2025 CCEA GCSE Physical Education 7210 模拟试题及答案详解

Protection of vital organs (e.g. the ribs protecting the heart and lungs) is a function of the skeletal system. Digestion, heart-rate control and red blood cell production in males only are not skeletal functions in this sense.
Final answer: protection of vital organs.

Correct answer — A (protection of vital organs) [1].

The cardiovascular system's main function during exercise is to transport oxygen and nutrients to working muscles (and remove waste products such as carbon dioxide).
Final answer: transporting oxygen and nutrients to working muscles.

Correct answer — A (transporting oxygen and nutrients to working muscles) [1].

(a) Muscle A, on the front of the upper arm, is the biceps brachii; muscle B, on the back of the upper arm, is the triceps brachii.
(b) During the upward (lifting) phase, the biceps brachii (muscle A) is the prime mover producing the movement, so it is the agonist; the triceps brachii (muscle B) relaxes to allow the movement, so it is the antagonist.
(c) As muscle A (biceps brachii) is shortening while producing force to lift the arm, the contraction taking place is a concentric contraction.
Final answer: (a) biceps brachii and triceps brachii; (b) biceps brachii = agonist, triceps brachii = antagonist; (c) concentric.

(a) Biceps brachii [1]; triceps brachii [1]. (b) Correct identification of agonist (biceps brachii) [1]; correct identification of antagonist (triceps brachii) [1]. (c) Concentric (contraction) [1].

1. Trachea carries air from the throat towards the lungs — C.
2. Alveoli are the tiny air sacs where gaseous exchange takes place — B.
3. Diaphragm contracts and flattens to increase thoracic cavity volume during inspiration — A.
4. Intercostal muscles help raise and lower the rib cage during breathing — D.
Final answer: 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D.

Each correct match [1 mark each, max 4]: 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D.

(i) Reduced risk of coronary heart disease is a physical benefit, because regular exercise strengthens the heart muscle and improves the efficiency of the cardiovascular system, reducing strain on the heart.
(ii) Reduced feelings of stress and anxiety is a mental (emotional) benefit, because physical activity releases endorphins and provides a positive distraction from everyday worries, improving mood and reducing tension.
(iii) The opportunity to make new friends is a social benefit, because taking part in a club or team activity brings people together, encouraging teamwork, communication and the building of new relationships.
Final answer: (i) physical — strengthens the heart; (ii) mental — releases endorphins/reduces tension; (iii) social — builds relationships through shared participation.

For each of (i)–(iii): correct classification (physical/mental/social) [1]; valid supporting reason [1]. [2 marks each, max 6].

(a) Venue X is more suitable. Its capacity of 150 comfortably accommodates the approximately 120 players and spectators expected, whereas Venue Y's capacity of only 80 would not be sufficient and could create overcrowding or safety issues. Venue X also provides changing rooms and a car park, both of which Venue Y lacks, improving the experience and accessibility for participants. Although Venue X costs more (£450 versus £350), this cost remains within the £600 budget, so cost is not a barrier to choosing the more suitable venue.
(b) One health and safety consideration the organisers should assess is carrying out a risk assessment of the playing surface (for example checking for trip hazards, uneven ground or wet/slippery patches) before play begins, to reduce the risk of injury to participants.
Final answer: (a) Venue X, because its capacity, changing rooms and car park better meet the event's needs while remaining within budget; (b) e.g. risk-assessing the playing surface for hazards.

(a) Correct venue selected (Venue X) [1]; valid justification referencing capacity [1]; valid justification referencing facilities (changing rooms/car park) [1]; valid justification referencing cost/budget [1] (max 4). (b) Any one valid health and safety consideration, e.g. risk assessment of playing surface, first-aid provision, weather conditions [2].

