HKDSE · Answers & Marking Scheme

2025 HKDSE Business, Accounting and Financial Studies Answers & Marking Scheme

Thinka 2025 DSE-Style Mock — Business, Accounting and Financial Studies

160 marks210 mins2025
An original Thinka practice paper modelled on the structure and difficulty of that year's HKDSE paper. Not affiliated with or reproduced from the HKEAA.

Paper 1 Section A (MCQs)

Answer all 24 multiple-choice questions. All questions carry equal marks.
24 Question · 48 marks
Question 1 · MCQ
2 marks
Under the Closer Economic Partnership Arrangement (CEPA) between Mainland China and Hong Kong, which of the following statements about trade in goods is/are correct? (1) All goods of Hong Kong origin can enjoy zero tariff when imported into the Mainland, provided they meet the CEPA rules of origin. (2) CEPA eliminates all non-tariff barriers, such as import quotas, for Hong Kong origin goods entering the Mainland. (3) The zero-tariff treatment applies to all foreign goods re-exported from Hong Kong to the Mainland.
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(1) and (2) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

B

Worked solution

Statements (1) and (2) are correct. CEPA provides zero-tariff treatment and eliminates non-tariff barriers specifically for goods of Hong Kong origin that satisfy the rules of origin. Statement (3) is incorrect because foreign goods re-exported from Hong Kong do not qualify as goods of Hong Kong origin, hence they do not enjoy zero tariff.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer (B). No marks are awarded for incorrect choices.
Question 2 · MCQ
2 marks
Compared with a partnership, which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of a private limited company? (1) Easier transfer of ownership of shares. (2) Continuance of the business is not affected by the death or bankruptcy of any shareholder. (3) Greater confidentiality in financial affairs.
  1. A.(2) only
  2. B.(1) and (2) only
  3. C.(1) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

B

Worked solution

(1) is correct because transfer of shares in a company is generally easier than transferring partnership interests which requires consent from all other partners. (2) is correct because a limited company has perpetual succession as a separate legal entity. (3) is incorrect because partnerships are not required to publish or file financial statements, making partnerships more confidential than companies.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer (B). No marks are awarded for incorrect choices.
Question 3 · MCQ
2 marks
Which of the following statements about Hong Kong Government bonds (e.g., iBond or Silver Bond) and corporate bonds is correct?
  1. A.High-yield corporate bonds always have lower default risk than Hong Kong Government bonds.
  2. B.The interest rate of iBond is strictly fixed throughout its tenure and does not change with inflation.
  3. C.Corporate bonds generally offer a higher yield than Hong Kong Government bonds of the same maturity to compensate for higher credit risk.
  4. D.Investors can buy and sell Silver Bonds freely in the secondary market at any stock exchange.

Answer

C

Worked solution

Option C is correct because corporate bonds bear higher credit/default risk than government bonds, so they must offer higher interest yields to attract investors. Option A is incorrect as corporate bonds always carry higher default risk than government bonds. Option B is incorrect because iBond interest rates are floating and tied to inflation. Option D is incorrect because Silver Bonds cannot be traded in the secondary market.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer (C). No marks are awarded for incorrect choices.
Question 4 · MCQ
2 marks
Which of the following statements about credit cards and Annualized Percentage Rate (APR) is/are correct? (1) The APR calculation must include interest expenses and all basic non-refundable fees (such as annual fees and service fees). (2) If a credit cardholder pays only the 'minimum payment' by the due date every month, no interest will be charged on the outstanding balance. (3) A consumer with a poor credit score is likely to be offered a lower APR by financial institutions.
  1. A.(1) only
  2. B.(1) and (2) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

A

Worked solution

Statement (1) is correct as the APR represents the true annual cost of credit, which includes both interest and non-refundable fees. Statement (2) is incorrect because paying only the minimum payment results in heavy interest charges on the remaining unpaid balance. Statement (3) is incorrect because a poorer credit score signifies higher default risk, leading financial institutions to charge a higher APR to offset the risk.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer (A). No marks are awarded for incorrect choices.
Question 5 · MCQ
2 marks
Miss Chan plans to save \$10,000 at the end of each year for the next 3 years in a bank account. The bank offers an annual interest rate of 4%, compounded annually. What is the total amount Miss Chan will have in her account at the end of the third year?
  1. A.\$31,200
  2. B.\$31,216
  3. C.\$32,464
  4. D.\$30,000

Answer

B

Worked solution

This is an ordinary annuity. The Future Value of Ordinary Annuity (FVOA) formula is: \( FV = PMT \times \frac{(1+r)^n - 1}{r} \). Inserting the values: \( FV = 10,000 \times \frac{(1.04)^3 - 1}{0.04} = 10,000 \times 3.1216 = 31,216 \). Alternatively, calculating year-by-year: Year 1 deposit earns 2 years of interest: \( 10,000 \times (1.04)^2 = 10,816 \). Year 2 deposit earns 1 year of interest: \( 10,000 \times 1.04 = 10,400 \). Year 3 deposit earns no interest: \( 10,000 \). Total = \( 10,816 + 10,400 + 10,000 = 31,216 \).

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer (B). No marks are awarded for incorrect choices.
Question 6 · MCQ
2 marks
During a weekly meeting, a sales manager notices that the department's actual monthly sales revenue is 15% lower than the pre-set target. The manager then investigates the causes of this variance and decides to launch an emergency promotional campaign to boost sales. Which management function is the manager primarily performing?
  1. A.Planning
  2. B.Organizing
  3. C.Leading
  4. D.Controlling

Answer

D

Worked solution

The manager is performing the controlling function. Controlling involves setting performance standards, measuring actual performance, comparing actual results against the standards, and taking corrective actions when deviations occur.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer (D). No marks are awarded for incorrect choices.
Question 7 · MCQ
2 marks
Which of the following is/are the typical characteristics of small and medium enterprises (SMEs) in Hong Kong? (1) They are highly adaptable to changing market environments due to their flexible organizational structures. (2) They usually face higher borrowing costs and credit constraints compared to large enterprises. (3) They employ fewer than 100 persons in manufacturing businesses, and fewer than 50 persons in non-manufacturing businesses.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

D

Worked solution

All statements are correct. (1) SMEs have simple structures and flat hierarchies, enabling quick adaptation. (2) Due to lack of collateral and credit history, they face higher borrowing costs. (3) This corresponds exactly to the official definition of SMEs in Hong Kong.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer (D). No marks are awarded for incorrect choices.
Question 8 · MCQ
2 marks
A business bought a computer on credit from Mega Office Equipment Ltd for office use. Which of the following shows the correct double entry to record this transaction?
  1. A.Debit: Computer / Credit: Mega Office Equipment Ltd
  2. B.Debit: Purchases / Credit: Mega Office Equipment Ltd
  3. C.Debit: Computer / Credit: Cash
  4. D.Debit: Mega Office Equipment Ltd / Credit: Computer

Answer

A

Worked solution

The computer is a non-current asset acquired for business operations, so the 'Computer' account should be debited (increasing assets). Since it was bought on credit, a liability is created, so the creditor's account 'Mega Office Equipment Ltd' should be credited (increasing liabilities).

