Edexcel IAL · Thinka 原創模擬試題

2024 Edexcel IAL Biology (YBI11) 模擬試題連答案詳解

Thinka Oct 2024 Cambridge International A Level-Style Mock — Biology (YBI11)

440 550 分鐘2024
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of the Oct 2024 Cambridge International A Level Biology (YBI11) paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from Cambridge.

部分 Unit 1: Molecules, Diet, Transport and Health

Answer all questions. Write your answers in the spaces provided.
8 題目 · 80
題目 1 · Structured
10
The structure of blood vessels is highly adapted to their specific functions within the mammalian circulatory system.

(a) Explain how the structure of an artery is related to its function in transporting blood under high pressure. [4 marks]

(b) Describe the sequence of events that leads to the formation of a blood clot in an artery. [4 marks]

(c) A clinical study investigated the link between dietary habits and cardiovascular disease (CVD). Explain why a high-salt diet increases the risk of developing CVD. [2 marks]
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解題

(a) An artery has a thick wall containing a large amount of elastic fibres and smooth muscle to withstand the high pressure of blood leaving the heart. The elastic fibres stretch when blood is pumped in, and then recoil to maintain blood pressure and smooth out flow. Collagen fibres provide high tensile strength to prevent the artery wall from bursting. The smooth, thin endothelium lining reduces friction and resistance to blood flow.

(b) When the endothelial lining of an artery is damaged, platelets adhere to the exposed collagen and become activated. Damaged tissue and activated platelets release thromboplastin. Thromboplastin acts as an enzyme, catalysing the conversion of the inactive plasma protein prothrombin into the active enzyme thrombin. Thrombin then catalyses the conversion of the soluble plasma protein fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin fibres. These fibrin fibres form a dense mesh network that traps platelets and red blood cells, forming a blood clot.

(c) A high-salt diet lowers the water potential of the blood, causing more water to be drawn into the circulatory system by osmosis. This increases the total volume of blood, leading to chronically high blood pressure (hypertension). Persistent high blood pressure damages the endothelial linings of the arteries, accelerating inflammatory responses and plaque (atheroma) formation, which increases the risk of cardiovascular events.

評分準則

(a) [Max 4 marks]
- Elastic fibres stretch to accommodate high blood pressure and recoil to maintain blood pressure between heartbeats (1)
- Thick muscular wall withstands the high pressure (1)
- Collagen fibres provide strength to prevent bursting (1)
- Smooth endothelium minimizes friction/resistance to blood flow (1)

(b) [Max 4 marks]
- Damage to the endothelium leads to platelet accumulation and the release of thromboplastin (1)
- Thromboplastin catalyses the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin (1)
- Thrombin catalyses the conversion of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin (1)
- Fibrin forms a mesh that traps red blood cells and platelets to form a clot (1)

(c) [Max 2 marks]
- High salt intake lowers blood water potential, drawing water into blood and increasing blood volume/pressure (1)
- Elevated blood pressure damages artery endothelium, initiating atherosclerosis/atheroma formation (1)
題目 2 · Structured
10
Cystic fibrosis is an inherited condition caused by mutations in the gene encoding the CFTR membrane protein.

(a) Explain how the structure of the cell membrane controls the movement of substances by active transport and facilitated diffusion. [4 marks]

(b) In individuals with cystic fibrosis, a mutation in the CFTR gene affects the transport of chloride ions.

(i) Describe the normal mechanism of mucus clearance in the lungs of a healthy individual. [3 marks]

(ii) Explain how the mutated CFTR protein results in the production of thick, sticky mucus. [3 marks]
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解題

(a) Active transport relies on specific carrier proteins (pumps) embedded in the phospholipid bilayer. These carrier proteins change conformation using energy from the hydrolysis of ATP to move polar or charged substances against their concentration gradient. In contrast, facilitated diffusion uses either channel proteins or carrier proteins to allow hydrophilic, polar, or charged ions to cross the hydrophobic core of the bilayer down a concentration gradient, which is a passive process requiring no metabolic energy.

(b)(i) In a healthy individual, epithelial cells actively pump chloride ions into the mucus lining the airways via the functional CFTR channel. This creates an electrochemical gradient, causing sodium ions to follow. The accumulation of these ions lowers the water potential of the mucus. Water then moves out of the cells and into the mucus by osmosis, making the mucus thin and watery so that cilia can easily sweep it upwards out of the lungs.

(b)(ii) A mutated CFTR protein is either non-functional, missing, or blocked, meaning chloride ions cannot be transported out of the epithelial cells. Consequently, sodium channels are not regulated and sodium ions are heavily reabsorbed back into the cells. This draws water out of the mucus and back into the cells by osmosis, leaving the mucus dehydrated, highly viscous, thick, and sticky. This thick mucus traps bacteria and cannot be easily moved by the cilia.

評分準則

(a) [Max 4 marks]
- Active transport requires specific carrier proteins / pumps (1)
- Active transport moves substances against their concentration gradient and requires ATP (1)
- Facilitated diffusion uses channel or carrier proteins (1)
- Facilitated diffusion is passive / moves substances down their concentration gradient (1)

(b)(i) [Max 3 marks]
- Chloride ions are actively transported out of epithelial cells into mucus via CFTR channels (1)
- Sodium ions follow down the electrochemical gradient (1)
- This lowers the water potential of the mucus, drawing water out of cells by osmosis, making the mucus thin (1)

(b)(ii) [Max 3 marks]
- Mutated CFTR protein is non-functional, preventing chloride transport out of cells (1)
- Excess sodium ions and water are reabsorbed into the epithelial cells from the mucus by osmosis (1)
- The mucus becomes dehydrated, thick, sticky, and cannot be cleared by cilia (1)
題目 3 · Calculation
10
A health clinic monitored a patient to assess their risk profile for cardiovascular disease (CVD). The clinical measurements obtained were:
- Patient body mass: 88.5 kg
- Patient height: 1.76 m
- Waist circumference: 104 cm
- Hip circumference: 92 cm

(a) Calculate the Body Mass Index (BMI) of this patient. Show your working and state whether this BMI classifies the patient as underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese (Classifications: Underweight < 18.5, Normal 18.5–24.9, Overweight 25.0–29.9, Obese \(\ge\) 30.0). Give your answer to 3 significant figures. [3 marks]

(b) Calculate the waist-to-hip ratio of the patient to 2 decimal places, and explain what this value, along with the BMI, indicates about their risk of cardiovascular disease. [4 marks]

(c) Distinguish between the structures of saturated and unsaturated lipids, and explain why a diet high in saturated lipids increases the risk of CVD. [3 marks]
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解題

(a) BMI is calculated using the formula:
\(\text{BMI} = \frac{\text{Mass (kg)}}{\text{Height (m)}^2}\)
\(\text{Height}^2 = 1.76^2 = 3.0976\text{ m}^2\)
\(\text{BMI} = \frac{88.5}{3.0976} \approx 28.57\text{ kg m}^{-2}\)
To 3 significant figures, the BMI is 28.6. This places the patient in the Overweight category.

(b) Waist-to-hip ratio is calculated as:
\(\text{Ratio} = \frac{\text{Waist circumference (cm)}}{\text{Hip circumference (cm)}}\)
\(\text{Ratio} = \frac{104}{92} \approx 1.1304\)
To 2 decimal places, the ratio is 1.13.
This ratio is greater than 1.0 (and above the threshold of 0.90 for males or 0.85 for females), indicating significant abdominal adiposity. Combined with the overweight BMI, this suggests a high volume of visceral fat, which is strongly associated with hypertension, insulin resistance, elevated blood cholesterol, and an overall high risk of developing CVD.

(c) Saturated fatty acids contain only single carbon-to-carbon bonds (C-C) in their hydrocarbon chain, allowing the molecules to pack tightly together. Unsaturated fatty acids contain one or more double bonds (C=C), which create kinks in the chain, preventing close packing. A diet high in saturated lipids raises blood low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol levels. High levels of circulating LDL carry cholesterol to arteries, leading to its deposition in the endothelial walls, which triggers the inflammatory process of atheroma formation (atherosclerosis).

評分準則

(a) [Max 3 marks]
- Correct calculation of height squared: \(1.76^2 = 3.0976\) (1)
- Correct calculation of BMI to 3 significant figures: \(28.6\) (1)
- Correct classification as Overweight (1)

(b) [Max 4 marks]
- Correct calculation of waist-to-hip ratio: \(1.13\) (1)
- Identification that waist-to-hip ratio is high / indicative of abdominal obesity (1)
- Linking high BMI and high waist-to-hip ratio to increased abdominal/visceral fat (1)
- Explaining that visceral fat correlates with higher risk of atheroma / high blood pressure / CVD (1)

(c) [Max 3 marks]
- Saturated lipids have no C=C double bonds / only C-C single bonds, whereas unsaturated lipids have one or more C=C double bonds (1)
- Double bonds in unsaturated lipids create kinks in the hydrocarbon chains (1)
- High saturated fat diet increases blood LDL levels, which deposit cholesterol in artery walls, causing atheromas (1)
題目 4 · Structured
10
Lysozyme is an enzyme found in tears and saliva that hydrolyses the \(\beta\)-1,4-glycosidic bonds in the peptidoglycan cell walls of bacteria.

(a) Describe how the primary structure of lysozyme determines its three-dimensional tertiary structure and its specific catalytic function. [5 marks]

(b) An investigation was carried out on the effect of temperature on the rate of reaction of lysozyme. Explain how a temperature increase from 20 °C to 40 °C affects the rate of reaction, and why a further increase to 65 °C causes the rate to drop to zero. [5 marks]
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解題

(a) The primary structure is the specific, genetically determined sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain of lysozyme. The unique order and identity of these amino acids determine the positions of specific chemical groups on their R-groups (side chains). When the polypeptide folds, these R-groups interact with each other, forming hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, disulfide bridges, and hydrophobic interactions. These interactions hold the protein in a highly specific, three-dimensional tertiary structure. This folding creates a specific cleft called the active site, which is complementary in shape and chemical environment to the bacterial peptidoglycan substrate, allowing enzyme-substrate complexes to form.

(b) Increasing the temperature from 20 °C to 40 °C increases the kinetic energy of both the lysozyme enzymes and the substrate molecules. This causes them to move faster, leading to more frequent and energetic collisions. Consequently, the rate of successful collisions increases, resulting in the formation of more enzyme-substrate complexes per unit time, which raises the rate of reaction. However, increasing the temperature to 65 °C introduces excessive thermal energy, causing the atoms in the enzyme to vibrate violently. This breaks the delicate hydrogen and ionic bonds stabilizing the tertiary structure. The active site permanently changes shape (denatures), meaning the substrate can no longer fit or bind, and the rate of reaction falls to zero.

評分準則

(a) [Max 5 marks]
- Primary structure is the specific sequence of amino acids (1)
- This sequence determines the types and locations of R-groups (1)
- R-groups interact to form hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, and disulfide bridges (1)
- These bonds fold the protein into a unique 3D tertiary structure (1)
- A specific active site is formed that is complementary to the substrate, allowing binding (1)

(b) [Max 5 marks]
- Increasing temperature from 20 °C to 40 °C increases kinetic energy of molecules (1)
- Leads to more frequent successful collisions / more enzyme-substrate complexes formed per unit time (1)
- Increasing temperature to 65 °C breaks hydrogen and ionic bonds holding the tertiary structure (1)
- Active site changes shape / enzyme becomes denatured (1)
- Substrate can no longer bind, so rate drops to zero (1)
題目 5 · Structured
10
Water and carbohydrates are fundamental components of living organisms, playing key roles in transport and energy storage.

(a) Water has unique properties due to hydrogen bonding. Explain how the dipolar nature of water molecules enables it to act as an effective solvent and a transport medium in the blood. [4 marks]

(b) Glycogen and starch are both storage carbohydrates.

(i) Compare the structures of glycogen and amylose. [4 marks]

(ii) Explain how the structure of glycogen makes it suitable for its role as an energy storage molecule in animals. [2 marks]
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解題

(a) Water is a polar molecule: the oxygen atom has a slight negative charge (\(\delta^-\)) and the hydrogen atoms have a slight positive charge (\(\delta^+\)). This dipolar nature allows water molecules to attract and surround other polar molecules and charged ions. Solvation shells form around these solutes, dissolving them and keeping them in solution. Furthermore, hydrogen bonding between adjacent water molecules gives water high cohesive properties. This cohesion, combined with adhesion to the walls of blood vessels, allows blood to flow easily as a liquid under pressure, making it an excellent medium for transporting dissolved gases, nutrients, and waste products.

(b)(i) Both glycogen and amylose are polymers of \(\alpha\)-glucose linked together by 1,4-glycosidic bonds formed via condensation reactions. However, amylose is a straight, unbranched chain that folds into a tight helical structure, whereas glycogen is highly branched due to the presence of 1,6-glycosidic bonds at regular intervals along the chain. Additionally, glycogen contains many more terminal glucose molecules due to its branching compared to the single linear structure of amylose.

(b)(ii) Glycogen is highly branched, which provides a large number of terminal glucose residues. This allows rapid hydrolysis by enzymes to release glucose molecules quickly when metabolic demand is high. It is also a very compact molecule, meaning a large amount of energy can be stored in a small space. Being large and insoluble in water, it does not exert any osmotic pressure, preventing water from rushing into cells and causing lysis.

評分準則

(a) [Max 4 marks]
- Water is dipolar / oxygen is \(\delta^-\), hydrogen is \(\delta^+\) (1)
- Dipolar water molecules surround and dissolve polar / ionic substances (1)
- Hydrogen bonds between water molecules create high cohesion (1)
- Cohesion allows water to flow easily as a liquid, making it a good medium for transport in blood (1)

(b)(i) [Max 4 marks]
- Both are made of \(\alpha\)-glucose monomers (1)
- Both contain 1,4-glycosidic bonds (1)
- Amylose is unbranched / helical, whereas glycogen is branched (1)
- Glycogen contains 1,6-glycosidic bonds (which form branches) while amylose does not (1)

(b)(ii) [Max 2 marks]
- Highly branched structure allows rapid hydrolysis to release glucose for respiration (1)
- Large and insoluble, so it does not affect the water potential / osmotic pressure of the cell (1)
題目 6 · Structured
10
Protein synthesis and DNA replication are essential processes in all dividing cells.