Sensory function: the goalkeeper's exteroceptors (mainly the eyes) detect the stimulus of the ball travelling towards goal, sending this sensory information as nerve impulses towards the central nervous system.
Interpretative function: the brain receives and processes this sensory information, comparing it with stored knowledge and past experience (short-term and long-term memory) to interpret the flight and speed of the ball and decide on the most appropriate response (e.g. which direction to dive).
Motor function: once a decision has been made, motor nerves carry the resulting nerve impulses from the brain to the effector muscles in the goalkeeper's arms and legs, causing them to contract and produce the diving/saving movement.
Final answer: sensory function detects the ball via the eyes, interpretative function (the brain) decides on a response, and motor function carries impulses to the muscles to produce the save.

Sensory function correctly explained (stimulus detected by exteroceptors/eyes, sent to CNS) [2]; interpretative function correctly explained (brain processes information and decides on response) [2]; motor function correctly explained (motor nerves carry impulse to effector muscles, producing action) [2].

Indicative content: aerobic energy production allows the marathon runner's muscles to produce energy using oxygen over a sustained, prolonged period without quickly fatiguing, which is essential over a 26.2-mile race; muscular endurance allows the leg muscles to keep contracting repeatedly at a submaximal force over several hours without a significant loss of technique or power. Training that develops both components (e.g. continuous steady-pace training to develop aerobic capacity, combined with high-repetition, lower-resistance training to build muscular endurance) would be highly effective, as it directly targets the physiological demands of the event; however, effectiveness also depends on other factors being applied correctly, such as progressive overload, adequate recovery and specificity to marathon pace, so training that ignores these principles would be less effective even if it targets the right components.
Final answer: aerobic energy production and muscular endurance are the two most important fitness components for a marathon runner, and training that develops them using appropriate principles of training (overload, specificity, recovery) would be highly effective in improving performance.

Level 3 (7–8 marks): Detailed, accurate analysis of why both components are important for a marathon runner, with a well-reasoned evaluation of training effectiveness; accurate use of specialist vocabulary; high standard of spelling, punctuation and grammar.
Level 2 (4–6 marks): Good analysis of the importance of the components with some evaluation of training effectiveness; some accurate specialist vocabulary; clear meaning, generally accurate SPaG.
Level 1 (1–3 marks): Basic description of one or both components, with limited evaluation; limited specialist vocabulary; meaning not always clear.
Level 0 (0 marks): No creditworthy content.

Indicative content: benefits include improved aerobic fitness and reduced risk of cardiovascular disease, improved muscular strength/endurance and body composition, and improved mental wellbeing through stress relief; barriers for a busy working adult may include limited time due to work and family commitments, tiredness/lack of motivation after a working day, cost of gym membership or classes, and limited access to suitable facilities near home or work. A balanced answer should analyse how these barriers might be overcome (e.g. shorter, higher-intensity sessions such as interval training to fit around a busy schedule; exercising with family/colleagues for motivation and to combine social time; choosing low-cost activities such as walking or running) and evaluate how realistic a regular programme is given these competing demands.
Final answer: a regular health-related exercise programme brings clear physical and mental benefits, but time, motivation, cost and access are realistic barriers for a busy working adult, which can be reduced through practical strategies such as shorter sessions and low-cost activities.

Level 3 (7–8 marks): Detailed, well-balanced analysis of benefits and barriers, with realistic evaluation of how barriers might be overcome; accurate specialist vocabulary; high standard of SPaG.
Level 2 (4–6 marks): Good coverage of benefits and/or barriers with some evaluation; some specialist vocabulary; generally clear and accurate.
Level 1 (1–3 marks): Basic identification of benefits and/or barriers with limited evaluation; limited vocabulary; meaning not always clear.
Level 0 (0 marks): No creditworthy content.

Indicative content: regular physical activity can improve mental health by releasing endorphins, which improve mood and reduce feelings of stress and anxiety; it can improve self-esteem and confidence through achievement of goals and improved body image; it can provide a positive distraction/outlet from daily worries; and, where it involves others, it can reduce feelings of loneliness or isolation through social interaction. A balanced evaluation should also recognise limits to this impact, for example that physical activity alone may not be sufficient to manage more serious mental health conditions, that excessive or obsessive exercise can itself become harmful, and that the benefits depend on the activity being enjoyable and sustainable for the individual rather than an added source of pressure.
Final answer: regular physical activity generally has a strong positive impact on mental health and wellbeing (mood, self-esteem, stress relief, social interaction), though the impact is not unlimited and depends on the activity being appropriate, enjoyable and sustainable for the individual.