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer (A). No marks are awarded for incorrect choices.
Question 9 · MCQ
2 marks
On 31 December 2022, a business paid \$24,000 for a 12-month insurance policy covering the period from 1 January 2023 to 31 December 2023. The bookkeeper recorded the entire \$24,000 as an expense in the statement of annual profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 2022. Which accounting principle did the bookkeeper violate?
  1. A.Going concern assumption
  2. B.Consistency principle
  3. C.Accrual concept
  4. D.Historical cost principle

Answer

C

Worked solution

Under the accrual concept, revenue and expenses should be recognized when they are earned or incurred, regardless of the cash transaction timing. The \$24,000 insurance expense belongs to the financial year 2023. Charging it to 2022 violates the accrual concept.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer (C). No marks are awarded for incorrect choices.
Question 10 · MCQ
2 marks
A business has a gross profit margin of 20%. If the cost of goods sold for the year is \$160,000, what is the sales revenue?
  1. A.\$200,000
  2. B.\$192,000
  3. C.\$128,000
  4. D.\$320,000

Answer

A

Worked solution

Let Sales be \( S \). Since gross profit margin is 20%, Gross Profit = \( 0.20 \times S \). Cost of goods sold (COGS) is Sales - Gross Profit = \( S - 0.20S = 0.80S \). We are given COGS = \$160,000. Therefore, \( 0.80S = 160,000 \), which gives \( S = 160,000 / 0.80 = 200,000 \). Sales revenue is \$200,000.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer (A). No marks are awarded for incorrect choices.
Question 11 · MCQ
2 marks
Under the Closer Economic Partnership Arrangement (CEPA) between mainland China and Hong Kong, which of the following statements are correct? (1) All goods of Hong Kong origin can enjoy zero-tariff treatment when imported into the Mainland, subject to the CEPA rules of origin. (2) Hong Kong service suppliers enjoy preferential access to the Mainland market in various service sectors. (3) Only business entities owned by Hong Kong permanent residents of Chinese nationality can benefit from CEPA service provisions.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

A

Worked solution

Statement (1) is correct because under CEPA, all goods of Hong Kong origin can enjoy zero tariff, provided they meet the agreed rules of origin. Statement (2) is correct because CEPA offers preferential access to Hong Kong service suppliers. Statement (3) is incorrect because foreign-owned companies incorporated in Hong Kong can also qualify as 'Hong Kong service suppliers' and benefit from CEPA as long as they meet the relevant criteria (e.g., operating in Hong Kong for a certain number of years, paying profits tax, etc.). Therefore, nationality of owners is not the sole criterion.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer A. No fractional marks will be given.
Question 12 · MCQ
2 marks
Which of the following statements about a 'limited partnership' in Hong Kong is correct?
  1. A.All partners in a limited partnership enjoy limited liability.
  2. B.A limited partner has the right to participate in the daily management of the partnership business.
  3. C.A limited partnership must consist of at least one general partner who has unlimited liability.
  4. D.The death or bankruptcy of a limited partner will automatically dissolve the partnership.

Answer

C

Worked solution

A limited partnership must have at least one general partner who is liable for all the debts and obligations of the firm (unlimited liability). Therefore, option C is correct. Option A is incorrect because not all partners have limited liability. Option B is incorrect because limited partners cannot manage the business; if they do, they lose their limited liability status. Option D is incorrect because the death or bankruptcy of a limited partner does not dissolve the partnership.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer C. No fractional marks will be given.
Question 13 · MCQ
2 marks
Mr. Chan is a risk-averse investor who plans to retire in one year. He wants to invest a sum of money to obtain stable income with minimal risk of capital loss. Which of the following is the most suitable investment tool for him?
  1. A.Growth stocks with high price-to-earnings ratios
  2. B.High-yield corporate bonds (junk bonds)
  3. C.Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) tracking technology indices
  4. D.Hong Kong Government inflation-linked bonds (iBond)

Answer

D

Worked solution

Mr. Chan is risk-averse and near retirement, meaning preservation of capital and steady income are his main objectives. iBonds issued by the HKSAR government carry extremely low default risk (backed by the government) and offer stable interest payments linked to local inflation, making them the most suitable. Options A, B, and C involve significantly higher market and default risks.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer D. No fractional marks will be given.
Question 14 · MCQ
2 marks
Ms. Wong deposits \(\$10,000\) in a bank at an annual interest rate of \(4\%\) per annum. The interest is compounded quarterly. What is the total interest she will receive at the end of 2 years (to the nearest dollar)?
  1. A.\(\$800\)
  2. B.\(\$824\)
  3. C.\(\$829\)
  4. D.\(\$831\)

Answer

C

Worked solution

Using the compound interest formula: \(FV = P \times (1 + r/n)^{nt}\), where \(P = 10,000\), \(r = 0.04\), \(n = 4\) (compounded quarterly), and \(t = 2\) years. \(FV = 10,000 \times (1 + 0.04/4)^{4 \times 2} = 10,000 \times (1.01)^8 = 10,000 \times 1.082856 = \$10,828.56\). Total interest = \(FV - P = 10,828.56 - 10,000 = \$828.56 \approx \$829\).

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer C. No fractional marks will be given.
Question 15 · MCQ
2 marks
Which of the following statements about credit card cash advance in Hong Kong is correct?
  1. A.Interest is calculated starting from the payment due date of the credit card statement.
  2. B.The annual interest rate charged is usually lower than that for credit card retail purchases.
  3. C.A one-off transaction fee (handling fee) is usually charged in addition to the interest.
  4. D.Cash advances enjoy an interest-free repayment period of up to 50 days.

Answer

C

Worked solution

For credit card cash advances, banks usually charge a one-off transaction or handling fee (option C is correct). Option A and D are incorrect because cash advances do not have an interest-free repayment period; interest starts accumulating immediately from the day the cash is withdrawn. Option B is incorrect because the interest rate for cash advances is typically higher than that for regular retail purchases.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer C. No fractional marks will be given.
Question 16 · MCQ
2 marks
In a company, the production manager and sales manager have different operational tasks. However, the Chief Executive Officer ensures that all department activities are coordinated towards the singular corporate goal of expanding market share. Which of Fayol's management principles is best illustrated here?
  1. A.Unity of Command
  2. B.Unity of Direction
  3. C.Division of Work
  4. D.Scalar Chain

Answer

B

Worked solution

Unity of Direction states that there should be 'one head and one plan' for a group of activities having the same objective, directing them towards a common goal. This is shown by coordinating the departments towards the singular goal of expanding market share. Unity of Command states that an employee should receive orders from one supervisor only.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer B. No fractional marks will be given.
Question 17 · MCQ
2 marks
Which of the following are the typical characteristics of Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) in Hong Kong? (1) They have higher flexibility in responding to market changes than multinational corporations. (2) They usually face greater difficulty in obtaining bank loans due to a lack of collateral. (3) They are defined as manufacturing enterprises employing fewer than 100 persons, or non-manufacturing enterprises employing fewer than 50 persons.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

D

Worked solution

All statements are correct. Statement (1) reflects their small size allowing quick decision making. Statement (2) describes their major financing constraint. Statement (3) is the official definition of SMEs used by the Hong Kong Trade and Industry Department.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer D. No fractional marks will be given.
Question 18 · MCQ
2 marks
A sole trader returned goods previously purchased on credit to a supplier, Mr. Cheung. Which of the following shows the correct double entry in the sole trader's books?
  1. A.Debit: Mr. Cheung's Account; Credit: Returns Outwards Account
  2. B.Debit: Returns Outwards Account; Credit: Mr. Cheung's Account
  3. C.Debit: Mr. Cheung's Account; Credit: Returns Inwards Account
  4. D.Debit: Returns Inwards Account; Credit: Mr. Cheung's Account

Answer

A

Worked solution

When returning goods to Mr. Cheung (a creditor), the liability decreases, so Mr. Cheung's account is debited. At the same time, purchases return (returns outwards) increases, so Returns Outwards account is credited.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer A. No fractional marks will be given.
Question 19 · MCQ
2 marks
A company purchased a delivery van for \(\$200,000\). At the financial year-end, its market value dropped to \(\$150,000\). However, the company continues to value the van at cost less accumulated depreciation rather than its liquidation value. Which accounting assumption/concept is most relevant to this practice?
  1. A.Accrual concept
  2. B.Going concern assumption
  3. C.Consistency principle
  4. D.Business entity assumption

Answer

B

Worked solution

Under the going concern assumption, it is assumed that the business will continue in operational existence for the foreseeable future. Therefore, assets do not need to be valued at their current market/liquidation values, but can be recorded at historical cost less accumulated depreciation.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer B. No fractional marks will be given.
Question 20 · MCQ
2 marks
Which of the following pairs correctly matches the users of financial statements with their primary information needs? (1) Trade creditors: The short-term liquidity and short-term repayment ability of the firm. (2) Inland Revenue Department: The profitability of the firm to assess profits tax liability. (3) Bank lenders: The long-term solvency and interest repayment ability of the firm.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

D

Worked solution

All matches are correct. (1) Trade creditors provide short-term credit and look at current ratio/liquidity. (2) Inland Revenue Department requires net profit figures to verify tax computations. (3) Bank lenders offer long-term loans and are concerned with solvency and long-term interest coverage.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for the correct answer D. No fractional marks will be given.
Question 21 · MCQ
2 marks
Which of the following statements about the Closer Economic Partnership Arrangement (CEPA) between Hong Kong and the Mainland are correct?