(a) Describe how DNA replication ensures that semi-conservative replication is accurate. [4 marks]

(b) Describe the transcription stage of protein synthesis, highlighting the roles of RNA polymerase and complementary base pairing. [4 marks]

(c) Explain how a deletion mutation of a single nucleotide in a gene can result in a completely non-functional protein. [2 marks]
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解題

(a) DNA replication begins with DNA helicase unwinding the double helix and breaking the hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs to expose the two single template strands. Free activated DNA nucleotides align themselves next to the template strands. Accuracy is maintained because of complementary base pairing, where adenine (A) only pairs with thymine (T), and cytosine (C) only pairs with guanine (G). Hydrogen bonds form between these correct matches. DNA polymerase then joins the nucleotides of the new strand together by forming phosphodiester bonds. This ensures that each new double helix consists of one original strand and one perfectly copied new strand.

(b) During transcription, DNA helicase unwinds a specific section of DNA, exposing the gene's template (antisense) strand. Free RNA nucleotides align along this template strand via complementary base pairing: adenine pairs with uracil (U), thymine with adenine, and cytosine with guanine. RNA polymerase moves along the template strand, catalysing the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent RNA nucleotides to synthesize a complementary pre-mRNA molecule. Once completed, the mRNA molecule detaches from the template, and the DNA double helix zips back together.

(c) A single-nucleotide deletion causes a frameshift mutation, which alters the reading frame of all subsequent three-letter codons from the point of mutation onwards. This completely changes the sequence of amino acids (primary structure) of the polypeptide being synthesized. As a result, when the protein folds, different R-group interactions will form, leading to an entirely different tertiary structure and a non-functional active site or structure.

評分準則

(a) [Max 4 marks]
- DNA helicase unwinds the double helix, exposing two template strands (1)
- Free DNA nucleotides align with complementary bases on the template strands (1)
- Complementary base pairing (A-T, C-G) ensures high fidelity / correct alignment (1)
- DNA polymerase joins nucleotides together via phosphodiester bonds (1)

(b) [Max 4 marks]
- DNA helicase breaks hydrogen bonds to expose the antisense/template strand (1)
- Free RNA nucleotides pair with complementary bases on the DNA template (A-U, T-A, C-G) (1)
- RNA polymerase joins adjacent RNA nucleotides together by forming phosphodiester bonds (1)
- Single-stranded mRNA transcript is synthesized and detaches (1)

(c) [Max 2 marks]
- Deletion causes a frameshift mutation, changing all codons downstream (1)
- This alters the primary structure / amino acid sequence, leading to a different tertiary folding and loss of function (1)
題目 7 · Calculation
10
The cardiac cycle and output are dynamic parameters adjusted during physical exercise to meet muscle metabolic demands.

(a) Calculate the resting stroke volume of an athlete whose resting heart rate is 60 beats per minute (bpm) and resting cardiac output is 4.80 dm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\). Give your answer in cm\(^3\). Show your working. [3 marks]

(b) Calculate the cardiac output of the same athlete during exercise when their heart rate rises to 125 bpm and stroke volume is 112 cm\(^3\). Give your answer in dm\(^3\) min\(^{-1}\) to 3 significant figures. Show your working. [3 marks]

(c) Describe the electrical activity of the heart during a single cardiac cycle, explaining how the myogenic nature of the heart coordinates the contraction of the atria and ventricles. [4 marks]
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解題

(a) Cardiac output is given by the formula:
\(\text{Cardiac Output} = \text{Stroke Volume} \times \text{Heart Rate}\)
To calculate resting stroke volume in \(\text{cm}^3\):
1. Convert resting cardiac output to \(\text{cm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\):
\(4.80\text{ dm}^3\text{ min}^{-1} = 4.80 \times 1000 = 4800\text{ cm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\)
2. Rearrange the formula to solve for stroke volume:
\(\text{Stroke Volume} = \frac{\text{Cardiac Output}}{\text{Heart Rate}}\)
\(\text{Stroke Volume} = \frac{4800\text{ cm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}}{60\text{ bpm}} = 80\text{ cm}^3\).

(b) To calculate exercise cardiac output in \(\text{dm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\):
1. Convert the exercise stroke volume from \(\text{cm}^3\) to \(\text{dm}^3\):
\(112\text{ cm}^3 = \frac{112}{1000} = 0.112\text{ dm}^3\)
2. Multiply by the exercise heart rate:
\(\text{Cardiac Output} = 0.112\text{ dm}^3 \times 125\text{ bpm} = 14.0\text{ dm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\).
(Reported to 3 significant figures, the value is 14.0).

(c) The cardiac muscle is myogenic, meaning it can initiate its own electrical impulses. The sinoatrial node (SAN) in the right atrium wall acts as the pacemaker, sending out a wave of electrical excitation across the atrial walls, causing them to contract simultaneously (atrial systole). A band of non-conducting collagen tissue prevents this electrical impulse from passing directly to the ventricles. The impulse is instead picked up by the atrioventricular node (AVN), which delays the signal slightly to allow the atria to finish emptying completely. The AVN then passes the impulse down the Bundle of His to the Purkyne fibres in the ventricular walls, starting at the apex. This causes the ventricles to contract from the bottom upwards, efficiently pushing blood into the arteries.

評分準則

(a) [Max 3 marks]
- Recall or use the formula: \(\text{Stroke Volume} = \frac{\text{Cardiac Output}}{\text{Heart Rate}}\) (1)
- Correct unit conversion: \(4.80\text{ dm}^3 = 4800\text{ cm}^3\) (1)
- Correct calculation: \(80\text{ cm}^3\) (1)

(b) [Max 3 marks]
- Convert exercise stroke volume to \(\text{dm}^3\): \(112\text{ cm}^3 = 0.112\text{ dm}^3\) (1)
- Correct calculation of cardiac output: \(14\text{ dm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\) (1)
- Written to 3 significant figures: \(14.0\text{ dm}^3\text{ min}^{-1}\) (1)

(c) [Max 4 marks]
- SAN initiates electrical impulse which spreads across atria causing contraction (1)
- Non-conducting tissue prevents direct passage to ventricles, routing it to AVN (1)
- AVN introduces a delay to allow ventricles to fill with blood (1)
- Impulse travels down Bundle of His and Purkyne fibres, causing ventricular contraction from the apex upwards (1)
題目 8 · Structured
10
Gas exchange surfaces must be optimized to allow high rates of diffusion of respiratory gases.

(a) Use Fick's Law of Diffusion to explain how mammalian alveoli are adapted for rapid gas exchange. [4 marks]

(b) Phospholipids are the main components of cell membranes in the alveolar epithelium. Describe how the structure of phospholipids allows them to form a stable bilayer in aqueous environments. [3 marks]

(c) Describe an experiment to investigate the effect of alcohol concentration on the permeability of beetroot cell membranes, explaining how the results would be measured and interpreted. [3 marks]
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解題

(a) Fick's Law states that the Rate of Diffusion is proportional to:
\(\frac{\text{Surface Area} \times \text{Concentration Difference}}{\text{Thickness of Membrane}}\)
Alveoli are highly adapted to maximize each parameter of this relationship:
1. Surface Area: The presence of millions of alveoli provides a massive collective surface area for diffusion.
2. Concentration Difference: Continuous ventilation of the lungs brings in fresh oxygen and removes carbon dioxide, while continuous blood flow in the adjacent capillaries removes oxygenated blood and brings deoxygenated blood. This maintains a steep concentration gradient.
3. Thickness of Membrane: The alveolar wall (squamous epithelium) and the capillary wall are each only one cell thick, which minimizes the diffusion distance.

(b) A phospholipid molecule is amphipathic. It consists of a polar, hydrophilic phosphate-containing head that is attracted to water, and two non-polar, hydrophobic fatty acid tails that repel water. When exposed to an aqueous environment (such as intracellular and extracellular fluids), the hydrophilic heads orient outwards to interact with water, while the hydrophobic tails face inwards, away from water. This shielding creates a stable double-layered sheet (bilayer) held together by hydrophobic interactions.

(c) To investigate the effect of alcohol on beetroot membranes:
1. Use a cork borer to cut beetroot cylinders of equal diameter, and cut them into discs of equal length. Rinse them thoroughly in distilled water to wash away betalain pigment released from cut cells.
2. Place equal numbers of discs in test tubes containing equal volumes of different concentrations of alcohol (e.g., 0%, 10%, 20%, 30%, 40%) for a fixed time.
3. Remove the beetroot discs and use a colorimeter (fitted with a blue/green filter) to measure the light absorbance or percentage transmission of the remaining bathing solutions. Higher alcohol concentrations disrupt the cell membrane by dissolving lipids, increasing permeability and causing more betalain pigment to leak out. This leads to higher light absorbance (or lower transmission) values, showing a positive correlation between alcohol concentration and membrane permeability.

評分準則

(a) [Max 4 marks]
- State Fick's Law: Rate of Diffusion is proportional to (Surface Area \(\times\) Concentration Gradient) / Thickness of membrane (1)
- Alveoli provide a huge surface area to increase rate of diffusion (1)
- Capillary network and ventilation maintain steep concentration gradients (1)
- Alveolar and capillary walls are only one cell thick, reducing diffusion distance (1)

(b) [Max 3 marks]
- Phospholipids have a hydrophilic phosphate head and hydrophobic fatty acid tails (1)
- Hydrophilic heads orient towards the water inside and outside the cell (1)
- Hydrophobic tails orient inwards, away from the water, forming a stable barrier (1)

(c) [Max 3 marks]
- Cut beetroot to equal size/surface area and rinse to remove excess surface pigment (1)
- Submerge in different concentrations of alcohol for a fixed time, keeping temperature constant (1)
- Use a colorimeter to measure absorbance of the surrounding liquid; higher absorbance indicates greater membrane permeability (1)

部分 Unit 2: Cells, Development, Biodiversity and Conservation

Answer all questions. Write your answers in the spaces provided.
8 題目 · 80
題目 1 · structured
10
(a) Describe the role of the spindle fibres during mitosis. [3 marks]
(b) A student observed 250 cells in an onion root tip meristem. Of these cells, 35 were in prophase, 12 in metaphase, 8 in anaphase, and 5 in telophase.
(i) Calculate the mitotic index of this tissue. Show your working. [2 marks]
(ii) If the complete cell cycle for these cells takes 15 hours, calculate the time spent in metaphase in minutes. Show your working. [2 marks]
(c) Explain why meiosis produces genetically non-identical gametes, whereas mitosis produces genetically identical daughter cells. [3 marks]
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解題

(a) Spindle fibres attach to the centromeres of chromosomes during metaphase, align the chromosomes along the equator of the cell, and then contract/shorten during anaphase to pull sister chromatids apart to opposite poles of the cell.
(b)(i) Total dividing cells = 35 + 12 + 8 + 5 = 60. Mitotic Index = \(60 / 250 = 0.24\) (or 24%).
(b)(ii) Fraction of cells in metaphase = \(12 / 250 = 0.048\). Total time in minutes = \(15 \times 60 = 900\) minutes. Time in metaphase = \(0.048 \times 900 = 43.2\) minutes.
(c) Meiosis involves crossing over (chiasmata formation) between homologous chromosomes during prophase I and independent assortment of chromosomes/chromatids during metaphase I and II, creating new combinations of alleles. Mitosis lacks these processes and involves the replication and equal division of DNA to produce clones.

評分準則

(a) 1. Spindle fibres attach to centromeres of chromosomes (1). 2. Align chromosomes along the equator/metaphase plate (1). 3. Contract/shorten to pull sister chromatids to opposite poles during anaphase (1).
(b)(i) 1. Identification of total dividing cells as 60 (or mitotic index calculation method shown) (1). 2. Correct answer of 0.24 or 24% (1).
(b)(ii) 1. Calculation of total cell cycle duration as 900 minutes OR correct proportion (12/250) (1). 2. Correct calculation of 43.2 minutes (allow 43 minutes) (1).
(c) 1. Meiosis introduces variation through crossing over in prophase I (1). 2. Meiosis introduces variation through independent assortment in metaphase I/II (1). 3. Mitosis involves DNA replication followed by division to produce identical clones with no genetic variation (1).
題目 2 · structured
10
(a) Sclerenchyma fibres and xylem vessels both provide support to plant stems. Compare and contrast the structures of sclerenchyma fibres and xylem vessels. [4 marks]
(b) A student investigated the tensile strength of plant fibres extracted from two different species, Species A and Species B. The cross-sectional area of Species A fibre was \(0.12\text{ mm}^2\) and it broke at a force of 18 N. Species B fibre broke at a force of 24 N with a cross-sectional area of \(0.15\text{ mm}^2\).
(i) Calculate the tensile strength of both fibres in \(\text{N mm}^{-2}\). Show your working. [2 marks]
(ii) Deduce which fibre is stronger and suggest why. [2 marks]
(c) State two differences between the structure of starch and the structure of cellulose. [2 marks]
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解題

(a) Similarities: Both are made of dead cells, both have walls thickened with lignin, and both provide mechanical support. Differences: Xylem vessels have hollow, open-ended structures forming continuous tubes, whereas sclerenchyma fibres have closed ends/tapered ends; xylem vessels also contain pits for lateral water transport, which sclerenchyma fibres do not specifically require for transport.
(b)(i) Tensile strength = Force / Area. For Species A: \(18 \text{ N} / 0.12 \text{ mm}^2 = 150 \text{ N mm}^{-2}\). For Species B: \(24 \text{ N} / 0.15 \text{ mm}^2 = 160 \text{ N mm}^{-2}\).
(b)(ii) Species B is stronger because it has a higher tensile strength (\(160 \text{ N mm}^{-2}\) vs \(150 \text{ N mm}^{-2}\)). This could be due to a thicker cell wall, more lignin deposition, or a higher density of cellulose microfibrils.
(c) Starch is composed of \(\alpha\)-glucose monomers whereas cellulose is composed of \(\beta\)-glucose monomers; starch has a helical/coiled structure (amylose) and branched chains (amylopectin), whereas cellulose has straight, unbranched chains that form hydrogen bonds with adjacent chains to form microfibrils.