Level 3 (7–8 marks): Detailed, well-balanced evaluation of positive impacts with recognition of limitations; accurate specialist vocabulary; high standard of SPaG.
Level 2 (4–6 marks): Good description of positive impacts with some evaluation; some specialist vocabulary; generally clear and accurate.
Level 1 (1–3 marks): Basic identification of one or two impacts with little evaluation; limited vocabulary; meaning not always clear.
Level 0 (0 marks): No creditworthy content.

(a) The balance between energy intake from food and energy output through exercise and normal body function is called energy balance.
(b) Carbohydrate is the body's main and preferred fuel source for sustained aerobic exercise such as distance running; it is stored in the muscles and liver as glycogen, which is broken down to release energy during training and racing. Protein is needed for the growth and repair of muscle tissue that becomes damaged through the repeated stress of endurance training, helping the body recover and adapt between sessions.
(c) Adequate hydration is important because prolonged exercise causes fluid loss through sweating; if this fluid is not replaced, blood volume falls, making it harder for the cardiovascular system to transport oxygen to the muscles, and the body's ability to regulate its temperature through sweating is reduced, increasing the risk of overheating, cramp and a decline in performance.
Final answer: (a) energy balance; (b) carbohydrate fuels sustained aerobic exercise (stored as glycogen), protein supports muscle growth and repair; (c) hydration replaces sweat losses, maintaining blood volume, temperature regulation and performance.

(a) Energy balance [1]. (b) Correct role of carbohydrate (main energy source/stored as glycogen) [2]; correct role of protein (growth and repair of muscle tissue) [2]. (c) Any three linked valid points about hydration, e.g. replaces fluid lost in sweat [1]; maintains blood volume/cardiovascular efficiency [1]; helps regulate body temperature/prevents overheating or cramp [1] (max 3).

A private sector leisure organisation is one that is run by individuals or companies with the aim of making a profit; it is privately owned and funded, and is not owned or controlled by the government. An example of a private sector leisure facility is a private gym (other valid examples include a private health club or a commercial ten-pin bowling centre).
Final answer: run for profit by individuals/companies, privately owned/funded; e.g. a private gym.

Correct reference to being run for profit [1]; correct reference to being privately owned/funded (not government-controlled) [1]; valid example, e.g. private gym [1].

Active leisure involves taking part in an activity that requires physical effort or participation, for example playing a sport such as football. Passive leisure, by contrast, does not require physical exertion and tends to be more restful or observational, for example reading a book or watching a sporting event as a spectator.
Final answer: active leisure requires physical participation (e.g. playing a sport); passive leisure does not (e.g. reading, or watching sport as a spectator).

Correct description of active leisure with valid example [1.5, rounded to 2 if whole marks used flexibly]; correct description of passive leisure with valid example [1]. Award up to 3 marks total for two clearly distinguished, exemplified definitions.

When planning a personal exercise programme to improve health, a person should consider factors such as: their current level of fitness and any relevant health conditions, which affect what is safe and appropriate; the time they realistically have available around work, study or family commitments; and their access to suitable facilities, equipment or safe spaces in which to exercise.
Final answer: any three valid planning factors, e.g. current fitness/health, time available, and access to facilities/equipment.

Any three valid planning factors [1 mark each, max 3].