(1) Goods of Hong Kong origin can enjoy zero tariff when imported into the Mainland if they meet the relevant rules of origin.
(2) Hong Kong service providers enjoy market access commitments in the Mainland that are more favourable than those under the World Trade Organization (WTO) agreements.
(3) It allows all foreign companies established in Hong Kong to automatically enjoy the same preferential treatment in the Mainland as local Hong Kong companies without any residency requirements.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

A

Worked solution

Statement (1) is correct: Under CEPA, goods of Hong Kong origin enjoy zero tariff when imported into the Mainland, subject to meeting the agreed CEPA rules of origin.
Statement (2) is correct: CEPA provides Hong Kong service providers with early or preferential access to the Mainland market, which goes beyond the commitments made by China under the WTO.
Statement (3) is incorrect: Foreign companies established in Hong Kong do not automatically enjoy CEPA benefits. They must satisfy the definition and criteria of a 'Hong Kong Service Supplier' (such as having substantive business operations in Hong Kong for a specified period) to qualify for CEPA benefits.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for selecting the correct option A. No marks are awarded for incorrect options.
Question 22 · MCQ
2 marks
Mr. Chan plans to invest $100,000 today for his child's future education in 5 years. He is considering the following two investment options:

Option X: A fixed deposit account paying a nominal annual interest rate of 6%, compounded quarterly.
Option Y: A corporate bond paying an annual interest rate of 6.1%, compounded annually.

Which option should Mr. Chan choose and how much more interest (to the nearest dollar) will he earn at the end of Year 5 compared to the other option?
  1. A.Option X, $231
  2. B.Option X, $863
  3. C.Option Y, $632
  4. D.Option Y, $1,104

Answer

A

Worked solution

1. Calculate the accumulated amount for Option X:
Interest rate per quarter = 6% / 4 = 1.5% = 0.015
Number of compounding periods in 5 years = 5 x 4 = 20
Accumulated Amount Ax = $100,000 x (1 + 0.015)^20 ≈ $134,686

2. Calculate the accumulated amount for Option Y:
Annual interest rate = 6.1% = 0.061
Number of compounding periods in 5 years = 5
Accumulated Amount Ay = $100,000 x (1 + 0.061)^5 ≈ $134,455

3. Compare the two options:
Since Ax > Ay, Mr. Chan should choose Option X.
Difference in accumulated amount (and hence interest earned) = $134,686 - $134,455 = $231.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for selecting the correct option A. No marks are awarded for incorrect options.
Question 23 · MCQ
2 marks
Which of the following statements about organizational structures and span of control is/are correct?

(1) A wider span of control is usually associated with a flat organizational structure with fewer management levels.
(2) A flat organizational structure generally allows for quicker decision-making and better communication between top management and front-line staff.
(3) In a tall organizational structure, managers tend to delegate more authority to subordinates to reduce their own workload.
  1. A.(1) and (2) only
  2. B.(1) and (3) only
  3. C.(2) and (3) only
  4. D.(1), (2) and (3)

Answer

A

Worked solution

Statement (1) is correct: A flat organizational structure has fewer hierarchy levels and is characterized by a wider span of control where each manager supervises more subordinates.
Statement (2) is correct: With fewer layers of management, information travels faster from bottom to top, facilitating quicker decision-making and better upward/downward communication.
Statement (3) is incorrect: In a tall organizational structure, the span of control is narrow, meaning managers supervise very few subordinates. Supervision is close, and decision-making tends to be centralized, resulting in less delegation of authority. In contrast, managers in flat organizational structures with wide spans of control must delegate more authority to their subordinates to manage the larger workload.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for selecting the correct option A. No marks are awarded for incorrect options.
Question 24 · MCQ
2 marks
On 1 June 2023, a company purchased a new machine for $200,000 on credit from Apex Limited. The company also incurred the following costs in cash on the same day:

- Delivery and installation charges: $12,000
- Testing costs before the machine was ready for use: $4,000
- Insurance premium for the first year: $6,000

What are the correct ledger entries to record the above transactions?
  1. A.Debit Machine $216,000; Debit Insurance $6,000; Credit Apex Limited $200,000; Credit Cash $22,000
  2. B.Debit Machine $200,000; Debit Delivery and Installation Expense $12,000; Debit Testing Expense $4,000; Debit Insurance $6,000; Credit Apex Limited $200,000; Credit Cash $22,000
  3. C.Debit Machine $212,000; Debit Testing Expense $4,000; Debit Insurance $6,000; Credit Apex Limited $200,000; Credit Cash $22,000
  4. D.Debit Machine $222,000; Credit Apex Limited $200,000; Credit Cash $22,000

Answer

A

Worked solution

1. Under the historical cost principle and matching concept, capital expenditure includes all expenditures incurred to acquire a non-current asset and bring it to its working condition for its intended use.
- Machine purchase price ($200,000), delivery & installation charges ($12,000), and pre-use testing costs ($4,000) are capital expenditures and should be capitalized.
- Total capitalized cost of Machine = $200,000 + $12,000 + $4,000 = $216,000. Debit Machine account with $216,000.

2. The insurance premium for the first year ($6,000) is a revenue expenditure (operating expense) and should be expensed. Debit Insurance account with $6,000.

3. The liability to Apex Limited for the credit purchase is $200,000. Credit Apex Limited account with $200,000.

4. Total cash paid in cash = $12,000 + $4,000 + $6,000 = $22,000. Credit Cash account with $22,000.

Marking scheme

Award 2 marks for selecting the correct option A. No marks are awarded for incorrect options.

Paper 1 Section B (Short Qs)

Answer all 3 short questions. Write your answers in the Answer Book.
3 Question · 24 marks
Question 1 · Short Answer
8 marks
(a) Explain two characteristics of the Hong Kong economy that make it an attractive international business hub. (4 marks)\n(b) Explain two benefits of the Mainland and Hong Kong Closer Economic Partnership Arrangement (CEPA) to Hong Kong's service industries. (4 marks)

Answer

Refer to the solution for detailed points on Hong Kong's economic characteristics (e.g., free port, low tax) and benefits of CEPA (e.g., preferential market access, lower entry thresholds).

Worked solution

(a) Characteristics of the HK economy (Any two, 2 marks each, max 4 marks):\n1. Free port / Free trade policy: Hong Kong does not levy tariffs on general import and export goods, reducing trading costs and facilitating international commerce.\n2. Simple and low tax system: Hong Kong has low profits tax and salaries tax rates, and does not charge VAT, GST, or capital gains tax, maximizing business returns.\n3. Free flow of capital: There are no foreign exchange controls, allowing international businesses to move funds into and out of Hong Kong freely.\n\n(b) Benefits of CEPA to HK service industries (Any two, 2 marks each, max 4 marks):\n1. Preferential market access: Hong Kong service providers can enter the Mainland market ahead of other foreign competitors, enjoying early-mover advantages.\n2. Lower entry thresholds: CEPA relaxes the minimum registered capital, business turnover, or years of operation required for Hong Kong companies entering the Mainland.\n3. Wholly-owned operations: It permits Hong Kong enterprises to set up wholly-owned operations in many service sectors rather than relying on joint ventures.