評分準則

(a) 1. Similarity: both are lignified / both consist of dead cells / both provide structural support (max 2). 2. Difference: xylem has open ends/hollow tubes whereas sclerenchyma has closed/tapered ends (1). 3. Difference: xylem has pits/spiral patterns of lignin for transport of water, sclerenchyma functions purely for support (1).
(b)(i) 1. Tensile strength formula used correctly (1). 2. Both values correct: Species A = 150 \(\text{N mm}^{-2}\) and Species B = 160 \(\text{N mm}^{-2}\) (1).
(b)(ii) 1. Species B is stronger (1). 2. Reason: higher concentration/thickness of lignin OR higher cellulose microfibril content (1).
(c) 1. Starch contains \(\alpha\)-glucose while cellulose contains \(\beta\)-glucose (1). 2. Starch is branched/coiled (amylopectin/amylose) while cellulose is straight/unbranched (forming microfibrils) (1).
題目 3 · structured
10
(a) Describe the structure of a mature human sperm cell and explain how its features adapt it for its function. [4 marks]
(b) Explain the sequence of events that occur during the acrosome reaction and the cortical reaction following the contact of a sperm cell with an egg cell. [4 marks]
(c) Explain the importance of the cortical reaction in ensuring successful development of the zygote. [2 marks]
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解題

(a) A mature sperm cell has: a streamlined shape to reduce resistance; a head containing a haploid nucleus to restore diploidy upon fertilization; an acrosome containing hydrolytic enzymes to digest the jelly coat/zona pellucida; a middle piece packed with mitochondria to produce ATP for flagellar movement; and a flagellum (tail) to provide motility.
(b) Acrosome reaction: Sperm contacts the zona pellucida, triggering the acrosome membrane to fuse with the sperm cell surface membrane, releasing digestive enzymes via exocytosis to digest a path through the zona pellucida. Cortical reaction: Fusion of the sperm and egg cell membranes triggers calcium ion release inside the egg, causing cortical granules in the egg cytoplasm to fuse with the egg cell membrane and release their contents via exocytosis, thickening and hardening the zona pellucida into a fertilization membrane.
(c) The hardening of the zona pellucida prevents polyspermy (entry of more than one sperm). This ensures that the zygote remains diploid (contains exactly two sets of chromosomes), preventing abnormal chromosome numbers which would otherwise lead to cell death or developmental failure.

評分準則

(a) 1. Haploid nucleus containing genetic material (1). 2. Acrosome containing hydrolytic enzymes to digest zona pellucida (1). 3. Middle piece containing many mitochondria to provide ATP for movement (1). 4. Flagellum/tail for swimming (1).
(b) 1. Acrosome membrane fuses with sperm membrane, releasing enzymes by exocytosis to digest the zona pellucida (1). 2. Sperm head fuses with the egg membrane, releasing its nucleus (1). 3. Cortical granules in the egg cytoplasm fuse with egg membrane via exocytosis (1). 4. Cortical granule enzymes harden/thicken the zona pellucida to form the fertilization membrane (1).
(c) 1. Prevents polyspermy / entry of multiple sperm cells (1). 2. Ensures the zygote is diploid (2n) / prevents polyploidy which is lethal (1).
題目 4 · structured
10
(a) Define the terms 'species richness' and 'endemism'. [2 marks]
(b) An ecologist sampled two areas of woodland (Site X and Site Y) to assess biodiversity. The table shows the number of individuals (\(n\)) of each plant species found in Site X:
• Species A: 12
• Species B: 4
• Species C: 8
• Species D: 6
• Total (\(N\)) = 30
(i) Calculate Simpson's Index of Diversity (\(D\)) for Site X using the formula: \(D = 1 - \frac{\sum n(n-1)}{N(N-1)}\). Show your working. Give your answer to 3 significant figures. [3 marks]
(ii) Site Y has a Simpson's Index of Diversity of 0.45. Compare the biodiversity of Site X and Site Y. [2 marks]
(c) Explain how seed banks contribute to the conservation of endangered plant species. [3 marks]
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解題

(a) Species richness is the number of different species in a particular habitat. Endemism refers to a species being unique to a defined geographic location and not found anywhere else.
(b)(i) Calculate \(n(n-1)\) for each species:
Species A: \(12 \times 11 = 132\)
Species B: \(4 \times 3 = 12\)
Species C: \(8 \times 7 = 56\)
Species D: \(6 \times 5 = 30\)
\(\sum n(n-1) = 132 + 12 + 56 + 30 = 230\)
\(N = 30\), so \(N(N-1) = 30 \times 29 = 870\)
\(D = 1 - \frac{230}{870} = 1 - 0.26437 = 0.736\) (to 3 s.f.).
(b)(ii) Site X has a higher index of diversity (0.736) than Site Y (0.45). This indicates that Site X is more stable, has higher species richness and evenness, and is less dominated by a single species.
(c) Seed banks store seeds in cool, dry conditions to maintain viability over long periods. They conserve genetic diversity, protect species from extinction in the wild, and provide a source of seeds for reintroduction programmes or research.

評分準則

(a) 1. Species richness: The number of different species in a habitat (1). 2. Endemism: A species being native to/found only in one specific geographic area (1).
(b)(i) 1. Correct calculation of \(\sum n(n-1) = 230\) (1). 2. Correct calculation of \(N(N-1) = 870\) (1). 3. Correct final answer of 0.736 (allow rounding to 0.74 if working shown, but 3 s.f. required: 0.736) (1).
(b)(ii) 1. Site X has higher biodiversity / is more biodiverse (1). 2. Site X is more stable/less dominated by one species OR Site Y is more dominated by a single species / less stable (1).
(c) 1. Store seeds in dry, cold conditions to prevent germination and decay (1). 2. Conserve genetic diversity / gene pool of threatened species (1). 3. Can be used for reintroduction into the wild / scientific research (1).
題目 5 · structured
10
(a) Distinguish between totipotent, pluripotent, and multipotent stem cells. [3 marks]
(b) Describe how transcription factors can control the differentiation of stem cells into specialized tissues. [4 marks]
(c) Explain the ethical arguments for and against the use of embryonic stem cells in medical therapies. [3 marks]
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解題

(a) Totipotent stem cells can differentiate into any cell type, including extra-embryonic tissues (like placenta). Pluripotent stem cells can differentiate into any embryonic cell type (all body cells) but not extra-embryonic tissue. Multipotent stem cells can only differentiate into a limited range of specialized cell types within a specific tissue (e.g., hematopoietic stem cells into blood cells).
(b) Transcription factors bind to specific promoter regions of DNA. They can stimulate (activators) or prevent (repressors) the transcription of target genes by helping or blocking RNA polymerase binding. This determines which proteins are synthesized, leading to structural and functional changes that characterize differentiation.
(c) For: Embryonic stem cells have the potential to treat currently incurable diseases (e.g., Parkinson's, paralysis), and using spare IVF embryos that would otherwise be discarded is efficient. Against: Embryos are destroyed during stem cell harvesting, which some consider as taking a potential human life; there are also concerns about lack of consent from the embryo, and potential risks of tumor formation (teratomas).

評分準則

(a) 1. Totipotent: can give rise to any cell type plus extra-embryonic tissues / placenta (1). 2. Pluripotent: can give rise to any body cell type but not placenta (1). 3. Multipotent: can only differentiate into a limited range of cell types / tissue-specific cells (1).
(b) 1. Transcription factors bind to specific DNA promoter regions (1). 2. They recruit or block RNA polymerase (1). 3. This activates/represses transcription of specific genes / synthesis of mRNA (1). 4. Only specific proteins are produced, which permanently alters cell structure/function (differentiation) (1).
(c) 1. For: Potential to cure diseases / relieve human suffering OR uses spare IVF embryos that would otherwise be destroyed (1). 2. Against: Involves destruction of embryos / moral status of the embryo / potential human life (1). 3. Concern over risk of tumor/cancer development from transplanted cells (1).
題目 6 · structured
10
(a) Explain the roles of nitrate ions, calcium ions, and magnesium ions in plant growth and development. [3 marks]
(b) A student investigated the effect of mineral deficiencies on the growth of radish seedlings. Seedlings were grown in four different solutions: complete nutrient solution, lacking calcium, lacking magnesium, and lacking nitrogen.
(i) State two variables that must be controlled to ensure a valid comparison between these groups. [2 marks]
(ii) Describe the expected appearance of the plants grown in the magnesium-deficient solution compared to the complete nutrient solution, and explain this appearance. [3 marks]
(c) Suggest why the plants in the nitrogen-deficient solution showed significantly reduced root and shoot length. [2 marks]
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解題

(a) Nitrate ions are needed to make amino acids, proteins, and nucleic acids (DNA/RNA). Calcium ions are needed to make calcium pectate in the middle lamella, which holds plant cell walls together. Magnesium ions are a central component of chlorophyll, which is essential for photosynthesis.
(b)(i) Controlled variables include: species/variety of radish seedling, initial age/size of seedlings, temperature, volume of nutrient solution, light intensity/duration, and pH of the solution.
(b)(ii) The leaves of the plants lacking magnesium will show yellowing (chlorosis), especially in older leaves, while plants in the complete solution remain green. This is because magnesium is required to synthesize chlorophyll; without it, chlorophyll cannot be made, photosynthesis is reduced, and leaves lose their green color.
(c) Nitrogen is a component of amino acids (for protein synthesis) and nucleotides (for DNA replication). Without nitrogen, the plants cannot undergo rapid cell division (mitosis) or protein synthesis, which are essential for cell elongation and growth in roots and shoots.

評分準則

(a) 1. Nitrates: amino acids/proteins/nucleic acids (1). 2. Calcium: calcium pectate in middle lamella / cell wall structure (1). 3. Magnesium: chlorophyll production / photosynthesis (1).
(b)(i) Any two from: temperature, volume of solution, light intensity, seedling age/mass, pH of solution (2).
(b)(ii) 1. Description: leaves show yellowing / chlorosis (1). 2. Explanation: magnesium is needed to produce chlorophyll (1). 3. Lack of chlorophyll leads to reduced photosynthesis and growth (1).
(c) 1. Nitrogen is required for protein synthesis / amino acid synthesis (1). 2. Protein/nucleic acids are needed for cell division / mitosis / cell elongation to build root/shoot tissue (1).
題目 7 · structured
10
(a) Describe the roles of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (rER) and the Golgi apparatus in the synthesis and secretion of extracellular proteins. [4 marks]
(b) Compare and contrast the structures of a typical eukaryotic animal cell with a prokaryotic bacterium cell. [4 marks]
(c) A micrograph of a cell shows a nucleus with a diameter of \(6\ \mu\text{m}\). On the printed micrograph, the nucleus measures \(18\text{ mm}\) in diameter. Calculate the magnification of the micrograph. Show your working. [2 marks]
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解題

(a) Ribosomes on the rER translate mRNA into polypeptides, which fold into their 3D secondary/tertiary structures inside the rER lumen. The proteins are packaged into transport vesicles that bud off the rER and travel to the Golgi apparatus. In the Golgi apparatus, proteins are modified (e.g., addition of carbohydrate chains to form glycoproteins). They are then packaged into secretory vesicles that transport them to the cell membrane for exocytosis.
(b) Similarities: Both contain ribosomes, a cytoplasm, and a cell surface membrane. Differences: Eukaryotes have a true membrane-bound nucleus, whereas prokaryotes have circular DNA free in the cytoplasm (nucleoid); eukaryotes have membrane-bound organelles (e.g., mitochondria, rER, Golgi), which prokaryotes lack; eukaryotes have 80S ribosomes while prokaryotes have smaller 70S ribosomes; prokaryotic cell walls are made of peptidoglycan, while animal cells have no cell wall.
(c) Magnification = Image size / Actual size.
Image size = \(18\text{ mm} = 18,000\ \mu\text{m}\).
Actual size = \(6\ \mu\text{m}\).
Magnification = \(18,000 / 6 = \times 3000\).

評分準則

(a) 1. Ribosomes on rER translate mRNA into polypeptides / fold proteins into 3D shapes (1). 2. Proteins transported in vesicles from rER to Golgi (1). 3. Golgi modifies proteins (e.g., glycosylation) (1). 4. Golgi packages modified proteins into secretory vesicles for fusion with cell membrane / exocytosis (1).
(b) 1. Similarity: Both have ribosomes / cell surface membrane / cytoplasm (max 1). 2. Difference: Eukaryote has membrane-bound nucleus whereas prokaryote has nucleoid/circular DNA free in cytoplasm (1). 3. Difference: Eukaryote has membrane-bound organelles (mitochondria/ER) whereas prokaryote has none (1). 4. Difference: Eukaryote has 80S ribosomes whereas prokaryote has 70S ribosomes OR prokaryote has peptidoglycan cell wall (1).
(c) 1. Correct conversion of units: 18 mm to 18,000 \(\mu\)m (1). 2. Correct calculation: \(\times 3000\) (or 3000) (1).
題目 8 · structured
10
(a) Describe how William Withering's clinical trials of digitalis (foxglove) compare to modern drug testing protocols. [4 marks]
(b) Explain why phase I clinical trials are carried out on healthy volunteers, whereas phase II trials are carried out on patients with the target disease. [3 marks]
(c) Explain how molecular phylogeny is used to classify organisms into three domains. [3 marks]
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解題

(a) Similarities: Both tested the drug on patients with the target illness (dropsy/heart failure) and adjusted doses based on observed effects. Differences: Withering used trial-and-error on a very small sample size (individuals) without animal testing first; modern testing uses pre-clinical animal and cell-culture testing, large double-blind trials with placebos, and statistical analysis to ensure efficacy and safety.
(b) Phase I trials use healthy volunteers to determine the safety, tolerability, and pharmacokinetics (absorption/metabolism) of the drug, ensuring it does not have severe side effects. Phase II trials use patients with the disease to assess whether the drug has a therapeutic effect (efficacy) and to establish the optimal dose.
(c) Molecular phylogeny analyzes similarities and differences in DNA, RNA, or protein sequences (such as ribosomal RNA - rRNA). Organisms with similar sequences are grouped together, reflecting evolutionary relationships. This led Carl Woese to propose three domains (Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya) because ribosomal RNA structure and membrane lipid composition differ fundamentally between them, even though Archaea and Bacteria look similar under a microscope.