(a) The performer's estimated VO2 max improved steadily and consistently over the 12-week block, rising from 42 ml/kg/min at the start, to 45 ml/kg/min at the midpoint, to 49 ml/kg/min at the end — an overall increase of 7 ml/kg/min. This consistent upward trend suggests that the aerobic training undertaken was effective in improving the performer's aerobic fitness.
(b) A SMART target should be Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic/Relevant and Time-bound, for example: 'Increase estimated VO2 max from 49 to 52 ml/kg/min within the next 8 weeks, by completing three continuous steady-pace training sessions per week.' This is specific (VO2 max), measurable (49 to 52 ml/kg/min), achievable/realistic (a modest, gradual increase consistent with the previous trend), and time-bound (8 weeks).
(c) It is important that a fitness test is both valid (it truly measures what it claims to measure) and reliable (it produces consistent results when repeated under the same conditions), so that the results can be trusted to accurately reflect the performer's true fitness level and to fairly compare progress over time or between individuals.
Final answer: (a) a steady, consistent improvement of 7 ml/kg/min over the 12 weeks; (b) a specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, time-bound target based on the trend; (c) so the results can be trusted to accurately measure and compare fitness.

(a) Correct identification of the overall improving trend [1]; correct use of figures/data to support the trend [1]; valid interpretation (e.g. training was effective) [1] (max 3). (b) Award up to 4 marks for a target that is clearly Specific [1], Measurable [1], Achievable/Realistic [1] and Time-bound [1]. (c) Any one valid reason relating to trust/comparability of results [1].

(a) Total income = £200 + £150 = £350. Total expenditure = £180 + £90 + £45 + £20 = £335. Profit = £350 − £335 = £15.
(b) The event is financially viable, as total income (£350) exceeds total expenditure (£335), resulting in a small profit of £15; however, the margin is narrow, so any unexpected costs or a shortfall in sponsorship/entries could turn this into a loss.
(c) The organisers could reduce the risk of a loss by, for example, securing an additional sponsor or increasing the number of teams entering (raising total entry-fee income), or by negotiating a lower venue hire cost.
Final answer: (a) income £350, expenditure £335, profit £15; (b) viable but with a narrow margin; (c) e.g. secure additional sponsorship.

(a) Correct total income (£350) [1]; correct total expenditure (£335) [1]; correct profit/loss figure with correct sign (£15 profit) [2] (max 4, own-figure rule applied for consistent arithmetic). (b) Valid comment referencing the profit/loss figure calculated [2]. (c) Any one valid, feasible method of reducing financial risk [2].

(a) A total of 7 matches are required. In a straight knockout format, every match eliminates exactly one team, and to reduce 8 teams down to a single overall winner, 7 teams must be eliminated — so 7 matches are needed (8 − 1 = 7).
(b) The draw should be structured in three rounds: Round 1 (quarter-finals) consists of 4 matches, reducing 8 teams to 4; Round 2 (semi-finals) consists of 2 matches, reducing 4 teams to 2; Round 3 (the final) consists of 1 match, producing the overall winner from the remaining 2 teams.
(c) Two valid scheduling factors are: allowing sufficient rest and recovery time between a team's consecutive matches, so players are not required to play back-to-back games without a break, reducing the risk of injury and fatigue; and avoiding scheduling matches during the hottest part of the day (or ensuring adequate hydration breaks), to reduce the risk of heat-related illness.
Final answer: (a) 7 matches (8 − 1 = 7 eliminations); (b) 4 quarter-final matches, then 2 semi-final matches, then 1 final; (c) e.g. adequate rest time between matches and avoiding play in the hottest part of the day.

(a) Correct number of matches (7) [1]; correct explanation (one team eliminated per match / 8−1) [2] (max 3). (b) Correct round-by-round structure: 4 matches in round 1 [1], 2 matches in round 2/semi-finals [1], 1 match in the final [1] (max 3). (c) Any two valid safety/fairness scheduling factors [1.5 marks each, max 3 — accept whole-mark allocation for two clearly valid points].

Specificity is the principle that training should be closely matched to the particular demands of the sport, event or individual performer, rather than being generic. This is practically important for a 400m sprinter because their event relies heavily on anaerobic energy production and muscular speed/power over roughly 45–60 seconds; a training programme built around specific, race-pace interval running and speed-endurance work will therefore improve performance far more effectively than generic long, slow aerobic running, which trains a different energy system and does not closely replicate the demands of the event.
Final answer: specificity means matching training to the exact demands of the sport/individual — for a 400m sprinter, this means prioritising anaerobic speed-endurance work over generic aerobic training.