Marking scheme

(a) Characteristics of the HK economy (Max 4 marks, 2 marks for each point):\n- Free port / Free trade policy (1 mark): No tariffs on general imports and exports (1 mark), lowering trading costs.\n- Low and simple tax system (1 mark): Profits and salaries tax rates are low, and there is no VAT/GST (1 mark).\n- Free flow of capital (1 mark): No foreign exchange controls, allowing free fund transfers (1 mark).\n(b) Benefits of CEPA (Max 4 marks, 2 marks for each point):\n- Preferential market access (1 mark): Enter Mainland market ahead of foreign rivals (1 mark).\n- Lower entry thresholds (1 mark): Reduces requirements on capital/turnover/operation years (1 mark).\n- Wholly-owned operations (1 mark): Permits wholly-owned subsidiaries in many service sectors instead of joint ventures (1 mark).
Question 2 · Short Answer
8 marks
A chain restaurant manager notices that the food wastage in recent months has exceeded the target level.\n(a) Explain the first three steps of the controlling process that the manager should adopt to handle this issue. (6 marks)\n(b) Suggest one corrective action the manager can take if the food wastage is found to be caused by improper storage. (2 marks)

Answer

Refer to the solution for the first three steps of the control process (establishing standards, measuring performance, comparing performance) and suitable corrective actions.

Worked solution

(a) First three steps of the control process:\n1. Establishing standards: The manager needs to set a clear, measurable performance target for food wastage, such as keeping food wastage below 2% of total ingredient cost.\n2. Measuring actual performance: The manager must collect data and record the actual food wastage, for example, by weighing and calculating the cost of discarded food daily.\n3. Comparing actual performance against standards: The manager compares the actual wastage rate against the pre-set 2% target to identify any deviations and determine if the wastage is significantly higher than expected.\n\n(b) Corrective action if caused by improper storage:\n- Provide training to kitchen staff on proper food storage procedures (such as the First-In-First-Out (FIFO) method).\n- Repair or upgrade food storage facilities (e.g., commercial refrigerators) to maintain the optimal temperature and conditions for preserving ingredients.

Marking scheme

(a) Steps of control process (Max 6 marks, 2 marks for each step):\n- Step 1: Establishing standards (1 mark) + relevant application (setting wastage target) (1 mark).\n- Step 2: Measuring actual performance (1 mark) + relevant application (recording daily wastage) (1 mark).\n- Step 3: Comparing performance against standards (1 mark) + relevant application (identifying deviations/gap) (1 mark).\n(b) Corrective action (Max 2 marks):\n- Relevant corrective action linked to storage, such as staff training on FIFO or upgrading storage equipment (2 marks). (Reject: non-storage related actions, e.g., changing recipes)
Question 3 · Short Answer
8 marks
Chris wants to purchase a high-end laptop costing $15,000. He is considering whether to pay by credit card or to apply for a personal bank loan.\n(a) Explain two advantages of using a credit card instead of a personal bank loan for this purchase. (4 marks)\n(b) State and explain two factors that a bank would consider when evaluating Chris's creditworthiness for a personal loan application. (4 marks)

Answer

Refer to the solution for advantages of credit cards (interest-free period, rewards) and bank assessment factors (credit history, repayment capacity).

Worked solution

(a) Advantages of credit card over personal bank loan (Any two, 2 marks each, max 4 marks):\n1. Interest-free repayment period: Credit cards offer a grace period (usually 30-40 days). If Chris repays the balance in full by the due date, he pays zero interest. Personal loans charge interest from the disbursement date.\n2. Convenience and speed: Credit card transactions are completed instantly at checkout without application, documentation, or approval wait times.\n3. Rewards and consumer benefits: Paying by credit card can earn Chris cash rebates, reward points, or purchase protection, which are typically not provided by personal loans.\n\n(b) Factors in assessing creditworthiness (Any two, 2 marks each, max 4 marks):\n1. Credit history / Credit score: The bank will check Chris's past repayment records from credit reference agencies to see if he has a history of late payments or defaults.\n2. Income and repayment capacity: The bank will evaluate Chris's monthly income and debt-to-income ratio to ensure he has a stable cash flow and sufficient capability to afford the monthly loan repayments.\n3. Employment stability: Having a permanent or long-term job reduces the risk of income loss, which makes the bank more confident in his repayment stability.

Marking scheme

(a) Advantages of credit card (Max 4 marks, 2 marks for each point):\n- Interest-free repayment period (1 mark): Explanation that full payment by due date incurs no interest vs interest on personal loan (1 mark).\n- Convenience/Speed (1 mark): Instant purchase vs waiting for loan approval/documentation (1 mark).\n- Rewards (1 mark): Earn points/cashback/purchase protection (1 mark).\n(b) Factors for assessing creditworthiness (Max 4 marks, 2 marks for each point):\n- Credit history / Credit score (1 mark): Checks repayment records/defaults history from credit bureau (1 mark).\n- Income / Capacity (1 mark): Evaluates monthly income/debt-to-income ratio to ensure repayment ability (1 mark).\n- Employment stability (1 mark): Permanent/stable job lowers risk of income loss (1 mark).

Paper 2A Section A

Answer all compulsory questions in this section.
5 Question · 38 marks
Question 1 · Structured Question
7.6 marks
Alan and Bill are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. On 1 January 2022, they agreed to admit Chris as a new partner. The profit and loss sharing ratio became 3:2:1. Goodwill was valued at \( \$120,000 \), but no goodwill account is to be maintained in the books. Chris brought in \( \$80,000 \) cash and office equipment valued at \( \$40,000 \) as his capital.

Before Chris's admission, the capital balances of Alan and Bill were \( \$200,000 \) and \( \$150,000 \) respectively.

Required:
(a) Prepare the journal entries to record the adjustments for goodwill upon Chris's admission. (3.6 marks)
(b) Calculate the capital account balances of Alan, Bill, and Chris immediately after Chris's admission. (4 marks)

Answer

(a) Debit Chris - Capital \( \$20,000 \); Credit Alan - Capital \( \$12,000 \), Bill - Capital \( \$8,000 \). (b) Capital Balances: Alan: \( \$212,000 \); Bill: \( \$158,000 \); Chris: \( \$100,000 \).

Worked solution

(a)
To record adjustments for goodwill without maintaining a goodwill account:
1. Goodwill write-up in the old ratio (3:2):
- Alan's share: \( \$120,000 \times 3/5 = \$72,000 \)
- Bill's share: \( \$120,000 \times 2/5 = \$48,000 \)

2. Goodwill write-off in the new ratio (3:2:1):
- Alan's share: \( \$120,000 \times 3/6 = \$60,000 \)
- Bill's share: \( \$120,000 \times 2/6 = \$40,000 \)
- Chris's share: \( \$120,000 \times 1/6 = \$20,000 \)

Net adjustments:
- Alan: Credit \( \$12,000 \) (\( \$72,000 - \$60,000 \))
- Bill: Credit \( \$8,000 \) (\( \$48,000 - \$40,000 \))
- Chris: Debit \( \$20,000 \)

Journal Entry:
Debit: Chris - Capital \( \$20,000 \)
Credit: Alan - Capital \( \$12,000 \)
Credit: Bill - Capital \( \$8,000 \)

(b)
Capital balances immediately after Chris's admission:
- Alan: Opening \( \$200,000 \) + Goodwill adjustment \( \$12,000 \) = \( \$212,000 \)
- Bill: Opening \( \$150,000 \) + Goodwill adjustment \( \$8,000 \) = \( \$158,000 \)
- Chris: Cash capital \( \$80,000 \) + Equipment capital \( \$40,000 \) - Goodwill adjustment \( \$20,000 \) = \( \$100,000 \)

Marking scheme

(a) Journal entry:
- Dr Chris - Capital \( \$20,000 \) (1.2 marks)
- Cr Alan - Capital \( \$12,000 \) (1.2 marks)
- Cr Bill - Capital \( \$8,000 \) (1.2 marks)
(Alternatively, accept separate journal entries for Goodwill write-up and write-off: Dr Goodwill \( \$120,000 \), Cr Alan Capital \( \$72,000 \), Cr Bill Capital \( \$48,000 \) [1.8 marks] AND Dr Alan Capital \( \$60,000 \), Dr Bill Capital \( \$40,000 \), Dr Chris Capital \( \$20,000 \), Cr Goodwill \( \$120,000 \) [1.8 marks])

(b) Capital balances calculation:
- Alan: \( \$212,000 \) (1.2 marks)
- Bill: \( \$158,000 \) (1.2 marks)
- Chris: \( \$100,000 \) (1.6 marks)
Question 2 · Structured Question
7.6 marks
The trial balance of Delta Company failed to agree on 31 December 2022, and the difference was entered into a suspense account. Later, the following errors were discovered:
(1) A payment of \( \$4,500 \) for insurance was recorded in the insurance account as \( \$5,400 \).
(2) Credit sales of \( \$8,200 \) to Mr. Tong was entered in the sales journal as \( \$2,800 \). No posting error occurred in Mr. Tong's personal account.
(3) Return of goods outwards of \( \$1,200 \) to a supplier, Ms. Lee, was completely omitted from the books.
(4) A purchase of motor van of \( \$45,000 \) on credit was entered in the purchases journal.

