels, altering their binding affinity. [Part c] Experimental Setup: Group 1 (Control) consists of isolated collecting ducts treated with a range of ADH concentrations (e.g., 0, 10, 20, 30, 40, 50 \(\text{pg cm}^{-3}\)) without 'Aquasnap'. Group 2 (Inhibitor Group) consists of isolated collecting ducts treated with the exact same range of ADH concentrations in the presence of a constant, fixed concentration of 'Aquasnap'. Measure the mean trans-epithelial water flux for both groups. Plot rate of water flux (y-axis) against ADH concentration (x-axis) for both datasets. If 'Aquasnap' is a competitive inhibitor of the ADH pathway, increasing the ADH concentration will eventually overcome the inhibition. The maximum rate of water flux (\(V_{\text{max}}\)) will remain the same as the control group, but a higher ADH concentration (higher \(K_{\text{m}}\)) is needed to reach half-\(V_{\text{max}}\). If 'Aquasnap' is a non-competitive inhibitor (or directly blocks the channels downstream), the maximum rate (\(V_{\text{max}}\)) will be significantly lower in the 'Aquasnap' group compared to the control group, even at high, saturating ADH concentrations. [Part d] Spearman's rank is suitable because: (1) The data consists of two continuous variables (ADH concentration and water flux); (2) The relationship is monotonic (water flux increases continuously with ADH concentration in this range); (3) The sample size is small. Null Hypothesis: There is no significant correlation between the concentration of ADH and the rate of water movement (trans-epithelial water flux) in isolated collecting ducts.
評分準則
Part (a) [2 marks]: MP1 - Identifies independent variable as ADH concentration. MP2 - Identifies dependent variable as rate of water movement / trans-epithelial water flux. Part (b) [4 marks]: MP3 - Identifies first factor to control (e.g., Temperature at 37 degrees Celsius using heating jacket/water bath). MP4 - Gives correct biological reason for first factor (ensures normal kinetic energy / prevents denaturation / maintains mammalian physiological rate). MP5 - Identifies second factor to control (e.g., pH at 7.4 using a buffer OR solute concentration using isotonic saline). MP6 - Gives correct biological reason for second factor (pH prevents denaturation/charge changes of receptors; isotonicity prevents osmotic swelling/shrinking of cells). Part (c) [6 marks]: MP7 - States the use of two groups: one with ADH only and one with ADH + constant concentration of 'Aquasnap'. MP8 - Specifies using a wide range of ADH concentrations (at least 5 concentrations) for both groups. MP9 - Describes plotting water flux rate against ADH concentration for both datasets. MP10 - Explains that if competitive, the maximum rate (\(V_{\text{max}}\)) of water flux will be the same in both setups at high ADH concentration. MP11 - Explains that if competitive, the curve for the inhibitor setup will be shifted to the right / require higher ADH concentration to reach half-maximum. MP12 - Explains that if non-competitive (blocking aquaporins downstream), the maximum rate (\(V_{\text{max}}\)) of water flux will be lower in the 'Aquasnap' group than the control. Part (d) [3 marks]: MP13 - Explains that Spearman's rank is used to test for a correlation / association between two continuous variables. MP14 - Explains that the data displays a monotonic trend / the sample size is small. MP15 - Correctly states the null hypothesis: There is no significant correlation between ADH concentration and the rate of water movement / trans-epithelial water flux.
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