Correct definition of specificity (training matched to the demands of the sport/individual) [2]; correct, relevant practical example/explanation for the 400m sprinter [2].

Progression is the principle that the demands of training should be gradually increased over time, in line with improvements in fitness, so that the body continues to be appropriately challenged. This is practically important for a beginner starting a running programme because increasing distance, pace or frequency too quickly, before the body has adapted, significantly increases the risk of injury (such as overuse injuries) and overtraining; by contrast, small, gradual increases in distance or intensity each week allow the beginner's fitness to improve safely and sustainably.
Final answer: progression means gradually increasing training demands over time — for a beginner runner, this means small, steady increases in distance/intensity rather than large jumps, reducing injury risk while still improving fitness.

Correct definition of progression (gradual increase in training demands over time) [2]; correct, relevant practical example/explanation for the beginner runner [2].

Overload means that, for fitness to improve, the body must be made to work harder than it is normally used to. For a rugby player's strength-training programme, this should be applied by progressively increasing the resistance (weight) lifted, and/or the number of repetitions or sets performed, once the current load can be comfortably managed, so that the muscles are continually forced to adapt and increase in strength.
Final answer: overload is applied by progressively increasing the resistance, repetitions or sets used in training, so the muscles must work harder than they are accustomed to and are forced to adapt.

Correct explanation of overload (forcing the body/muscles to work harder than normal) [1]; correct, relevant method of applying overload in strength training (e.g. increasing resistance/reps/sets) [2].

Peaking refers to structuring a training programme so that a performer reaches their optimum level of fitness, form and readiness at a specific, planned point in time. This is important for an athlete preparing for a major competition because it ensures that their training load is carefully managed (including a period of reduced training, or 'tapering', beforehand) so they arrive at the competition fully recovered and performing at their physical and mental best, rather than fatigued from excessive training or under-prepared from insufficient training.
Final answer: peaking means timing training so fitness and form reach their optimum at a planned moment — important so the athlete performs at their best at the major competition, rather than being fatigued or under-prepared.

Correct explanation of peaking (reaching optimum fitness/form at a planned time) [2]; correct reason why this matters for a major competition [1].

Periodisation means dividing a training year into distinct phases or periods — typically a pre-season phase, a competition (in-season) phase, and an off-season/transition phase — with each phase having a different training focus appropriate to that stage of the year. One benefit of periodisation is that it helps ensure the athlete peaks at the right time for the competitive season, while structured lower-intensity or rest periods (e.g. in the off-season) reduce the risk of overtraining and allow the body adequate time to recover.
Final answer: periodisation is dividing the training year into phases (pre-season, competition, off-season) with different focuses — benefit: helps the athlete peak for competition while reducing the risk of overtraining.

Correct explanation of periodisation (training year divided into distinct phases) [2]; valid benefit of using periodisation [1].

A well-structured training session should normally consist of, in order: a warm-up; the main (conditioning) activity or session content; and a cool-down.
Final answer: warm-up, main activity, cool-down.

Warm-up [1]; main/conditioning activity [1]; cool-down [1], in the correct order.

First, the warm-up should be sport-specific, including movements and actions that are relevant to, and prepare the body for, the activity that will follow, so that the muscles and joints most used in the session are properly prepared. Second, the warm-up should gradually raise heart rate and muscle temperature, and include appropriate mobility exercises or stretching, so that the muscles, tendons and joints are less likely to be strained or injured once more intense activity begins.
Final answer: the warm-up should be sport-specific (preparing the muscles/movements used in the session) and should gradually raise heart rate/temperature with mobility work, reducing the risk of injury.

Any two valid, distinct considerations, each explained [2 marks each, max 4] (e.g. sport-specificity of movements; gradual increase in heart rate/temperature and mobility work to reduce injury risk).