Required:
(a) Prepare the journal entries to correct the above errors (narrations are not required). (5.6 marks)
(b) Identify which of the above error(s) would NOT affect the agreement of the trial balance. (2 marks)

Answer

(a) (1) Dr Suspense \( \$900 \), Cr Insurance \( \$900 \); (2) Dr Suspense \( \$5,400 \), Cr Sales \( \$5,400 \); (3) Dr Ms. Lee \( \$1,200 \), Cr Returns Outwards \( \$1,200 \); (4) Dr Motor Van \( \$45,000 \), Cr Purchases \( \$45,000 \). (b) Errors (3) and (4) do not affect trial balance agreement.

Worked solution

(a) Journal Entries:
(1)
Debit: Suspense \( \$900 \)
Credit: Insurance \( \$900 \)
(To correct the over-entry in insurance account)

(2)
Debit: Suspense \( \$5,400 \)
Credit: Sales \( \$5,400 \)
(To correct credit sales under-recorded in sales account)

(3)
Debit: Ms. Lee (or Trade Payables) \( \$1,200 \)
Credit: Returns Outwards \( \$1,200 \)
(To record return of goods omitted from books)

(4)
Debit: Motor Van \( \$45,000 \)
Credit: Purchases \( \$45,000 \)
(To correct capital expenditure wrongly recorded as revenue expenditure)

(b) Errors (3) and (4) would not affect the agreement of the trial balance because:
- Error (3) is an error of omission, where both debit and credit entries are completely omitted from the books.
- Error (4) is an error of principle, where the correct debit amount was entered into the wrong class of account (Purchases instead of Motor Van), so total debits still equal total credits.

Marking scheme

(a) Journal Entries:
- Entry (1): Dr Suspense \( \$900 \) / Cr Insurance \( \$900 \) (1.4 marks)
- Entry (2): Dr Suspense \( \$5,400 \) / Cr Sales \( \$5,400 \) (1.4 marks)
- Entry (3): Dr Ms. Lee \( \$1,200 \) / Cr Returns Outwards \( \$1,200 \) (1.4 marks)
- Entry (4): Dr Motor Van \( \$45,000 \) / Cr Purchases \( \$45,000 \) (1.4 marks)

(b) Errors identification:
- Error (3) (1 mark)
- Error (4) (1 mark)
Question 3 · Structured Question
7.6 marks
Zenith Ltd produces a single product. The budgeted and actual production for 2022 was 10,000 units, while sales was 8,500 units. There was no opening inventory.

The cost and price details are as follows:
- Selling price per unit: \( \$150 \)
- Direct materials per unit: \( \$40 \)
- Direct labour per unit: \( \$30 \)
- Variable manufacturing overheads per unit: \( \$10 \)
- Fixed manufacturing overheads: \( \$200,000 \) per year
- Variable selling and administrative overheads per unit sold: \( \$5 \)
- Fixed selling and administrative overheads: \( \$80,000 \) per year

Required:
(a) Calculate the unit product cost under:
(i) Marginal costing. (1 mark)
(ii) Absorption costing. (1.6 marks)
(b) Prepare the income statement for the year ended 31 December 2022 under marginal costing. (5 marks)

Answer

(a)(i) Marginal: \( \$80 \); (ii) Absorption: \( \$100 \). (b) Net Profit under Marginal Costing: \( \$272,500 \).

Worked solution

(a) (i)
Unit product cost under marginal costing = Direct materials + Direct labour + Variable manufacturing overheads
= \( \$40 + \$30 + \$10 = \$80 \)

(ii)
Unit product cost under absorption costing = Marginal unit cost + (Fixed manufacturing overheads / Budgeted production units)
= \( \$80 + (\$200,000 / 10,000) = \$80 + \$20 = \$100 \)

(b)
Zenith Ltd
Income Statement for the year ended 31 December 2022 (Marginal Costing)
Sales (\( 8,500 \times \$150 \)) = \( \$1,275,000 \)

Less Variable Cost of Goods Sold:
Opening inventory = \( \$0 \)
Add Variable cost of goods manufactured (\( 10,000 \times \$80 \)) = \( \$800,000 \)
Less Closing inventory (\( 1,500 \times \$80 \)) = \( (\$120,000) \)
Variable Cost of Goods Sold = \( \$680,000 \)
Add Variable selling & admin overheads (\( 8,500 \times \$5 \)) = \( \$42,500 \)
Total Variable Costs = \( (\$722,500) \)

Contribution = \( \$552,500 \)

Less Fixed Costs:
Fixed manufacturing overheads = \( \$200,000 \)
Fixed selling & admin overheads = \( \$80,000 \)
Total Fixed Costs = \( (\$280,000) \)

Net Profit = \( \$272,500 \)

Marking scheme

(a)(i) \( \$80 \) (1 mark)
(a)(ii) Show formula/calculation of fixed overhead per unit (0.8 mark) and final answer \( \$100 \) (0.8 mark).
(b) Income Statement:
- Sales: \( \$1,275,000 \) (0.5 mark)
- Variable cost of goods manufactured: \( \$800,000 \) (0.5 mark)
- Closing inventory: \( \$120,000 \) (1 mark)
- Variable selling & admin: \( \$42,500 \) (1 mark)
- Contribution: \( \$552,500 \) (1 mark)
- Fixed costs (both manufacturing & admin) and Net Profit \( \$272,500 \) (1 mark)
Question 4 · Structured Question
7.6 marks
Gary, a sole trader, does not keep proper accounting records. The following information is available for the year ended 31 December 2022:

- 1 January 2022:
Equipment (net book value): \( \$85,000 \)
Inventory: \( \$24,000 \)
Trade receivables: \( \$18,000 \)
Bank balance (Dr): \( \$12,500 \)
Trade payables: \( \$15,000 \)

- 31 December 2022:
Equipment (net book value): \( \$76,500 \)
Inventory: \( \$29,500 \)
Trade receivables: \( \$21,500 \)
Bank balance (Dr): \( \$19,800 \)
Trade payables: \( \$13,200 \)

During the year, Gary introduced \( \$20,000 \) cash as additional capital and withdrew goods costing \( \$4,000 \) for private use. No other drawings were made.

Required:
(a) Prepare a statement of affairs to calculate Gary's capital as at 1 January 2022. (2.6 marks)
(b) Calculate the net profit or loss of Gary's business for the year ended 31 December 2022 using the capital comparison method. (5 marks)

Answer

(a) Capital on 1 Jan 2022: \( \$124,500 \). (b) Net Loss for the year: \( \$6,400 \).