評分準則

(a) 1. Similarity: both use patients with the target disease to find an effective dose (1). 2. Difference: Withering tested directly on humans without pre-clinical/animal testing (1). 3. Difference: Withering used trial-and-error dosing (which nearly killed patients) whereas modern trials have highly controlled phase I safety limits (1). 4. Difference: Modern trials use placebos / double-blind protocols / large sample sizes to prevent bias, which Withering did not (1).
(b) 1. Phase I on healthy volunteers to check for safety / side effects (1). 2. Avoids risking vulnerable, sick patients in case of toxicity (1). 3. Phase II on patients to test efficacy / see if the drug actually treats the disease (1).
(c) 1. Analysis of sequence of bases in DNA/RNA OR amino acid sequences in proteins (such as rRNA) (1). 2. Shows evolutionary relationships / common ancestry (1). 3. Led to three domains because Archaea and Bacteria have distinct molecular/cellular structures despite being prokaryotes (1).

部分 Unit 3: Practical Skills in Biology I

Answer all questions. Write your answers in the spaces provided.
3 題目 · 49.800000000000004
題目 1 · Experimental Design and Calculations
16.6
An investigation was carried out to determine the effect of storage temperature on the Vitamin C content of fresh fruit juice. Part (a): Describe how to prepare a calibration curve using a standard 1.0 mg cm\(^{-3}\) solution of Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) to allow the quantitative determination of Vitamin C in unknown juice samples. Part (b): During a titration, 1.0 cm\(^{3}\) of a 1.0 mg cm\(^{-3}\) standard Vitamin C solution required 0.85 cm\(^{3}\) of DCPIP to reach the end point. A 1.0 cm\(^{3}\) sample of fruit juice stored at 4 \(^{\circ}\)C required 0.51 cm\(^{3}\) of the same DCPIP solution. Calculate the concentration of Vitamin C in this juice sample. Show your working. Part (c): Explain why keeping the concentration of the DCPIP solution constant, and controlling the reaction temperature, are critical to ensuring the validity of this method. Part (d): Suggest how a student could modify this investigation to study the rate of degradation of Vitamin C in fresh orange juice stored at three different temperatures over a period of two weeks.
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解題

Part (a): A series of known dilutions of ascorbic acid is prepared (e.g., 0.2, 0.4, 0.6, 0.8, and 1.0 mg cm\(^{-3}\)) from the stock solution using distilled water. A fixed volume of each dilution is titrated against a fixed concentration of DCPIP. The volume of DCPIP required to reach the end point (color change from blue to colorless) is recorded. A calibration curve is plotted with Vitamin C concentration on the x-axis and volume of DCPIP on the y-axis. Part (b): The concentration of Vitamin C in the sample is directly proportional to the volume of DCPIP needed to reach the end point. Using the ratio: \(\text{Concentration of sample} = \frac{\text{Volume of DCPIP for sample}}{\text{Volume of DCPIP for standard}} \times \text{Concentration of standard}\). \(\text{Concentration} = \frac{0.51\text{ cm}^{3}}{0.85\text{ cm}^{3}} \times 1.0\text{ mg cm}^{-3} = 0.60\text{ mg cm}^{-3}\). Part (c): Standardizing the concentration of DCPIP ensures that the quantity of dye molecules per unit volume is constant, so that any variations in the volume required during titration are due solely to changes in the concentration of Vitamin C in the sample. Temperature must be controlled because Vitamin C is highly sensitive to heat and easily undergoes thermal oxidation/degradation; keeping temperature constant prevents external thermal degradation from skewing the titration results and ensures the chemical reaction rate remains uniform. Part (d): Aliquots of the same batch of fresh orange juice are placed into sealed containers and stored at three distinct temperatures (e.g., 4 \(^{\circ}\)C, 20 \(^{\circ}\)C, and 40 \(^{\circ}\)C). Samples are withdrawn from each environment at regular intervals (such as every 48 hours) for a duration of 14 days and titrated against a standardized DCPIP solution. The concentration of Vitamin C is calculated at each time point, plotted against time, and the gradient of each line is calculated to determine the rate of degradation.

評分準則

Part (a) (5 marks max): 1. Prepare a minimum of 5 known concentrations of Vitamin C using serial or simple dilutions. 2. Titrate a fixed volume of each known concentration against DCPIP until the blue color just disappears/reaches end point. 3. Record the volume of DCPIP required for each titration. 4. Control variables during calibration (e.g., temperature, pH, shaking speed). 5. Plot a graph of Vitamin C concentration (x-axis) against the volume of DCPIP (y-axis). Part (b) (3 marks max): 1. Correct ratio formula shown: \(0.51 / 0.85\) (1 mark). 2. Correct calculation: \(0.60\) (1 mark). 3. Correct units: \(\text{mg cm}^{-3}\) (1 mark). Part (c) (4 marks max): 1. Constant DCPIP concentration ensures that the volume needed depends only on the concentration of reducing agent (ascorbic acid) (1 mark). 2. Variable DCPIP concentration would invalidate comparison between titrations (1 mark). 3. Temperature control is necessary because high temperatures degrade Vitamin C (1 mark). 4. Uniform temperature maintains a constant rate of reaction during titration (1 mark). Part (d) (4.6 marks max): 1. Use juice from the same source/batch divided into equal portions (1 mark). 2. Store portions at three distinct, monitored temperatures (e.g. 4 \(^{\circ}\)C, 20 \(^{\circ}\)C, 40 \(^{\circ}\)C) (1 mark). 3. Take samples at standardized intervals (e.g. every 2 days) over 14 days (1 mark). 4. Perform titrations in triplicate at each interval to calculate means and identify anomalies (1 mark). 5. Plot concentration against time for each temperature and calculate rate from the gradient (1 mark).
題目 2 · Structured and Calculations
16.6
A student investigated the effect of ethanol concentration on the permeability of beetroot cell membranes. Part (a): Describe how the beetroot cylinder samples should be prepared and washed before being placed into the ethanol solutions, to ensure the validity of this investigation. Part (b): Explain how ethanol affects the structure of the beetroot cell membrane, leading to the leakage of betalain pigment. Part (c): The student measured the absorbance of the solutions using a colorimeter with a green filter. Explain why a green filter (approx. 520 nm) is used. The absorbance values obtained were: 0% ethanol = 0.04 au, 10% = 0.11 au, 20% = 0.25 au, 30% = 0.52 au, 40% = 0.85 au. Calculate the percentage increase in light absorbance when the ethanol concentration is increased from 20% to 40%. Show your working. Part (d): Suggest how the student could modify this experiment to find the exact temperature at which the membrane proteins of the beetroot cells denature.
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解題

Part (a): Beetroot cylinders are cut using a cork borer to keep the diameter constant and sliced to equal lengths with a scalpel to ensure equal surface area. They must be washed thoroughly in running or distilled water until the water remains clear to remove any pigment released from cells damaged during cutting. The cylinders are then gently patted dry with paper towels to avoid carrying excess water into the ethanol treatments. Part (b): Ethanol is an organic solvent that dissolves/disrupts lipids and phospholipids in the membrane bilayer, increasing its fluidity. It also denatures membrane proteins by disrupting non-covalent bonds (such as hydrogen and ionic bonds), causing them to lose their tertiary structure. This dual disruption destroys the membrane's selective permeability, allowing betalain pigment molecules to leak out by diffusion. Part (c): Betalain is a red-colored pigment that reflects red light and absorbs green/blue light. A green filter selects the specific wavelength (around 520-550 nm) that is absorbed maximally by the pigment, ensuring maximum sensitivity and a linear relationship between pigment concentration and absorbance. For the calculation: Absorbance at 20% ethanol = 0.25 au. Absorbance at 40% ethanol = 0.85 au. \(\text{Increase} = 0.85 - 0.25 = 0.60\text{ au}\). \(\text{Percentage increase} = \frac{0.60}{0.25} \times 100 = 240\%\). Part (d): The student should use water instead of ethanol to isolate temperature as the only independent variable. They should expose beetroot cylinders to a narrow, high-resolution range of temperatures (e.g., 40, 42, 44, 46, 48, 50, 52 \(^{\circ}\)C) using thermostatically controlled water baths. A sharp, sudden increase in light absorbance would indicate the exact temperature at which membrane proteins denature.

評分準則

Part (a) (4 marks max): 1. Use cork borer and scalpel to obtain beetroot cylinders of equal diameter and length / surface area (1 mark). 2. Wash cylinders thoroughly in distilled/running water to remove pigment from cut/damaged cells (1 mark). 3. Rinse until wash water is clear (1 mark). 4. Gently pat dry with paper towel to prevent dilution of test solutions (1 mark). Part (b) (4 marks max): 1. Ethanol is a solvent that dissolves lipids/phospholipids in the bilayer (1 mark). 2. This increases bilayer fluidity / disrupts membrane structure (1 mark). 3. Ethanol denatures membrane proteins by breaking hydrogen/ionic bonds (1 mark). 4. Loss of selective permeability allows betalain to diffuse out of the vacuole/cell (1 mark). Part (c) (6 marks max): 1. Betalain is red, so it absorbs green light / a green filter selects the wavelength of maximum absorption (1 mark). 2. This maximizes the sensitivity/accuracy of colorimeter readings (1 mark). 3. Identifies the absorbance values at 20% (0.25) and 40% (0.85) (1 mark). 4. Calculates absolute difference: \(0.85 - 0.25 = 0.60\) (1 mark). 5. Correct percentage calculation: \((0.60 / 0.25) \times 100\) (1 mark). 6. Final answer of 240% (1 mark). Part (d) (2.6 marks max): 1. Keep beetroot cylinders in water (no ethanol) (1 mark). 2. Use a closely-spaced range of temperatures (e.g., at 2 \(^{\circ}\)C intervals) around expected denaturation point (1 mark). 3. Identify the temperature where a sudden, sharp rise in absorbance occurs (1 mark).
題目 3 · Experimental Design and Calculations
16.6
An investigation was conducted to compare the tensile strength of plant fibres extracted from Manila hemp (Musa textilis) and sisal (Agave sisalana). Part (a): Describe an experimental procedure that could be used to determine and compare the tensile strength of these plant fibres. Your answer should include safety precautions and how you would ensure the reliability of the results. Part (b): A student measured the diameter and breaking mass of five sisal fibres. Fibre 1: Diameter = 0.24 mm, Breaking mass = 280 g. Fibre 2: Diameter = 0.20 mm, Breaking mass = 210 g. Fibre 3: Diameter = 0.26 mm, Breaking mass = 310 g. Fibre 4: Diameter = 0.22 mm, Breaking mass = 250 g. Fibre 5: Diameter = 0.25 mm, Breaking mass = 290 g. Calculate the mean cross-sectional area of these fibres in mm\(^{2}\). Use the formula: Area = \(\pi r^{2}\) (where \(\pi = 3.1416\)). Give your answer to 3 significant figures. Then, calculate the mean tensile strength (in g mm\(^{-2}\)) of the sisal fibres. Show your working. Part (c): Describe the anatomical features of sclerenchyma fibres and xylem vessels that contribute to the high tensile strength of plant stems.
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解題

Part (a): Fibres are extracted from plant stems using retting (soaking in water for several days to digest soft tissues) and scraping away debris. Fibres of equal length are selected. A single fibre is secured between two clamps on retort stands. Masses are added to the lower clamp in small, equal increments (e.g., 10g) until the fibre snaps. The mass required to break the fibre is recorded. To ensure safety, eye protection is worn to shield against snapping fibres, and a padded box is placed underneath the weights to catch them when they fall. To ensure reliability, the procedure is repeated with at least 5 fibres of each species to calculate a mean. Part (b): Calculation of Mean Cross-Sectional Area: Method 1 (Individual areas first): r1 = 0.12, A1 = 0.04524 mm\(^{2}\); r2 = 0.10, A2 = 0.03142 mm\(^{2}\); r3 = 0.13, A3 = 0.05309 mm\(^{2}\); r4 = 0.11, A4 = 0.03801 mm\(^{2}\); r5 = 0.125, A5 = 0.04909 mm\(^{2}\). Mean Area = \((0.04524 + 0.03142 + 0.05309 + 0.03801 + 0.04909) / 5 = 0.04337\) mm\(^{2}\), which rounds to 0.0434 mm\(^{2}\) (to 3 s.f.). Method 2 (From mean radius): Mean diameter = \(0.234\) mm, mean radius = \(0.117\) mm. Mean Area = \(3.1416 \times 0.117^{2} = 0.0430\) mm\(^{2}\) (to 3 s.f.). Calculation of Mean Tensile Strength: Mean breaking mass = \((280 + 210 + 310 + 250 + 290) / 5 = 268\) g. Using Area 0.0434 mm\(^{2}\): \(\text{Tensile strength} = 268 / 0.0434 = 6175.1\) g mm\(^{-2}\) \(\approx 6180\) g mm\(^{-2}\). Using Area 0.0430 mm\(^{2}\): \(\text{Tensile strength} = 268 / 0.0430 = 6232.6\) g mm\(^{-2}\) \(\approx 6230\) g mm\(^{-2}\). Part (c): Both sclerenchyma and xylem vessels possess thickened secondary cell walls heavily impregnated with lignin. Lignin is a tough, rigid polymer that provides strong compressive strength and structural reinforcement. The cellulose microfibrils in these walls are arranged in a helical or cross-ply arrangement, which maximizes tensile strength and prevents tearing. The cells are dead and hollow at maturity, forming continuous longitudinal tubes/columns that distribute structural loads along the plant axis.