Reaction time is important because the sprinter must respond as quickly as possible to the starter's gun; even a small delay in reacting adds directly to overall race time and can be the difference between winning and losing. Muscular power is important for the explosive drive phase out of the blocks, as it allows the sprinter's leg muscles to generate a large amount of force very quickly, propelling them forward rapidly. Muscular speed is important as the race progresses from the blocks, allowing the sprinter's limbs to move through their range of motion as quickly as possible, increasing stride rate and helping the sprinter reach and sustain maximum velocity.
Final answer: reaction time (quick response to the gun), muscular power (explosive drive from the blocks) and muscular speed (rapid limb movement/stride rate) are all essential components of fitness for a successful 100m start.

For each of three valid components of physical fitness: correct identification [1]; clear justification linked specifically to the demands of a 100m sprint start [2] (3 marks each, max 9).

A similarity is that both continuous steady-pace (CSP) training and fartlek training are methods used to develop aerobic/cardiovascular fitness, and both typically involve sustained periods of exercise without a full stop. A difference is that CSP training is performed at a constant, steady pace and intensity throughout the whole session, whereas fartlek training deliberately varies the pace and intensity (for example alternating faster and slower running, sometimes over varied terrain) throughout the session.
Final answer: similarity — both develop aerobic fitness through sustained exercise; difference — CSP keeps a constant pace, while fartlek varies the pace/intensity throughout.

Valid similarity [1]; valid, clearly stated difference [2].

A suitable 20-minute fartlek session for an amateur football player could be structured as follows: 5 minutes light jogging as a warm-up (low intensity); 2 minutes of sprinting (high intensity), representing a fast break; 3 minutes of walking/gentle jogging recovery (low intensity); 5 minutes of moderate-paced running (medium intensity), representing sustained match running; 2 further minutes of sprinting (high intensity); and 3 minutes of easy jogging as a cool-down (low intensity). This varied structure of changing pace and intensity, with built-in recovery periods, mimics the unpredictable, stop-start demands of a football match.
Final answer: a session alternating low, medium and high-intensity phases (e.g. jogging, moderate running and sprints, with recovery periods), totalling 20 minutes and reflecting the varied pace demands of football.

Clearly varied pace/intensity across the session (at least three distinct intensity levels) [2]; appropriate, realistic durations totalling 20 minutes with at least one recovery period [1]; relevance to the changing pace demands of football [1].

(a) Suitable values to develop muscular endurance: work time per station — 45 seconds; rest time between stations — 15 seconds (short); number of circuits — 3.
(b) A relatively long work time (45 seconds) requires the muscles to sustain repeated, submaximal contractions over an extended period, directly matching the definition of muscular endurance (the ability of a muscle to keep working without becoming fatigued); a shorter work time closer to a maximal effort would instead train power. A short rest time (15 seconds) between stations means the muscles do not fully recover before the next bout of work, keeping the body working under a sustained level of muscular and metabolic stress similar to that experienced during prolonged, repeated effort — a much longer rest period, allowing near-full recovery, would instead be appropriate for developing maximum strength or power, where near-maximal effort is required on each attempt. Completing multiple circuits (3) further increases the total volume of work performed, continuing to train the muscles' ability to resist fatigue over a prolonged period, which is the essence of muscular endurance; strength or power-focused circuits would instead use fewer, higher-intensity efforts with much longer recovery.
Final answer: (a) e.g. 45 seconds' work, 15 seconds' rest, 3 circuits; (b) the long work time and short rest sustain repeated submaximal contraction and prevent full recovery, while multiple circuits add training volume — all training the muscles' ability to resist fatigue (endurance) rather than maximal force production (strength/power).

(a) Suitable work time (relatively long, e.g. 30–60 seconds) [2]; suitable rest time (short, e.g. 10–20 seconds) [2]; suitable number of circuits (multiple, e.g. 2–4) [2] (max 6).
(b) Level 3 (7–9 marks): Detailed, accurate justification of all three parameters, clearly explaining how each specifically supports muscular endurance rather than strength/power; accurate specialist vocabulary; high standard of SPaG.
Level 2 (4–6 marks): Justification of most parameters with reasonable explanation; some specialist vocabulary; generally clear and accurate.
Level 1 (1–3 marks): Basic justification of one or two parameters with limited explanation; limited vocabulary; meaning not always clear.
Level 0 (0 marks): No creditworthy content.