Worked solution

(a)
Gary
Statement of Affairs as at 1 January 2022

Assets:
Equipment: \( \$85,000 \)
Inventory: \( \$24,000 \)
Trade receivables: \( \$18,000 \)
Bank: \( \$12,500 \)
Total Assets = \( \$139,500 \)

Less Liabilities:
Trade payables: \( \$15,000 \)

Capital as at 1 January 2022 = \( \$139,500 - \$15,000 = \$124,500 \)

(b)
Calculation of Capital as at 31 December 2022:
Total Assets = \( \text{Equipment} (\$76,500) + \text{Inventory} (\$29,500) + \text{Trade Receivables} (\$21,500) + \text{Bank} (\$19,800) = \$147,300 \)
Less Trade Payables = \( \$13,200 \)
Capital as at 31 December 2022 = \( \$147,300 - \$13,200 = \$134,100 \)

Capital Comparison Method:
Closing Capital (31 December 2022): \( \$134,100 \)
Add Drawings (goods): \( \$4,000 \)
Less Capital introduced: \( (\$20,000) \)
Less Opening Capital (1 January 2022): \( (\$124,500) \)

Net Loss for the year = \( \$134,100 + \$4,000 - \$20,000 - \$124,500 = -\$6,400 \) (Net Loss of \( \$6,400 \))

Marking scheme

(a) Statement of Affairs:
- Correct list of assets (0.5 mark for each: Equipment, Inventory, Trade Receivables, Bank) (2 marks)
- Correct trade payables (0.5 mark)
- Correct Capital balance: \( \$124,500 \) (0.1 mark)

(b) Capital Comparison:
- Calculate Closing Capital: \( \$134,100 \) (1.5 marks)
- Add Drawings: \( \$4,000 \) (1 mark)
- Less Capital introduced: \( \$20,000 \) (1 mark)
- Less Opening Capital: \( \$124,500 \) (1 mark)
- Correct Net Loss: \( \$6,400 \) (0.5 mark)
Question 5 · Structured Question
7.6 marks
On 1 January 2022, Sunny Ltd had 500,000 ordinary shares in issue, and a retained profits balance of \( \$450,000 \). During the year ended 31 December 2022, the following transactions occurred:
(1) On 1 March 2022, a final dividend of \( \$0.15 \) per share for the year 2021 was paid.
(2) On 1 June 2022, the company made a bonus issue of 1 share for every 5 shares held, capitalizing \( \$200,000 \) from the retained profits.
(3) On 1 October 2022, the company issued 100,000 ordinary shares at \( \$2.5 \) per share.
(4) Net profit for the year ended 31 December 2022 was \( \$180,000 \).

Required:
(a) Calculate the retained profits of Sunny Ltd as at 31 December 2022. (5.6 marks)
(b) Explain one reason why a limited company might choose to make a bonus issue instead of paying cash dividends. (2 marks)

Answer

(a) Retained profits on 31 Dec 2022: \( \$355,000 \). (b) To conserve cash / retain liquid funds for business expansion or investment.

Worked solution

(a)
Sunny Ltd
Statement of Retained Profits for the year ended 31 December 2022:
Opening balance (1 January 2022): \( \$450,000 \)
Less: Dividend paid (\( 500,000 \text{ shares} \times \$0.15 \)): \( (\$75,000) \)
Less: Bonus issue of shares: \( (\$200,000) \)
Add: Net profit for the year: \( \$180,000 \)
Retained profits as at 31 December 2022: \( \$355,000 \)

*Note: The share issue on 1 October 2022 increases Share Capital by \( \$250,000 \) (\( 100,000 \times \$2.5 \)) and does not affect the retained profits.

(b)
Reasons why a company issues bonus shares instead of cash dividends (any one):
- Conserve cash: Paying dividends in cash leads to an outflow of cash. A bonus issue allows the company to reward shareholders without reducing its liquid funds, which can be retained for future business growth and investment.
- Improve liquidity of shares: It increases the number of shares in the market, which can lower the price per share, making it more accessible and liquid for investors.

Marking scheme

(a) Retained Profits:
- Opening balance: \( \$450,000 \) (0.6 mark)
- Dividend paid: \( \$75,000 \) (1.5 marks)
- Bonus issue: \( \$200,000 \) (1.5 marks)
- Net profit: \( \$180,000 \) (1 mark)
- Closing balance: \( \$355,000 \) (1 mark)

(b) Reason (any one, 2 marks):
- To conserve cash / retain liquid funds for business expansion or investment. (2 marks)
- To lower the market price per share to improve share trading liquidity. (2 marks)

Paper 2A Section B

Answer all compulsory structured questions in this section.
3 Question · 31.799999999999997 marks
Question 1 · Structured Question
10.6 marks
Yummy Bakery produces two types of specialty cakes: Matcha Delight (M) and Choco Dream (C). Both products require the use of a specialized mixing machine.\n\nThe following monthly information is available:\n- Selling price per unit: Matcha Delight = \$120; Choco Dream = \$150\n- Variable cost per unit: Matcha Delight = \$40; Choco Dream = \$60\n- Machine hours required per unit: Matcha Delight = 0.5 hours; Choco Dream = 1.5 hours\n- Maximum demand per month: Matcha Delight = 1,200 units; Choco Dream = 800 units\n- Total available machine hours per month: 1,200 hours\n- Monthly fixed costs are \$30,000.\n\nRequired:\n(a) Determine the contribution margin per machine hour for each type of cake. (2 marks)\n(b) Calculate the optimal product mix to maximize profit and the resulting total contribution margin. (5 marks)\n(c) The supplier of the mixing machine offers to lease an additional machine that provides 300 additional machine hours for \$4,000 per month. Explain, with calculations, whether Yummy Bakery should accept this lease offer. (3.6 marks)

Answer

Optimal product mix: Matcha Delight = 1,200 units, Choco Dream = 400 units; Total Contribution Margin = $132,000. Lease offer: Accept (Net financial benefit = $14,000).

Worked solution

(a) Contribution margin per unit:\n- Matcha Delight = \( \$120 - \$40 = \$80 \)\n- Choco Dream = \( \$150 - \$60 = \$90 \)\n\nContribution margin per machine hour:\n- Matcha Delight = \( \$80 / 0.5 \text{ hours} = \$160 \text{ per hour} \)\n- Choco Dream = \( \$90 / 1.5 \text{ hours} = \$60 \text{ per hour} \)\n\n(b) Priority ranking:\nSince Matcha Delight has a higher contribution margin per machine hour (\$160 > \$60), it has priority 1, and Choco Dream has priority 2.\n\nAllocation of machine hours:\n1. Produce Matcha Delight to meet maximum demand of 1,200 units:\n - Machine hours required = \( 1,200 \text{ units} \times 0.5 \text{ hours/unit} = 600 \text{ hours} \)\n2. Remaining hours for Choco Dream = \( 1,200 - 600 = 600 \text{ hours} \)\n3. Units of Choco Dream to produce = \( 600 \text{ hours} / 1.5 \text{ hours/unit} = 400 \text{ units} \) (which is within the maximum demand of 800 units)\n\nOptimal Product Mix:\n- Matcha Delight: 1,200 units\n- Choco Dream: 400 units\n\nTotal Contribution Margin:\n- Matcha Delight: \( 1,200 \text{ units} \times \$80 = \$96,000 \)\n- Choco Dream: \( 400 \text{ units} \times \$90 = \$36,000 \)\n- Total Contribution Margin = \( \$96,000 + \$36,000 = \$132,000 \)\n\n(c) Additional machine hours = 300 hours.\nSince the demand for Choco Dream (800 units) is not fully satisfied (currently producing 400 units), the additional 300 hours will be used to produce Choco Dream.\n- Additional units of Choco Dream to produce = \( 300 \text{ hours} / 1.5 \text{ hours/unit} = 200 \text{ units} \)\n- Additional contribution margin = \( 200 \text{ units} \times \$90 = \$18,000 \) (or \( 300 \text{ hours} \times \$60/\text{hour} = \$18,000 \))\n- Less: Additional leasing cost = \$4,000\n- Net financial benefit = \( \$18,000 - \$4,000 = \$14,000 \)\n\nDecision: Yummy Bakery should accept the lease offer because it will increase the company's net profit by \$14,000.