評分準則

Part (a) (6 marks max): 1. Description of extraction of fibres by retting and scraping (1 mark). 2. Control of length and age of fibres (1 mark). 3. Suspend fibre between clamps and add masses in small, regular increments until the fibre breaks (1 mark). 4. Use a micrometer/screw gauge to measure fibre diameter to calculate cross-sectional area (1 mark). 5. Safety: Wear goggles to protect eyes AND use a cushioned box to catch falling masses (1 mark). 6. Reliability: Repeat with at least 5 fibres of each plant type and calculate a mean (1 mark). Part (b) (6 marks max): [Area calculation (3 marks)]: 1. Show working of radius or area calculations for fibres (1 mark). 2. Correct mean area value: 0.0434 mm\(^{2}\) OR 0.0430 mm\(^{2}\) (1 mark). 3. Correct rounding to 3 significant figures (1 mark). [Tensile strength calculation (3 marks)]: 4. Correct mean breaking mass = 268 g (1 mark). 5. Correct formula used: \(\text{Mean mass} / \text{Mean area}\) (1 mark). 6. Correct final value with units: \(6175\text{ to }6180\text{ g mm}^{-2}\) (if using 0.0434) OR \(6230\text{ to }6233\text{ g mm}^{-2}\) (if using 0.0430) (1 mark). Part (c) (4.6 marks max): 1. Sclerenchyma and xylem possess thick secondary cell walls (1 mark). 2. The cell walls are lignified / contain lignin which provides stiffness and compressive strength (1 mark). 3. Cellulose microfibrils are arranged in a helical / cross-ply mesh network (1 mark). 4. Hydrogen bonds between cellulose chains provide high tensile strength to prevent stretching (1 mark). 5. Cells are dead and arranged end-to-end to form hollow/solid continuous columns along the stem axis (1 mark).

部分 Unit 4: Energy, Environment, Microbiology and Immunity

Answer all questions. Write your answers in the spaces provided.
9 題目 · 90
題目 1 · structured
10
A group of students investigated the Hill reaction in isolated chloroplasts. They used DCPIP (dichlorophenolindophenol) as an artificial electron acceptor.

(a) Explain why DCPIP decolourises when added to active isolated chloroplasts in the presence of light. [3 marks]

(b) The students measured the time taken for DCPIP to decolourise at two different light intensities. At 500 lux, the mean time was 120 seconds. At 1500 lux, the mean time was 40 seconds. Calculate the rate of reaction at both light intensities in \(\text{s}^{-1}\), and calculate the percentage increase in the rate of reaction from 500 lux to 1500 lux. Show your working. [3 marks]

(c) Explain how the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis rely on the products of the light-dependent reactions to produce hexose sugars. [4 marks]
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解題

(a) DCPIP acts as an artificial electron acceptor. In the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis, water is split by photolysis, releasing protons and electrons. These electrons are excited by light energy and passed along an electron transport chain. DCPIP accepts these electrons, becoming reduced and changing colour from blue to colourless.

(b) Rate of reaction = \(1 / \text{time}\)
Rate at 500 lux = \(1 / 120\text{ s} = 0.0083\text{ s}^{-1}\) (or \(8.33 \times 10^{-3}\))
Rate at 1500 lux = \(1 / 40\text{ s} = 0.0250\text{ s}^{-1}\) (or \(2.50 \times 10^{-2}\))
Percentage increase in rate = \(\frac{0.0250 - 0.0083}{0.0083} \times 100\% = 200\%\) (using exact fractions: \(\frac{1/40 - 1/120}{1/120} \times 100\% = 200\%\))

(c) The light-dependent reactions produce ATP and reduced NADP (NADPH). In the Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions), carbon dioxide combines with RuBP to form GP, a reaction catalysed by the enzyme RuBisCO. ATP and reduced NADP are then required to reduce GP to GALP. ATP provides the necessary chemical energy, and reduced NADP provides the hydrogen/electrons. Two out of every twelve GALP molecules are then used to synthesise hexose sugars, such as glucose.

評分準則

(a) Max 3 marks:
1. DCPIP acts as an electron acceptor [1].
2. Light-dependent reaction produces electrons/hydrogen ions via photolysis of water [1].
3. Electrons are passed down the electron transport chain [1].
4. Reduction of DCPIP causes it to change from blue to colourless [1].

(b) Max 3 marks:
1. Correct calculation of rates: \(0.0083\text{ s}^{-1}\) and \(0.0250\text{ s}^{-1}\) [1].
2. Correct method for calculating percentage increase: \(\frac{\text{Rate}_{1500} - \text{Rate}_{500}}{\text{Rate}_{500}} \times 100\) [1].
3. Correct answer of \(200\%\) (accept answers in range \(199\% - 201\%\) due to rounding) [1].

(c) Max 4 marks:
1. Light-dependent reactions produce ATP and reduced NADP / NADPH [1].
2. RuBP combines with \(\text{CO}_2\) to form GP [1].
3. ATP and reduced NADP are used to reduce GP to GALP [1].
4. ATP provides the necessary energy and reduced NADP provides the hydrogen / electrons [1].
5. GALP is converted to hexose sugars / glucose [1].
題目 2 · structured
10
An investigation was conducted to compare the efficacy of two antibiotics, Antibiotic X and Antibiotic Y, against *Escherichia coli*.

(a) Distinguish between a bactericidal antibiotic and a bacteriostatic antibiotic. [2 marks]

(b) Antibiotics were added to growing cultures of *E. coli* after 3 hours of incubation. For Antibiotic X, the number of viable bacteria decreased rapidly to zero within 2 hours. For Antibiotic Y, the number of viable bacteria remained constant at the level measured at 3 hours, while the control culture (no antibiotic) continued to grow. Identify which antibiotic is bactericidal and which is bacteriostatic, explaining your answer. [4 marks]

(c) Describe how natural selection can lead to an increase in the proportion of bacteria that are resistant to Antibiotic X. [4 marks]
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解題

(a) Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria, whereas bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit the growth and reproduction of bacteria without killing them.

(b) Antibiotic X is bactericidal because the number of viable bacteria decreases to zero, indicating that the bacteria are being killed. Antibiotic Y is bacteriostatic because the number of viable cells remains constant, indicating that reproduction/growth is prevented but existing cells are not killed.

(c) A random mutation occurs in a bacterium, creating an allele for resistance to Antibiotic X. When Antibiotic X is applied, it acts as a selection pressure. Non-resistant bacteria are killed, while the resistant bacterium survives. The resistant bacterium reproduces by binary fission, passing on the resistance allele to its offspring. Over generations, the frequency of the resistance allele increases in the population.

評分準則

(a) Max 2 marks:
1. Bactericidal kills bacteria [1].
2. Bacteriostatic inhibits growth/reproduction [1].

(b) Max 4 marks:
1. Antibiotic X is bactericidal [1].
2. Explanation: because the viable cell count decreases / cells are killed [1].
3. Antibiotic Y is bacteriostatic [1].
4. Explanation: because the cell count remains constant / replication is halted but cells do not die [1].

(c) Max 4 marks:
1. Mutation occurs producing a resistant allele/gene [1].
2. Antibiotic X acts as a selection pressure [1].
3. Resistant bacteria survive, whilst non-resistant bacteria are killed [1].
4. Surviving resistant bacteria reproduce (asexually/by binary fission) [1].
5. Resistant allele is passed on to offspring / vertical gene transfer [1].
6. Frequency of resistance allele increases in the population over time [1].
題目 3 · structured
10
Tree-ring analysis (dendrochronology) is a key tool in reconstructing past climates.

(a) Explain how dendrochronology can be used as evidence for climate change. [3 marks]

(b) A core sample from a Scots pine (*Pinus sylvestris*) showed a mean annual ring width of 1.25 mm during a warm 30-year period, compared to a mean annual ring width of 0.80 mm during a cooler 30-year period. Calculate the percentage difference in ring width between these two periods, using the cooler period as the baseline. Show your working. [3 marks]

(c) Explain how scientists can use core samples from peat bogs as alternative or additional evidence for climate change. [4 marks]
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解題

(a) Every year, trees produce a new layer of xylem (growth ring) under the bark. The width of this ring depends on environmental conditions, particularly temperature and water availability. Wider rings indicate warmer, wetter growing seasons, while narrower rings indicate cooler, drier seasons. By counting and measuring rings, scientists can reconstruct a chronological record of annual temperature and climate variations over hundreds of years.

(b) Baseline = \(0.80\text{ mm}\)
Difference = \(1.25\text{ mm} - 0.80\text{ mm} = 0.45\text{ mm}\)
Percentage difference = \(\frac{0.45}{0.80} \times 100\% = 56.25\%\)

(c) Peat bogs are anaerobic and acidic, which prevents decomposition of organic matter. Pollen grains are preserved in these layers because of their decay-resistant outer walls. Scientists can extract core samples from peat bogs and identify the types of plant pollen present in different layers (deeper layers represent older periods). Since different plant species grow in specific climatic conditions, changes in the abundance of pollen types over time indicate changes in the historical climate of that area.

評分準則

(a) Max 3 marks:
1. New xylem vessel layer / ring produced each year [1].
2. Ring width depends on temperature / rainfall / environmental factors [1].
3. Wider rings mean warmer / wetter conditions (better growth) [1].
4. Counting rings gives age / timeline, allowing reconstruction of historical temperature changes [1].

(b) Max 3 marks:
1. Difference calculated: \(0.45\text{ mm}\) [1].
2. Percentage calculation: \(\frac{0.45}{0.80} \times 100\) [1].
3. Correct final answer: \(56.25\%\) [1].

(c) Max 4 marks:
1. Peat bogs have anaerobic / acidic conditions that inhibit decomposition [1].
2. Pollen grains are well preserved (due to tough outer walls) [1].
3. Core samples show different layers representing different periods of time / deeper layers are older [1].
4. Identify plant species from pollen [1].
5. Changes in pollen types reflect changes in vegetation, which indicates changes in climate / temperature [1].
題目 4 · structured
10
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infects specific cells of the immune system, leading to AIDS.

(a) Describe how HIV infects and replicates inside T helper cells. [3 marks]

(b) Explain why a decline in the population of T helper cells leads to a decrease in the production of antibodies against other pathogens. [3 marks]

(c) Describe the role of memory cells in the secondary immune response and explain why patients with AIDS fail to show a secondary immune response when exposed to a common pathogen. [4 marks]
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解題

(a) HIV's gp120 glycoprotein binds to the CD4 receptor on the cell membrane of the T helper cell. The viral envelope fuses with the cell membrane, releasing viral RNA and enzymes (reverse transcriptase and integrase) into the cytoplasm. Reverse transcriptase copies viral RNA into DNA. Integrase inserts this viral DNA into the host cell's genome. The host cell then transcribes and translates this DNA, producing new viral proteins and RNA, which assemble and bud off, destroying the host cell.

(b) T helper cells release cytokines (such as interleukins). Cytokines are required to activate B cells and stimulate them to divide by mitosis (clonal expansion). Activated B cells differentiate into plasma cells, which produce and secrete antibodies. Therefore, fewer T helper cells mean less cytokines, less B cell activation, fewer plasma cells, and significantly reduced antibody production.

(c) Memory cells remain in the blood/lymph after an initial infection. Upon re-infection with the same pathogen, memory B cells recognize the antigen and rapidly differentiate into plasma cells, whilst memory T cells rapidly divide into active T helper and killer cells, producing a faster and larger response. In AIDS patients, there is a lack of functional T helper cells to secrete cytokines to stimulate these memory B cells and memory T cells to replicate and differentiate, so the rapid secondary response cannot occur.

評分準則

(a) Max 3 marks:
1. gp120 (on virus) binds to CD4 receptor (on T helper cell) [1].
2. Fusion of viral envelope with cell membrane / viral RNA enters cell [1].
3. Reverse transcriptase copies viral RNA into viral DNA [1].
4. Integrase inserts viral DNA into host genome [1].
5. Transcription/translation produces new viral components which assemble and bud [1].

(b) Max 3 marks:
1. T helper cells produce/release cytokines (interleukins) [1].
2. Cytokines activate B cells / stimulate clonal expansion of B cells [1].
3. B cells differentiate into plasma cells [1].
4. Plasma cells produce and secrete antibodies [1].

(c) Max 4 marks:
1. Memory cells persist after the primary infection [1].
2. On re-infection, they recognize the specific antigen [1].
3. Memory B/T cells divide/differentiate rapidly, producing a quicker, larger antibody response [1].
4. In AIDS, the lack of T helper cells means no/insufficient cytokines are produced [1].
5. This prevents clonal expansion/differentiation of memory cells [1].
題目 5 · structured
10
Primary succession is the process of ecosystem development on newly formed land, such as a volcanic island.

(a) Explain the stages of primary succession that lead to the establishment of a climax community on bare volcanic rock. [4 marks]

(b) Describe two characteristics of pioneer species that make them successful colonisers of bare rock. [2 marks]

(c) Explain how biotic and abiotic factors change as primary succession progresses from the pioneer stage to the climax community. [4 marks]
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解題

(a) Succession begins with colonisation of bare rock by pioneer species (e.g., lichens and mosses). These organisms break down the rock physically and chemically. When they die and decompose, they form basic soil (humus). This soil allows wind-blown seeds of small plants/herbs to germinate. These plants grow, die, and enrich the soil further, increasing water-holding capacity and mineral content. Larger shrubs and then trees can now grow, outcompeting the earlier colonizers. Eventually, a stable, self-sustaining climax community is established, dominated by mature trees.

(b) Pioneer species typically have wind-dispersed spores/seeds (allowing them to reach remote bare rock), the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen (as the substrate lacks nutrients), and high tolerance to extreme temperatures and lack of water.

(c) Abiotic changes: soil depth increases, soil water-holding capacity increases, nutrient concentration (nitrogen, phosphorus) increases, wind speed at ground level decreases, and light intensity at the forest floor decreases due to canopy shade.
Biotic changes: species richness/biodiversity increases, biomass increases, food webs become more complex, and competition for light/space increases.