(a) Suitable values to develop maximum strength: load — approximately 85% of 1RM (a high load); repetitions per set — 4–6 (low); recovery time between sets — approximately 3 minutes (long).
(b) A heavy load (around 85% of 1RM) is needed because it recruits the greatest number and size of muscle fibres/motor units, forcing the muscle to produce close to its maximum possible force, which is the specific adaptation required for maximum strength; a much lighter load would not sufficiently stress the muscle to produce this adaptation. A low number of repetitions (4–6) ensures each repetition can be performed at close to maximal effort, since attempting many more repetitions at this heavy a load would not be possible — using higher repetitions with a lighter load instead trains muscular endurance, not maximum strength. A long recovery time (around 3 minutes) between sets allows the muscle's energy stores (the ATP-PC system) to be substantially replenished, so that the next set can also be performed at a near-maximal effort; a much shorter recovery period, as used in endurance-focused training, would not allow sufficient recovery and would force the muscle to work at a reduced, submaximal load instead.
Final answer: (a) e.g. 85% of 1RM, 4–6 reps, 3 minutes' recovery; (b) the heavy load maximises motor unit recruitment/force production, the low reps keep each effort near-maximal, and the long recovery allows near-full replenishment so every set is also near-maximal — all specific to developing maximum strength rather than endurance.

(a) Suitable load (high, e.g. 80–90% of 1RM) [2]; suitable repetitions (low, e.g. 3–6) [2]; suitable recovery time (long, e.g. 2–5 minutes) [2] (max 6).
(b) Level 3 (6–8 marks): Detailed, accurate justification of all three parameters, clearly explaining how each specifically supports maximum strength rather than endurance; accurate specialist vocabulary; high standard of SPaG.
Level 2 (3–5 marks): Justification of most parameters with reasonable explanation; some specialist vocabulary; generally clear and accurate.
Level 1 (1–2 marks): Basic justification of one parameter with limited explanation; limited vocabulary; meaning not always clear.
Level 0 (0 marks): No creditworthy content.

(i) The gymnastics forward roll performed alone on a mat is a closed skill, because it is performed in a stable, predictable environment that does not change from attempt to attempt (the mat, space and starting position remain constant), allowing the performer to plan and execute the movement without needing to adapt to external changes.
(ii) The rugby pass made during a fast-moving, live game is an open skill, because it is performed in a constantly changing, unpredictable environment (the movement of opponents, teammates and the ball), requiring the performer to continuously read the situation and adapt the skill (e.g. timing, direction, force) in response to what is happening around them.
(b) A tennis serve would be placed towards the complex end of the basic–complex continuum, because it involves a number of interrelated actions performed in a precise sequence (ball toss, backswing, weight transfer, contact and follow-through) with a high degree of coordination, timing and decision-making required, unlike a basic skill, which involves few decisions and a simple movement pattern.
Final answer: (i) closed (stable, unchanging environment); (ii) open (changing, unpredictable environment); (b) complex (multiple interrelated, precisely-timed movements requiring high coordination).

(i) Correct classification (closed) [1]; valid justification (stable/unchanging environment) [1]. (ii) Correct classification (open) [1]; valid justification (changing/unpredictable environment) [1]. (b) Correct classification (complex) [1]; valid justification (multiple interrelated movements/high coordination and information-processing demand) [1].

The three stages of learning a new skill, in order from beginner to expert, are: the cognitive stage, the associative stage, and the autonomous stage.
Final answer: cognitive, associative, autonomous.

Cognitive [1]; associative [1]; autonomous [1], in the correct order.

Visual guidance involves the performer watching a demonstration (for example by a coach, teammate or video) of the skill being performed correctly, whereas verbal guidance involves the performer being given spoken explanations or instructions describing how to perform the skill. Visual guidance is particularly useful for a beginner at the early, cognitive stage of learning, because seeing a correct demonstration helps the beginner form an accurate mental picture of what the skill should look like, before they attempt to reproduce it themselves.
Final answer: visual guidance is a demonstration, verbal guidance is spoken instruction; visual guidance is especially useful at the cognitive (early) stage, to give the beginner a clear mental picture of the skill.