Marking scheme

(a) 1 mark for each correct calculation of contribution margin per machine hour (total 2 marks).\n- Matcha Delight: $160 (1 mark)\n- Choco Dream: $60 (1 mark)\n\n(b) \n- Identification of ranking (Matcha Delight 1st, Choco Dream 2nd): (1 mark)\n- Calculation of optimal quantity for Matcha Delight (1,200 units) and Choco Dream (400 units): (2 marks; 1 mark each)\n- Calculation of total contribution margin ($132,000): (2 marks; 1 method mark, 1 accuracy mark)\n\n(c) \n- Calculation of additional production (200 units of Choco Dream) or additional contribution margin ($18,000): (1.6 marks)\n- Deduction of lease cost to find net financial benefit ($14,000): (1 mark)\n- Correct conclusion to accept the offer based on financial analysis: (1 mark)
Question 2 · Structured Question
10.6 marks
Alan and Ben were in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. As of 31 December 2022, their capital account balances were Alan \$180,000 and Ben \$120,000. \n\nOn 1 January 2023, they agreed to admit Chris into partnership on the following terms:\n1. Chris brings in \$100,000 cash as capital and is to receive a 1/5 share of profits. The new profit-sharing ratio among Alan, Ben, and Chris is to be 12:8:5.\n2. Equipment is revalued upwards by \$30,000.\n3. Inventory is written down by \$5,000.\n4. Goodwill is valued at \$50,000. No goodwill account is to be maintained in the books of the partnership.\n\nRequired:\n(a) Prepare the Revaluation Account. (3 marks)\n(b) Prepare the partners' Capital Accounts in columnar form to show the admission of Chris. (5.6 marks)\n(c) State two reasons why a partnership might decide not to maintain a goodwill account in its books. (2 marks)

Answer

Revaluation profit: Alan = $15,000, Ben = $10,000; Capital c/d balances: Alan = $201,000, Ben = $134,000, Chris = $90,000.

Worked solution

(a)\nRevaluation Account\n---------------------------------------------------------------\nDr Cr\n---------------------------------------------------------------\nInventory $5,000 | Equipment $30,000\nCapital - Alan (3/5) $15,000 | \nCapital - Ben (2/5) $10,000 | \n---------------------------------------------------------------\n $30,000 | $30,000\n===============================================================\n\n(b)\nCapital Accounts\n------------------------------------------------------------------------------------\nDr Alan Ben Chris | Cr Alan Ben Chris\n------------------------------------------------------------------------------------\nGoodwill (write-off) $24,000 $16,000 $10,000 | Balance b/f $180,000 $120,000 -\nBalance c/f $201,000 $134,000 $90,000 | Cash/Bank - - $100,000\n | Revaluation profit $15,000 $10,000 -\n | Goodwill (raise) $30,000 $20,000 -\n------------------------------------------------------------------------------------\n $225,000 $150,000 $100,000 | $225,000 $150,000 $100,000\n====================================================================================\n\n(c) Two reasons why a partnership might decide not to maintain a goodwill account:\n1. Prudence concept: Non-purchased / internally generated goodwill should not be recognized in the financial statements because its value is highly subjective and lacks reliable measurement.\n2. To present a more realistic picture of the tangible net assets of the firm and avoid overstating assets.

Marking scheme

(a) \n- Debit entries for Inventory write-down ($5,000): (0.5 marks)\n- Credit entry for Equipment revaluation ($30,000): (0.5 marks)\n- Transfer of revaluation profits to partners' Capital accounts in 3:2 ratio ($15,000 to Alan, $10,000 to Ben): (2 marks; 1 mark each)\n\n(b) \n- Balance b/f & Cash from Chris: (0.6 marks)\n- Revaluation profits correctly credited: (1 mark)\n- Goodwill raised in old ratio (Alan $30,000, Ben $20,000): (1 mark)\n- Goodwill written off in new ratio (Alan $24,000, Ben $16,000, Chris $10,000): (1.5 marks; 0.5 marks each)\n- Correct ending balances (Alan $201,000, Ben $134,000, Chris $90,000): (1.5 marks; 0.5 marks each)\n\n(c) \n- Mentioning the Prudence concept / non-recognition of internally generated goodwill due to subjective nature: (1 mark)\n- Explaining that it avoids overstating non-current/intangible assets: (1 mark)
Question 3 · Structured Question
10.6 marks
The trial balance of Sunny Trading as at 31 December 2023 failed to agree, and the difference was entered into a suspense account. The draft net profit for the year was \$142,800. Subsequent investigation revealed the following errors:\n1. A payment of \$3,200 for office equipment repairs had been correctly entered in the cash book, but debited to the Office Equipment account. Depreciation of office equipment is charged at 20% per annum on cost at year-end.\n2. Sales on credit to Mr. Lee of \$6,500 were recorded in the sales journal as \$5,600.\n3. A discount received of \$800 had been correctly entered in the cash book, but posted to the debit side of the Discount Received account.\n4. Returns outwards of \$1,200 to supplier ABC Ltd had been debited to ABC Ltd's account, but no entry had been made in the returns outwards account.\n5. The total of the purchases journal had been undercast by \$2,000.\n\nRequired:\n(a) Prepare the journal entries to correct the above errors (narratives are not required). (5 marks)\n(b) Prepare the Suspense Account to find the opening balance of the suspense account. (2.6 marks)\n(c) Prepare a statement to calculate the corrected net profit for the year ended 31 December 2023. (3 marks)

Answer

Opening balance of Suspense account = $800 (Credit); Corrected Net Profit = $141,940.

Worked solution

(a) Journal Entries:\n1(i) \nDr Office equipment repairs $3,200\n Cr Office equipment $3,200\n1(ii) \nDr Accumulated depreciation - Office equipment $640\n Cr Depreciation expense $640\n\n2. \nDr Trade receivables - Mr. Lee $900\n Cr Sales $900\n\n3. \nDr Suspense $1,600\n Cr Discount received $1,600\n\n4. \nDr Suspense $1,200\n Cr Returns outwards $1,200\n\n5. \nDr Purchases $2,000\n Cr Suspense $2,000\n\n(b)\nSuspense Account\n---------------------------------------------------------------\nDr Cr\n---------------------------------------------------------------\nDiscount received $1,600 | Balance b/f (Difference) $800\nReturns outwards $1,200 | Purchases $2,000\n---------------------------------------------------------------\n $2,800 | $2,800\n===============================================================\n*Therefore, the opening balance was $800 on the Credit side.\n\n(c)\nStatement to Calculate Corrected Net Profit for the year ended 31 December 2023\n-----------------------------------------------------------------------\nDraft net profit $142,800\nAdjustments:\n(1) Increase in repairs expense (Error 1) ($3,200)\n Decrease in depreciation expense (Error 1) $640\n(2) Understated sales (Error 2) $900\n(3) Error in discount received (Error 3) $1,600\n(4) Omitted returns outwards (Error 4) $1,200\n(5) Undercast of purchases (Error 5) ($2,000) ($860)\n-----------------------------------------------------------------------\nCorrected net profit $141,940\n=======================================================

Marking scheme

(a) 1 mark for each correct journal correction entry (total 5 marks):\n- Entry 1(i) and 1(ii): (1 mark total; 0.5 marks each)\n- Entry 2: (1 mark)\n- Entry 3: (1 mark)\n- Entry 4: (1 mark)\n- Entry 5: (1 mark)\n\n(b) \n- Debit entries for Discount Received and Returns Outwards: (1 mark; 0.5 marks each)\n- Credit entry for Purchases: (0.6 marks)\n- Calculation of correct opening balance ($800 Cr): (1 mark)\n\n(c) 0.5 marks for each adjusted item with the correct sign (total 3 marks):\n- Repairs: -$3,200 (0.5 marks)\n- Depreciation: +$640 (0.5 marks)\n- Sales: +$900 (0.5 marks)\n- Discount Received: +$1,600 (0.5 marks)\n- Returns Outwards: +$1,200 (0.5 marks)\n- Purchases: -$2,000 (0.5 marks)\n- Correct final net profit ($141,940) receives no extra marks but requires all individual correct calculations.