評分準則

(a) Max 4 marks:
1. Pioneer species (lichens/mosses) colonise bare rock [1].
2. Pioneer species die and decompose, forming organic matter / humus / primitive soil [1].
3. Larger plants (herbs/shrubs) can now grow in the soil [1].
4. Soil depth and nutrient availability increase, allowing trees to grow [1].
5. Climax community is reached, which is stable and dominated by a few dominant species [1].

(b) Max 2 marks:
1. Ability to photosynthesise / autotrophic [1].
2. Wind-dispersed spores/seeds to travel long distances [1].
3. Nitrogen-fixing ability [1].
4. High tolerance to extreme conditions (dryness/high light/low nutrients) [1].

(c) Max 4 marks:
1. Abiotic: Soil depth and nutrient/organic matter content increase [1].
2. Abiotic: Water retention increases [1].
3. Biotic: Biodiversity / species richness increases [1].
4. Biotic: Biomass increases [1].
5. Biotic: Food webs become more complex / more niches available [1].
6. Biotic: Interspecific competition increases [1].
題目 6 · structured
10
Forensic entomology and body cooling are used by forensic scientists to estimate the post-mortem interval (PMI) of a deceased individual.

(a) Describe how the internal temperature of a body changes after death and explain how this can be used to estimate the time of death, stating two factors that affect this process. [3 marks]

(b) At a crime scene, a forensic scientist found blowfly (*Calliphora vicina*) larvae on a corpse. The mean length of the larvae was 15.0 mm. Under laboratory conditions at a constant temperature of \(18^\circ\text{C}\), these larvae grow from hatching at a rate of 1.25 mm per day. The eggs take exactly 36 hours to hatch at this temperature. Calculate the minimum time since death in days, assuming the temperature has been constant at \(18^\circ\text{C}\) and eggs were laid immediately after death. Show your working. [3 marks]

(c) Explain how succession on a corpse differs from primary succession on bare rock, and how forensic entomologists use insect succession to estimate PMI. [4 marks]
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解題

(a) After death, the body's metabolic processes stop, and the core body temperature falls from normal (approx. \(37^\circ\text{C}\)) until it reaches ambient temperature. Forensic scientists use a cooling curve (algor mortis) to estimate PMI. Factors affecting the rate of cooling include: body mass/size, surface area-to-volume ratio, ambient temperature, air currents, clothing, and whether the body is immersed in water.

(b) 1. Growth since hatching = 15.0 mm.
2. Time spent growing as larvae = \(\frac{15.0\text{ mm}}{1.25\text{ mm day}^{-1}} = 12\text{ days}\).
3. Time for eggs to hatch = 36 hours = \(\frac{36}{24}\text{ days} = 1.5\text{ days}\).
4. Total minimum time since death = \(12\text{ days} + 1.5\text{ days} = 13.5\text{ days}\).

(c) Differences in succession: 1. A corpse is a finite, rich organic resource, whereas bare rock is an inorganic substrate. 2. Succession on a corpse is rapid (days to weeks), whereas succession on rock is very slow (hundreds of years). 3. The climax community on a corpse is the complete consumption/decay of the body, whereas on rock it is a stable forest ecosystem.
Using succession for PMI: Different insect species colonise the body in a predictable sequence (e.g., blowflies first, then beetles, then mites). By identifying the specific species present and their developmental stages, forensic scientists can estimate how long the body has been decomposing.

評分準則

(a) Max 3 marks:
1. Core body temperature drops from \(37^\circ\text{C}\) to ambient temperature [1].
2. Follows a sigmoidal cooling curve / algor mortis [1].
3. Correct factors (any two): body size/mass, fat/clothing, air movement/wind, immersion in water, ambient temperature [1].

(b) Max 3 marks:
1. Calculates larval stage duration: \(15.0 / 1.25 = 12\text{ days}\) [1].
2. Converts egg hatching time to days: \(36 / 24 = 1.5\text{ days}\) [1].
3. Adds both durations to get correct final answer: \(13.5\text{ days}\) [1].

(c) Max 4 marks:
1. Corpse succession is on organic matter / rock succession is on inorganic material [1].
2. Corpse succession is fast/short-term, rock succession is extremely slow/long-term [1].
3. Corpse succession has no permanent climax community / ends when resource is depleted [1].
4. Insects arrive in a predictable sequence / succession of species [1].
5. Presence of specific species/stages indicates the time elapsed since death [1].
題目 7 · structured
10
Energy transfer in ecosystems can be quantified using productivity measurements.

(a) Define Net Primary Productivity (NPP) and write the mathematical equation that relates NPP to Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) and respiration (R). [3 marks]

(b) In a grassland ecosystem, the total solar energy falling on the grass canopy is \(2.0 \times 10^6\text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\). Only \(1.5\%\) of this solar energy is converted into GPP. The grass loses \(60\%\) of this GPP through respiration.
(i) Calculate the GPP of the grassland in \(\text{kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\). [1 mark]
(ii) Calculate the NPP of this grassland in \(\text{kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\). Show your working. [3 marks]

(c) Explain why the efficiency of energy transfer from primary consumers to secondary consumers is typically higher than from producers to primary consumers. [3 marks]
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解題

(a) Net Primary Productivity (NPP) is the energy or biomass that remains in primary producers after accounting for respiratory losses. It represents the energy available to the next trophic level. Equation: \(NPP = GPP - R\).

(b) (i) \(GPP = 2.0 \times 10^6 \times 0.015 = 30,000\text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\) (or \(3.0 \times 10^4\)).
(ii) Respiration loss (R) = \(60\%\) of GPP = \(0.60 \times 30,000 = 18,000\text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\).
Therefore, \(NPP = GPP - R = 30,000 - 18,000 = 12,000\text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\) (or \(1.2 \times 10^4\)).

(c) Plants (producers) contain a high proportion of indigestible materials, such as cellulose, lignin, and woody tissues, which are lost in faeces. Animals (primary consumers) are made of highly digestible proteins and lipids. Therefore, secondary consumers can digest and absorb a larger percentage of the food they ingest, resulting in a higher efficiency of energy transfer.

評分準則

(a) Max 3 marks:
1. NPP is the energy / biomass stored in plant tissues / available to consumers [1].
2. After subtracting respiration / respiratory loss [1].
3. Equation: \(NPP = GPP - R\) [1].

(b) Max 4 marks:
1. Correct calculation of GPP: \(30,000\text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\) [1].
2. Correct method for calculating R (\(0.60 \times \text{GPP}\)) or NPP directly (\(0.40 \times \text{GPP}\)) [1].
3. Subtraction step shown [1].
4. Correct NPP: \(12,000\text{ kJ m}^{-2}\text{ yr}^{-1}\) (or \(1.2 \times 10^4\)) [1].

(c) Max 3 marks:
1. Producers contain cellulose / lignin / cell walls which are indigestible [1].
2. Much of plant material is lost as waste / faeces / egested [1].
3. Primary consumers (animals) consist of proteins/lipids which are easier to digest [1].
4. More of the food is absorbed/assimilated by secondary consumers [1].
題目 8 · structured
10
The body responds to injury and infection through non-specific immune mechanisms.

(a) Describe the role of histamines in the inflammatory response following a skin cut. [3 marks]

(b) Explain the sequence of events during phagocytosis, from the point where a bacterium is detected to its destruction. [4 marks]

(c) Distinguish between the role of lysosomes in phagocytes and the role of interferon in a viral infection. [3 marks]
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解題

(a) Histamines are released by mast cells and basophils in response to tissue damage. Histamines cause local arterioles to dilate (vasodilation), increasing blood flow to the infected area (causing redness and heat). They also increase the permeability of local capillaries, allowing plasma, white blood cells (neutrophils and macrophages), and antibodies to leak into the tissue (causing swelling and pain).

(b) 1. Phagocytes (e.g., macrophages) detect chemicals released by bacteria or foreign antigens. 2. The phagocyte moves towards the bacterium and binds to it. 3. The phagocyte's membrane engulfs the bacterium by endocytosis, enclosing it in a vesicle called a phagosome. 4. Lysosomes fuse with the phagosome to form a phagolysosome. 5. Hydrolytic/lytic enzymes (such as lysozyme) from the lysosome digest and destroy the bacterium. 6. Soluble waste products are absorbed or released by exocytosis.

(c) Lysosomes are organelles within phagocytes that contain digestive enzymes (like lysozymes) to break down engulfed cellular pathogens (like bacteria) inside the cell. Interferon, on the other hand, is a chemical (protein) signal released by virus-infected host cells. It diffuses to neighbouring uninfected cells, where it stimulates them to produce antiviral proteins that inhibit viral replication/translation, preventing the spread of the virus.

評分準則

(a) Max 3 marks:
1. Histamines released by mast cells / basophils [1].
2. Cause vasodilation / dilation of arterioles, increasing blood flow [1].
3. Increase capillary permeability [1].
4. Allow white blood cells / antibodies / plasma to leak into the tissue / cause swelling [1].

(b) Max 4 marks:
1. Phagocyte is attracted to chemicals / antigens of the bacterium [1].
2. Phagocyte cell membrane engulfs the bacterium [1].
3. Bacterium is enclosed in a vesicle / phagosome [1].
4. Lysosomes fuse with the phagosome (to form phagolysosome) [1].
5. Digestive enzymes / lysozymes destroy/digest the bacterium [1].

(c) Max 3 marks:
1. Lysosomes are intracellular organelles containing enzymes that digest pathogens [1].
2. Interferons are proteins / signalling molecules released by virus-infected cells [1].
3. Interferons act on neighbouring uninfected cells to prevent viral replication [1].
題目 9 · Structured
10
Researchers investigated the effect of a novel herbicide, Compound X, on the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis in isolated spinach (Spinacia oleracea) chloroplasts.

Part (a) [1 mark]
Identify the precise location of the electron transport chain involved in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis.
Select one option:
A. Stroma
B. Inner mitochondrial membrane
C. Thylakoid membrane
D. Outer chloroplast membrane

Part (b) [3 marks]
In a control experiment without Compound X, chloroplasts containing 0.15 mg of chlorophyll produced 48.6 μmol of \(\text{O}_2\) over a period of 12 minutes at 25 °C.
Calculate the rate of oxygen production for these control chloroplasts in \(\mu\text{mol}\text{ mg}^{-1}\text{ chlorophyll hour}^{-1}\). Show your working.

Part (c) [6 marks]
Compound X works by binding to plastoquinone (PQ), preventing the transfer of electrons from Photosystem II (PSII) to the rest of the electron transport chain.
Explain the effects of Compound X on the synthesis of ATP and reduced NADP in the light-dependent stage, and how this subsequently affects the light-independent stage (Calvin cycle) of photosynthesis.
  1. A.Stroma
  2. B.Inner mitochondrial membrane
  3. C.Thylakoid membrane
  4. D.Outer chloroplast membrane
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解題

Part (a)
The correct option is C. The electron transport chain and photosystems involved in light-dependent reactions are located within the thylakoid membranes of the chloroplast.

Part (b)
To calculate the rate in \(\mu\text{mol}\text{ mg}^{-1}\text{ chlorophyll hour}^{-1}\):
1. Calculate oxygen produced per minute:
\(48.6\ \mu\text{mol} / 12\text{ minutes} = 4.05\ \mu\text{mol min}^{-1}\)
2. Divide by the mass of chlorophyll to get the rate per mg chlorophyll:
\(4.05\ \mu\text{mol min}^{-1} / 0.15\text{ mg} = 27\ \mu\text{mol}\text{ mg}^{-1}\text{ min}^{-1}\)
3. Convert minutes to hours (multiply by 60):
\(27 \times 60 = 1620\ \mu\text{mol}\text{ mg}^{-1}\text{ hour}^{-1}\)
Alternative method:
12 minutes is equal to \(12 / 60 = 0.2\text{ hours}\).
Oxygen produced per hour = \(48.6 / 0.2 = 243\ \mu\text{mol hour}^{-1}\).
Rate per mg chlorophyll = \(243 / 0.15 = 1620\ \mu\text{mol}\text{ mg}^{-1}\text{ hour}^{-1}\).

Part (c)
1. Because Compound X blocks electron transfer from PSII, non-cyclic photophosphorylation is stopped.
2. No electrons flow down the electron transport chain, so no energy is released to pump protons (\(\text{H}^+\)) into the thylakoid space.
3. This prevents the generation of a proton gradient (electrochemical gradient) across the thylakoid membrane.
4. Therefore, there is no flow of protons through ATP synthase (chemiosmosis), meaning ADP cannot be phosphorylated to form ATP.
5. Electrons do not reach Photosystem I (PSI) to reduce \(\text{NADP}^+\), so no reduced NADP (NADPH) is formed.
6. In the light-independent stage (Calvin cycle), the absence of ATP and reduced NADP prevents the reduction of GP (glycerate 3-phosphate) to GALP (glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate).
7. Furthermore, regeneration of RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate) from GALP requires ATP, which is unavailable, causing the Calvin cycle to stop and halting the synthesis of organic substances (like glucose).

評分準則

Part (a) [1 mark]
• C (Thylakoid membrane) [1]

Part (b) [3 marks]
M1: Attempt to divide oxygen volume by time AND mass of chlorophyll (e.g., \(48.6 / (12 \times 0.15)\)) [1]
M2: Correct conversion of time unit from minutes to hours (either multiplying intermediate rate by 60 or dividing time in minutes by 60) [1]
A1: Correct final value of 1620 [1]
Note: Award full 3 marks for correct unsupported answer of 1620.