Correct distinction between visual and verbal guidance [2]; correct statement of when visual guidance is particularly useful (early/cognitive stage) [1].

Intrinsic feedback is feedback that comes from within the performer themselves, based on their own feel or kinaesthetic sense of the movement — for example, a gymnast sensing that their landing was off-balance. Extrinsic feedback is feedback that comes from an external source outside the performer, such as a coach, teammate or spectator — for example, a coach telling a player that their passing technique was incorrect.
Final answer: intrinsic feedback comes from within the performer (e.g. feeling a landing was off-balance); extrinsic feedback comes from an external source (e.g. a coach's comment on technique).

Correct distinction between intrinsic and extrinsic feedback [1]; valid example of intrinsic feedback [1]; valid example of extrinsic feedback [1].

When a performer's level of arousal is too low, they may lack the alertness, motivation and concentration needed for the task; this can result in slow reactions, reduced effort and general under-performance, as the performer is simply not psychologically 'switched on' and ready to perform. When arousal is too high (excessive), the performer may become overly tense and anxious; this increased muscular tension can disrupt fine motor control (for example causing a golfer's putting stroke to become jerky), while heightened anxiety can also narrow or scatter the performer's attention and impair clear decision-making, leading to rushed or poor-quality actions. Sporting performance therefore tends to be best when arousal is at a level appropriate to the performer and the demands of the task — neither too low nor too high.
Final answer: too little arousal causes a lack of alertness/motivation and slow, under-powered performance; too much arousal causes excessive tension, poor fine motor control and impaired decision-making — performance is best at an appropriate, moderate level of arousal.

Correct explanation of the effect of low arousal on performance, with example/detail [3]; correct explanation of the effect of high/excessive arousal on performance, with example/detail [3].

The SMART principle stands for: Specific — the goal clearly states exactly what is to be achieved; Measurable — progress towards the goal can be objectively measured; Achievable — the goal is realistically attainable for the individual; Realistic/Relevant — the goal is appropriate and relevant to the performer's needs; and Time-bound — the goal includes a clear deadline or timeframe for achieving it.
Final answer: Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic/Relevant, Time-bound.

Correct expansion of each letter — S [1 combined with M], M, A, R, T as appropriate — award up to 4 marks for correct coverage of Specific, Measurable, Achievable, and Realistic/Time-bound (any reasonable division across the 5 terms, max 4).

Indicative content: distributed (spaced) practice involves practice attempts separated by rest periods, allowing the performer to recover physically and mentally between attempts and giving time to process feedback and consolidate learning; this is generally more suitable for learning a new, complex and potentially risky skill such as a gymnastics sequence, since fatigue increases the likelihood of technical errors and injury. Massed practice involves practice attempts with little or no rest between them; while this can suit simple, well-learned or low-risk skills, or highly motivated performers who benefit from repetition, it is generally less suitable for a beginner learning a complex gymnastics sequence, as fatigue is likely to build quickly, increasing the risk of poor technique and injury and potentially reinforcing incorrect movement patterns. On balance, distributed practice would likely be the more effective and safer choice in this specific case.
Final answer: distributed (spaced) practice, with adequate rest between attempts, is generally the more effective and safer approach for a beginner learning a new, complex and potentially risky gymnastics sequence, compared with massed practice, which risks fatigue-related errors and injury.

Level 3 (5–6 marks): Detailed, accurate evaluation of both massed and distributed practice, clearly applied to the complexity/risk of a gymnastics sequence for a beginner, with a justified conclusion; accurate specialist vocabulary; high standard of SPaG.
Level 2 (3–4 marks): Description of both massed and distributed practice with some evaluation/application to the scenario; some specialist vocabulary; generally clear and accurate.
Level 1 (1–2 marks): Basic description of one type of practice timing with limited evaluation; limited vocabulary; meaning not always clear.
Level 0 (0 marks): No creditworthy content.