Paper 2A Section C

Choose and answer ONE essay question out of two.
1 Question · 18 marks
Question 1 · Case Study / Essay
18 marks
Alex and Billy have been in partnership for several years, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of \(3:2\). The statement of financial position of the partnership as at 31 December 2022 was as follows:

$$
\begin{array}{lrr}
\text{Non-current Assets:} & \$ & \$
\\ \quad \text{Equipment at cost} & 200,000 \\
\quad \text{Less: Accumulated depreciation} & (80,000) & 120,000
\\ \text{Current Assets:} \\
\quad \text{Inventory} & 64,000 \\
\quad \text{Trade receivables} & 45,000 \\
\quad \text{Bank} & 31,000 & 140,000 \\
\hline
\text{Total Assets} && 260,000 \\
\hline\hline
\text{Financed by:} \\
\text{Capital Accounts:} \\
\quad \text{Alex} && 120,000 \\
\quad \text{Billy} && 80,000 \\
\text{Current Accounts:} \\
\quad \text{Alex} && 18,000 \\
\quad \text{Billy} && 12,000 \\
\text{Current Liabilities:} \\
\quad \text{Trade payables} && 30,000 \\
\hline
\text{Total Equity and Liabilities} && 260,000 \\
\hline\hline
\end{array}
$$

On 1 January 2023, Charles was admitted into the partnership on the following terms:
1. The new profit-sharing ratio among Alex, Billy, and Charles was to be \(5:3:2\).
2. Assets were to be revalued as follows:
- Equipment was revalued at \$145,500.
- Inventory was valued at its net realisable value of \$58,000.
- An allowance for doubtful debts of 10% was to be created on trade receivables.
3. Goodwill of the partnership was valued at \$100,000, but no Goodwill account was to be maintained in the books.
4. Charles was to introduce cash of \$120,000 as his capital.
5. The partners agreed that the capital accounts of the partners should be adjusted in proportion to their new profit-sharing ratio, with Charles's final capital balance (after goodwill adjustment) being used as the base. Any surplus or deficit on the capital accounts of Alex and Billy was to be settled in cash.

**Required:**
(a) Prepare the Revaluation Account of the partnership on 1 January 2023. (4 marks)
(b) Prepare the Partners' Capital Accounts (in columnar form) to record the admission of Charles and the subsequent adjustments. (8 marks)
(c) Define 'Goodwill' in accounting and explain why the partners chose not to maintain a Goodwill account in the books. (4 marks)
(d) State the accounting principle applied when inventory is valued at its net realisable value of \$58,000 instead of its cost of \$64,000, and explain how it applies in this scenario. (2 marks)

Answer

Refer to the solution and marking scheme for detailed ledger accounts and explanations.

Worked solution

### (a) Revaluation Account
$$
\begin{array}{lr|lr}
\hline
\text{Debit (\$)} && \text{Credit (\$)} & \\
\hline
\text{Inventory (\$64,000 - \$58,000)} & 6,000 & \text{Equipment (\$145,500 - \$120,000)} & 25,500 \\
\text{Allowance for doubtful debts (10\% } \times \$45,000) & 4,500 & & \\
\text{Share of profit on revaluation:} & & & \\
\quad \text{Alex (3/5)} & 9,000 & & \\
\quad \text{Billy (2/5)} & 6,000 & & \\
\hline
& 25,500 & & 25,500 \\
\hline
\end{array}
$$

### (b) Partners' Capital Accounts
$$
\begin{array}{lccc|lccc}
\hline
\text{Particulars} & \text{Alex (\$)} & \text{Billy (\$)} & \text{Charles (\$)} & \text{Particulars} & \text{Alex (\$)} & \text{Billy (\$)} & \text{Charles (\$)} \\
\hline
\text{Goodwill (written off)} & 50,000 & 30,000 & 20,000 & \text{Balance b/d} & 120,000 & 80,000 & - \\
& & & & \text{Revaluation profit} & 9,000 & 6,000 & - \\
& & & & \text{Bank (Capital)} & - & - & 120,000 \\
& & & & \text{Goodwill (written on)} & 60,000 & 40,000 & - \\
\text{Balance c/d (adjusted)} & 250,000 & 150,000 & 100,000 & \text{Bank (Cash contribution)} & 111,000 & 54,000 & - \\
\hline
& 300,000 & 180,000 & 120,000 & & 300,000 & 180,000 & 120,000 \\
\hline
\end{array}
$$
*Working for Capital Adjustments:*
1. Charles's final capital balance after goodwill write-off = \$120,000 - \$20,000 = \$100,000.
2. Since Charles's profit share is \(2/10\) (or 20%), the total capital of the partnership should be:
$$\text{Total Capital} = \frac{\$100,000}{2/10} = \$500,000$$
3. The adjusted capital balances should be:
- Alex (5/10): \$\$500,000 \times \frac{5}{10} = \$250,000\$\$
- Billy (3/10): \$\$500,000 \times \frac{3}{10} = \$150,000\$\$
- Charles (2/10): \$\$500,000 \times \frac{2}{10} = \$100,000\$\$
4. Cash contributions needed:
- Alex: \$250,000 - (\$120,000 + \$9,000 + \$60,000 - \$50,000) = \$250,000 - \$139,000 = \$111,000 cash contribution.
- Billy: \$150,000 - (\$80,000 + \$6,000 + \$40,000 - \$30,000) = \$150,000 - \$96,000 = \$54,000 cash contribution.

### (c) Goodwill
- **Definition**: Goodwill is an intangible asset that represents the excess of the business's overall purchase value over the fair value of its identifiable net assets. It reflects future economic benefits arising from factors such as brand reputation, customer loyalty, and prime business location.
- **Explanation**: The partners chose not to maintain a Goodwill account because the goodwill in this case is internally generated (non-purchased) goodwill. According to HKAS 38 (Intangible Assets) and the prudence concept, internally generated goodwill cannot be objectively valued and must not be recognised as an asset in the books of accounts. Writing it off immediately prevents the overstatement of the partnership's assets.

### (d) Accounting Principle
- **Principle**: Prudence Concept (or lower of cost and net realisable value rule).
- **Application**: Under the prudence concept, profits and assets should not be overstated, while losses and liabilities should be recognised immediately. Since the net realisable value of inventory (\$58,000) is lower than its historical cost (\$64,000), a write-down of \$6,000 must be made to ensure that the asset is not overstated in the financial statements.

Marking scheme

**(a) Revaluation Account [Total: 4 marks]**
- Debit side: Inventory write-down of \$6,000 (0.5 mark)
- Debit side: Allowance for doubtful debts of \$4,500 (0.5 mark)
- Credit side: Equipment revaluation surplus of \$25,500 (1 mark)
- Revaluation profit distribution: Alex \$9,000 (1 mark), Billy \$6,000 (1 mark)

**(b) Partners' Capital Accounts [Total: 8 marks]**
- Correct opening balances for Alex and Billy (0.5 mark)
- Revaluation profit correctly credited (0.5 mark)
- Bank contribution of \$120,000 credited to Charles (1 mark)
- Goodwill adjustment:
- Goodwill write-on credited in old ratio: Alex \$60,000, Billy \$40,000 (1 mark)
- Goodwill write-off debited in new ratio: Alex \$50,000, Billy \$30,000, Charles \$20,000 (1.5 marks)
- *Note: Net entry (Dr Charles \$20,000, Cr Alex \$10,000, Cr Billy \$10,000) is also acceptable.*
- Cash adjustments to bring capital to the profit-sharing ratio:
- Alex's cash contribution of \$111,000 (1.5 marks)
- Billy's cash contribution of \$54,000 (1.5 marks)
- Correct closing balances c/d (showing proportionate amounts of \$250,000, \$150,000, \$100,000) (0.5 mark)

**(c) Goodwill definition and treatment [Total: 4 marks]**
- Definition of Goodwill (2 marks)
- Reason for not maintaining Goodwill account (internally generated, HKAS 38, prudence) (2 marks)

**(d) Accounting Principle [Total: 2 marks]**
- Identify Prudence Concept (1 mark)
- Explanation in relation to inventory cost vs. net realisable value (1 mark)