Part (c) [6 marks]
Award up to a maximum of 6 marks from the following points:
• 1. Electron flow along the transport chain (from PSII to PSI) is blocked / non-cyclic photophosphorylation is inhibited [1]
• 2. No energy is released to pump protons (\(\text{H}^+\)) into the thylakoid space / thylakoid lumen [1]
• 3. No proton/electrochemical gradient is established across the thylakoid membrane [1]
• 4. No flow of protons through ATP synthase / no chemiosmosis, so ATP is not synthesised [1]
• 5. No electrons are available to reduce \(\text{NADP}^+\) / no reduced NADP is produced [1]
• 6. Without ATP and reduced NADP, GP cannot be reduced/converted to GALP [1] (Accept: triose phosphate/TP)
• 7. Without ATP, RuBP cannot be regenerated (from GALP) [1]
• 8. Therefore, the Calvin cycle stops / production of organic molecules (e.g., glucose) ceases [1]

部分 Unit 5: Respiration, Internal Environment, Coordination and Gene Technology

Answer all questions. Write your answers in the spaces provided.
8 題目 · 90
題目 1 · 選擇題
11.25
A scientist measures the oxygen consumption of isolated mitochondria. Pyruvate and ADP are added at the start. After a period, a drug that specifically inhibits the electron transport chain complex IV (cytochrome c oxidase) is introduced. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the immediate effect on the proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane, the rate of oxygen consumption, and the pH of the mitochondrial matrix?
  1. A.Proton gradient decreases, oxygen consumption decreases, matrix pH increases.
  2. B.Proton gradient decreases, oxygen consumption decreases, matrix pH decreases.
  3. C.Proton gradient increases, oxygen consumption increases, matrix pH increases.
  4. D.Proton gradient increases, oxygen consumption decreases, matrix pH decreases.
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解題

When complex IV (cytochrome c oxidase) is inhibited, electrons cannot be transferred to oxygen, the final electron acceptor, which immediately stops oxygen consumption. Because the electron transport chain is halted, protons are no longer pumped from the mitochondrial matrix into the intermembrane space. Consequently, the electrochemical proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane decreases as protons continue to flow back into the matrix through ATP synthase (or leak across the membrane) without being replenished. As protons accumulate in the matrix, the concentration of hydrogen ions increases, which causes the pH of the mitochondrial matrix to decrease.

評分準則

Total marks: 11.25. [Mark 1]: Correct option choice B (1.25 marks). [Mark 2]: Identifying that inhibiting complex IV stops the final step of the electron transport chain, thus decreasing oxygen consumption (2.5 marks). [Mark 3]: Explaining that halting electron transport stops active proton pumping, leading to a decrease in the proton gradient (3.75 marks). [Mark 4]: Deducing that the influx of protons back into the matrix without pumping increases the proton concentration, thereby decreasing the matrix pH (3.75 marks).
題目 2 · 選擇題
11.25
During exercise, human body temperature rises, triggering homeostatic mechanisms to restore normalcy. Which of the following sequence of events correctly describes the response of the mammalian body to a rise in core temperature detected by the thermoregulatory center?
  1. A.Hypothalamus detects change -> sympathetic stimulation of sweat glands increases -> vasodilation of shunt vessels -> increased heat loss by radiation.
  2. B.Hypothalamus detects change -> decreased sympathetic stimulation of skin arteriole smooth muscle -> vasodilation of arterioles -> increased blood flow to capillaries near skin surface -> increased heat loss.
  3. C.Pituitary gland detects change -> increased parasympathetic stimulation of shunt vessels -> vasoconstriction of shunt vessels -> decreased blood flow to skin capillaries.
  4. D.Hypothalamus detects change -> increased sympathetic stimulation of skin arteriole smooth muscle -> vasoconstriction of arterioles -> decreased blood flow to skin capillaries.
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解題

An increase in core body temperature is detected by thermoreceptors in the hypothalamus. To facilitate heat loss, the hypothalamus sends nerve impulses that lead to a decrease in sympathetic stimulation of the smooth muscle in skin arterioles. This causes the smooth muscle to relax, resulting in vasodilation of these arterioles. More blood is thus diverted to the superficial capillaries near the skin surface, increasing heat loss via radiation and convection. At the same time, shunt vessels must constrict to prevent blood from bypassing the superficial capillaries.

評分準則

Total marks: 11.25. [Mark 1]: Correct option choice B (1.25 marks). [Mark 2]: Stating that the hypothalamus is the thermoregulatory center detecting the core temperature change (2.5 marks). [Mark 3]: Describing that vasodilation of skin arterioles is mediated by a decrease in sympathetic nerve activity to the vascular smooth muscle (3.75 marks). [Mark 4]: Linking increased blood flow through superficial capillaries near the skin surface to enhanced heat loss via radiation/convection (3.75 marks).
題目 3 · 選擇題
11.25
A muscle fiber is treated with a non-competitive inhibitor of the calcium-ATPase (SERCA) pump located in the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Which of the following best describes the immediate and long-term consequences of this inhibition on muscle contraction and relaxation after a single action potential has arrived at the neuromuscular junction?
  1. A.Muscle relaxation is accelerated because calcium ions remain in the sarcoplasm, keeping troponin activated.
  2. B.The muscle remains in a prolonged state of contraction (failure to relax) because calcium ions cannot be pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, keeping binding sites on actin exposed.
  3. C.Muscle contraction is completely prevented because calcium ions cannot be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to bind to tropomyosin.
  4. D.The muscle undergoes rapid, repeated cycles of contraction and relaxation because ATP is conserved by not running the calcium pump.
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解題

During muscle contraction, an action potential triggers the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) into the sarcoplasm. These calcium ions bind to troponin, causing a conformational change that pulls tropomyosin away from the myosin-binding sites on the actin filament, allowing cross-bridges to form. In a normal muscle fiber, relaxation occurs when calcium-ATPase (SERCA) pumps actively transport calcium ions back into the SR. If these pumps are inhibited, calcium ions remain in high concentration in the sarcoplasm, keeping troponin activated and the binding sites on actin continuously exposed. Consequently, the muscle remains in a prolonged state of contraction and cannot relax.

評分準則

Total marks: 11.25. [Mark 1]: Correct option choice B (1.25 marks). [Mark 2]: Describing the role of calcium ions in binding to troponin and exposing myosin-binding sites on actin (3.5 marks). [Mark 3]: Explaining that the calcium-ATPase (SERCA) pump is responsible for active transport of calcium back into the SR to terminate contraction (3.5 marks). [Mark 4]: Deducing that inhibition of this pump prevents calcium reuptake, resulting in continuous activation of the sliding filament mechanism and failure to relax (3.0 marks).
題目 4 · 選擇題
11.25
An electrocardiogram (ECG) trace of a patient at rest shows that the distance between consecutive R waves (R-R interval) is 24 mm. The paper speed of the ECG recorder is set to 25 mm s\({}^{-1}\). During mild exercise, the patient's heart rate increases by 40%. Calculate the new heart rate of the patient during exercise (in beats per minute) and identify the state of the heart during the T wave of the ECG.
  1. A.87.5 beats per minute, ventricular repolarization (relaxation)
  2. B.87.5 beats per minute, ventricular depolarization (contraction)
  3. C.105.0 beats per minute, ventricular repolarization (relaxation)
  4. D.105.0 beats per minute, atrial depolarization (contraction)
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解題

1. Find the duration of one cardiac cycle at rest: \(\text{Time} = \frac{\text{Distance}}{\text{Paper Speed}} = \frac{24\text{ mm}}{25\text{ mm s}^{-1}} = 0.96\text{ s}\). 2. Calculate the resting heart rate: \(\text{Resting Heart Rate} = \frac{60\text{ s}}{0.96\text{ s beat}^{-1}} = 62.5\text{ beats per minute (bpm)}\). 3. Calculate the exercise heart rate with a 40% increase: \(\text{Exercise Heart Rate} = 62.5 \times 1.40 = 87.5\text{ bpm}\). 4. Identify the physiological event corresponding to the T wave: The T wave represents ventricular repolarization, which is the electrical signal triggering ventricular diastole (relaxation).

評分準則

Total marks: 11.25. [Mark 1]: Correct option choice A (1.25 marks). [Mark 2]: Correct calculation of resting cardiac cycle duration as \(0.96\text{ s}\) (3.0 marks). [Mark 3]: Correct calculation of resting heart rate as \(62.5\text{ bpm}\) (3.0 marks). [Mark 4]: Correct adjustment of heart rate by 40% to get \(87.5\text{ bpm}\) (2.0 marks). [Mark 5]: Correctly linking the T wave of the ECG to ventricular repolarization (relaxation) (2.0 marks).
題目 5 · 選擇題
11.25
A forensic scientist uses the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) to amplify a specific short tandem repeat (STR) locus from a minute sample of DNA. The starting sample contains exactly 15 molecules of double-stranded DNA. Assuming a 100% amplification efficiency, how many copies of the target double-stranded DNA sequence will be present after 30 cycles of PCR, and what is the role of the forward and reverse primers in this reaction?
  1. A.\(1.61 \times 10^{10}\) copies; they bind to the flanking regions of the target DNA and provide a 3'-OH group for DNA polymerase.
  2. B.\(4.50 \times 10^{2}\) copies; they denature the double-stranded DNA at high temperatures to allow strand separation.
  3. C.\(1.61 \times 10^{10}\) copies; they act as restriction enzymes to cleave the DNA at specific palindromic sequences.
  4. D.\(3.22 \times 10^{10}\) copies; they prevent the separated DNA strands from reannealing during the cooling phase.
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解題

1. The number of DNA molecules doubles with each PCR cycle. The formula is \(N = N_0 \times 2^n\), where \(N_0\) is the initial number of molecules (15) and \(n\) is the number of cycles (30). 2. \(N = 15 \times 2^{30} = 15 \times 1,073,741,824 = 16,106,127,360\) molecules, which is approximately \(1.61 \times 10^{10}\) copies. 3. Primers are short, single-stranded sequences of DNA that are complementary to the flanking regions of the target sequence. They anneal to the single strands of DNA during the cooling phase and provide a free 3'-hydroxyl (-OH) group which is absolutely required by DNA polymerase to begin synthesizing the new complementary DNA strands.

評分準則

Total marks: 11.25. [Mark 1]: Correct option choice A (1.25 marks). [Mark 2]: Using the correct exponential formula \(15 \times 2^{30}\) to calculate the yield (3.5 marks). [Mark 3]: Arriving at the correct mathematical value of \(1.61 \times 10^{10}\) copies (3.5 marks). [Mark 4]: Correctly identifying the function of primers in providing a 3'-OH group for DNA polymerase to bind and initiate elongation (3.0 marks).
題目 6 · 選擇題
11.25
The conduction velocity of an action potential along an axon is influenced by several factors, including myelination and temperature. Which of the following statements correctly explains how myelination and an increase in temperature affect the conduction velocity of an action potential?
  1. A.Myelination increases velocity by allowing local currents to flow continuously along the entire membrane, while higher temperature decreases velocity by denaturing sodium-potassium pumps.
  2. B.Myelination increases velocity by limiting depolarization to the Nodes of Ranvier (saltatory conduction), while higher temperature increases velocity by increasing the rate of diffusion of sodium and potassium ions.
  3. C.Myelination decreases velocity due to the high resistance of the myelin sheath, while higher temperature increases velocity by increasing the open-probability of voltage-gated channels.
  4. D.Myelination increases velocity by increasing the capacitance of the axon membrane, while higher temperature decreases velocity because kinetic energy reduces the stability of the lipid bilayer.
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解題

Myelination increases action potential conduction velocity because the myelin sheath acts as an electrical insulator, forcing depolarization to occur only at the unmyelinated Nodes of Ranvier where voltage-gated sodium channels are highly concentrated. This is saltatory conduction, which allows the local currents to jump from node to node, speeding up transmission. Temperature increases conduction velocity because higher thermal kinetic energy increases the rate of diffusion of sodium and potassium ions through their respective channel proteins, and accelerates the conformational changes of the channel gates, leading to faster depolarization and repolarization phases.

評分準則

Total marks: 11.25. [Mark 1]: Correct option choice B (1.25 marks). [Mark 2]: Explaining that myelination restricts depolarization to the Nodes of Ranvier, leading to saltatory conduction (3.5 marks). [Mark 3]: Explaining that myelin prevents leakage of ions across the axon membrane (3.0 marks). [Mark 4]: Detailing that increased temperature increases the kinetic energy and rate of diffusion of ions, accelerating action potential propagation (3.25 marks).
題目 7 · 選擇題
11.25
Phytochromes are photoreceptor proteins that regulate photoperiodic responses in plants. A short-day plant (which requires a long period of uninterrupted darkness to flower) is grown under a light-dark cycle. Which of the following light treatments during the middle of the dark period would prevent flowering in this short-day plant, and what is the state of the phytochrome system that prevents flowering?
  1. A.A brief flash of red light; this converts Pr to Pfr, and high levels of Pfr inhibit flowering in short-day plants.
  2. B.A brief flash of far-red light; this converts Pfr to Pr, and high levels of Pr inhibit flowering in short-day plants.
  3. C.A brief flash of red light followed immediately by a flash of far-red light; this converts Pr to Pfr and then back to Pr, leaving Pr as the dominant form which inhibits flowering.
  4. D.A brief flash of blue light; this activates cryptochromes which directly degrade florigen in the phloem.
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解題

Phytochromes exist in two interconvertible forms: Pr (inactive form, absorbs red light and is converted to Pfr) and Pfr (active form, absorbs far-red light and is converted to Pr). Short-day plants require a long night with very low levels of Pfr because Pfr acts as an inhibitor of flowering in these plants. During a long night, Pfr slowly and spontaneously reverts to Pr, dropping below the threshold needed to release the inhibition of flowering. A brief flash of red light in the middle of the night converts Pr back into Pfr, raising Pfr levels and inhibiting flowering. A subsequent flash of far-red light would reverse this effect, allowing flowering, but a single flash of red light prevents flowering by keeping Pfr levels high.

評分準則

Total marks: 11.25. [Mark 1]: Correct option choice A (1.25 marks). [Mark 2]: Stating that red light converts Pr to the active Pfr form (3.5 marks). [Mark 3]: Explaining that Pfr is an inhibitor of flowering in short-day plants (3.5 marks). [Mark 4]: Explaining that a dark period must be uninterrupted to allow spontaneous dark reversion of Pfr to Pr to trigger flowering (3.0 marks).
題目 8 · 選擇題
11.25
In recombinant DNA technology, the expression of a cloned human gene in eukaryotic host cells often requires the use of specific promoter regions and transcription factors. Which of the following correctly describes how transcription factors and epigenetic modifications regulate the transcription of a cloned gene in a eukaryotic host?
  1. A.Transcription factors bind to the promoter region to recruit RNA polymerase; histone acetylation relaxes chromatin structure, increasing transcription.
  2. B.Transcription factors bind directly to the exons of the gene to initiate translation; DNA methylation adds methyl groups to histones to promote transcription.
  3. C.Transcription factors act as restriction endonucleases to expose the promoter; histone deacetylation makes chromatin more accessible to RNA polymerase.
  4. D.Transcription factors bind to the stop codon to prevent premature termination; DNA methylation of CpG islands increases the binding affinity of RNA polymerase.
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解題

Transcription factors are proteins that bind to specific promoter regions on the DNA to initiate transcription by facilitating the recruitment and binding of RNA polymerase. Epigenetic modifications regulate how accessible this DNA is to transcription factors and RNA polymerase. Histone acetylation (the addition of acetyl groups to lysine residues on histone proteins) neutralizes the positive charge of the histones. This reduces their electrostatic attraction to the negatively charged phosphate backbone of DNA, causing the chromatin to relax (euchromatin) and allowing easy access for transcription machinery, thereby increasing transcription.

評分準則

Total marks: 11.25. [Mark 1]: Correct option choice A (1.25 marks). [Mark 2]: Describing the role of transcription factors in binding to promoter regions to recruit RNA polymerase (3.5 marks). [Mark 3]: Explaining how histone acetylation neutralizes the positive charge on histones, decreasing their affinity for DNA (3.5 marks). [Mark 4]: Linking the relaxed chromatin structure (euchromatin) to increased accessibility and transcription rate (3.0 marks).

部分 Unit 6: Practical Skills in Biology II

Answer all questions. Write your answers in the spaces provided.
4 題目 · 50
題目 1 · Extended Planning
12.5
Write a detailed experimental plan to investigate the effect of different concentrations of glucose on the rate of anaerobic respiration in yeast. Your plan should address:
1. The independent and dependent variables, including how they are manipulated and measured.
2. The experimental method used to ensure anaerobic conditions and measure the rate of respiration.
3. The key variables that must be controlled and how they will be controlled.
4. A safety hazard and its appropriate mitigation.
5. How to ensure the reliability of the results.
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解題

Refer to the marking scheme for the detailed experimental setup, step-by-step procedure, control methods, safety measures, and reliability steps required to secure all 12.5 marks.

評分準則

12.5 marks total:
- Independent variable (1 mark): at least 5 different concentrations of glucose (e.g., 0.1, 0.2, 0.3, 0.4, 0.5 mol dm^-3) prepared using serial dilution.
- Dependent variable (1 mark): rate of anaerobic respiration measured by the volume of carbon dioxide gas produced per unit time.
- Method for ensuring anaerobic conditions (2 marks): boil and cool the glucose solution to remove dissolved oxygen (1 mark); add a layer of liquid paraffin or paraffin oil on top of the yeast-glucose suspension to prevent oxygen entering (1 mark).
- Method for measuring rate (2 marks): use a gas syringe connected via a delivery tube to a sealed boiling tube containing the yeast and glucose (1 mark); record the volume of gas produced at regular intervals (e.g., every 2 minutes for 10 minutes) (1 mark).
- Control of temperature (1 mark): use a thermostatically controlled water bath kept at a constant temperature (e.g., 35 degrees C).
- Control of yeast suspension (1 mark): use a constant volume and concentration of yeast culture in each trial.
- Control experiment / Negative control (1 mark): replace the glucose solution with distilled water to show that gas production only occurs when a substrate is present.
- Reliability (1.5 marks): repeat the experiment at least three times at each glucose concentration (1 mark) to calculate mean rates and identify/exclude anomalous results (0.5 mark).
- Safety assessment (1 mark): wear safety goggles to protect eyes from yeast splashes, or wash hands to prevent skin irritation/allergic reactions from yeast contact (1 mark) or handling hot glassware with heat-resistant gloves (1 mark) (accept other valid safety points and corresponding actions).
題目 2 · Calculations and Analysis
12.5
An experiment was performed to investigate the effect of light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis in Canadian pondweed (Elodea). The distance (d) from a light source was varied, and the volume of gas produced in 5 minutes was recorded.

The data gathered is shown below:
- Distance d = 10 cm, volume of gas in 5 min = 0.50 cm^3
- Distance d = 20 cm, volume of gas in 5 min = 0.42 cm^3
- Distance d = 30 cm, volume of gas in 5 min = 0.25 cm^3
- Distance d = 40 cm, volume of gas in 5 min = 0.11 cm^3
- Distance d = 50 cm, volume of gas in 5 min = 0.04 cm^3

(a) Calculate the light intensity (I) for each distance using the formula \(I = \frac{1}{d^2}\) (give units as cm^-2), and calculate the rate of photosynthesis (in cm^3 min^-1).
(b) Describe and explain the trend shown by the data.
(c) Explain the purpose of adding sodium hydrogencarbonate solution to the boiling tube containing Elodea.
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解題

(a) Light intensity (1/d^2):
- d = 10 cm: 1/100 = 0.01 cm^-2
- d = 20 cm: 1/400 = 0.0025 cm^-2
- d = 30 cm: 1/900 = 0.0011 cm^-2
- d = 40 cm: 1/1600 = 0.000625 (or 0.00063) cm^-2
- d = 50 cm: 1/2500 = 0.0004 cm^-2

Rate of photosynthesis (volume of gas / 5 min):
- 10 cm: 0.50 / 5 = 0.100 cm^3 min^-1
- 20 cm: 0.42 / 5 = 0.084 cm^3 min^-1
- 30 cm: 0.25 / 5 = 0.050 cm^3 min^-1
- 40 cm: 0.11 / 5 = 0.022 cm^3 min^-1
- 50 cm: 0.04 / 5 = 0.008 cm^3 min^-1

(b) As the distance increases, the light intensity decreases, which causes a decrease in the rate of photosynthesis. At lower light intensities, light is the limiting factor for the light-dependent stage. This reduces photolysis of water, leading to lower ATP and reduced NADP production.

(c) Sodium hydrogencarbonate releases carbon dioxide into solution, ensuring that CO2 is in excess and not a limiting factor.

評分準則

12.5 marks total:
(a) Calculations (5.5 marks):
- Light intensity values correct for all 5 distances (3 marks; minus 1 mark for each incorrect value). Values: 0.01, 0.0025, 0.0011, 0.000625 (or 0.00063), 0.0004 cm^-2.
- Photosynthesis rates correct for all 5 distances (2.5 marks; 0.5 marks per correct value). Values: 0.10, 0.084, 0.05, 0.022, 0.008 cm^3 min^-1.
(b) Trend description and explanation (4 marks):
- Positive correlation between light intensity and the rate of photosynthesis / rate decreases as light intensity decreases (1 mark).
- Light intensity is the limiting factor for photosynthesis under these conditions (1 mark).
- Less light energy is absorbed by photosynthetic pigments/chlorophyll (1 mark).
- Less photolysis of water occurs, leading to reduced production of ATP and reduced NADP (1 mark).
(c) Purpose of sodium hydrogencarbonate (3 marks):
- It dissolves to release carbon dioxide into the water (1 mark).
- This ensures that carbon dioxide is not a limiting factor (1 mark).
- Thus, any changes in the rate of oxygen release are due solely to changes in light intensity (1 mark).
題目 3 · Structured
12.5
An experiment compared the antimicrobial efficacy of garlic extract and tea tree oil against Escherichia coli.

(a) Describe the aseptic techniques that should be used when preparing the agar plates seeded with E. coli.
(b) The diameter of the zone of inhibition was measured (in mm) after incubating the plates for 24 hours. The results are shown below:
- Garlic extract zones (mm): 18, 19, 17, 18, 20
- Tea tree oil zones (mm): 12, 11, 14, 13, 12

Calculate the percentage difference in the mean zone of inhibition between garlic extract and tea tree oil, relative to tea tree oil. Show your working.
(c) Explain how the student can determine if the difference between the two means is statistically significant.
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解題

(a) Aseptic techniques are vital to prevent contamination. Working near a blue Bunsen burner flame creates a convection current that carries airborne contaminants away. Flaming the neck of culture bottles prevents entry/exit of microbes. Opening the Petri dish lid at an angle minimises dust entry.

(b) Calculation:
- Mean of garlic extract = (18 + 19 + 17 + 18 + 20) / 5 = 92 / 5 = 18.4 mm.
- Mean of tea tree oil = (12 + 11 + 14 + 13 + 12) / 5 = 62 / 5 = 12.4 mm.
- Difference = 18.4 - 12.4 = 6.0 mm.
- Percentage difference relative to tea tree oil = (6.0 / 12.4) * 100 = 48.39% (or 48.4%).

(c) The Student's t-test is used to compare the means of two independent groups. A null hypothesis is formulated (e.g., there is no significant difference between the means). Degrees of freedom are calculated as (n1 + n2) - 2 = 8. The calculated t-value is compared to the critical value at p = 0.05. If calculated t exceeds critical, reject the null hypothesis, indicating the difference is statistically significant.

評分準則

12.5 marks total:
(a) Aseptic techniques (5 marks - 1 mark per valid point):
- Work near a lit Bunsen burner (on a blue flame) to create an upward convection current of sterile air.
- Flame the neck of the bacteria culture bottle before and after opening/pouring.
- Use a sterile pipette or sterile glass spreader (flamed in ethanol) to distribute the E. coli.
- Open the Petri dish lid only slightly (at approximately 45 degrees) and for the minimum time possible.
- Disinfect work surfaces with antiviral/antibacterial disinfectant before and after the practical.
(b) Percentage difference calculation (2.5 marks):
- Calculate correct mean zone for garlic extract (18.4 mm) and tea tree oil (12.4 mm) (1 mark).
- Correct formula used: ((Mean Garlic - Mean Tea Tree) / Mean Tea Tree) * 100 (0.5 mark).
- Correct final percentage difference of 48.4% (or 48.39%) (1 mark).
(c) Statistical significance (5 marks):
- Perform a Student's t-test (1 mark).
- State the null hypothesis: there is no significant difference between the mean zones of inhibition of garlic extract and tea tree oil (1 mark).
- Calculate degrees of freedom (df = (5 + 5) - 2 = 8) (1 mark).
- Compare the calculated t-value to the critical value in a statistical table at the p = 0.05 (5%) significance level (1 mark).
- If the calculated t-value is greater than the critical value, reject the null hypothesis as the difference is statistically significant (1 mark).
題目 4 · Structured
12.5
An experiment was designed to investigate the effect of ethanol concentration on beetroot cell membrane permeability. The absorbance of the resulting solutions was measured using a colorimeter.

(a) Explain why a colorimeter with a blue-green filter is used in this investigation.
(b) Complete the table below by calculating the mean absorbance (arbitrary units) for each concentration:
- 0% ethanol: 0.04, 0.05, 0.03
- 10% ethanol: 0.12, 0.16, 0.14
- 20% ethanol: 0.35, 0.37, 0.36
- 30% ethanol: 0.64, 0.68, 0.66
- 40% ethanol: 0.88, 0.92, 0.90
(c) Explain the biological mechanism behind the increase in absorbance as the concentration of ethanol increases.
(d) State two variables (other than the volume of ethanol and size of beetroot discs) that must be controlled in this experiment, and describe how they are controlled.
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解題

(a) Beetroot contains betalain, a pigment that appears red because it reflects red light and absorbs blue-green light. A blue-green filter is selected to ensure maximum absorbance of light by the pigment, making the readings highly sensitive to small concentration changes.

(b) Calculations of the mean absorbance:
- 0% ethanol: (0.04 + 0.05 + 0.03) / 3 = 0.04
- 10% ethanol: (0.12 + 0.16 + 0.14) / 3 = 0.14
- 20% ethanol: (0.35 + 0.37 + 0.36) / 3 = 0.36
- 30% ethanol: (0.64 + 0.68 + 0.66) / 3 = 0.66
- 40% ethanol: (0.88 + 0.92 + 0.90) / 3 = 0.90

(c) Ethanol is an organic solvent. It disrupts the beetroot membranes (both tonoplast and plasma membrane) by dissolving phospholipids. It also denatures membrane proteins. This damages membrane structure, causing gaps/pores, which allows the betalain pigment to diffuse out down its concentration gradient.

(d) Temperature and incubation time are two crucial control variables. Temperature should be maintained using a water bath. Incubation time of the beetroot discs in ethanol must be controlled using a stopwatch/timer.

評分準則

12.5 marks total:
(a) Colorimeter filter (3 marks):
- Beetroot vacuole contains the red pigment betalain (1 mark).
- Red pigment transmits/reflects red light but absorbs its complementary colour, blue-green light (1 mark).
- Using a blue-green filter maximizes light absorbance changes, improving precision and sensitivity (1 mark).
(b) Mean Absorbance calculation (2.5 marks - 0.5 per correct mean):
- 0% ethanol: 0.04
- 10% ethanol: 0.14
- 20% ethanol: 0.36
- 30% ethanol: 0.66
- 40% ethanol: 0.90
(c) Biological mechanism (5 marks):
- Ethanol is an organic solvent that dissolves membrane lipids / phospholipids (1 mark).
- Phospholipids make up the bilayer of cell membranes (plasma membrane and tonoplast) (1 mark).
- Ethanol denatures membrane-bound proteins (1 mark).
- This disrupts membrane integrity, creating gaps/pores (1 mark).
- Betalain pigment leaks out of the vacuole into the solution by diffusion (1 mark).
(d) Controlled variables (2 marks - 1 mark per variable + control method):
- Temperature (1 mark): control by placing tubes in a thermostatically controlled water bath.
- Incubation time (1 mark): control by keeping discs in the solution for exactly the same duration (e.g., 20 minutes) using a stopwatch.
- Rinsing of beetroot discs (1 mark): rinse cut discs thoroughly in distilled water before starting to remove pigment from damaged cells at cut edges.

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